Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Amy ACVPM Study > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What does it mean to be a category A bioterrorism agent?

A

Easy to transmit, increased mortality, major public impact, public panic and requires special action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 6 components of the National Preparedness System?

A

1) Identify and assessing risk
2) Estimating Compatibility Requirements
3) Building and Sustaining Capabilities
4) Planning to deliver capabilities
5) Validating Capabilities
6) Reviewing and Updating Capabilities (resources and plans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the APHIS operational program units?

A
  1. Animal Core
  2. Biotechnology & Regulatory Services
  3. International Services & Trade Support Team
  4. Plant Protection & Quarantine
  5. Veterinary Services
  6. Wildlife Services
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the APHIS management support services?

A
  1. Emergency & Regulatory Support Services
  2. Legislative & Public Affairs
  3. Marketing & Regulatory Programs (Business Services)
  4. Native American Working Group
  5. Policy and Program Development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the APHIS Offices?

A
  1. Civil Rights
  2. Diversity & Inclusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the Category A Bioterrorism Agents?

A
  1. Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
  2. Botulism (Clostridium Botulinum Toxin)
  3. Plaque (Yersinia pestis)
  4. Small Pox (Variola major)
  5. Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)
  6. Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (Filovirus - Ebola, Marburg & Arenaviruses - Lassa, Machupo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does it mean to be a Category B Bioterrorism Agents (Enhanced Surveillance Required)?

A

Moderate ability to transmit, moderate morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the Category B Bioterrorism Agents (Enhanced Surveillance Required)?

A
  1. Brucellosis species
  2. Epsilon toxin of C. perfringens
  3. Food Safety Threats (Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli O157:H7
  4. Glanders (Burkholderia mallei)
  5. Melioidosis (Burkholderia pseudo mallei)
  6. Psittacosis (Clamydia Psittaci)
  7. Q Fever (Coxiella burnetii)
  8. Ricin Toxin (Castor Beans)
  9. Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B
  10. Typhus Fever (Rickettsia prowazekii)
  11. Viral Encephalitis (Alphaviruses - EEE, VEE, WEE)
  12. Water Safety Threats (Vibrio cholera, Cryptosporidium parvum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the definition of a Bioterrorism Agent Category C?

A

Emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination. Potential for increased morbidity and mortality and major health impact (Examples: Nipah Virus - Paramyxoviridae, Henipavirus or Hantavirus - Hantaviridae - Bunyavirales)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the animal welfare act regulate?

A

The treatment of animals in research (teaching and testing), exhibition, transport and dealers (pet stores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What species does the animal welfare act include?

A

Dog, Cat, Primate, Guinea Pig, Hamster, Rabbit, Warm blooded Animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What species does the animal welfare act exclude?

A

Birds, Rats, Mice (research), Horses (not used for research), Livestock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What agency regulates Meat Products (Meat, Poultry and Egg Products)?

A

USDA - FSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What agency regulates all Seafood Products?

A

FDA - Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who regulates insect repellents?

A

EPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who regulates Oven Cleaners?

A

Consumer Product & Safety Commission (CPSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who regulates smoke detectors?

A

CPSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who regulates X-Ray Generators, Laser, MRI, Microwaves?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who regulates TV sets, over the counter antacids, human vaccines and plasma?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who regulates TV advertising for over the counter drugs?

A

FTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who regulates RX drug advertising?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who regulates all drugs and human vaccines?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who regulates baby pacifiers?

A

CPSC (unless health claims)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who regulates foot contact articles and diagnostic tools (I.e. eye charts)?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who regulates illegal drugs?

A

DEA (unless used investigational)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who regulates hair dryers?

A

CPSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who regulates labels on alcohol?

A

ATF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who regulates meat products (swine, cattle, sheep, goats and horses)?

A

USDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who regulates meat products other that swine, cattle, sheep, goats and horses?

A

FDA (example Rabbit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who regulates home canning equipment?

A

CPSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who regulates FDA product storage and FDA products produces on export?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who regulates soap?

A

CPSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who regulates the transport of psittacine birds?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who regulates pet foods?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who regulates public drinking water safety?

A

EPA (Bottled FDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who regulates childproofing products?

A

CPSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Who regulates tamper-resistant objects?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who regulates containers around FDA products?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who regulates animal grooming products?

A

Not FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who regulates animal tests/diagnostics?

A

USDA/CVB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What government departments did the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 Create?

A

NIOSH and OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 originates in what department?

A

Labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 do?

A

Requires Employers to provide workers a place of employment free from recognized hazards to safety and health. These include:
1) Exposure to toxic chemicals
2) Excessive noise levels
3) Mechanical dangers
4) Heat or cold stress
5) Unsanitary conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When does FEMA respond?

A

1) Situations that overcome capacity of states or tribes
2) Governer’s request to President
3) Joint Federal/State damage assessments (determine the extent of need)
4) Presidental declaration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the components of a VCPR?

A

1) Vet assumes responsibility for patient health
2) Owner/client agrees to comply
3) Vet has sufficient knowledge of animal to make a general diagnosis
4) Vet assumes responsibility for follow-up care, including adverse reactions or treatment failures
5) Vet maintains patient records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD)?

A

FARAD is a university-based national program that serves as the primary source for scientifically-based recommendations regarding safe withdrawal intervals of drugs and chemicals in food-producing animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the WHO criteria for characterization and prioritization of antimicrobials important to human health?

A

1) Critically Important Antibiotic (sole or only therapy available)
2) Highly Important Antibiotic (treatment of infections caused by bacteria that may be transmitted to humans from non-human sources or may acquire resistance from non-human sources
3) Important Antibiotics (Evidence of transmission of resistant bacteria or resistance genes from non-humans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the National Response Framework (NRF) lead agencies?

A

FEMA, DHS, HHS, EPA, USDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is emergency support function 6 and what agency is in charge of them?

A

Mass care, emergency assistance, housing and human services (DHS-FEMA) - Pet evacuation and sheltering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is emergency support function 8 and what agency is in charge of them?

A

Public Health and Medical Services (HHS) - National veterinary response teams, zoonosis, food safety (DOD-FDA-MOU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is emergency support function 9 and what agency is in charge of them?

A

Urban search and rescue (DHS-FEMA) - Veterinary care of working dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is emergency support function 10 and what agency is in charge of them?

A

Oil and Hazard Materials response (EPA) - vet care of contaminated animals, contaminated food (inspection and lab support)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is emergency support function 11 and what agency is in charge of them?

A

Agriculture and Natural resources (USDA) - domestic animals & poultry (DOD - USDA APHIS MOU), food safety for meat, poultry and eggs (USDA - FSIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the steps of the Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza Response Process (USDA-FSIS)?

A

1) Detect (Report to Vet or USDA)
2) Quarantine (Case manager and contact neighboring farms)
3) Appraise (Flock inventory - act compensation)
4) Depopulate (24 hours of first HPAI detection)
5) Compensate (must certify biosecurity plan and then compensation for birds and clean up)
6) Manage Disposal (USDA help dispose of safely, compensating, burial, landfill, rendering, incineration)
7) Eliminate Virus (clean, disinfect)
8) Test (Keep site empty for 21 days while USDA tests environment)
9) Restock (release from quarantine)
10) Maintain biosecurity (highest standards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does the acronym ESF stand for?

A

Emergency Support Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the acronym NRF stand for?

A

National Response Framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does the acronym ICS stand for?

A

Incident Command System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does the acronym NIMS stand for?

A

National Incident Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does the acronym FIOPS stand for?

A

Federal Interagency Operations Plans

60
Q

What does the acronym FEMA stand for?

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency

61
Q

What is the sequence of the Incident Response?

A

Incident - Local Response - Local Mutual Aid - State Response - State Declaration - National Guard - State to State Aid - Federal Assets - Federal Military Assets

62
Q

What is the individual disaster recovery response?

A

1) Contact your local emergency manager (immediate needs - food & shelter)
2) Contact insurance agent to file damage claims
3) Take care of self & family first (not property)
4) Be aware of safety issues
(Countermeasures are Response, Research and Recovery)

63
Q

What agency do the letters NIEHS represent?

A

National Institutes of Environmental Health and Safety

64
Q

What are the focus areas of the World Organization of Animal Health (formerly OIE)?

A

1) Laboratory Expertise
2) Training and Education
3) Animal Health Management
4) Animal Production
5) Veterinary Products (Efforts to prevent resistance)
6) Wildlife Health and Biodiversity

65
Q

What are the agencies involved in Food Net?

A

CDC, 10 States, USDA-FSIS, FDA

66
Q

What are the foodborne agents involved in the Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network (Food Net)?

A

1) Campylobacter
2) Cryptosporidium
3) Cyclospora
4) Listeria
5) Salmonella
6) Shiga toxin - producing E. Coli (STEC) 0157 and non- 0157
7) Shigella
8) Vibrio
9) Yersinia

67
Q

What are the acts that govern the FSIS?

A

1) Federal meat inspection act (FMIA) 1906
2) Agricultural Marketing Act (AMA) 1946
3) Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA)
4) Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA)
5) Humane Methods of Livestock Slaughter Act (1958)

68
Q

Who are the Incident Command Staff?

A

Incident Commander (Command Staff - public information officer, safety officer, liaison officer) and General Staff (Operations section chief, planning section chief, logistics section chief, finance/administration section chief)

69
Q

What are the 7 major FDA animal species?

A

Horses, Dogs, Cats, Cattle, Pigs, Turkeys and Chickens

70
Q

What are the birds considered livestock by APHIS?

A

Chickens, Doves, Ducks, Geese, Guinea Fowl, Partridges, Pea Fowl, Pheasants, Pigeons, Quail, Swans, Turkeys

71
Q

What are the FDA Recall Classes?

A

Class 1 - All products that could cause serious injury or death
Class 2 - Serious injury or temporary illness
Class 3 - Unlikely to injure, but violate regulations

72
Q

What is the headquarter location of World Organization of Animal Health (OIE)?

A

Paris

73
Q

What is the headquarter location of the CDC?

A

Atlanta

74
Q

What is the headquarter location of the WHO?

A

Geneva

75
Q

What is the headquarter location of the Food Agriculture Organization of the UN (FAO)?

A

Rome

76
Q

What are the FAD (Reportable Diseases) that effect multiple species?

A

Brucellosis melitensis
Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
Foot and Mouth Disease
Heartwater
Japanese Encephalitis
New World Screw Worm (cochliomyia hominivorax)
Old World Screw Worm (chrysomya bezziana)
Rift Valley Fever
Rinderpest
Surra (Trypanosoma evansi)
Vesicular Stomatitis

77
Q

What are the cattle FADs?

A

Bovine babesiosis
BSE
Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia
Hemorrhagic Septicemia
Lumpy Skin Disease
Trypanosomiasis (Tstse - transmitted)
Theileria

78
Q

What are the sheep and goat FADs?

A

Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia
Nairobi Sheep Disease
Peste des petits ruminants
Sheep & Goat Pox

79
Q

What are the equine FADs?

A

African Horse Sickness
Contagious Equine Metritis
Dourine
Equine Piroplasmosis
Glanders
VEE

80
Q

What are the Swine FADs?

A

ASF
CSF
Nipah Virus Encephalitis
Porcine Cysticercosis
Swine Vesicular Disease
Teschovirus Encephalitis

81
Q

What are the Avian FADs?

A

Duck Virus Hepatitis
Fowl Typhoid
HPAI
Newcastle
Turkey Rhinotracheitis

82
Q

What are the Lagomorph FADs?

A

Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease

83
Q

What are the Fish and Mollusk FADs?

A

There is a voluntary list

84
Q

What are the crustacean FADs?

A

Taura Syndrome
White Spot Syndrome Virus
Yellowhead
Infectious hypodermal and hematopoietic necrosis
Crayfish plaque
Infectious mononecrosis
White tail disease
Acute hepatopancreatic necrosis

85
Q

What are the current levels of protection of PPE masks?

A

N95 = 95% of particles (not oil resistant)
N99 = 99% of particles (not oil resistant)
R = Somewhat oil resistant
P = Strongly oil resistant
(NIOSH regulates the respirator and FDA Surgical)

86
Q

What does the resource conservation and recovery act (1976)?

A

Public law that creates a framework for the proper management of hazardous and non-hazardous solid waste (developed by the EPA). (waste management law, regulations and EPA policy & guidance)

87
Q

What is the official TB test for captive cervids?

A

Single cervical test with comparative cervical test as confirmatory (bovine and avian)

88
Q

Where is the TB surveillance area?

A

Michigan and Minnesota

89
Q

What is the Brucella Surveillance Area?

A

Greater Yellowstone ELK and Bison

90
Q

What is the most common adulterants in cooked/ready to eat meat and poultry products?

A

Listeria and Salmonella

91
Q

What is the most common adulterant in raw ground beef and raw beef products?

A

STEC

92
Q

What is the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act (FALCPA)?

A

Requires retail and food service establishments to include on the label if it contains any of the 8 major allergens and sesame seeds.

93
Q

What is at the center of the wheel of public health services?

A

Research/Equity

94
Q

Define Type I hypersensitivity

A

Immediate mediated by IgE Ab (Anaphylaxis)

95
Q

Define Type II hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic reaction by IgG or IgM Ab (anemia, blood transfusion reactions)

96
Q

Define Type III hypersensitivity

A

Reaction mediated by soluble immune complexes (lupus, drug induced illness)

97
Q

Define Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Delayed reaction mediated by cellular response (contact dermatitis)

98
Q

Define Type V hypersentivity

A

Ab produced with property of stimulating specific cell targets causing organ tissue dysfunction

99
Q

Which Diseases are Reportable in the US, but not forgien?

A

Pseudorabies
Bovine TB
Brucella abortus and suis
CWD
EIA
EVA
Scrapie

100
Q

What are the APHIS Category 1 Animals for Accreditation?

A

All animals except: food and fiber species, horses, birds, farm-raised aquatic animals, all other livestock species, and zoo animals that can transmit exotic animal diseases to livestock.

101
Q

What are the APHIS Category 2 Animals for Accreditation?

A

All Animals including food and fiber species, horses, birds, farm-raised aquatic animals, all other livestock species, and zoo animals that can transmit exotic animal diseases to livestock.

102
Q

What are the 6 USDA APHIS Eradication Program Diseases?

A

Cattle Brucellosis
Swine Brucellosis
Bovine TB
Cervid TB
Pseudorabies
Scrapie

103
Q

Which USDA Agencies (17 total) are involved in Veterinary Public Health?

A
  1. Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS)
  2. Agricultural Research Service (ARS)
  3. Animal & Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS)
  4. Food Safety & Inspection Service (FSIS)
  5. Foreign Agricultural Service (FAS)
  6. National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS)
  7. National Institute of Food & Agriculture (NIFA)
    Other program supported by USDA is Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD)
104
Q

What are the agencies in the Department of Heath & Human Services (8 are US Public Health and 3 Human Service)

A
  1. Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)
  2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  3. Food & Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Indian Health Services (IHS)
  5. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
105
Q

What are the 5 roles and functions of the Environmental Protection Agency?

A
  1. Establish and enforce regulations
  2. Offer grants
  3. Study issues affecting the environment
  4. Teach others about the environment
  5. Assist homeland security
106
Q

What is the mission of the US Fish and Wildlife Service (US FWS)?

A

Conserve, protect and enhance fish, wildlife and plants as well as their habitats. All wildlife (even parts) must be declared to them.

107
Q

What is the definition of wildlife?

A

Any wild animal (alive or dead). Even if born and bred in captivity (products, eggs or offspring)

108
Q

What is the bald eagle protection act? What year was it formed?

A
  1. No taking bald or golden eagles, including parts.
109
Q

What is and what year was the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (Flora or fauna) (CITES)?

A

Monitors and regulates global trade in many species of animals and plants (permits). Ensure commercial demand doesn’t threaten survival. 1975

110
Q

What is and what year was the endangered species act?

A
  1. Provides a framework to conserve and protect endangered and threatened species and their habitats both domestically and abroad (NOAA and US FWS)
111
Q

What is and what year was the Lacey Act?

A
  1. Prohibits accidental or intentional introduction of exotics or potentially injurious wildlife (can get permits for zoological, educational or medical/science.
112
Q

What is and what year was the Marine Mammal Protection Act?

A
  1. Prevent marine mammal species and population stocks from declining beyond the point where they ceased to be significant functioning elements of the ecosystems of which they are a part.

NOAA Fisheries is responsible for the protection of whales, dolphins, porpoises, seals, and sea lions.

U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is responsible for the protection of walrus, manatees, sea otters, and polar bears.

113
Q

What is and what year was the Migratory Bird Treaty Act?

A
  1. Makes it illegal to take, possess, import, export, transport, sell, purchase, barter, or offer for sale, purchase, or barter, any migratory bird, or the parts (feathers), nests, or eggs of such a bird except under the terms of a valid federal permit. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service issues permits for otherwise prohibited activities under the act.
114
Q

What is and what year was the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act?

A
  1. Provides authority, guidelines and directives for the Service to improve the National Wildlife Refuge System
115
Q

What is and what year was the Wild Bird Conservation Act?

A
  1. Populations of many species of exotic wild birds have declined dramatically due to habitat loss and the public’s demand for pet birds.

The Wild Bird Conservation Act (“Act”) is federal legislation enacted by Congress on October 23, 1992. It is a conservation law providing a series of measures to conserve exotic birds. Pursuant to 16 USCS § 4903, the term exotic bird means:

Any live or dead member of the class Aves that is not indigenous to the 50 States or the District of Columbia, including any egg or offspring thereof and does not include:

domestic poultry, dead sport-hunted birds, dead museum specimens, dead scientific specimens, or products manufactured from such birds

116
Q

Who has authority over African Rodents?

A

CDC. No civets (SARS/COVID) and no other rodents (Monkey Pox)

117
Q

Who has authority over animal pesticides?

A

EPA (FDA for levels allowed on food)

118
Q

What are the mission areas of the WOAH office of international epizooties?

A
  1. Transparency
  2. Scientific Information
  3. International Solidarity
  4. Sanitary Safety
119
Q

What is the Stafford Act?

A

1) The Governor can request Federal Assistance is a disaster after state and local action has been initiated.
2) Presidential Declaration -may happen without request
a. Emergency Declaration (limited and usually before an incident)
b. Major Disaster Declaration - response and recovery after
ESF 6 - makes act applicable to pets and service animals

120
Q

What are the planning Frameworks for the National Preparedness System?

A

Prevention, Protection, Mitigation, Response and Recovery

121
Q

What organisms does the National poultry improvement plan (NPIP) monitor?

A

avian influenza (fowl plague) and those produced by S. pullorum (pullorum disease), S. gallinarum (fowl typhoid), S. enterica var. enteritidis, Mycoplasma gallisepticum (MG, chronic respiratory disease, and infectious sinusitis in turkeys), M. synoviae (MS, infectious synovitis), and M. meleagridis (MM, day-old airsacculitis).

122
Q

The FDA’s Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requires that pet foods meet what standards?

A

a. Produced under sanitary conditions

b. Be truthfully labeled

c. Do not contain harmful substances

d. Be safe to eat

123
Q

What are the current VS disease eradication programs?

A

Cattle and Swine Brucellosis
Bovine and Cervid TB
Pseudorabies
Scrapie (Prion Diseases)

124
Q

Of the 10 essential Public Health Services which are under ASSESSMENT?

A

Monitor Health
Investigate and Diagnose

125
Q

Of the 10 essential Public Health Services which are under POLICY DEVELOPMENT?

A

Inform, Educate, Empower
Develop Policies
Mobilize Community Partnerships
Utilize Legal and Regulatory Actions

126
Q

Of the 10 essential Public Health Services which are under ASSURANCE?

A

Build and Maintain Infrastructure
Improve and Innovate
Build a Diverse and Skilled Workforce
Enable Equitable Access

127
Q
  1. According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species?

a. Turkey

b. Sheep

c. Pig

d. Goat

e. Pheasant

f. Llama

g. Cat

h. Horse

A

b. Sheep
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama

128
Q

Which one or more of the following is considered a foreign animal disease in the United States?

a. Aujeszky’s disease

b. Bovine babesiosis

c. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

d. Equine viral arteritis

e. Bovine viral diarrhea

f. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease

A

B. Bovine babesiosis
C. Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia

129
Q

The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals?

