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Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the New World Screw Worm?

A

Cochliomyia hominivorax (Control - Sterile flies)

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2
Q

What is the name of the Old World Screw Worm?

A

Chrysomya bezziana

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3
Q

What is unique about the infestation of the screw worm makes it different from other blow flies?

A

Maggots feed on live tissue

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4
Q

What is the definition of drift as it pertains to flu viruses?

A

Small changes (mutations) that can lead to changes in the surface H & A proteins

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5
Q

What is the definition of shift as it pertains to flu viruses?

A

Abrupt major changes in flu viruses resulting in entirely new H & A proteins (new subtype that may be able to infect humans)

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6
Q

What is the prioritization of zoonotic disease in the US?

A
  1. Zoonotic Flu Viruses
  2. Salmonellosis
  3. West Nile Virus
  4. Plague
  5. Emerging Coronaviruses
  6. Rabies
  7. Brucellosis
  8. Lyme Disease
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7
Q

What are the zoonotic diseases that are prioritized by the US?

A
  1. Flu
  2. Salmonella
  3. West Nile Virus
  4. Plague
  5. Emerging Coronavirus
  6. Rabies
  7. Brucellosis
  8. Lyme Disease
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8
Q

What is American Foulbrood?

A

Paenibacillus larvae
- spore former (40 year survival)
- affects all brood types
- vegetative form is gram + rod

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9
Q

What is European Foulbrood?

A

Melissococcus plutonius
- Can be treated with oxytetracycline
- stress disease
- No spores, gram +

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10
Q

What is Chalkbrood?

A

Ascosphaera apis (fungus)
- weakens hive (decrease honey)
- all larval types

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11
Q

What is Sacbrood virus?

A

Sacbrood virus is caused by the sacbrood virus (Iflavirus) which affects worker bee larvae thought to be infected by consuming contaminated water, pollen or nectar.
Weakens hive

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12
Q

What causes adult bee paralysis?

A

Chronic bee paralysis virus (CBPV) causes a disease characterized by trembling, flightless, and crawling bees, while Acute bee paralysis virus (ABPV) is commonly detected in apparently healthy colonies, usually associated to Varroa destructor.

Pollen and nectar from toxic plants (buttercup, Laurel, Jasmine and others)

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13
Q

What is Nosema?

A

caused by two species of microsporidian parasites (a type of spore forming fungus) called Nosema apis and Nosema ceranae
Guts of workers, queens and drones

Infected bees usually defecate inside the hives, leaving yellow or yellowish excrement stains on top bars of frames, bottom board, combs, as well as the inside and outside of the hive. Bees infected with Nosema apis also show signs of dysentery and pay poor attention to brood rearing, turning to guard and foraging duties undertaken by older bees. Hypopharyngeal glands of infected EHB lose the ability to produce royal jelly that is fed to brood. Sick bees with distended abdomens crawl in front of the beehives with their wings spread out.

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14
Q

What is the Varroa destructor mite?

A

The parasitic mite, Varroa destructor, is beekeepers’ public enemy #1. This parasite is present in all honey bee colonies throughout the U.S and most of the world. Varroa harm the bees both by feeding on the developing and adult bees but also by vectoring viruses while they feed.

Deformed wings

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15
Q

What is the name of the honey bee tracheal mite?

A

Ascarapis woodi - effects adult bees

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16
Q

What is the name of the Small Hive Beetle?

A

Athina tumida - feed on honey, brood, pollen

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17
Q

What is the name of the honey bee louse?

A

Braula coeca - minimal threat

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18
Q

What is the name of the wax moth larvae that damage honey combs?

A

Galleria mellonella

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19
Q

What do Influenza Types A and B cause?

A

Seasonal epidemics of disease (flu season)

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20
Q

Which is the only flu type to cause pandemics?

A

A

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21
Q

What type of illness does flu type C cause?

A

Mild illness in people, not likely epidemics

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22
Q

What species does influenza D mostly affect?

A

Cattle

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23
Q

How many Hemagglutinin Subtypes are there?

A

18

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24
Q

How many Neuraminidase Subtypes are there?

A

11

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25
Q

When does viral resassortment occur?

A

Viruses swap entire gene segments

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26
Q

How are FLU viruses detected in respiratory secretions?

A
  1. Rapid Influenza Diagnostic Tests (immunoassay with increased specificity)
  2. Rapid Molecular Tests (detect nuclei acids by amplification - increased sensitivity as compared to RIDTs)
  3. RTPCR, Viral Culture and immunofluorescence (isolation and sequencing)
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27
Q

What is the prioritization of zoonotic diseases in the US?

A

1) Flu
2) Salmonellosis
3) West Nile Virus
4) Plague
5) Emerging Coronaviruses
6) Rabies
7) Brucellosis
8) Lyme Disease

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28
Q

What are the characteristics of low pathogenicity avian influenza viruses?

A

Usually asymptomatic (H5 & H7 can become HPAI)

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29
Q

What are the characteristics of high pathogenicity avian influenza viruses?

A

Highly fatal with rapid die off (H5 & H7)

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30
Q

What species do avian influenza viruses circulate in?

A

Aquatic birds, domestic poultry, swine, horses, dogs, bats and humans (detected in whales, seals, foxes and cats)

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31
Q

What Viral Diseases do Aedes aegypti mosquitos transmit?

A

Chikungunya
EEE (Can carry VEE)
Dengue
Yellow Fever
Zika
West Nile

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32
Q

What Viral Diseases do Aedes albopictus mosquitos transmit?

A

Chikungunya
EEE
Dengue
Yellow Fever
Zika

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33
Q

What Viral Diseases do Culex spp of mosquitos transmit?

A

West Nile
Japanese Encephalitis
St. Louis Encephalitis

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34
Q

What Viral Diseases do Aedes triseriatus mosquitos transmit?

A

La Crosse Encephalitis Virus

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35
Q

What viral diseases do Haemagogus mosquitos transmit?

A

Yellow Fever

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36
Q

What are the major consequential diseases the fleas transmit?

A

Plaque (Yersinia Pestis)
Murine Typhus (Rickettsia typhi - Endemic Typhus)

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37
Q

Which type of typhus do chiggers transmit?

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi (scrub typhus)

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38
Q

What are the main organisms that lead to visceral larval migrans?

A

Toxocara canis
Toxocara cati
Baylisascaris procyonis

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39
Q

Name the 3 equine encephalitis viruses, their family and their main vector

A

EEE Togavirus Culiseta melanura (culex species mostly)
WEE Togavirus Culex and others
VEE Togavirus Culex and others

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40
Q

What is the lifecycle of the small fluke (Nanophyetus Salminicola) that can be infected with the bacteria Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A
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41
Q

What is the lifecycle of these organisms Schistosoma haematobium, S. japonicum, and S. mansoni that cause Schistosomiasis?
(2nd to Malaria in amount of people effects > 200million/year)

A
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42
Q

What is the lifecycle of Clonorchis sinensis, a trematode also known as the Chinese or Oriental liver fluke (eating raw freshwater fish - infect liver, gallbladder, bile duct)

A
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43
Q

What is the lifecycle of the Fish Tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium Latum) (Largest Human Tapeworm)?

