Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

2a Mocks > PTS SBA 4 > Flashcards

PTS SBA 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What would hyper resonant sounds suggest?

A

Lungs hyper inflated with air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would dullness to percussion suggest?

A

Accumulation of fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment pathway for asthma?

A
  1. SABA - Salbutamol
  2. Low dose ICS - Beclomatasone
  3. LTRA - Monteleukast
  4. LABA - Salmeterol
  5. MART - Seretide
  6. Higher dose ICS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer in non smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer in smokers?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What sites does lung cancer commonly metastasise too?

A
  1. Adrenals
  2. Bone
  3. Brain
  4. Liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the gold standard diagnosis for PE?

A

CT Pulmonary Angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common cause of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in COPD patients?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is another common cause of “typical” pneumonia?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What chromosome is affected in cystic fibrosis?

A

Chromosome 7: CFTR protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the second line treatment for syphillis?

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the correct medication for meningitis prophylaxis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of work related ill health in the UK?

A

Stress, anxiety and depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

The probability a test will be positive for a true positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is specificity?

A

The proportion of patients who test negative amongst all those who do not have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the first step for people presenting with stroke symptoms?

A

Urgent CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is given to patient if they are found to have an ischaemic stroke?

A

Alteplase within 4.5 hrs of onset

Short term aspirin followed by clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the cardinal symptoms for Parkinson’s?

A
  1. Bradykinesia
  2. Resting tremor
  3. Cogwheel rigidity
  4. Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cancers commonly metastasise to brain?

A
  1. Lung
  2. Kidney
  3. Breast
  4. Skin
  5. Bowel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What nerve is affected in carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What nerve roots are affected in carpal tunnel?

A

C5-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long do patients need to be seizure free to have their driving license reinstated?

A

1 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDS?

A

Non selective inhibitor of COX 1 and COX 2 enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some hand signs in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  1. Swan neck deformity
  2. Boutonierre deformity
  3. Ulnar deviation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis?

A
  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Urethritis
  3. Arthritis

Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What colour would E coli turn on MacConkey agar?

A

Pink because it is lactose fermenting

30
Q

What colour would salmonella turn on MacConkey agar?

A

Pale because it is non lactose fermenting

31
Q

What is the most common cause of hepatitis in travellers?

A

Hepatitis A

32
Q

What is the process of dealing with a irreducible inguinal hernia?

A

Urgent referral to secondary care

33
Q

What is the process of dealing with a reducible inguinal hernia?

A

Routine referral to secondary care

34
Q

What are the 4 F’s of getting gallstones?

A
  1. Female
  2. Fat
  3. Forty
  4. Fertile
35
Q

What is Dupuytren contracture?

A

A fibroproliferative disorder affecting the palmar fascia, mainly of the 4th and 5th fingers

36
Q

What are risk factors for Dupuytren contracture?

A

Alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis

37
Q

What is the most common causative organism of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Escherechia Coli

38
Q

What are Reed Sternberg cells indicative of?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

39
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome indicative of?

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

40
Q

What are Bence Jones proteins indicative of?

41
Q

What are some symptoms of pernicious anaemia?

A
  1. Peripheral neuropathy
  2. Mouth ulcers
  3. Lemon tinged skin (jaundice and pallor)
42
Q

What is the most common form of leukaemia in children?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

43
Q

What are causes of secondary polycythaemia?

A

Chronic hypoxia as a result of lung disease

44
Q

What can cause a sickle cell crisis?

A
  1. Cold
  2. Infection (Parvovirus B19)
45
Q

What are the treatments for myeloma?

A
  1. Chemotherapy
  2. Steroids
  3. Thalidomide

Bisphosphonates and radiotherapy can also be used

46
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for kidney stones?

A

Non contrast CT Kidney Ureter Bladder

47
Q

What is used to define CKD?

A

eGFR < 60 mls/min/1.73m^2 for over 3 months

48
Q

What are smudge cells indicative of?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

49
Q

What is the most common form of renal cancer?

A

Clear cell carcinoma

50
Q

What are the two forms of renal cell carcinoma?

A
  1. Clear cell (75%)
  2. Papillary (15%)
51
Q

Name an alpha blocker used as 1st line treatment of BPH

A

Tamsulosin

52
Q

Name a 5-alpha reducatase inhibitor, used as 2nd line treatment of BPH

A

Finasteride

53
Q

Name a GnRH agonist used in the treatment of prostate cancer?

54
Q

Name an anticholinergic used as 1st line treatment for overactive bladder

A

Oxybutinin

55
Q

What is the management of acute pulmonary oedema?

A
  1. High flow O2
  2. IV Furosemide
  3. IV Morphine / GTN
  4. Urgent CXR
56
Q

What are some risk factors for erectile dysfunction?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Cardiovascular disease
  3. Prostatectomy
  4. Poor relationship
  5. Diabetes
57
Q

What are some complications of Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease

A
  1. Berry aneurysms
  2. Liver cysts
  3. Heart valve abnormalities
58
Q

What are some symptoms of Graves’ disease

A
  1. Exophthalmos
  2. Weight loss
  3. Heat intolerance
  4. Lid lag
  5. Tachycardia
59
Q

What is the immediate management for acute severe hypercalcaemia?

A
  1. IV fluids
  2. Bisphosphonates
  3. IV Calcitonin
  4. Prednisolone
60
Q

What are some side effects of steroids?

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Immunosuppression
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Proximal muscle weakness
  5. Skin thinning
61
Q

What are the ECG signs of Wolf Parkinson White?

A
  1. Delta wave
  2. Wide QRS
  3. Short PR
62
Q

What is Wolf Parkinson White syndrome?

A

An atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia: where electrical signals re-enter the atria from the ventricles through an accessory pathway

63
Q

What is the standard PR interval?

64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Furosemide?

A

A loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle

65
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Bendroflumethiazide?

A

A thiazide diuretic that inhibits the Na+Cl- cotransporter channels in the distal convoluted tubule

66
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Amiloride?

A

A potassium sparing diuretic that inhabits the ENaC channels in the distal convoluted tubule

67
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Clopidogrel?

A

Prevents platelet aggregation by binding the P2Y12 receptor

68
Q

What is angular stomatitis?

A

Red, swollen patches in the corners of your mouth.

A side effect of iron deficiency

69
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for H. pylori?

A

Urea breath test

70
Q

What is the most accurate test for H. pylori?

A

Endoscopy - but not 1st line as it’s invasive.

Urea breath test is 1st line

Stool antigen test also possible

71
Q

What is a treatment for relieving diarrhoea in IBS?

A

Loperamide: Anti-motility agent

2a Mocks (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions