Environmental Health/ Toxicology Flashcards
1
Q
Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes and increased urine aminolevulinic acid would be indicative of what toxicity?
a. Nitrate.
b. Mercury.
c. Arsenic.
d. Lead.
e. Thallium.
A
d. Lead
2
Q
Which one of the following elements, used as a fungicide, may be toxic to swine and to humans eating pork from swine that have ingested the element?
a. Mercury.
b. Iron.
c. Copper.
d. Molybdenum.
e. Cobalt.
A
a. Mercury
3
Q
Legionnaire’s Disease is caused by a:
a. Virus.
b. Rickettsia.
c. Bacteria.
d. Fungus.
e. Preformed toxin.
A
c. Bacteria
4
Q
Soil types and underlying geological structure recommended by EPA for feedlots are:
a. highly permeable loose soils.
b. shallow soils over fractured bedrock.
c. soils with shallow water tables.
d. heavy soils with low infiltration or seepage rates.
e. sandy loam.
A
d. heavy soils with low infiltration or seepage rates
5
Q
Contamination of ground water from feedlots is hazardous because of the threat of:
a. nitrate poisoning.
b. algae poisoning.
c. enterotoxemia.
d. spreading tetanus.
e. mercurial poisoning.
A
a. nitrate poisoning
6
Q
Which of the following has proven to be most effective in the screwworm eradication program in the United States?
a. Treatment of all wounds.
b. Use of sterile female screwworm flies.
c. Spraying all available livestock.
d. Releasing sterile male screwworm flies.
e. Spraying all swamp lands with insecticides
A
d. Releasing sterile male screwworm flies
7
Q
When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to:
a. provide additional oxygen.
b. prevent backsiphonage.
c. keep an open flow of water.
d. aid in collecting condensates.
e. maintain pressure
A
b. prevent backsiphonage
8
Q
The primary vector for transmitting St. Louis Encephalitis is:
a. Cochliomyia macellaria.
b. Culicoides vaviipennis.
c. Culex tarsalis.
d. Aedes solicitans.
e. Cochliomyia americana.
A
c. Culex tarsalis
9
Q
The most frequent carcinogenic effect of high levels of total body irradiation is:
a. thyroid carcinoma.
b. leukemia.
c. bone sarcoma.
d. skin carcinoma.
e. gum carcinoma.
A
b. leukemia.
10
Q
Idiopathic methemoglobinemia may be caused from water containing high amounts of:
a. mercury.
b. arsenic.
c. lead.
d. nitrate-nitrite.
e. phosphates.
A
d. nitrate-nitrite
11
Q
Triatoma vectors transmit Chagas’ disease by:
a. contaminating food supplies.
b. bite.
c. contamination of eye tissues.
d. fecal contamination of bite.
e. invasion through skin.
A
d. fecal contamination of bite.
12
Q
In a mosquito program, fogging will control:
a. adults and larvae.
b. only larvae.
c. eggs and adults and larvae.
d. adults only.
e. eggs only.
A
d. adults only
13
Q
The Michigan problem associated with PBB in cattle, hogs, sheep, and poultry has been attributed to:
a. an infectious agent.
b. contaminated feed.
c. aerosol pollutants.
d. impurities in drinking water.
e. improper waste disposal.
A
b. contaminated feed
14
Q
Seed oats treated with mercurial compounds on a farm:
a. may be mixed with 50% untreated grain and fed.
b. should be destroyed.
c. may be mixed with supplement and fed to hogs.
d. should be colored pink and sold as grain.
e. may be detoxified through the use of approved chemicals
A
b. should be destroyed
15
Q
The most common antibiotic causing public health problems is:
a. streptomycin.
b. penicillin.
c. virginiamycin.
d. erythromycin.
e. bacitracin
A
b. penicillin
16
Q
In lead poisoning in cattle, the highest concentrations of lead are most likely to be in the:
a. blood.
b. liver.
c. kidney.
d. brain.
e. gingivae
A
c. kidney
17
Q
In the design and operation of a plant utilizing radiation for the preservation of food, concern must be given to the protection of operators because the:
a. alpha radiation used represents a potential source of skin cancer.
b. intensity of the radiation source used is extremely high.
c. preserving agent, a radioactive powder, must be dusted on the food AND thus constitutes a potential internal hazard.
d. neutron source used makes shielding difficult.
e. food after irradiation is itself radioactive for awhile and must be handled carefully.
A
b. intensity of the radiation source used is extremely high.
18
Q
The color of blood observed in nitrate poisoning is:
a. bright red.
b. cherry red.
c. slight brown.
d. chocolate brown.
e. dark-unoxygenated.
A
d. chocolate brown
19
Q
Raw garbage should be boiled for minutes before being fed to swine.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25
e. 30
A
e. 30
20
Q
The most common source of arsenic toxicity for cattle is:
a. water contamination.
b. herbicides.
c. feed.
d. aerosol.
e. over medication
A
b. herbicides
21
Q
Bracken fern poisoning in the horse is characterized by:
a. motor irritability and severe icterus due to an unknown hepatoxic substance in the plant.
b. photosensitization resulting in the loss of hair and a sun-burned appearance of all unpigmented areas of the body.
c. incoordination due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.
d. a highly fatal hemorrhagic syndrome with large subcutaneous hematomas, bleeding from the body orifices, and an elevated temperature.
e. a chronic syndrome with severe lameness and loss of the long hair of the mane and tail
A
c. incoordination due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.
22
Q
The successful use of urea in cattle feed requires the consideration of several factors:
a. quality of urea used, amount of carbohydrates present in the supplement, amount of natural protein present in the ration.
b. amount of cobalt and sulfur present in the ration, rate of consumption, quality of the urea used.
c. percentage of urea contained in the total dry ration, percentage contained in the mixed protein supplement.
d. fertility of the soil where the roughage was produced, concentration of other sources of nonprotein nitrogen in the ration, rate of supplementing the feed with urea.
e. quality of the roughage, energy content of the ration, amount of natural protein present, rate of consumption, addition of urea following a preparatory period.
A
e. quality of the roughage, energy content of the ration, amount of natural protein present, rate of consumption, addition of urea following a preparatory period.
23
Q
PCB found in milk samples in dairy herds indicates:
a. a normal milk residue.
b. a need to embargo the milk.
c. a need to slaughter all animals.
d. a need to embargo the milk, determine the source of PCB, and test milk samples for compliance and tolerance levels.
e. Spring when cows go to pasture.
A
d. a need to embargo the milk, determine the source of PCB, and test milk samples for compliance and tolerance levels.
24
Q
A public drinking water supply is disinfected effectively if:
a. B.O.D. is absent.
b. coliform organisms have been destroyed.
c. the pH of the water is between 6.8 and 7.4
d. a chlorine demand test is negative.
e. the water is free from color and taste.
A
b. coliform organisms have been destroyed
25
The bacterial action in septic tanks has the effect of:
a. increasing the amount of solids to be handled.
b. improving the appearance of the effluent.
c. disposing of the sewage in a shorter period of time.
d. counteracting anaerobic bacterial action.
e. liquefying and gasifying some of the organic matter.
e. liquefying and gasifying some of the organic matter.
26
The purpose of a trap in the home plumbing is to:
a. ventilate the house drainage system.
b. prevent sewer gas from entering premises.
c. prevent the entry of rodents through the system.
d. eliminate backflow from the lines.
e. trap or hold solids that are too large to enter the system
b. prevent sewer gas from entering premises
27
The major reason why a plan for discharging sewage into streams, rivers, lakes or other bodies of natural surface water should NOT be adopted is to:
a. prevent formation of sludge banks.
b. prevent increase of BOD.
c. eliminate offensive odors or gases.
d. prevent the pollution of drinking water supplies.
e. prevent the breeding of mosquitoes and insects.
d. prevent the pollution of drinking water supplies.
28
The 'effective half-life' of a radionuclide in the body is the time required for:
a. the amount of the nuclide to be reduced to half its original value as a result of radioactive decay and natural elimination.
b. 75% of the total of the lifetime absorbed dose from the radionuclide to be yielded to the tissue.
c. the body to eliminate half of the amount of the nuclide originally taken up.
d. the body to eliminate 25% of the amount of the nuclide originally taken up.
e. the radiation from the nuclide to reduce the life span of the person by one-half
a. the amount of the nuclide to be reduced to half its original value as a result of radioactive decay and natural elimination.
29
The reason Strontium-90 is of health concern is that it concentrates in the:
a. reproductive system and produces damage to future generations.
b. bone and has a physical half life of about 30 years.
c. bone marrow and is a high-energy gamma emitter.
d. gastro-intestinal system and has a physical half-life of 27.7 years.
e. muscles and has a physical half-life of about 30 years.
b. bone and has a physical half life of about 30 years.
30
The clinical syndrome that is most commonly associated with lead poisoning in cattle, especially in calves is:
a. a severe affection of the nervous system.
b. prolonged intestinal colic with blood-flecked stools.
c. prolonged respiratory distress with epistaxis.
d. lachrymation and nasal discharge.
e. hyperkeratosis and dermatitis with extreme emaciation.
a. a severe affection of the nervous system.
31
In ruminants, in the therapy of hydrocyanic acid poisoning when speed, method of administration, and potentiation of effects are considered, the choice of antidotes is:
a. methylene blue and sodium tetrathionate.
b. potassium permanganate and sodium nitrite.
c. sodium nitrite and sodium tetrathionate.
d. sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate.
e. amyl nitrate and sodium thiosulfate.
d. sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate.
32
An air pollution control department in a city with a great many electrochemical plants receives numerous complaints from residents concerning the emission of a gas. This gas has a yellow-green color with an irritating and suffocating odor, causes damage to trees and grass in the vicinity of residences, and corrodes brass and aluminum materials on homes. This gas is most likely:
a. hydrogen sulfide.
b. chlorine.
c. ammonia.
d. sulfur dioxide.
e. methane.
b. chlorine
33
The most harmful air pollutant produced from the complete combustion of oil or coal is:
a. carbon monoxide.
b. sulfur dioxide.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. nitrogen.
e. water.
c. carbon dioxide
34
If the coliform mpn is 0-50, the water needs:
a. conventional treatment.
b. disinfection only.
c. extensive treatment.
d. no treatment.
e. filtration only.
e. filtration only
35
From a public health point of view, the greatest danger of defective plumbing is that it is associated with:
a. entrance of insects and rats from the drainage system.
b. the escape of sewer gas and air.
c. sewage leaks.
d. terminal ends.
e. cross connections.
e. cross connections.
36
The main reason that the blood from a slaughter house should NOT be discharged directly into a stream of water is that it:
a. favors the breeding of houseflies.
b. renders the water nonpotable.
c. increases the biochemical oxygen demand (bod).
d. serves as a source if infectious disease agents.
e. makes the water unsafe for irrigation of crops
e. makes the water unsafe for irrigation of crops
37
Salt poisoning or water deprivation has a mechanism of action which is NOT well understood; the etiology is well defined, however. Which of the following ions is the etiologic agent?
a. Nitrate.
b. Chloride.
c. Potassium.
d. Sulfate.
e. Sodium.
e. Sodium.
38
The best means available for odor detection is:
a. the infrared odor detection and analysis system.
b. the photoelectric odor intensity measuring machine.
c. an instrument which compares the strength of an odor with that of pure air.
d. the instrument which electrically precipitates the odoriferous material.
e. the human olfactory system.
b. the photoelectric odor intensity measuring machine.
39
When a ship with cargo arrives at port, and an inspection shows it is rat-infested, the best procedure is to:
a. unload the cargo and fumigate the ship.
b. fumigate the ship and cargo at once.
c. fumigate only that part of the cargo polluted by the rats.
d. destroy the cargo and fumigate the ship.
e. eliminate rats by trapping.
b. fumigate the ship and cargo at once
40
During a period in which the rat population in a plague-affected area is decreased as a result of disease, the immediate danger of the spread of this disease to man is:
a. increased because the infected fleas are dispersed.
b. increased because the rats are the carriers of the bacteria.
c. increased because with decreased rats, there are more virulent organisms.
d. increased because there are more fleas per rat.
e. decreased because the fleas lose their natural animal host.
a. increased because the infected fleas are dispersed
41
Fluorescein dye is used by the sanitarian for the purpose of:
a. control of odors arising from industrial waste.
b. rating of water softness.
c. determination of hydrogen ion concentration in a sample of water.
d. determination of the source of pollution of a water supply.
e. tracing of food contamination.
d. determination of the source of pollution of a water supply
42
The origin of the agent in the transmission of Typhoid Fever is:
a. generally pools of stagnant water.
b. frequently spoiled oysters.
c. usually traced to the use of insanitary privies.
d. always human associated.
e. usually from an infected cow.
d. always human associated
43
Gamma rays and X-rays, although exhibiting the same ionizing properties, differ in that:
a. gamma rays consist of electromagnetic waves and X-rays consist of blood-type radiation.
b. gamma rays originate within the nucleus of the atom and X-rays originate in the electron shell of the atom.
c. gamma rays are associated only with fissionable materials and X-rays are associated with man-made isotopes.
d. gamma rays are ejected from naturally occurring radionuclides and X-rays are ejected from artificially produced radionuclides.
e. gamma rays are produced by beta radiation and X-rays are produced by protons
b. gamma rays originate within the nucleus of the atom and X-rays originate in the electron shell of the atom.
44
An example of a viral infection transmitted by an arthropod vector is:
a. Brucellosis.
b. Louping-ill.
c. Foot and Mouth Disease.
d. Shigellosis.
e. Anaplosmis.
b. Louping-ill
45
The ionizing radiation used to preserve foods is:
a. cosmic rays.
b. Alpha rays.
c. X-rays.
d. Gamma rays.
e. Beta rays.
d. Gamma rays
46
The primary target organ for aflatoxin is the:
a. lung.
b. stomach.
c. liver.
d. spleen.
e. kidney.
c. liver
47
Which one of the following statements regarding nitrate-nitrite toxicity is most accurate?
a. Toxicity is less likely when animals are on a marginal plane of nutrition.
b. Nitrate oxidizes the iron of hemoglobin to the ferric form.
c. Nitrate toxicity is in reality an ammonia intoxication.
d. Nitrate can accumulate in certain plants in amounts toxic to animals.
e. Toxicity is less likely when plants have been shaded than when exposed to sunlight.
d. Nitrate can accumulate in certain plants in amounts toxic to animals.
48
In December 1972, the United States Food and Drug Administration issued a regulation prohibiting, with certain restrictions, the importation of live turtles or turtle eggs. The purpose of this regulation was to prevent the spread of:
a. Arizona and E. coli.
b. Salmonella and Arizona.
c. Shigella and Arizona.
d. Hepatitis.
e. Pasteurella and Corynebacterium.
b. Salmonella and Arizona.
49
Silo fillers disease is associated with toxic levels of:
a. NH.
b. CO.
c. H2.
d. CH.
e. NO2.
e. NO2.
50
Farmers Lung Disease is a result of exposure to dust containing:
a. virus.
b. rickettsia.
c. bacteria.
d. fungi.
e. particulate matter.
d. fungi
51
Which of the following gases that may occur in livestock confinement is lighter than air?
a. NH3.
b. CO2.
c. H2S.
d. SO2.
e. NO2.
a. NH3
52
Which one of the following statements concerning aflatoxins is NOT correct?
a. Aflatoxins are potent carcinogens and liver toxins and constitute a potential threat to human as well as animal health.
b. Aflatoxin B1 and B2 are converted to M1 and M2 toxins in milk.
c. There is a direct correlation between aflatoxins levels in feed and the resulting aflatoxin levels in milk.
d. Aflatoxins will be found in milk for several weeks after the toxin is eliminated from the diet.
e. Removing cracked kernels, "fines", weed seeds, storage below 14% moisture, and regular aeration significantly lower or prevent aflatoxin buildup in stored grain.
D. Aflatoxins will be found in milk for several weeks after the toxin is eliminated from the diet.
53
Which of the following plants causes rapid death in livestock due to a cardiac depressant alkaloid?
a. Taxus spp (Yew).
b. Brassica napus (Rape).
c. Melilotus spp (sweet clover).
d. Solanum spp (Nightshades).
e. Xanthium spp (cocklebur).
a. Taxus spp (Yew).
54
One of the following terms best describes the disease state which results from exposure to a poison or toxicant?
a. Toxicology.
b. Toxicity.
c. Toxicosis.
d. LD50.
e. Minimum toxic dose.
c. Toxicosis.
55
The amount of a toxin which can be ingested without deaths, illness, or physiopathologic alterations occurring in any of the animals fed the toxicant for a stated period of time is referred to as:
a. toxicity.
b. no-effect level.
c. toxic high dose.
d. toxic low dose.
e. lethal dose.
b. no-effect level.
56
One hundred grams per ton of a drug equals how many parts per million (ppm)?
a. 1.10
b. 11.0
c. 110.0
d. 1100
e. 11000
c. 110.0
57
Clinical signs of organophosphorus and carbamate poisoning are those of:
a. blockage of impulses at the neuromuscular junction.
b. blockage of the sympathetic nervous system.
c. blockage of the parasympathetic nervous system.
d. over stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.
e. over stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
e. over stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
58
Which one of the following is NOT usually associated with chronic fluorosis in livestock?
a. Intermittent lameness.
b. Dry and roughened hair coat.
c. Mottled teeth.
d. Intermittent diarrhea.
e. Exostosis and other bone deformities.
d. Intermittent diarrhea
59
Which of the following statements is most correct concerning the epidemiology of animal toxicoses?
a. In recent years, the low level contamination of meat, milk, and egg producing animals has become more important for the toxicologist and epidemiologist.
b. Housing and management of livestock and poultry in large confinement units has reduced the problems with environmental toxicants and residues.
c. Toxicosis, deaths, and overt illness due to toxicity are usually more difficult to diagnosis than the cause of insidious production losses.
d. Proper housing, nutrition and management do not greatly affect susceptibility of livestock to the effect of chronic or insidious toxins.
e. Most livestock production problems can be solved by proper usage of drugs, chemicals, and vaccines.
a. In recent years, the low level contamination of meat, milk, and egg producing animals has become more important for the toxicologist and epidemiologist
60
The major goal of a veterinarian in dairy herds with a severe coliform mastitis problem should be.
a. identify pathogenic organisms and do antibiotic sensitivity testing.
b. identify and cull infected cows.
c. treat entire herd with antibiotic infusions in the udder.
d. vaccinate the entire herd with an autogenous bacterin.
e. initiate health management procedures to prevent new infections.
e. initiate health management procedures to prevent new infections.
61
Which one of the following statements is most correct regarding Brucellosis?
a. Calves born to infected cows are usually infected and will develop a titer by two months of age.
b. Brucellosis is a true zoonosis and control in man is directly related to the prevalence in animals.
c. Artificial insemination helps control Brucellosis spread in a herd since the herd bull plays a major role in the spread of Brucellosis.
d. Eradication of the disease in an infected herd is best accomplished by vaccination with strain 19 Brucella abortus vaccine.
e. The infected cow sheds the brucella organism in large numbers throughout her lifetime.
b. Brucellosis is a true zoonosis and control in man is directly related to the prevalence in animals.
62
Polioencephalomalazia of cattle, sheep, and goats is associated with which one of the following?
a. Lead poisoning.
b. Salt poisoning or water deprivation.
c. Thiamine deficiency or destruction.
d. Haemophilus somnus infection.
e. Viral infection.
c. Thiamine deficiency or destruction
63
Which of the following would you expect to be highest in calcium on a dry matter basis?
a. Corn grain.
b. Alfalfa hay.
c. Fescue hay.
d. Corn silage.
e. Soybean meal.
b. Alfalfa hay.
64
Which one of the following has the greatest energy density on a dry matter basis?
a. Corn grain.
b. Alfalfa hay.
c. Corn silage.
d. Cottonseed hulls.
e. Wheat straw.
a. Corn grain
65
Which one of the following would you recommend to raise the calcium level of a ration without changing the phosphorus level?
a. Dicalcium phosphate.
b. Steamed bone meal.
c. Sodium acid phosphate.
d. Ground limestone.
e. Dried casein.
d. Ground limestone.
66
Which of the following is least likely to be an important water contaminant for animals?
a. Cyanide.
b. Nitrate.
c. Chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticides.
d. NaCl.
e. Salmonella spp.
a. Cyanide
67
Generally, use of organophosphate insecticide are preferred over chlorinated hydrocarbons, if efficacy is equal, because:
a. chlorinated hydrocarbons are more likely to cause acute toxicity in man and animals.
b. chlorinated hydrocarbons are generally degraded more rapidly in the environment.
c. organophosphates are degraded more rapidly in the environment and less likely to persist in the food chain.
d. Chlorinated hydrocarbons are not as effective against most insect pests.
e. Antidotes against organophosphates are much more effective.
c. organophosphates are degraded more rapidly in the environment and less likely to persist in the food chain.
68
You are called to set up a small animal emergency animal shelter in response to a disaster. The local jurisdiction gives you an enclosed building at the county fairgrounds, kennels, donated food, and volunteer help from the county jail. What consideration(s) do you need to have in setting up the shelter?
a. Separation of species
b. Airflow through the building
c. Separation of animals based on risk
d. B and C
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
69
Smaller ambient air particles (< 10 μm) are more of a health concern than larger ambient air particles (> 10 μm).
a. True
b. False
a. True
70
. Which one of the following statements concerning aflatoxins is NOT correct?
a. Aflatoxins are potent carcinogens and liver toxins and constitute a potential threat to human as well as animal health
b. Aflatoxin B1 and B2 are converted to M1 and M2 toxins in milk
c. There is a direct correlation between aflatoxins levels in feed and the resulting aflatoxin levels in milk.
d. Aflatoxins will be found in milk for several weeks after the toxin is eliminated from the diet.
e. Removing cracked kernels, "fines", weed seeds, storage below 14% moisture and regular aeration significantly lower or prevent aflatoxin buildup in stored grain.
d. Aflatoxins will be found in milk for several weeks after the toxin is eliminated from the diet.
71
. While checking animals in an emergency animal shelter during a wildfire evacuation, you observe a Blue Heeler that is reported to be coughing and sneezing regularly. Which of the following are on your differential list?
a. Parvo
b. Distemper
c. Toxin Exposure
d. Smoke Exposure
e. Collapsing trachea
b. Distemper
c. Toxin Exposure
d. Smoke Exposure
72
Which of the following are included in disaster preparedness?
a. Improve emergency response capacity and effectiveness
b. Rescuing animals that were unable to be evacuated
c. Helping victims receive aid to rebuild
d. Maintaining ICS structure for the duration of the deployment
a. Improve emergency response capacity and effectiveness
73
Which legislation mandates that disaster relief plans account for the needs of individuals with household pets and service animals?
a. Stafford Act
b. Katrina Act
c. PETS Act
d. Disaster Relief Act
c. PETS Act
74
CITES is:
a. An act protecting cities from threatened ecosystems
b. An international treaty regulating trade in threatened and endangered wildlife and plants
c. A resource for first responders to learn more about toxins during disasters
d. The Committee on Indian Toxicants Entering Seas
b. An international treaty regulating trade in threatened and endangered wildlife and plants
75
One method of treating toxicant ingestion is:
a. Feeding extra grain
b. Increasing protein in the feed
c. Feeding clay binders
d. Withholding feed until the symptoms have passed.
c. Feeding clay binders
76
Toxins can be on the Federal Select Agent Registry
a. True
b. False
a. True
77
Where might VOCs be found?
a. Disinfectants
b. Flood waters
c. Frozen meats
d. A and B
d. A and B
78
The Los Angeles type of smog is generally considered to be caused by:
a. automobile exhaust
b. power plant exhaust
c. municipal incinerator smoke
d. petroleum refinery waste
e. dust nuclei from heavy industry
a. automobile exhaust
79
To minimize air pollution from the disposal of refuse the preferred procedure is to:
a. haul the refuse to an open dump and burn it there
b. haul the refuse to a dump and use the “land fill” method
c. burn it in one large municipal incinerator
d. burn a small amount at a time in a backyard incinerator
e. develop a system of block incinerators, one for each block in the community
b. haul the refuse to a dump and use the “land fill” method
80
Contamination of animal foods with toxic chemicals has occurred a number of times in recent years. One of the most dramatic incidents occurred in 1973 and involved dairy cattle in Michigan. The clinical signs of toxicity were abortions, breeding problems, weak calves, sever drop in milk production, curling of toes and death. The chemical involved was:
a. hexachloraobenzene
b. polychlorinated biphenyls
c. polybrominaded biphenyls
d. pentachlorophenol
e. mercury
c. polybrominaded biphenyls
81
What time of year is Douglas water hemlock (Cicuta douglas) most dangerous to cattle?
a. early spring, when the young growth first appears
b. mid-summer, as the flowering stalk appears
c. late summer, when the mature seeds are present
d. late spring, when the foliage is fully developed
e. winter, when range cattle may be forced to browse on the erect flowering stalks
a. early spring, when the young growth first appears
82
PCB found in milk samples in dairy herds indicates:
a. normal residue
b. a need to embargo the milk
c. a need to slaughter all animals
d. a need to embargo milk; determine source of PCB; and treat milk samples for compliance of tolerance levels
e. found only in spring when cows go to pasture
d. a need to embargo milk; determine source of PCB; and treat milk samples for compliance of tolerance levels
83
Public health professionals consider the most significant type of bacteria found in drinking water supplies to be:
a. Bacillus sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium sporogenes
e. Escherichia coli
e. Escherichia coli
84
The MOST important of the factors which have contributed to the great declie in the incidence of typhoid fever in the U.S. during the last 50 years is generally accepted to be:
a. development of immunizing procedure
b. improvements in health habits of the people
c. pasteurization of milk
d. improvements in environmental sanitation
e. development of anti-typhoid serum
d. improvements in environmental sanitation
85
Bracken fern poisoning in the horse is characterized by:
a. motor irritability and severe icterus due to an unknown hepatoxic substance in the plant.
b. photosensitization resulting in the loss of hair and a sun-burned appearance of all unpigmented areas of the body.
c. incoordination due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.
d. a highly fatal hemorrhagic syndrome with large subcutaneous hematomas, bleeding from the body orifices, and an elevated temperature.
e. a chronic syndrome with severe lameness and loss of the long hair of the mane and tail.
c. incoordination due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.
86
The purpose of a trap in the home plumbing is to:
a. ventilate the house drainage system.
b. prevent sewer gas from entering premises.
c. prevent the entry of rodents through the system.
d. eliminate backflow from the lines.
e. trap or hold solids that are too large to enter the system.
b. prevent sewer gas from entering premises.
87
An air pollution control department in a city with a great many electrochemical plants receives numerous complaints from residents concerning the emission of a gas. This gas has a yellow-green color with an irritating and suffocating odor, causes damage to trees and grass in the vicinity of residences, and corrodes brass and aluminum materials on homes. This gas is most likely:
a. hydrogen sulfide.
b. chlorine.
c. ammonia.
d. sulfur dioxide.
e. methane.
b. chlorine
88
A toxic substance produced by biological system is specially referred to as a ------
a) toxicant
b) toxin
c) xenobiotic
d) poison
b) toxin
89
The phrase that best defines "toxicodynamics" is the---
a) linkage between exposure and dose
b) linkage between dose and response
c) dynamic nature of toxic effects among various species
d) dose range between desired biological effects and adverse health effects
e) loss of dynamic hearing range due to a toxic exposure
b) linkage between dose and response
90
Which of the following toxicity can occur due to single exposure?
a) . Acute toxicity
b) . Sub-acute toxicity
c) . Sub-chronic toxicity
d) . Chronic toxicity
a). Acute toxicity
91
The most common target organ of acute toxicity is the ----
a) heart
b) lung
c) CNS (brain and spinal cord)
d) skin
c) CNS (brain and spinal cord)
92
the organs least involved in systemic toxicity are ---
a) brain and peripheral nerves
b) muscle and bone
c) liver and kidney
d) hematopoietc system and lungs
b) muscle and bone
93
The use of antitoxin in the treatment of snakebite is an example of ------
a) dispositional antagonism
b) chemical antagonism
c) receptor antagonism
d) functional antagonism
b) chemical antagonism
94
The most rapid exposure to a chemical would occur through which of the following routes?
a) oral
b) subcutaneous
c) inhalation
d) intramuscular
c) inhalation
95
A chemical that is toxic to the brain but which is detoxified in the liver would be expected to be ---
a) more toxic orally than intramuscularly
b) more toxic rectally than intravenously
c) more toxic via inhalation than orally
d) more toxic on the skin than intravenously
c) more toxic via inhalation than orally
96
. The effective dose is best described as which of the following:
a. the dose at which 50 % of all test animals die
b. the dose at which some of the animals demonstrate a response to the chemical
c. the dose at which all of the animals demonstrate a response to the chemical
d. the dose at which 50 % of all test animals demonstrate a response to the chemical
d. the dose at which 50 % of all test animals demonstrate a response to the chemical
97
Extrapolation is best described as which of the following:
a. using known information to reach a conclusion.
b. using known information to infer something about the unknown.
c. using speculative information to infer something about the known.
d. a "best guess" approach.
b. using known information to infer something about the unknown.
98
What is the maximum contaminant level (MCL) for lead?
The maximum contaminant level for lead in water is 0. EPA’s action level is 0.015 mg/L (15 ppb)
99
Name the legislation and government agency overseeing this requirement for lead level
The EPA oversees the maximum contaminant level for lead in the US via the Safe Water Drinking Act
100
Discuss how lead gets into drinking water
Lead gets into drinking water by breakdown of old water pipes. Lead containing pipes were routinely used in the 1980’s
101
Describe symptoms in children and animals
Generally, symptoms of lead exposure/poisoning in children include an inability to focus and other mental deficiencies in early/low stages. In high level exposures, there can be associated illness related to liver disease.
102
BLACKLEGGED TICK scientific name
xodes scapularis
103
Where is the blacklegged tick found?
Widely distributed across the eastern United States
104
What does the blacklegged tick transmit?
Borrelia burgdorferi and B. mayonii (which cause Lyme disease)
Anaplasma
phagocytophilum (anaplasmosis)
B. miyamotoi disease (a form of relapsing fever)
Ehrlichia muris eauclairensis (ehrlichiosis)
Babesia microti (babesiosis)
Powassan
virus (Powassan virus disease)
105
LONE STAR TICK scientific name
Amblyomma americanum
106
Allergic reactions associated with consumption of red (mammalian) meat have
been reported among persons bitten by which tick.
LONE STAR TICK Amblyomma americanum
107
What does the Lonestar Tick Transmit?
Ehrlichia chaffeensis and E. ewingii (which cause human ehrlichiosis)
Francisella tularensis (tularemia)
Heartland virus (Heartland virus disease)
Bourbon
virus (Bourbon virus disease)
Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
108
Lonestar Tick Fact
The greatest risk of being bitten exists in early spring through late fall. A very
aggressive tick that bites humans. The adult female is distinguished by a white dot or “lone star” on her back. The nymph and adult females most frequently bite humans.
109
American Dog Tick Scientific name
Dermacentor variabilis
110
Where is the American Dog Tick found?
Widely distributed east of the Rocky Mountains. Also occurs in limited
areas on the Pacific Coast.
111
What does the American Dog tick transmit?
```
Francisella tularensis (tularemia)
Rickettsia rickettsii (Rocky Mountain
spotted fever).
```
112
American Dog Tick Fact
The greatest risk of being bitten occurs during spring and summer. Adult
females are most likely to bite humans
113
BROWN DOG TICK scientific name
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
114
Where is the BROWN DOG TICK found?
Worldwide
115
What does the BROWN DOG TICK transmit?
```
Rickettsia rickettsii (Rocky Mountain spotted fever). Primary vector
for R. rickettsii transmission in the southwestern United States and along the U.S.-
Mexico border.
```
116
Brown dog tick fact
Dogs are the primary host for the brown dog tick in each of its life stages,
but the tick may also bite humans or other mammals.
117
GROUNDHOG TICK Scientific name
Ixodes cookei
118
Where is the GROUNDHOG TICK found?
Throughout the eastern half of the United States
119
What does the GROUNDHOG TICK transmit?
Powassan virus (Powassan virus disease)
120
Facts about Groundhog Tick
Larvae and nymphs feed on birds and small rodents, while adult ticks
feed on deer and other wildlife. Adult ticks have been associated with transmission of
R. parkeri to humans.
121
GULF COAST TICK scientific name
Amblyomma maculatum
122
Where is the GULF COAST TICK found?
Southeastern and mid-Atlantic states and southern Arizona
123
What does the GULF COAST TICK transmit?
R. parkeri (R. parkeri rickettsiosis), a form of spotted fever.
124
GULF COAST TICK facts
S Larvae and nymphs feed on birds and small rodents, while adult ticks
feed on deer and other wildlife. Adult ticks have been associated with transmission of
R. parkeri to humans.
125
ROCKY MOUNTAIN WOOD TICK scientific name
Dermacentor andersoni
126
Where is the ROCKY MOUNTAIN WOOD TICK found?
Rocky Mountain states.
127
What does the ROCKY MOUNTAIN WOOD TICK transmit?
```
Rickettsia rickettsii (Rocky Mountain spotted fever)
Colorado tick fever virus
(Colorado tick fever)
Francisella tularensis (tularemia).
```
128
ROCKY MOUNTAIN WOOD TICK fact
Adult ticks feed primarily on large mammals. Larvae and nymphs feed on
small rodents. Adult ticks are primarily associated with pathogen transmission to humans.
129
SOFT TICK Scientific name
Ornithodoros spp
130
Where is the SOFT TICK found?
Throughout the western half of the United States, including Texas
131
What does the SOFT TICK transmit?
Borrelia hermsii, B. turicatae (tick-borne relapsing fever [TBRF])
132
SOFT TICK facts
Humans typically come into contact with soft ticks in rustic cabins. The ticks
emerge at night and feed briefly while people are sleeping. Most people are unaware that
they have been bitten. In Texas, TBRF may be associated with cave exposure.
133
WESTERN BLACKLEGGED TICK scientific name
Ixodes pacificus
134
Where is WESTERN BLACKLEGGED TICK found?
In the Pacific Coast states.
135
What does the WESTERN BLACKLEGGED TICK transmit?
```
Anaplasma phagocytophilum (anaplasmosis), B. burgdorferi (Lyme disease),
and very likely B. miyamotoi (Borrelia miyamotoi disease, a form of relapsing fever).
```
136
WESTERN BLACKLEGGED TICK Facts
Larvae and nymphs often feed on lizards, birds, and rodents, and adults
more commonly feed on deer. Although all life stages bite humans, nymphs and adult
females are more often reported on humans.
137
Erythema Migrans Rashes are associated with which tick disease
LYME
138
Tularemia: 5 types of disease
```
Glandular
Oculoglandular
Oropharyngeal
Pneumonic
Typhoidal
```
139
Treatment of adults with Tulariemia?
Streptomycin
Gentamicin
Cirprofloxacin
Doxycycline
140
Name 3 tickborne diseases abroad
African Tick Bite Fever
Lyme Disease (Europe/Asia)
Tickborne Encephalitis
141
Opportunities for veterinarians to assist with animal health emergency response teams exist
at what level?
```
A. Federal level
B. State level
C. County level
D. Nongovernmental organizations
E. All of the above
```
E. All of the above
142
Which of the following Emergency Support Function Annexes of the National Response
Framework applies to the response to animal pest and disease outbreaks?
A. ESF #6: Mass Care, Emergency Assistance, Temporary Housing, and Human Services
B. ESF #8: Public Health and Medical Services
C. ESF #9: Search and Rescue
D. ESF #11: Agriculture and Natural Resources
E. ESF #13: Public Safety and Security
E. ESF #13: Public Safety and Security
143
As outlined in the Emergency Support Function #11 of the National Response Framework,
which Federal agency is the ESF coordinating agency for responding to animal and agricultural
health issues?
A. U.S. Department of the Interior
B. Federal Emergency Management Agency
C. Department of Commerce
D. U.S. Department of Agriculture
E. Department of Health and Human Services
D. U.S. Department of Agriculture
144
```
Which of the following outlines the organizational structure or hierarchy used at the site of an
animal health emergency?
A. National Response Framework
B. National Incident Management System
C. Emergency Support Function Annexes
D. Incident Command System
E. Incident Command Post
```
D. Incident Command System
145
Which of the following best describes the responsibilities of the Incident Commander?
A. Develops incident objectives and provides overall management of all aspects of the
on-site response
B. Communicates incident information to the public, media, incident personnel, and
other stakeholders
C. Serves as the primary contact for supporting agencies assisting at an incident
D. Monitors safety conditions and develops measures to ensure the safety of everyone at
the incident site
E. Obtains supplies, facilities, food, communications, and transportation
A. Develops incident objectives and provides overall management of all aspects of the
on-site response
146
Which of the following contains a library of resources and tools, such as guidelines and
standard operating procedures, for the response to high consequence animal disease events
(e.g., foreign animal disease)?
A. Incident Command System (ICS)
B. National Response Framework (NRF)
C. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
D. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
E. Foreign Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Plan (FAD PReP)
E. Foreign Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Plan (FAD PReP)
147
The health and safety of responders during a response is a key consideration. Health and safety
issues to be aware of include which of the following?
A. Physical hazards, such as bites, kicks, slips, trips, and falls
B. Psychological stresses, such as long work hours, reduced sleep, or compassion fatigue
C. Environmental hazards, such as hazardous weather, loud noises, or insect bites
D. Zoonotic disease risks, such as avian influenza or vesicular stomatitis
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
148
What is the FDA action level for aflatoxin in pet food?
20 ppb
149
What if the FDA action level of aflatoxin in Feedlot (finishing) beef cattle corn and peanut products?
300 ppb
150
What is the FDA action level for aflatoxin M1 in milk?
0.5 ppb
151
Alphachloralose is a new pesticide released by EPA for use in mice. If causes death by
a. anticoagluation
b. salt overdose
c. hypothermia
d. suicide
c. hypothermia
152
```
The Asian Giant Hornet, an invasive species to North American and Canada is devastating to European honey bees because:
A. they kill the worker bees
b. they steal all the honey
c. they destroy the hive
d. they steal the queen.
```
A. they kill the worker bees
153
The phenomenal disease condition affecting man and animal known in the US as tick paralysis is usually associated with just one species of tick which is:
a. Ixodes cookie
b. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
c. Argas persicus
d. Dermacentor andersoni
e. Haemaphysalis leporis-palustris
d. Dermacentor andersoni
154
The first disease to be recognized as transmitted by an arthropod was:
a. anaplasmosis
b. trypanosomiasis
c. Texas fever
d. Yellow fever
e. Malaria
c. Texas fever
155
Causative agent of equine piroplasmosis is:
a. Trypanosoma equiperdum
b. Theileria parva
c. Babesia caballi (equi)
d. Trypanosoma evansi
e. Theirleria lawrenci
c. Babesia caballi (equi)
156
Wuncheria bancrofti is endemic in most of the warm regions of the world and is the causative agent of what disease?
a. black water fever
b. filariasis
c. fasciolopsiasis
d. cytomegalic inclusion
e. guinea worm infection
b. filariasis
157
Psorophora bos has been reported only from:
a. Canada
b. United States
c. Mexico
d. Australia
e. Israel
b. United States
158
Fowl plaque is caused by:
a. a type B influenza virus picornavirus
b. a type A influenza orthomyxovirus
c. an arborvirus
d. Yersinia multocida
e. Yersinia pestis
b. a type A influenza orthomyxovirus
159
In strongyloidiasis, the parasite Strongyloides stercoralis may undergo the heterogonic cycle when environmental conditions are favorable. The term heterogonic refers to:
a. direct development to 3rd states infective larvae
b. development of free living males and females which subsequently produce infective larvae
c. larval development to nymphal stage on skin of host
d. development of miracidium into sprocyst in snail
e. activation of embryo by action of digestive enzymes
b. development of free living males and females which subsequently produce infective larvae
160
The base of the insecticide commonly used for destruction of mites which cause scabies on domestic animals:
a. pyrethrum
b. rotenone
c. benzene hexachloride
d. carbon tetrachloride
e. carbon disulfide
b. rotenone
161
A general measure which is customarily recommended as being the most effective method for the prevention of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever in the US is:
a. eradication of ticks
b. burning over of tick infested areas
c. personal care in avoiding tick infested areas
d. dipping of domestic stock
e. poisoning of rodents
c. personal care in avoiding tick infested areas
162
“Creeping eruption” or “larval migrans” results most frequently form the presence in the epidermis of man of larvae of the:
a. tropical warble fly (Dermatobia hominis)
b. strongyloid threadworm (Strongyloides stercoralis)
c. ox warble fly (Hypoderma lineate)
d. dog hookworm (Ancylostoma caninum)
e. dog and cat hook worm (Ancylostoma brazilinse)
e. dog and cat hook worm (Ancylostoma brazilinse)
163
Which one of the following parasites is correctly paired with the pathological manifestation it causes?
a. Fasciola hepatica – enchanced production of toxins of Clostridium novvi, causing Black Disease
b. Ascaris lumbricoides – extraction of blood from the host
c. Haemonchus contortus – choledochitis
d. Multiceps multiceps – nodular formation in cecum and colon
e. Oesophagostomum columbianum - aneurysms in anterior mesenteric
d. Multiceps multiceps – nodular formation in cecum and colon
164
The Los Angeles type of smog is generally considered to be caused by:
a. automobile exhaust
b. power plant exhaust
c. municipal incinerator smoke
d. petroleum refinery waste
e. dust nuclei from heavy industry
a. automobile exhaust
165
The best protection that can be afforded against biological warfare is to:
a. improve methods of food and livestock inspections
b. assure early reporting and recognition of symptoms of infectious diseases
c. assist industry to develop protective measures against sabatoge
d. begin mass immunization programs
e. provide general population with gas masks
b. assure early reporting and recognition of symptoms of infectious diseases
166
Contamination of animal foods with toxic chemicals has occurred a number of times in recent years. One of the most dramatic incidents occurred in 1973 and involved dairy cattle in Michigan. The clinical signs of toxicity were abortions, breeding problems, weak calves, sever drop in milk production, curling of toes and death. The chemical involved was:
a. hexachloraobenzene
b. polychlorinated biphenyls
c. polybrominaded biphenyls
d. pentachlorophenol
e. mercury
c. polybrominaded biphenyls
167
What time of year is Douglas water hemlock (Cicuta douglas) most dangerous to cattle?
a. early spring, when the young growth first appears
b. mid-summer, as the flowering stalk appears
c. late summer, when the mature seeds are present
d. late spring, when the foliage is fully developed
e. winter, when range cattle may be forced to browse on the erect flowering stalks
a. early spring, when the young growth first appears
168
PCB found in milk samples in dairy herds indicates:
a. normal residue
b. a need to embargo the milk
c. a need to slaughter all animals
d. a need to embargo milk; determine source of PCB; and treat milk
samples for compliance of tolerance levels
e. found only in spring when cows go to pasture
d. a need to embargo milk; determine source of PCB; and treat milk samples for compliance of tolerance levels
169
```
The Michigan problem associated with PBB in cattle, hogs, sheep and poultry,
has been attributed to:
a. an infectious agent
b. contaminated feed
c. aerosol pollutants
d. impurities in drinking water
e. improper waste disposal
```
b. contaminated feed
170
Public health professionals consider the most significant type of bacteria found in drinking water supplies to be:
a. Bacillu sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium sporogenes
e. Escherichia coli
e. Escherichia coli
171
The reservoirs of Chagas’ Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) are man and the
a. dog, cat, pig, deer, and birds
b. armadillo, opossum, bat, dog, and cat
c. rat, mouse, monkey, raccoon, and parrot
d. cow, sheep, goat, deer, and horse
e. monkey, dog, rat, fish, and sheep
b. armadillo, opossum, bat, dog, and cat
172
The swine lungworms, Metastrongylus apri, M. pudendstectus, and H. salmi, require as intermediate hosts various species of:
a. ticks
b. snails
c. earthworms
d. fleas
e. rodents
c. earthworms
173
The MOST important of the factors which have contributed to the great decline in the incidence of typhoid fever in the U.S. during the last 50 years is generally accepted to be:
a. development of immunizing procedure
b. improvements in health habits of the people
c. pasteurization of milk
d. improvements in environmental sanitation
e. development of anti-typhoid serum
d. improvements in environmental sanitation