A
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44
Q

What is the lifecycles of the Cattle Tapeworm (T. saginata) and the Pig Tapeworm (T. solium) - cysticercosis?

A
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45
Q

What is the lifecycle of cryptosporidium cyclospora (coccidian)?

A
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46
Q

What is the lifecycle of the malarial parasite?

A
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47
Q

What is heartland virus (type, transmission, species and symptoms in people)?

A

Family = bunyaviridae
Genus = phlebovirus
Transmitted by Amblyoma americanum
Species Effected - Racoons, white-tailed deer, horses, humans
People Symptoms = fever, fatigue, anorexia, decreased platelets, decreased WBCs and increased liver enzymes

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48
Q

What is heartwater (how is it transmitted, species effected, clinical signs and disease forms)?

A
  • Bacteria Ehrlichia (formerly Cowdria)
    ruminantium) (Africa, Sahara, Madagascar, Carribean)
  • Family Anaplasmataceae and Order Rickettsiales
  • Transmission - Amblyoma Ticks
  • Species - cattle, sheep, goats, white-tailed deer
  • Clinical Signs - Fever 107, anorexia, listlessness, labored respiration (very fatal - 90%)
  • Forms - peracute, acute, subacute and subclinical (possibly nervous form)
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49
Q

What are the resistance characteristics of R-type ACSSuT in strains of Salmonella Typhimurium?

A

Resistant to Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, streptomycin, sulphonamides and tetracyclines

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50
Q

What is Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea (Coronaviruses) /Transmissible Gastroenteritis-Like Virus?

A

Genus Alphacoronavirus within the family Coronaviridae
PED causes diarrhea in a large portion of swine.
Epidemic and endemic forms
Vaccines available

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51
Q

What is Peste des Petits Ruminants?

A
  • Genus - Morbillivirus
  • Family - Paramixoviridae (Similar to Rinderpest)
  • Fatal goat plague (small ruminants)
  • Vaccine available
  • Depression, fever, discharge from eyes, nose, sores in the mouth, disturbed breathing and cough, foul smelling diarrhea and death
  • Direct Contact
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52
Q

What is Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease (RHDV2)?

A
  • Genus - Lagovirus /Family - Caliciviridae
  • Spread by direct contact and indirect (food, fomites, carcasses)
  • Present in urine, feces and respiratory secretions
  • Survives a long time in the environment
  • Reportable
  • No vaccines in this country (only during outbreak - killed vaccine on a conditional license)
  • There is a live vaccine not licensed in this country at all
  • Good biosecurity
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53
Q

What is vesicular stomatitis?

A
  • Genus - vasiculovirus
  • Family - Rhabdoviridae
  • Species - Horses, Cattle, Swine, Sheep, Goats, Llamas, Alpacas, HUMANS
  • Increased morbidity and rare mortality
  • Spread - insects, animal movements, fomites
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54
Q

What is equine infectious anemia?

A
  • Genus - Lentivirus
  • Family - Retroviridae
  • Only horses
  • NO human health risk
  • Spread - insect bites, needles, mare to foal
  • Incubation - 7-45 days (carry for life)
  • Prevention best option, no vaccine
  • Coggins and if positive confirmatory testing
  • Acute, Chronic, Inapparent
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55
Q

What is Equine Viral Arteritis Virus?

A
  • Genus - Alphaarterivirus
  • Family - Arteriviridae
  • Abortions (previously unexposed mares cane have abortion rates of 70%)
  • Many non-clinical
  • Signs - decreased fertility, abortions, fever, depression, anorexia, edema (limb, prepuce, mammary), hives, conjunctivitis
  • Spread - close contact, breeding, fomites (stallions can be long term carriers)
  • Vaccine - modified live prior to breeding
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56
Q

What is Malignant Catarrhal Fever?

A
  • Family - Herpesviridae
  • Subfamily - Gammaherpesvirinae
  • Genus - Macavirus
  • Ruminant gamma herpes viruses including Alcelaphine gammaherpesvirus 1 and Ovine gammaherpesvirus 2
  • Lymphoproliferative disease, fever, oral and nasal erosions, centripetal corneal opacity
  • Typically transmitted from pregnant or recently-lambed sheep or goats (reservoir hosts) to cattle (susceptible species)
  • Separate susceptible species
  • Not zoonotic
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57
Q

What is Bovine Ephemeral Fever?

A
  • Family - Rhabdoviridae
  • Genus - Ephemerovirus
  • Species - Cattle, water buffalo, yak (Africa Mostly)
  • Clinical Signs - decreased productivity, fever, depression, serous or mucoid discharge, salivation, shivering (short duration - 10-11 days max)
  • Serology - often cross-reacts to other viruses
  • Transmission - arthropods
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58
Q

What families of viruses are carried by culicoides biting midges?

A

Orbivirus, Orthobunyaviruses, Rhabdoviruses

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59
Q

What is the incubation period for ASF?

A

4-19 days

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60
Q

What is the incubation period for CSF?

A

2-14 days

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61
Q

What is the incubation period for HPAI?

A

Up to 21 days

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62
Q

What is the incubation period for FMD?

A

2-14 days

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63
Q

What is the incubation period for vND?

A

2-6 days

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64
Q

What are the components of the disease FIREWALL in the US?

A
  1. US border protection
  2. State entry requirements
  3. Source herd health status
  4. Quarantine procedures
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65
Q

What are the Key Areas in a Biosecurity Plan?

A
  1. Animal Movement
  2. Personnel
  3. Manure/Litter/Bedding Management
  4. Feed/Water
  5. Wildlife/Rodent/Animal Control
  6. Carcass Disposal
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66
Q

What is Coccidioidomycosis or Valley Fever?

A
  • Inhalation of fungal spores
  • Dogs mostly, but variety of animals can acquire
  • Vaccine modified live gene deleted fungal vaccine q 6 months
  • Avoid high dust areas
  • Symptoms - coughing, fever, weight loss, swollen testicles, lack of appetite, lack of energy, ocular inflammation, severe joint pain, seizure, increased LN
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67
Q

What is Q Fever?

A

Agent: Coxiella Burnettii (bacteria)
Species: Goats, Sheep, Cattle, Other Mammals, Birds and Reptiles
Tissues: Feces, urine, milk or birthing fluids (can also be spread by ticks)
Illness: fever, pneumonia, muscle pain, abortions, still births
Humans: < 50% of infected humans become ill and it is the second most common laboratory infection

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68
Q

What is Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease Virus?

A

Genus: Orbivirus
Family: Reoviridae
Related to Bluetongue virus
Effects: White-tailed deer (cattle usually subclinical or mild and may still get oral ulcers)
Vector: Culicoides Midges (Prevention is control of this)
5-10 year cycle
Develop Signs in 7 days (anorexia, extreme fever, lose fear of people, blue tongue, excessive salivation (Peracute, acute and chronic forms)

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69
Q

Is Glanders Reportable to WOAH?

A

Yes Burkholderia mallii (but not Melioidosis - pseudomallii)

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70
Q

What type of virus is chikungunya?

A

Togavirus (Alphavirus)

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71
Q

Does pseudorabies cause neurologic signs in pigs?

A

No (Nipah virus does)

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72
Q

What is Seoul Virus?

A

Hantavirus (Bunyaviridae) - symptoms range from mild flu to renal failure (Carried by Brown Norway Rats)

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73
Q

What is African Horse Sickness?

A

Genus: Orbivirus
Family: Reoviridae
Effected: Horses and Occasionally dogs from eating horse meat
Arthropod borne (culicoides, mosquitoes and ticks)
Often Fatal in Horses & Mules (Zebras and African Donkeys more resistant, possible reservoirs)
Respiratory disease, cardiac disease or cyclic fever forms (fever may recover)
60 day quarantine coming from countries with it
Control: Vector control, MLV (Subunit)

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74
Q

What is Monkey Pox?

A

Genus: Orthopoxvirus
Family: Poxviridae
Vast majority of cases - no travel link
Virus in lesions, body fluids, bedding
Incubation 6-13 days (can be as long as 21 days)
2 Clades - West African - 1% Fatal & Congo Basin -10% Fatal
Smallpox vaccine is cross protective & antivirals

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75
Q

Where did Monkey Pox in the 2003 outbreak come from?

A

Pet prairie dogs - housed near imported rodents from Gahana (Gambian Giant Rats)
Agencies Involved: USDA, CDC, PHD (Lab testing, vaccine, treatment)
Embargo and prohibition of importation, interstate movement/sale and release into the environment of certain rodent species
FDA resended

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76
Q

What is African Swine Fever?

A

Only DNA arbovirus
Genus: Asfivirus
Family: Asfavirus
Orthinodoros are the only arthropod hosts

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77
Q

How is ASF transmitted?

A

Direct, Indirect, Tick Vector

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78
Q

What are ASF viral sources?

A

Blood, tissues, secretions of sick/dead

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79
Q

Which animals are carriers of ASF?

A

Warthogs, Bush pigs or pigs that have recovered from the acute or chronic form

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80
Q

What are the forms of ASF?

A

1) Peracute - sudden death
2) Acute - highly virulent
3) Subacute - moderately virulent
4) Chronic - moderate to low virulence

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81
Q

Can you differentiate ASF from CSF?

A

No
Ddx: PRRS, Erysipelas, Salmonella, Pseudorabies and other septic diseases

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82
Q

How do you test for ASF?

A

Agent identification and Serology

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83
Q

How do you remember the viruses in the family paramyxovirdae (slime beyond slime)?

A

Negative strand RNA, enveloped
They cause HARRM
Henipa (Hendra, Nipah)
Avula (Avian Paramyxovirdae)
Rubula (Measles, Mumps, Human Paraflu)
Respiro (Bovine, Porcine, Human Paraflu)
Morbilli (Rinderpest, Distemper, Phocine, Measles, Peste de pestis ruminant)

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84
Q

Teratogenic Viruses Change US

A

Bluetongue, Ibaraki (Reovirus Family) - Culicoides vector
Akabane, Schmallenberg (Bunyaviridae) - Culicoides vector
BVD - Flavivirus Family-Direct Transmission

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85
Q

Picorna viruses are A maize ING

A

Small, nonenveloped rna viruses
Transmission is fecal-oral except rhinoviruses
Poliovirus is in this group

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86
Q

Veterinary Picornaviruses (HATS)

A

Hepato: Hepatitis A
Aphtho: Bovine rhinitis, Equine rhinitis, FMD
Tescho: Porcine enterovirus
Seneca: Seneca Valley Virus (looks like FMD)

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87
Q

What are the 5 Families of Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers?
FATAL FEVERS ARE A BIG PAIN

A
  1. Filoviridae - Ebola, Marburg
  2. Flaviviridae - Dengue, Yellow Fever, Omsk Fever, West Nile, Kyasanur Forrest Disease
  3. Arenaviridae - Lassa, Junin Virus, Machupo, Sabia, Guanarito
  4. Bunyaviridae - (All Vectored Except HANTA) - Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
  5. Paramyxoviridae - Measles, Mumps, Distemper, Rinderpest, New Castle, Henipaviruses
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88
Q

Flaviviruses (family) are what type of viruses?

A

Positive, Single-stranded, enveloped RNA, arboviruses (vectored by mosquito or tick)

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89
Q

What are the Encephalitis Syndromes caused by Flaviviruses?

A

Mosquito Vectored - St. Louis, Japanese, West Nile
Tick Vectored - Kyasanur Forrest Disease, Powassan, Louping Ill

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90
Q

What are the Rash/Arthralgia Diseases caused by Flaviviruses?

A

Mosquito Vectored - Dengue, Zika

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91
Q

What are the Hemorrhagic Diseases caused by Flaviruses?

A

Mosquito Vectored - Dengue, Yellow Fever
Tick or Rodent Vectored - Omsk Hemorrhagic Fever

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92
Q

What are the 3 viral families that cause Encephalitis?

A

Toga, Flavi and Bunya

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93
Q

What are the Toga viruses that cause encephalitis?

A

Chikungunya, EEE, WEE, VEE, Ross River Virus

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94
Q

What are the Flavi viruses that cause encephalitis?

A

St Louis, West Nile, Powassan, Kyasanur Forrest, Japanese

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95
Q

What are the Bunya viruses that cause encephalitis?

A

Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever, Rift Valley, La Crosse, Hantavirus

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96
Q

What are the major diseases in the Reovirus Family in the Genus Orbivirus vectored by culicoides (non-zoonotic and can be FATAL)?

A

Blue Tongue
African Horse Sickness
Epizootic Hemorrhagic Fever
(Double Stranded DNA Viruses)

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97
Q

What are the characteristics of Blue Tongue?

A

Species: Sheep, Cattle, Deer
Symptoms: May be asymptomatic +/- abortion or severe with hemorrhage and edema

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98
Q

What are the characteristics of African Horse Sickness?

A

Species: Equids
Symptoms: Paracute lung or Subacute cardiac

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99
Q

What are the characteristics of Epizootic Hemorrhagic Fever?

A

Species: Cervids in N. America/Ibaraki Disease - same subgroup cattle (resembles blue tongue)
Symptoms: Peracute death, chronic disease (Cattle may be subclinical)

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100
Q

What type of virus is Classical Swine Fever?

A

Genus: Pestivirus
Family: Flaviviridae
Enveloped RNA

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101
Q

What are the forms of CSF?

A

Acute, Chronic, Congenital, Mild (100% Fatal)

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102
Q

True or False: If exposure to CSF happens prenatal, persistent infection is likely.

A

True

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103
Q

What are the ways CSF is transmitted?

A

Direct, Indirect, Aerosol or Wild Boar

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104
Q

Is a vaccine for CSF available?

A

Yes, MLV subunit (DIVA) in endemic countries

105
Q

What are the options for testing for CSF?

A

Virus Isolation, RT-PCR, Ag Capture ELISA, IFA and Serology (not until 21 days post exposure)

106
Q

How long can CSF survive in the refrigerator and the freezer?

A

Refrigerator = 3 months
Frozen = 4 years

107
Q

Name the 4 major Vesicular Diseases?

A

Foot & Mouth Disease (Aphthovirus, Picornavirus)
Vesicular Stomatitis (Vesiculovirus, Rhabdovirus)
Swine Vesicular Disease (Enterovirus, Picornavirus)
Vesicular Exanthema of Swine (Vesivirus, Caliciviridae)

108
Q

What species does FMD infect?

A

Cattle, PIG, sheep, goats, cloven-hooved wild and domestic animals (cervidae may act as a reservoir) (Can infect hedgehogs and elephants)

109
Q

What type of host is a pig with FMD?

A

Amplifying

110
Q

What type of host is a cow with FMD?

111
Q

What type of hosts are sheep and goats with FMD?

A

Maintenance

112
Q

What hosts does vesicular stomatitis (ONLY VESICULAR VIRUS IN THE USA) infect?

A

Horses, Humans, Mules, Donkeys, Goats, Sheep, Cattle, Pigs, Cervidae only experimentally

113
Q

What hosts does swine vesicular disease infect?

114
Q

What host does vesicular exanthema of swine infect?

A

Swine (DEEP LESIONS) and Marine Mammals

115
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with FMD?

A

High fever (2-6 days), blisters in mouth and on feet

116
Q

How many serotypes of FMD are there?

A

7 Serotypes

117
Q

How do you prevent the spread of FMD?

A

Depopulation, quarantine, increased surveillance and appropriate carcass disposal.

118
Q

What is Blue Tongue Virus?

A

Genus: Orbivirus
Family: Reoviridae
- Endemic in the US and Europe (reportable, but not immediate)
- Transmission: Culicoides (MAJOR), blood and semen
- Species: sheep, goats, cattle, buffaloes, deer, most
species of African antelope and other Artiodactyla such as camels (Cattle, goats, dromedaries, wild ruminants: generally inapparent infection)
- Can be fatal in sheep (degree of illness can be breed determined) and deer
- Incubation 4-6 days

119
Q

What are the control methods for Blue Tongue Virus?

A

Vector Control, MLV attenuated vaccines (serotype specific)
WARNING - NO MLV vaccine during heavy vector season. Virus can undergo reassortment.

120
Q

What is virulent New Castle Disease?

A

Genus: Orthoavulavirus
Family: Paramyxoviridae
3 FORMS: Lentogenic (Mild) (few outbreaks), Mesogenic (Moderate), Velogenic (very pathogenic - this one is reportable)
VERY CONTAGIOUS!

121
Q

What disease looks very similar to vND?

122
Q

What are the clinical signs of vND?

A

Respiratory signs – gasping, coughing, sneezing and rales
Nervous signs – tremors, paralyzed wings and legs, twisted necks, circling, spasms, and paralysis
Digestive signs
Diarrhoea
A partial or complete drop in egg production may occur. Eggs may be abnormal in color, shape, or surface, and have watery albumen
Mortality is variable but can be as high as 100%.

123
Q

Name the 6 types of pathogenic E. coli (non - O157:H7).

A

1) Shiga toxin producing or Enterohemorrhagic (STEC)
- HUS and bloody diarrhea
2) Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
- Traveler’s diarrhea (fever)
3) Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
- Infant diarrhea
4) Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
- Dysentery-like syndrome
5) Diffusely Adherent (DAEC)
- Pathogenicity not conclusively demonstrated
6) Enteroaggregative (EAEC)
- Persistent watery diarrhea

124
Q

What are the characteristics of gram negative bacteria?

A
  • Evolved from gram positive exotoxin warfare
  • More antibiotic resistance
  • 2 Membranes
  • Well suited for intestines
  • Endotoxins Primarily
  • No spores
  • More pathogenic species
  • E coli exotoxins make it a little different than other gram -
125
Q

What are the top 4 pathogens associated with Animals?

A

E. coli (gram - )
Salmonella (gram -)
Campylobacter (gram -)
Cryptosporidium (Eukaryotic parasite)

126
Q

What are the most common bacterial skin flora?

A
  • Staphylococcus (gram +)
  • Streptococcus (gram +)
  • Corynebacterium (gram +)
  • Proprionibacteria (gram +)
  • Pseudomonas (gram -) - moist areas
127
Q

What is the species of the second new world screwworm species? How is it different than Cochliomyia hominivorax?

A
  • Cochliomyia macellaria (Fabricius)
  • Only infests dead animals or those that already have primary infestation
128
Q

Name two gram negative bacteria that use toxins to regulate virulence genes.

A

Bordetella toxin paralyzes cilia
Vibrio cholera toxin causes rice water diarrhea

129
Q

What are unique characteristics of the gram + bacteria, Nocardia.

A
  • In dust
  • Fomite in hospitals
130
Q

What are the states that the Asian longhorned (Haemaphysalis longicornis) tick has been found in?

A

Arkansas, Connecticut, Delaware, Georgia, Kentucky, Maryland, Massachusetts, Missouri, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, Ohio, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, South Carolina, Tennessee, Virginia, and West Virginia

131
Q

What is meant by transtadial pathogen transmission in ticks?

A

Get pathogen from first host and pass

132
Q

What is meant by transovarial pathogen transmission in ticks?

A

Females pass the pathogens in the eggs

133
Q

What are the common names for the Ixodes Tick.

A

Black Legged or Deer Tick

134
Q

How many host tick is Ixodes Scapularis?

A

3 Host Tick

135
Q

What is the distribution of the Ixodes Scapularis Tick?

A

Eastern to middle US

136
Q

What is the season of the Ixodes Scapularis Tick?

A

Spring, Summer, Fall

137
Q

What major disease does Ixodes cookei transmit?

138
Q

What major disease does ixodes pacificus transmit?

A

Lyme, Anaplasma

139
Q

What major disease does ixodes myolomia transmit?

A

Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever

140
Q

List the diseases caused by Ixodes ticks in the US?

A

Lyme disease, anaplasmosis, babesiosis, Borrelia miyamotoi disease, Powassan virus disease, and ehrlichiosis associated with Ehrlichia muris eauclarensis.

141
Q

What are the common names for the Amblyomma Americanum and Maclulatum ticks (aggressive)?

A

Lonestar Tick, Gulf Cost Tick

142
Q

How many host does the Amblyoma Tick have in their lifecycle?

143
Q

What is the range of the Amblyoma Ticks

A

Most of the USA. Rapidly spreading northward

144
Q

What organisms is Amblyomma a vector to transmit?

A

Ehrlichia Ruminatium - Heartwater
Tularemia
Rickettsia Parkeri
Ehrlichia Chaffiensis and ewingii
Panola Mountain Ehrlichia (emerging pathogen)
Heartland Virus (Bunya Virus)
Bourbon Virus
STARI (Rash and disease similar to lyme)
Alpha Gal

145
Q

What is the common name for Dermacenter Ticks?

A

American Dog Tick or Wood Tick

146
Q

How many hosts do Dermacenter Ticks have in their lifecycle?

147
Q

What is the general location for Dermacenter ticks and the season?

A

East of Rockies and Pacific Coast
Spring and Summer

148
Q

What major diseases does the Dermacenter tick transmit?

A

Tularemia
Rickettsia (RMSF and Pacific Coast Fever)
Colorado Tick Fever (Coltivirus)

149
Q

What is the common name of the Rhipicephalus Tick?

A

Brown Dog Tick

150
Q

What is the range and season for the Rhipicephalus Tick?

A

Worldwide/Warmer Seasons

151
Q

How many hosts does Rhipicephalus require?

A

One host 3 times

152
Q

What diseases does Rhipicephalus trasmit?

A

RMSF
Ehrlichiosis
Anaplasma platys
Babesia
Tick Typhus
Rickettsia Conorii
If ingestion = Hepatozoan

153
Q

What are Ornithordoros (soft ticks) known to transmit (Western US)?

154
Q

What are Ornithordoros (soft ticks) known to transmit (Western US)?

A

ASF
Tick Borne Relapsing Fever
Borrelia hermsii and turicate

155
Q

How is Toxoplasmosis Gondii transmitted?

A

Undercooked meats
Soil ingestion
Mother to child
Organ Transplant

156
Q

What are the symptoms of Toxoplasma?

A

Flu-like, can cause damage to brain, eyes or other organs

157
Q

What is epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia Prowazekii
Vector = Pediculus humanus (Human Louse)

158
Q

What is Endemic typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi
Vector = Fleas (Xenophyslla cheopis)

159
Q

What is sylvatic typhus?

A

These cases occur when people are exposed to flying squirrels and their nests.

160
Q

What are the characteristics of the bacteria Bacillus anthracis?

A

Forms Endospores that can survive in the soil for centuries
Gram +

161
Q

What are the characteristics of the gram positive Clostridium Bacteria and what are the common types?

A

C. botulinum
C. tetani
C. perfringens
TOXIN! TOXIN! TOXIN!

162
Q

If a typhus organism has a geographic location in the name, what is likely?

A

Likely a tick vector and it is rickettsial in name

163
Q

What causes Scrub typhus and what is the vector?

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi (Vascular Illness)
Chiggers

164
Q

What causes Queensland tick typhus?

A

Rickettsia australis
Ixodes tick

165
Q

What causes Thai tick typhus and Flinders Island Spotted Fever?

A

R. honei, including strain “marmionii”
Rodent and Reptile TIcks (Thailand and Australia)

166
Q

What causes North Asian Tick Typhus (AKA Siberian Tick Typhus)?

A

Rickettsia sibirica
Rodent ticks (Russia, China, Mongolia)

167
Q

What causes Typhoidal Fever?

A

Salmonella typhi
Only lives in people
Get from contaminated food and water

168
Q

What causes typhoidal tularemia

A

Francisella tularensis
Glandular or typhoidal form
Bunnies carry

169
Q

What are some characteristics of MRSA

A

Alpha toxin
Hearty in environment
FOMITE
Gram +

170
Q

What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) ?

A

Rapidly progressive, invariably fatal neurodegenerative disorder believed to be caused by an abnormal isoform of a cellular glycoprotein known as the prion protein. 85% of patients, CJD occurs as a sporadic disease with no recognizable pattern of transmission

171
Q

What is variant CJD associated with?

A

BSE (transmitted to people from cow)

172
Q

What is BSE?

A

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy or mad cow disease similar to CJD in people?

173
Q

What are SRM (Specified Risk Materials) that must be removed from cattle of all ages (prevention of TSE transmission)?

A

Tonsils and the distal ileum of the
small intestine are SRMs from cattle of any age

174
Q

What are SRM (Specified Risk Materials) that must be removed from cattle 30 months of age and older (prevention of TSE transmission)?

A

Skull, brain, trigeminal ganglia (nerves attached to
the brain), eyes, spinal cord, vertebral column (excluding the vertebrae of the tail, the transverse processes of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, and the wings of the sacrum), and dorsal root ganglia (nerves attached to the spinal cord).

175
Q

What is the prion disease Kuru associated with?

A

Cannibalism Feasts In New Guinea

176
Q

What is the most common species for CWD?

177
Q

What is the most common species for Scrapie?

A

Sheep and Goats (Breeding Genetically Resistant Animals is Important)

178
Q

What is the mink prion disease called?

A

Transmissible Mink Encephalopathy

179
Q

What is the ungulate prion disease called?

A

Ungulate Spongioform Encephalopathy

180
Q

How is the nematode, Enterobius vermicularis spread?
PINWORM

A

Fecal-oral

181
Q

How is the nematode Trichuris Trichuria Spread (Whipworm)?

A

Fecal-oral and soil

182
Q

How is the nematode Ascaris lumbricoides spread (LARGE ROUNDWORM)

A

Fecal-Oral and Soil

183
Q

How is the nematode strongyloides stercoralis spread? (THREADWORM)

184
Q

What are some facts about Trematodes (FLUKES)?

A

Complex lifecycle
Usually 2+ hosts (Intermediate often SNAIL)
Hermaphrodite (except for Schistosoma)

185
Q

What are the APHIS FADs?

A

Brucellosis melitensis
CCHF
FMD
Heartwater
Japanese Encephalitis
Both Screwworms
RVF
Rinderpest (eradicated in 2011)
Surra
Vesicular Stomatitis

186
Q

What is Cyclospora cayetanensis?

A

Coccidian (Human protozoan)
FOOD BORNE ILLNESS
Cilantro, Raspberries, Basil (unsporulated oocysts)

187
Q

What is the difference between Cysticercosis and Taeniasis
Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm), Taenia solium (pork tapeworm), and Taenia asiatica (Asian tapeworm)?

A

Taeniasis - aquired by humans through inadvertent ingestion of tapeworm larvae in undercooked pork (get the tapeworm)
Cysticercosis- proglottids or eggs are ingested and the developing larvae migrate through the body and form cysts (soil, water or food)

188
Q

What are characteristics in gram + bacteria?

A

Earliest life on earth
Single membrane
More resistant to desiccation (higher fomite risk)
Endospore Potential
Exotoxin
More sensitive to antibiotics
More nonpathogenic species

189
Q

What is Ophidiomyces ophiodiicola?

A

Snake Fungal Disease (order onygenoles)
Cutaneous Disease
- not systemic - can be fatal due to secondary effects
Cause decreased rattlesnake populations in Eastern USA

190
Q

What is Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis?

A

Amphibian chytrid fungus
Causes Chytridiomycosis

191
Q

What is Pseudogymnoascus destructans?

A

Fungal infection in bats
White nose syndrome

192
Q

Oomycetes (fungus-like) have caused what notable issues?

A

Potato blight
Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome in Saltwater Fish
Soprolegnia parastica in Salmon, trout, amphibians and crustaceans
Holioticida noduliformans in abalone

193
Q

What are examples of blood coccidia (spore forming, obligate intracellular pathogens)?

A

Plasmodium (Malaria spp.)

194
Q

What are examples of tissue coccidia (spore forming, obligate intracellular pathogens)?

A

Toxoplasma gondii (#1 cause of food borne death coming from pork)

195
Q

What are examples of intestinal coccidia (spore forming, obligate intracellular pathogens)?

A

Cryptosporidium parvuum
Cyclospora cayetanensis
Cryptosporidium belli

196
Q

What is the lifecycle of the Metastrongylus (Pig Lungworm) (Nematode)

197
Q

What are the core vaccines for horses?

A

Rabies, Tetanus, WNV, EEE/WEE

198
Q

What is the disease surveillance control diagram aphis

199
Q

True or False: While there are several vaccines available for protection against both respiratory disease and abortion as a result of EHV-1 infection, at this time there is no equine licensed vaccine that has a label claim for protection against neurologic disease (EHM).

200
Q

PEDv is a coronavirus that is related to TGE virus, will tests for TGE detect PEDv?

201
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses is capable of reassortment (select all that apply)?
    a. Equine herpesvirus 1
    b. Bluetongue virus
    c. Influenza virus
    d. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus
    e. Lumpy skin disease virus
A

b. Bluetongue virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus

202
Q
  1. Which of the following paired statements about Schmallenberg viruses are correct?
    a. As an orthobunyavirus, it is non-zoonotic
    b. To address emergence of this virus in the EU, importations of live ruminants from the EU have been prohibited
    c. As detections of the virus in Europe have not occurred in the past three years, new outbreaks in the area would be considered an epidemic
    d. As the virus primarily replicates in reproductive tissue, clinical signs are only exhibited in fetuses or newborn ruminants
    e. As an enveloped virus, it is sensitive to disinfectants
A

E. As an enveloped virus, it is sensitive to disinfectants

203
Q
  1. Which of the following poxviruses is USDA notifiable and affects multiple species, but is not thought to affect humans?
    a. Sheep Pox
    b. Bovine papular stomatitis virus
    c. Fowlpox virus
    d. Swinepox virus
    e. Vaccinia virus
A

A. Sheep Pox

204
Q

True or false: The global eradication of rinderpest was primarily accomplished by administering an attenuated live vaccine to all cattle and domesticated buffalo greater than one year of age.

205
Q

What precautions should international travelers who have been on a farm or ranch take upon returning to the US?

A

Visitors should wait five days before being around livestock. Shoes should remain in the country visited and not brought back to the USA. Wash clothing worn overseas in hot water and dry with heat, best not to ever use this clothing around livestock again. Do not take phones into livestock facilities while overseas.

206
Q

When vaccinating for FMD outbreak in the USA, which species are priority for vaccination?

A

Dairy cattle since they are vulnerable and important to the food chain

207
Q

What is the correct agent name, reservoir and vector for Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi sensu stricto, white-footed mouse, Ixodes scapularis

208
Q

What is the correct agent name, reservoir and vector for Canine ehrlichiosis?

A

Ehrlichia canis, dog, Rhipicephalus sanguineus

209
Q

What is the correct agent name, reservoir and vector for Tularemia?

A

Francisella tularensis, rabbit/rodent, ixodid ticks

210
Q

What is the correct agent name, reservoir and vector for Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis, prairie dog, fleas

211
Q

According to the 2019 AAFP Feline Zoonoses Guidelines, zoonotic agents that can be spread by bite wounds from cats include

A

Rabies virus
Francisella tularensis
Bartonella
Yersinia pestis
Capnocytophaga canimorsus

212
Q

Why is vaccination for African swine fever (ASF) is not practiced?

A

ASF virus is able to interfere with various cellular signaling pathways resulting in immunomodulation, thus making the development of an efficacious vaccine very challenging

213
Q

What types of CSF vaccines are available?

A

Both modified live and subunit (marker) vaccines are available (DIVA)

214
Q

What is trichinosis?

A

Trichinellosis, also called trichinosis, results from roundworms (nematodes) from the genus Trichinella. It is a parasitic infection. It is caused by consuming undercooked or raw meat (usually pork). Trichinella spiralis species is the common cause of human disease by eating raw or undercooked pork.

215
Q

What is the incubation period for RHD?

216
Q

What are the different types of Botulism?

A

Foodborne, Infant, Wound and Inhalation

217
Q

How is infant botulism different from foodborne?

A

Different from foodborne botulism caused by ingestion of pre-formed toxins in food, it occurs when infants ingest C. botulinum spores, which germinate into bacteria that colonize in the gut and release toxins.

218
Q

Which of the following is not a vector-borne viral disease of ruminants (select all that apply)?
a. Heartwater
b. Bovine ephemeral fever
c. Akabane
d. Peste des petits ruminants
e. Lumpy skin disease

A

d. Peste des petits ruminants

219
Q

All of the following statements pertaining to rabbit hemorrhagic disease (RHD) virus are true except:
a. Because it is a non-enveloped virus, it persists easily in the environment
b. A killed vaccine is available for use only in outbreak situations
c. Incubation period is approximately 14 days
d. Stop movement is an important aspect of disease control
e. It can be spread through both direct and indirect contact

A

c. Incubation period is approximately 14 days ( 5 days but can be up to 9 day)

220
Q

Prevention against vesicular stomatitis virus is focused on which of the following?
a. Routine vaccination of susceptible animals
b. Control of biting insect vectors
c. Frequent updates to movement/health certificate requirements based on risk
d. Biosecurity interventions aimed at reduction of transmission by personnel (fomites)
e. Testing of imported feed ingredients

A

b. Control of biting insect vectors

221
Q

Which of the following is a route of transmission that, in recent years, has been of increasing concern for spread of equine infectious anemia (EIA) virus?
a. Direct contact from subclinically infected horses
b. Vectorborne transmission from stable flies
c. Iatrogenic transmission from shared needles
d. Venereal transmission through fresh or frozen semen
e. Lactogenic transmission from mare to foal

A

c. Iatrogenic transmission from shared needles

222
Q
  1. Malignant catarrhal fever virus belongs to which virus family?
    a. Herpesviridae
    b. Poxviridae
    c. Arenaviridae
    d. Bunyaviridae
    e. Flaviviridae
A

a. Herpesviridae

223
Q

Which of the following related to harvested cervids is true (select all that apply):
a. Because the natural host range for CWD appears to be limited to cervids, the CDC does not currently recommend testing for healthy-looking cervids
b. Because of the increase in incidence of CWD in cervids in the US, CDC recently changed their guidance regarding testing of harvested cervids from “recommended” to “required”
c. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends hunters test their harvested cervids for CWD prior to consumption
d. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, some states and provinces currently require mandatory submission of CWD test samples from harvested cervids
e. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends that meat or other tissues from CWD-positive animals should not be consumed.

A

c. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends hunters test their harvested cervids for CWD prior to consumption
d. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, some states and provinces currently require mandatory submission of CWD test samples from harvested cervids
e. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends that meat or other tissues from CWD-positive animals should not be consumed.

224
Q

All of the following statements pertaining to cysticercosis are true except:
A. Cysticercosis is a parasitic tissue infection caused by larval cysts of the tapeworm Taenia solium.
B. People get cysticercosis by eating undercooked pork.
C. People get cysticercosis by ingesting Taenia solium eggs found in the feces of a person who has an intestinal tapeworm.
D. Humans are the definitive host for Taenia solium; pigs are the intermediate host.

A

B. People get cysticercosis by eating undercooked pork.

225
Q

Which of the following statements regarding zoonotic salmonellosis is false?
A. Most reptiles are asymptomatic carriers of
B. Most cases of zoonotic salmonellosis are caused by typhoidal serovars of Salmonella enterica subspecies
C. Salmonella can spread from animals to people through fecal-oral transmission, mechanical transmission (flies), and eating undercooked eggs and meat.
D. Outbreaks of salmonellosis in people that were linked to pets included pet hedgehogs, small turtles, poultry, and bearded dragons.

A

B. Most cases of zoonotic salmonellosis are caused by typhoidal serovars of Salmonella enterica subspecies

226
Q

The persistently infected (PI) BVD calf
a. Was infected shortly after birth before colostral immunity was effective
b. Was infected with cytopathic BVD in-utero
c. Will normally have a positive titer for BVD three weeks after birth
d. May progress to Mucosal Disease
e. Was infected with BVD, a Paramyxovirus, in-utero

A

d. May progress to Mucosal Disease

227
Q

Which agent/disease is a DNA virus?
a. FIV
b. Rabies
c. CSF
d. RVF
e. EHV-1

228
Q

Which of the following statements about plague is false?
a. Cats are more likely to develop severe clinical signs than dogs.
b. Among domesticated animals, cats are most likely to transmit plague to humans.
c. Rodents and pikas (a type of lagomorph) are the most important host species for plague because they develop bacteremia high enough to infect flea vectors.
d. Rodents and pikas (a type of lagomorph) are the most important host species for plague because they do not become ill from the disease.
e. Plague is caused by the gram negative bacillus Yersinia pestis (family Enterobacteriaceae).

A

d. Rodents and pikas (a type of lagomorph) are the most important host species for plague because they do not become ill from the disease.

229
Q

Which of the following is not a method used to prevent plague in the U.S.?
a. Vaccinate prairie dogs
b. Vaccinate people living in endemic regions
c. Treat prairie dog burrows with insecticide
d. Administer flea preventives to pets regularly
e. Rodent-proof homes

A

b. Vaccinate people living in endemic regions

230
Q

Which of the following zoonoses is prevented through animal vaccination?
a. Rift valley fever
b. Foot and mouth disease (FMD)
c. Middle Eastern Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)
d. Tuberculosis (TB)

A

a. Rift valley fever

231
Q

Which of the following zoonotic parasites is immediately infective upon excretion from the definitive host?
a. Ancylostoma braziliense
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Toxocara canis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum

A

d. Cryptosporidium parvum

232
Q

According to CDC, which of the following is not confirmation of mpox infection in a dog?
a. Isolation of mpox in culture from a clinical specimen AND presence of mpox DNA by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing or DNA sequencing
b. Presence of mpox DNA by PCR in specimens collected from skin lesions
c. Presence of mpox DNA by PCR or DNA sequencing AND presence of anti-orthopoxvirus antibodies
d. Evidence of orthopoxvirus in pox lesions or other tissues by immunohistochemistry OR electron microscopy testing methods, AND presence of mpox DNA by PCR or DNA sequencing

A

b. Presence of mpox DNA by PCR in specimens collected from skin lesions

233
Q

Dogs are the major reservoir for what species of Leishmania?
a. Leishmania infantum
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Leishmania braziliensis
d. Leishmania mexicana

A

a. Leishmania infantum

234
Q

Which of the following is NOT an arenavirus?
a. Lassa virus
b. Chapare Hemorrhagic Fever virus
c. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever (CCHF) virus
d. Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)
e. Machupo virus

A

c. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever (CCHF) virus (bunyavirus)

235
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Hendra virus is true?
a. The virus is endemic in horses in Australia
b. The virus is highly contagious between horses
c. A vaccine is available for people at high risk of exposure
d. Human infection is characterized by influenza-like illness, multiorgan failure, and progressive encephalitis

A

d. Human infection is characterized by influenza-like illness, multiorgan failure, and progressive encephalitis

236
Q

A pregnant Boer goat aborts a fetus at the county fair while three children and their mother, who is 6 months pregnant, are standing beside the pen. What zoonotic diseases are of concern in this situation (choose all that apply)?
a. Brucellosis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Q fever
d. Leptospirosis

A

a. Brucellosis
c. Q fever
d. Leptospirosis

237
Q

Japanese Encephalitis virus:
a. Has a reservoir of pigs.
b. Is transmitted by ticks.
c. Horses and humans are dead-end hosts.
d. Resembles ASF in clinical presentation in swine.
e. Is long-lived in the environment.

A

c. Horses and humans are dead-end hosts.

238
Q

Seoul virus and Hanta virus are rodent-borne zoonotic diseases. What other viral disease is rodent spread?
a. Rat lungworm, Angiostrongylus cantonensis
b. Lassa fever
c. Plague
d. Leptospirosis
e. Rat bite fever

A

b. Lassa fever
c. Plague

239
Q

Bourbon, Heartland, Powassan. What do these diseases have in common?
a. They are all spread by Haemaphysalis longicornis.
b. They all can spread human to human and cause outbreaks.
c. All are in the viral family Flaviviridae.
d. All are tick-borne.
e. All cause neurological symptoms early in the disease.

A

d. All are tick-borne.

240
Q

Why is Candida auris is on the Critical Priority Group of WHO fungal priority pathogens list?
a. It if found primarily in pre-school aged children, often in daycare settings.
b. It is resistant to several anti-fungal drugs.
c. It lives in the environment worldwide.
d. It spreads person to person by spores in respiratory droplets.

A

b. It is resistant to several anti-fungal drugs.

241
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
a. The four types of influenza viruses are A, B, C, and D.
b. Human influenza A and B viruses cause seasonal flu epidemics almost every winter in the U.S.
c. Influenza B viruses are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics.
d. The genetic makeup of the H1N1 virus that caused the 2009 pandemic flu was a result of multiple gene reassortments of the 1918 “Spanish flu” virus with different human, swine, and avian influenza lineage viruses

A

c. Influenza B viruses are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics.

242
Q

The highly pathogenic avian influenza virus that is currently circulating in the US and many other countries worldwide, affecting wild birds, domestic poultry, and a variety of mammalian species is:
a. Clade 2.3.4.4b A(H5N1) virus
b. Clade 2.3.4.4 A(H5N1) virus
c. Clade 2.3.2.1c A(H5N1)
d. Clade 2.3.2.1d A(H5N1)

A

a. Clade 2.3.4.4b A(H5N1) virus

243
Q
  1. Which of the following zoonotic transmissions have been known to occur (choose all that apply)?
    a. H5N1 HPAI from poultry to humans
    b. H17N10 bat influenza from bats to humans
    c. H3N8 equine influenza from horses to humans
    d. H3N2 canine influenza from dogs to humans
    e. H7N2 avian influenza from cats to humans
A

a. H5N1 HPAI from poultry to humans
c. H3N8 equine influenza from horses to humans
e. H7N2 avian influenza from cats to humans

244
Q

How quickly should a poultry flock be depopulated after HPAI is detected?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

b. 24 hours

245
Q

After depopulation and carcass disposal following HPAI detection on a poultry farm, cleaning and disinfection takes an average of 2-4 weeks. How long must the farm remain empty (fallow) after cleaning and disinfection is accomplished, before environmental sampling for influenza virus PCR and isolation should begin?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days

A

c. 21 days

246
Q

During the 2022-2023 highly pathogenic avian influenza H5N1 outbreak in the U.S., the virus has been detected in which mammals (choose all that apply)?
a. Skunks
b. Bears
c. Foxes
d. Bats

A

a. Skunks
b. Bears
c. Foxes

247
Q

Avian influenza viruses belong to the genus Influenzavirus A in the family:
a. Arteriviridae
b. Flaviviridae
c. Orthomyxoviridae
d. Paramyxoviridae

A

c. Orthomyxoviridae

248
Q

Which of the following concerning poultry vaccination in the United States is false?
a. Vaccination for H5/H7 avian influenza is recommended for all poultry.
b. Vaccination for H5/H7 avian influenza is not allowed without the express agreement and permission of State and Federal authorities.
c. Turkey breeders may be vaccinated against H1/H3 swine lineage viruses to which they are uniquely susceptible.
d. Vaccines are commonly used to protect chickens, pheasants, some exotic birds (e.g., in aviaries or zoos) and other species from Newcastle disease.

A

a. Vaccination for H5/H7 avian influenza is recommended for all poultry.

249
Q

More than 100 years of work has failed to produce either a cure or a reliable vaccine for which of the following diseases:
a. Anthrax
b. Brucellosis
c. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s)
d. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
e. Rabies

A

c. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s)

250
Q

Confirmatory tests for Francisella tularensis (tularemia) include fluorescent antibody tests and agglutination testing of paired sera. Tularemia demonstrates cross-reactivity with which one of the below listed agents?
a. Rickettsia spp
b. Brucella spp
c. Hantavirus spp
d. Streptococcus spp
e. None of the above

A

b. Brucella spp

251
Q

USDA VS Select Agents and Toxins include which organism?
a. Streptococcus zooepidemicus
b. Rinderpest virus
c. STEC E. coli
d. St. Louis encephalitis
e. Dengue fever virus

A

b. Rinderpest virus

252
Q
  1. Put in order the following, from least to most effective in destroying pathogens
    a. Sterilant
    b. Disinfectants
    c. Detergents
    d. Sanitizers
A

c. Detergents
d. Sanitizers
b. Disinfectants
a. Sterilant

253
Q

The World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH, formerly OIE) Global Eradication program has the goal of eradicating which livestock disease by 2030?
a. Rinderpest
b. Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)
c. Dracunculiasis
d. Peste des petits ruminants (PPR)

A

d. Peste des petits ruminants (PPR)

254
Q

Which of the following is not a method used to prevent plague in the U.S.?
a. Vaccinate prairie dogs
b. Vaccinate people living in endemic regions
c. Treat prairie dog burrows with insecticide
d. Administer flea preventives to pets regularly
e. Rodent-proof homes

A

b. Vaccinate people living in endemic regions

255
Q

“Reduce the risk and minimize the local and global impacts of zoonotic epidemics and pandemics by understanding the linkages and drivers of emergence and spillover, adopting upstream prevention measures and strengthening One Health surveillance, early warning and response systems.”

The “Quadripartite” published this document. Give the full names of each organization in this quadripartite.
a. FAO
b. UNEP
c. WHO
d. WOAH

A

Food and Agriculture Organization
United Nations Environment Program
World Health Organization
World Organization for Animal Health

256
Q

What is a tier one select agent (HHS and USDA)

257
Q
  1. How quickly should a poultry flock be depopulated after HPAI is detected?
    a. 12 hours
    b. 24 hours
    c. 48 hours
    d. 72 hours
A

b. 24 hours

258
Q

For what length of time does CDC recommend monitoring people potentially exposed to HPAI H5N1 monitor themselves for symptoms?
a. During exposure and for 5 days after the last exposure
b. During exposure and for 10 days after the last exposure
c. During exposure and for 14 days after the last exposure
d. During exposure and for 21 days after the last exposure

A

b. During exposure and for 10 days after the last exposure

259
Q

After depopulation and carcass disposal following HPAI detection on a poultry farm, cleaning and disinfection takes an average of 2-4 weeks. How lung must the farm remain empty (fallow) after cleaning and disinfection is accomplished, before environmental sampling for influenza virus PCR and isolation should begin?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days

A

c. 21 days

Amy ACVPM Study (5 decks)

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