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory

b. Privately-owned cat

c. Iguana for sale at the pet store

d. Goat raised for meat

e. Mouse in a research laboratory

A

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory

130
Q

Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?

a. Foreign Agricultural Service

b. Food and Nutrition Service

c. National Institute of Food and Agriculture

d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

A

d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

131
Q

Which one or more of the following organisms should only be studied and worked with within the confines of a BSL-4 laboratory?
a. Nipah virus
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Marburg virus
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
f. West Nile Virus

A

a. Nipah
d. Marburg
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever

132
Q

Which of the following is/are not among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases?
a. Chronic Wasting Disease
b. Swine Brucellosis
c. Rabies
d. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
e. Equine Infectious Anemia
f. Avian Influenza

A

c. Rabies

133
Q

Parallel testing, as opposed to serial testing, is more likely to be used when which one or
more of the following are true:
a. Optimum specificity of the testing scheme is of utmost importance, even if it comes at the cost
of decreased sensitivity.
b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false
positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
d. You want the fewest false positives possible, even if that means you have more false
negatives.
e. You are more concerned about unnecessarily removing a disease-free (but test positive)
animal than allowing a truly diseased animal to evade detection.

A

b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false positives
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.

134
Q

Which one or more of the following are not considered to be among the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA) six criteria air pollutants?
a. Lead
b. Atmospheric ozone
c. Sulfur Dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide
e. Benzene

A

b. Atmospheric ozone (Atmospheric ozone = good so we don’t fry, Ground level ozone = bad, one of the six criteria air pollutants)
e. Benzene

135
Q
  1. As of January 1st, 2023 which U.S. States have not had confirmed detections of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) in commercial and/or backyard domestic bird flocks?
    a. Florida
    b. Washington
    c. Arizona
    d. Iowa
    e. Hawaii
A

e. Hawaii
(Also, WV, LA and PR

136
Q
  1. Which one or more of the following is not part of the command staff within the Incident Command System (ICS) structure:

a) Liaison officer

b) Safety officer

c) Logistics chief

d) Public information officer

e) Operations chief

A

c. Logistics Chief
e. Operations Chief

137
Q

Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration?

a) Food Safety Modernization Act

b) Egg Products Inspection Act

c) Humane Methods for Slaughter Act

d) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

e) Poultry Products Inspection Act

A

b) Egg Products Inspection Act
c) Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
e) Poultry Products Inspection Act

138
Q

Following agencies/departments fall under the USDA EXCEPT:
a. Food and Safety Inspection Service (FSIS)
b. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS)
c. Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion (CNPP)
d. Rural Housing Service (RHS)
e. Agency for Toxic Substance and Diseases Registry (ATSDR)

A

e. Agency for Toxic Substance and Diseases Registry (ATSDR)

139
Q

Under the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetics Act, new animal drugs are “unsafe” when the following applies.
a. There is no approved New Animal Drug Application (NADA) on file.
b. The drug is used in a manner that does not conform to the application..
c. When labeling is inconsistent with the application.
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

140
Q

Which one or more of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?
a. Lassa virus
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Nipah virus
d. Ricin toxin
e. Botulinum toxin
f. Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

b. Yersinia pestis
e. Botulinum toxin

141
Q

Which disease(s) have never been reported in the United States of America?
a. African Swine Fever
b. Classical Swine Fever
c. New World Screwworm
d. Heartwater
e. Foot and Mouth Disease

A

a. African Swine Fever
d. Heartwater

142
Q

Which of the following is/are not among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases?

a) Chronic Wasting Disease

b) Swine Brucellosis

c) Rabies

d) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

e) Equine Infectious Anemia

f) Avian Influenza

A

c. Rabies

143
Q

Dr. Danelle works in Mosquito City and her veterinary clinic goes through hundreds of in-house, rapid Canine Heartworm antigen test kits every spring as they test patients prior to refilling heartworm preventatives. Which agency regulates these heartworm tests?

a) FDA CVM

b) USDA AMS

c) USDA CVB

d) FDA FSAN

A

c) USDA CVB

144
Q

Amblyomma americanum is a vector for which one or more pathogens:
a. Francisella tularensis
b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
c. Heartland virus
d. Borrelia burgdorferi
e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
f. Anaplasma phagocytophilum

A

a. Francisella tularensis
b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
c. Heartland virus
e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis

145
Q

Which one or more of the following is not an APHIS operational program unit?
a. Wildlife Services
b. International Services
c. Agricultural Marketing Service
d. Plant Protection and Quarantine
e. Agricultural Research Service
f. Biotechnology Regulatory Services

A

c. Agricultural Marketing Service
e. Agricultural Research Service

Amy ACVPM Study (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions