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Pub Health and Education Flashcards

1
Q

The Easter Bunny is planning his deliveries for the upcoming weekend. He remembers that the baby chicks in his baskets are inspected by __________, the _______ regulates shell eggs, the ________ regulates egg products, and the _______ regulates chocolate candy eggs.

a. USDA, USDA, FDA, FDA
b. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA
c. USDA, USDA, USDA, FDA
d. FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA
e. USDA, FDA, FDA, FDA

A

b. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA

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2
Q

According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species?

a. Turkey
b. Sheep
c. Pig
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama
g. Cat
h. Horse

A

b. Sheep
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama

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3
Q

Product “X” is recalled once the FDA determines that there is a high probability that the use of this product will result in serious adverse health effects to the user. Which class of recall did the FDA initiate?

a. Class I recall
b. Class II recall
c. Class III recall
d. Class IV recall

A

a. Class I recall

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4
Q

The World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) is headquartered where?

a. Washington D.C.
b. Geneva, Switzerland
c. New York City
d. Paris, France

A

d. Paris, France

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5
Q

Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act (“Farm Bill”) updated?

a. Yearly
b. Every other year
c. Every five years
d. Every 10 years

A

c. Every five years

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a food-producing animal?

a. Clenbuterol
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Vancomycin
d. Diethylstilbestrol
e. Nitrofurazone

A

b. Phenylbutazone

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7
Q

Which of the following is not part of the command staff within the incident command system structure:

a. Liaison officer
b. Safety officer
c. Planning chief
d. Public information officer

A

c. Planning chief

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?

a. Foreign Agricultural Service
b. Food and Nutrition Service
c. National Institute of Food and Agriculture
d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

A

d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

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9
Q

The CDC regulates the importation of which one or more of the following animals?

a. Horses
b. Dogs
c. Bats
d. Snakes
e. Fish
f. Monkeys
g. Ferrets

A

b. Dogs
c. Bats
d. Snakes
f. Monkeys

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10
Q

Of those listed, which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards?

a. Exposure and worker health monitoring
b. Administrative controls
c. Engineering controls
d. Personal protective equipment

A

c. Engineering controls

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11
Q

In order to permanently identify a heifer vaccinated with RB1, where is the official tattoo applied?

a. Right ear
b. Left ear
c. Inner lip
d. Tattoo is not required if animal is given an official ear tag

A

a. Right ear

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12
Q

Which of the following agencies has been delegated the authority and responsibility for controlling the interstate movement of livestock in the United States?

a. Veterinary service of State Department of Agriculture
b. Packers and Stockyards Administration
c. U.S. Department of Commerce
d. USDA Animal and Plant Inspection Service Veterinary Services
e. USDA Food Safety & Quality Service

A

d. USDA Animal and Plant Inspection Service Veterinary Services

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13
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.
b. An N100 respirator is expected to filter at least 99.97% of airborne particles but is not resistant to oils.
c. A P99 respirator has a longer certified service life than an R99 respirator.
d. All choices are correct.

A

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.

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14
Q

The National Bio and Agro-defense Facility (NBAF) will replace the aging Plum Island Animal Disease Center (PIADC) in New York. Where is NBAF located, and which agency is responsible for building the facility?

a. Ames, Iowa and USDA
b. Manhattan, Kansas and USDA
c. Ames, Iowa and DHS
d. Manhattan, Kansas and DHS

A

d. Manhattan, Kansas and DHS

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15
Q

Mycoplasma bovis is the etiologic agent in what percentage of human tuberculosis cases in the United States today?

a. M. bovis doesn’t cause tuberculosis in people
b. <2%
c. 10%
d. 25%
e. 50%

A

b. <2%

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16
Q

Approximately what percentage of OIE countries are considered free of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)?

a. 7%
b. 71%
c. 36%
d. 100%
e. 15%

A

c. 36%

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17
Q

The National Poultry Improvement Plan (NPIP) does not include testing and monitoring for which one or more organisms?

a. Salmonella enteritidis
b. Avian Influenza
c. Newcastle Disease
d. Salmonella typhoid
e. Mycoplasma meleagridis

A

c. Newcastle Disease

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18
Q

Which test for TB is the official tuberculin test for captive cervids?

a. Comparative cervical test (CCT)
b. Single cervical test (SCT)
c. Caudal fold test (CFT)
d. Dual Path Platform VetTB Assay (DPP)

A

b. Single cervical test (SCT)

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19
Q

The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice?

a. Administration of performance-enhancing drugs to racehorses
b. Slaughter and processing of horses for human consumption
c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions
d. Abandonment of unwanted horses

A

c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions

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20
Q

The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within the Department of _______, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the Department of ____.

a. Interior, Agriculture
b. Interior, Commerce
c. Agriculture, Health and Human Services
d. Agriculture, Commerce
e. Commerce, Agriculture

A

b. Interior, Commerce

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21
Q

A line of pigs has recently been genetically modified to lack detectable amounts of alpha gal,
a sugar molecule, on the surface of its cells. Which agency was responsible for approving the use of this line of pigs in the food supply?
a. FSIS
b. FDA
c. CDC
d. APHIS
e. Genetically modified animals cannot be used for food in the USA

A

b. FDA

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22
Q

Where is the headquarters of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) located?

a. Paris, France
b. Geneva, Switzerland
c. Rome, Italy
d. New York, New York

A

c. Rome, Italy

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23
Q

Which agency implements and enforces the Humane Methods for Slaughter Act (HMSA)?

a. USDA APHIS Animal Care
b. USDA APHIS Veterinary Services
c. USDA FSIS
d. FDA CFSAN

A

c. USDA FSIS

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24
Q

Which one or more of the following Foreign Animal Diseases can cause illness in Category I animals?

a. Glanders
b. Hendra
c. Rift Valley Fever
d. Classical Swine Fever
e. African Horse Sickness
f. Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease

A

Which one or more of the following Foreign Animal Diseases can cause illness in Category I animals?

a. Glanders
b. Hendra
c. Rift Valley Fever
d. Classical Swine Fever
e. African Horse Sickness
f. Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease

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25
Q

Which one or more of the following is not one of the six criteria air pollutants that the EPA must set National Ambient Air Quality Standards for, according to the Clean Air Act?

a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Atmospheric ozone
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Lead
e. Radon
f. Sulfur dioxide

A

b. Atmospheric ozone

e. Radon

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26
Q

Which one or more of the following is not one of the eight major food allergens required to be listed on product labels, according to the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (FALCPA)?

a. Fish
b. Wheat
c. Soybeans
d. Eggs
e. Corn
f. Sesame

A

e. Corn

f. Sesame

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27
Q

The separation of sick people or animals with a contagious disease from people or animals that are not sick is the practice of:

a. Isolation
b. Quarantine
c. Social distancing
d. Containment

A

a. Isolation

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28
Q

Which one or more of the following is not on the CDC list of potential Category B bioterrorism agents?

a. Burkholderia mallei
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. E. coli 0157:H7
d. Francisella tularensis
e. Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus

A

d. Francisella tularensis

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29
Q

Which one or more of the following agencies administers the Endangered Species Act?

a. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
b. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
c. Animal Plant Health Inspection Service
d. National Wildlife Foundation
e. National Park Service

A

a. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

b. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service

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30
Q

Which agency has the final say for classifying a country as free of an animal disease?

a. WHO
b. CDC
c. OIE
d. FAO

A

c. OIE

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31
Q

Which of the following agencies is not an operating division under the Department of Health and Human Services?

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
c. Indian Health Service (IHS)
d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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32
Q

Which act authorizes the Environmental Protection Agency to set maximum tolerances for pesticides used in or on foods or animal feed?

a. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act
b. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
c. Toxic Substances Control Act
d. Animal Welfare Act

A

b. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

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33
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is shown by a positive tuberculin test?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

d. Type IV

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34
Q

Which of the following species is most likely to serve as an amplifying host for Foot-and-Mouth Disease?

a. Sheep
b. Water Buffalo
c. Pig
d. Deer

A

c. Pig

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35
Q

BSL-4 labs are designed and operated for work with:

a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease
b. Agents that are normally found in the United States but are unknown pathogens
c. Agents that are only transmissible by the aerosol route
d. Well-characterized agents which do not cause disease in healthy human

A

a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease

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36
Q

The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals?

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory
b. Privately-owned cat
c. Snake for sale at the pet store
d. Goat raised for meat

A

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory

37
Q

Which one or more of the following diseases are internationally quarantinable?

a. Chicken Pox
b. Cholera
c. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
d. Diphtheria
e. Measles
f. Yellow Fever
g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
h. Plague

A

b. Cholera
c. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
d. Diphtheria
f. Yellow Fever
g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
h. Plague

38
Q

After being accredited in state A, a veterinarian establishes a practice in state B. To be able to issue health certificates on livestock movements in her new state, the veterinarian must:

a. write the state board in state B
b. practice in state B for one year
c. do nothing since her accreditation is accepted in all states
d. be licensed and accredited by state B

A

d. be licensed and accredited by state B

39
Q

The first priority of the National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB) is to increase the U.S. stockpile of which animal vaccine?

a. African Swine Fever
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. Exotic Newcastle Disease
d. Avian Influenza

A

b. Foot and Mouth Disease

40
Q

Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug (Drug A)?

a. Drug A is given SQ to Daisy the dairy goat and is labeled for use in bovines but not for use in caprines.
b. Drug A is used to treat a bacterial urinary tract infection in Fluffy the cat, but the drug label only states that Drug A is to be used in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida.
c. The drug label says to administer Drug A IM every 8 hours, but Bob works 12-hour shifts, so he administers a dose-and-a-half worth of Drug A IM every 12 hours instead.
d. The package insert for Drug A says to give a dog of Buster the dog’s weight one capsule every 12 hours for up to seven days, but Buster doesn’t seem 100% back to normal after seven days, so the veterinarian advises the owner to continue giving Drug A every 12 hours for another five days.
e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use.

A

e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use.

41
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. Spam
b. puppy food
c. chocolate-covered cherries
d. frozen spinach
e. imported caviar

A

a. Spam

42
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. aspirin
b. anti-lice shampoo
c. insect repellent
d. eye shadow
e. lipstick

A

c. insect repellent

43
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. pesticide residues in lettuce
b. canned tomatoes
c. oven cleaner
d. spaghetti
e. pet turtles

A

c. oven cleaner

44
Q 
Which one is not regulated by FDA?
a. airport security x-ray machines
b. laser products used in lumber mills
c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) diagnostic
equipment
d. smoke detectors
e. microwave ovens
A

d. smoke detectors

45
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. TV sets
b. over-the-counter antacid
c. TV ads for aspirin
d. diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus vaccine
e. human plasma

A

c. TV ads for aspirin

46
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. baby pacifiers
b. baby bottle nipples
c. ceramic ware for food use
d. coffee mugs
e. eye chart

A

a. baby pacifiers

47
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. illegal heroin use
b. veterinary tetracycline
c. barbiturates
d. medicinal oxygen
e. methadone

A

a. illegal heroin use

48
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. kidney dialysis machine
b. tongue depressor
c. toothpaste
d. fluoridated toothpaste
e. hair dryer

A

e. hair dryer

49
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. label on beer
b. ground coffee
c. coffee beans
d. rabbit meat
e. canned tuna

A

a. label on beer

50
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. home canning equipment
b. food warehouse
c. drug warehouse
d. hearing aid dispenser (retailer)
e. exporting of drugs

A

a. home canning equipment

51
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. Halloween make-up
b. theatrical make-up
c. soap
d. eye mascara
e. nail polish

A

c. soap

52
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. vaccine for horses
b. penicillin for horses
c. medicated feed for hogs
d. pet parrots
e. bird feed

A

a. vaccine for horses

53
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. tap water
b. club soda
c. bottled mineral water
d. ginger ale
e. bottled water for water cooler

A

a. tap water

54
Q 
Which one is not regulated by FDA?
a. tamper-resistant packaging for over-the-counter
(OTC) drugs
b. child-proof packaging for OTC drugs
c. plastic containers for soft drinks
d. valentine heart containing chocolates
e. a tube containing medical ointment
A

b. child-proof packaging for OTC drugs

55
Q

Which one is not regulated by FDA?

a. grooming cream for dogs
b. artificial limb for dogs
c. laser scanner at supermarket checkout
d. mercury vapor lamps
e. vitamin C tablets

A

a. grooming cream for dogs

56
Q

Select the biosafety level described by the conditions of the following example. Levels are listed below.

A microbiology graduate student is working on a project under the following conditions:

Work is conducted on a standard laboratory table or bench.
A nonpathogenic laboratory strain of E. coli is being used.
Minimal PPE, such as a lab coat, gloves, and eye protection might be worn but are not necessary.

a. BSL-1
b. BSL-2
c. BSL-3
d. BSL-4

A

a. BSL-1

57
Q

Select the biosafety level described by the conditions of the following example. Levels are listed below.

Work is conducted on a standard laboratory bench in a contained area.
PPE, including a lab coat, gloves, and eye protection are being used to reduce accidental infection.

a. BSL-1
b. BSL-2
c. BSL-3
d. BSL-4

A

b. BSL-2

58
Q 
If Rabies is suspected in a vaccinated animal it should be reported to:
a) public health officials
b) the vaccine manufacturer
C) USDA APHIS Center for Biologics
D) FDA CVM
E) none of the above
A

a) public health officials
b) the vaccine manufacturer
C) USDA APHIS Center for Biologics

59
Q

According to the NAPHV, dogs cats, ferrets and cows should be vaccinated against rabies prior to interstate movement
True
False

A

FALSE

60
Q

Ferrets that have been vaccinated and are then exposed to rabies should be kept under the owners control for 6 months
True
False

A

False

61
Q

Rabies exposure includes all the following except:
A) Inadvertently drinking pasteurized milk from a rabies exposed animal
B: Eating thoroughly cooked animal products from an animal exposed to rabies
C) Both are considered exposures
D) Neither are considered exposures

A

D) Neither are considered exposures

62
Q

An exposed animal presented for custom slaughter for consumption should be quarantined for 45 days prior to slaughter
True
False

A

False

63
Q

Regardless of rabies vaccine status, a healthy dog, ferret or cat that exposes a person to rabies should be confined for 10 days from the time of the exposure and be given a rabies vaccine
True
False

A

FALSE

64
Q

Dogs cats and ferrets that have never been vaccinated for rabies and are exposed should be:
A) Euthanized immediately
B) If the owner is unwilling to euthanized the animal should be confined for 10 days
C) If the owner is unwilling to euthanize, Quarantined for 4 months (dog, cat) and vaccinated upon entry
D) If the owner is unwilling to euthanize Quarantined for 6 months (ferret) and vaccinated upon entry
E) A, C, D are correct

A

E) A, C, D are correct

65
Q

Circulating rabies viral antibody levels can be used as a substitute for current vaccination status when determining the need for a booster in animals
True
False

A

False

66
Q

Any drug prescribed and dispensed for extralabel use by a veterinarian or dispensed by a pharmacist on the order of a veterinarian must bear or be accompanied by labeling information adequate to assure the safe and proper use of the drug. At a minimum, such information shall include the following:

a) The name and address of the prescribing veterinarian
b) The established name of the drug (active ingredient), or, if formulated from more than one active ingredient, the established name of each ingredient.
c) Any cautionary statements
d) The veterinarian’s specified withdrawal, withholding, or discard time(s) for meat, milk, eggs, or any food which might be derived from the treated animal(s)
e) The drug manufacturer contact information

A

a) The name and address of the prescribing veterinarian
b) The established name of the drug (active ingredient), or, if formulated from more than one active ingredient, the established name of each ingredient.
c) Any cautionary statements
d) The veterinarian’s specified withdrawal, withholding, or discard time(s) for meat, milk, eggs, or any food which might be derived from the treated animal(s)

67
Q

This Act authorizes the Secretary of HHS to make and enforce regulations as may be necessary to prevent the introduction, transmission or spread of communicable diseases from foreign animal countries into the US or from one State or possession to another.

a) The Lacey Act
b) The Public Health Service Act
c) The Animal Welfare Act
d) The Animal Health Protection Act
e) None of the above

A

b) The Public Health Service Act

68
Q

Incineration provides no inactivation of prions.
True
False

A

False

69
Q

Quarantine and Euthanasia are foundational principles recommended for use when responding to a Q-fever outbreak.
True
False

A

False

70
Q

The law is intended to make more medications legally available to veterinarians and animal owners for the treatment of minor animal species and uncommon diseases in the major animal species.

A

Minor Use and Minor Species (MUMS) Animal Health Act (2001)

71
Q

Recommendations for the use of rabies vaccines for the protection of rabies in humans is published by:

a) FDA, Center of Veterinary Medicine
b) American Medical Association
c) Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices
d) Council of State and Territorial Epidemiologist
e) None of the above

A

c) Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices

72
Q

Within the Incident Command System, the Logistics Section is responsible for providing all the following except:
A) Transportation
B) Communications
C) Manage all financial aspects of an incident
D) Supplies
E) Food services (for responders)

A

C) Manage all financial aspects of an incident

73
Q

__________ separates sick people with a contagious disease from people who are not sick.

A

Isolation

74
Q

__________ separates and restricts the movement of people who were exposed to a contagious disease to see if they become sick.

A

Quarantine

75
Q

On Nov. 25, 2015- this Agency released a final rule establishing an inspection program for fish under the order Siluriformes, including catfish. The final rule, which applies to both domestically-raised and imported Siluriformes fish, was developed in order to implement provisions required by the 2014 Farm Bill. The rule will become effective in March 2016, 90 days after it publishes in the Federal Register.
A) The Food and Drug Administration (Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition)
B) The Food and Drug Administration (Center of Veterinary Medicine: Aquaculture Research Lab)
C) The United States Department of Agriculture (Food Safety and Inspection Service)
D) The United States Department of Agriculture (Food and Nutrition Service)
E) None of these above

A

C) The United States Department of Agriculture (Food Safety and Inspection Service)

76
Q

The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine performs all of the following functions except:
A) Evaluate animal drugs to ensure that they are safe and effective for its intended purpose
B) Regulate veterinary biologics (vaccines, bacterins, antisera, diagnostic kits, and other products of biological origin)
C) Monitor antimicrobial resistant bacteria in retail meat
D) Enforce violations regarding animal drug residues in meat and poultry products
E) Partner with Codex Alimentarius to harmonize international food standards

A

B) Regulate veterinary biologics (vaccines, bacterins, antisera, diagnostic kits, and other products of biological origin)

77
Q

The Model Infection Control Plan for Veterinary Practices is published by
A) AVMA
B) National Animal Care and Control Association
C) National Association of State Public Health Veterinarians
D) American Public Health Association

A

C) National Association of State Public Health Veterinarians

78
Q

a) State and local health departments
b) USDA
c) FDA
d) CDC
e) All are members of this program

A

e) All are members of this program

79
Q

Dog and Cat Import authority rest primarily under this agency.

a) FDA
b) APHIS
c) Department of the Interior (DOI)
d) CDC
e) FSIS

A

d) CDC

80
Q

Cats are not required to have proof of rabies vaccination for importation into the United States.
True
False

A

True

81
Q

What is the role of OIE?

A

The OIE is the intergovernmental organization responsible for improving animal health worldwide. It is recognized as a reference organization by the World Trade Organization (WTO) and in 2014 had a total of 180 Member Countries. The OIE maintains permanent relations with 45 other international and regional organizations and has Regional and sub-regional Offices on every continent.
OIE member countries report animal diseases that are detected on its territory to OIE, and the OIE then disseminates the information to other countries. This dissemination of information allows neighboring countries to take the necessary preventive actions to minimize the chances of the disease entering into their country. This information also includes diseases transmissible to humans and intentional introduction of pathogens. Information is sent out immediately or periodically depending on the seriousness of the disease.

82
Q

This National Veterinary Response team is a cadre of individuals within the National Disaster Medical System who are all the following except:

a) Provide research and support during disasters
b) Full time government employees
c) Private citizens hired as intermittent government employees when personnel are activated
d) Reside under the US Department of Health and Human Services

A

b) Full time government employees

83
Q 
Opportunities for veterinarians to assist with animal health emergency response teams exist
at what level?
A. Federal level
B. State level
C. County level
D. Nongovernmental organizations
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

84
Q

Which of the following Emergency Support Function Annexes of the National Response
Framework applies to the response to animal pest and disease outbreaks?
A. ESF #6: Mass Care, Emergency Assistance, Temporary Housing, and Human Services
B. ESF #8: Public Health and Medical Services
C. ESF #9: Search and Rescue
D. ESF #11: Agriculture and Natural Resources
E. ESF #13: Public Safety and Security

A

D. ESF #11: Agriculture and Natural Resources

85
Q

As outlined in the Emergency Support Function #11 of the National Response Framework,
which Federal agency is the ESF coordinating agency for responding to animal and agricultural
health issues?
A. U.S. Department of the Interior
B. Federal Emergency Management Agency
C. Department of Commerce
D. U.S. Department of Agriculture
E. Department of Health and Human Services

A

D. U.S. Department of Agriculture

86
Q 
Which of the following outlines the organizational structure or hierarchy used at the site of an
animal health emergency?
A. National Response Framework
B. National Incident Management System
C. Emergency Support Function Annexes
D. Incident Command System
E. Incident Command Post
A

D. Incident Command System

87
Q

Which of the following best describes the responsibilities of the Incident Commander?
A. Develops incident objectives and provides overall management of all aspects of the
on-site response
B. Communicates incident information to the public, media, incident personnel, and
other stakeholders
C. Serves as the primary contact for supporting agencies assisting at an incident
D. Monitors safety conditions and develops measures to ensure the safety of everyone at
the incident site
E. Obtains supplies, facilities, food, communications, and transportation

A

A. Develops incident objectives and provides overall management of all aspects of the
on-site response

88
Q

Which of the following contains a library of resources and tools, such as guidelines and
standard operating procedures, for the response to high consequence animal disease events
(e.g., foreign animal disease)?
A. Incident Command System (ICS)
B. National Response Framework (NRF)
C. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
D. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
E. Foreign Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Plan (FAD PReP)

A

E. Foreign Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Plan (FAD PReP)

89
Q

The health and safety of responders during a response is a key consideration. Health and safety
issues to be aware of include which of the following?
A. Physical hazards, such as bites, kicks, slips, trips, and falls
B. Psychological stresses, such as long work hours, reduced sleep, or compassion fatigue
C. Environmental hazards, such as hazardous weather, loud noises, or insect bites
D. Zoonotic disease risks, such as avian influenza or vesicular stomatitis
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

VPM PREP (5 decks)

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