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2a Mocks > MUSE SAQs & SBA > Flashcards

MUSE SAQs & SBA Flashcards

1
Q

What two blood tests can be done to help differentiate between different causes of diarrhoea?

A
  1. FBC
  2. Inflammatory markers (ESR & CRP)
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2
Q

What two stool tests can be done to help differentiate between different causes of diarrhoea?

A
  1. Faecal calprotectin
  2. Stool culture
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3
Q

What layer of the bowel wall does ulcerative colitis affect?

A

Mucosa

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4
Q

What histological features will be seen in ulcerative colitis?

A
  1. Crypt abscess
  2. Ulceration
  3. Increase in plasma cells in the lamina propria
  4. Continuous inflammation
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5
Q

What histological features will be seen in Crohn’s?

A
  1. Cobble stone appearance of mucosa
  2. Rose thorn ulcers
  3. Skip lesions
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6
Q

What sort of rash is associated with meningitis?

A

Non blanching purpura rash

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7
Q

What are some causes of breast lump?

A
  1. Cancer
  2. Abscess
  3. Cyst
  4. Hamartoma
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8
Q

What cancers metastasise to bone?

A
  1. Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Kidney
  4. Thyroid
  5. Prostate
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9
Q

What is the treatment for breast cancer?

A

Chemotherapy with trastuzumab

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10
Q

What are the histopathological findings in the brain in Parkinson’s?

A
  1. Loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra!!
  2. Lewy Bodies
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11
Q

Name a dopamine agonist?

A

Cabergoline

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12
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Familial Adenomatous Polyposis?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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13
Q

What is an adenocarcinoma?

A

A malignant tumour of glandular epithelium

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14
Q

What is a squamous cell carcinoma of the lung?

A

Cancer of the flat cells that line the airways in the lungs

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15
Q

Where are squamous cell lung cancers typically found?

A

Near a bronchus

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16
Q

What is the first line management for severe hyperkalaemia with ECG changes?

A

Calcium gluconate

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17
Q

What artery performs an important role in erectile function?

A

Internal pudendal artery

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18
Q

Name some pre-renal causes of AKI?

A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Dehydration
  3. Haemorrhage
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19
Q

Name some intra-renal causes of AKI?

A
  1. Nephrotoxins
  2. Parenchymal disease
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20
Q

Name some post-renal causes of AKI?

A
  1. Renal calculi
  2. Prostatic enlargement
  3. Tumours
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21
Q

What drugs are nephrotoxic?

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. ACEi / ARB
  3. Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin)
  4. Some chemotherapy (Cisplatin)
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22
Q

What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease?

A

Inflammation and infection of a woman’s reproductive organ

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23
Q

What are the symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A
  1. Abnormal vaginal discharge
  2. Pain during sex (Dyspareunia)
  3. Fever
  4. Abnormal bleeding
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24
Q

What two pathogens can commonly cause PID?

A
  1. Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
  2. Chlamydia Trachomatis
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25
Q

What are the risk factors for PID?

A
  1. Multiple sexual partners
  2. Existing STI
  3. Not using barrier contraception
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26
Q

What can help support a diagnosis of PID?

A

Raised inflammatory markers

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27
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for stroke?

A

CT head

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28
Q

What are some symptoms of Wilson’s disease?

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Golden brown eye discolouration (Kayer Fleischer rings)
  3. Micrographia (Small handwriting)
  4. Tremor
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29
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s?

A

Autosomal dominant

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30
Q

What are the symptoms of Huntington’s?

A
  1. Chorea
  2. Depression
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31
Q

What are the symptoms of Huntington’s?

A
  1. Chorea
  2. Depression
  3. Stumbling and clumsiness
  4. Difficulty concentrating
  5. Mood swings / personality changes
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32
Q

What clinical feature would suggest a severe aortic stenosis?

A

A small volume and slow rising pulse

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33
Q

What is peripheral arterial disease?

A

Narrowing of the arteries supplying the limbs and periphery, reducing the blood supply to these areas

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34
Q

What is claudication?

A

Muscle pain that happens when you’re active and stops when you rest

35
Q

What can peripheral arterial disease cause?

A

Critical ischaemia

36
Q

What are the 6P’s of acute limb ischaemia?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Pallor
  3. Pulselessness
  4. Paraesthesia
  5. Perishing cold
  6. Paralysis
37
Q

What test can be used to assess peripheral arterial disease in the leg?

A

Buerger’s Test

38
Q

What is Buerger’s test?

A
  1. Lie on back adn raise legs to 45 degree angle for 1-2 mins - look for pallor
  2. Upon hanging legs over bed: Healthy - pink legs
    PAD - Blue as ischaemic tissue deoxygenates the blood, then dark red
39
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for peripheral arterial disease?

A

Reduce lifestyle factors & Exercise program

40
Q

What artery can be affected in duodenal ulcers?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

41
Q

What are some symptoms of ketoacidosis?

A
  1. Thirst
  2. Polyuria
  3. Kussmaul breathing
  4. Fruity smelling breath
  5. Headache
  6. Nausea & Vomiting
42
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A

A genetic disorder where females only have 1 normal X chromosome rather than 2

43
Q

What are some symptoms of Turner’s syndrome?

A
  1. Webbed neck
  2. Short stature
  3. Ovarian insufficiency
44
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome?

A

A genetic disorder where specific neurons that communicate with the hypothalamus are underdeveloped, leading to lack of Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone

(Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism characterised by late or absent puberty and anosmia)

45
Q

What are some symptoms of Kallmann syndrome?

A
  1. Anosmia
  2. Cleft lip or palate
  3. Short fingers or toes, especially ring finger
46
Q

What is a potential complication of carbimazole?

A
  1. Acute pancreatitis
  2. Agranulocytosis - Urgent FBC and aggressive treatment for infections
47
Q

What is a potential complication of Lithium?

A

Thyroid problems

48
Q

What is a seminoma?

A

A type of neoplasm that begins in germ cells of men, typically in the testicles or more rarely in the mediastinum

49
Q

What is a germinoma?

A

A neoplasm of germ cells that occurs in the brain - it has an identical histology to the testicular seminoma

50
Q

What can differentiate between a germinoma and a seminoma?

A

Germinoma may present with more hormone abnormalities

51
Q

What is the correct course of action if a patient has an adverse drug reaction?

A
  1. Stop drug
  2. Patient informed
  3. Report via yellow card system
52
Q

What is the appropriate therapy for reversal of patient’s warfarin?

A
  1. IV Vitamin K
  2. IV Prothrombin Complex Concentrate
53
Q

What is the treatment for disseminated intra-vascular coagulation (DIC)?

A
  1. Cryoprecipitate (it has lots of fibrinogen)
54
Q

What type of cell is implicated in myeloma?

A

Plasma cell

55
Q

What is Immune Thrombocytopenia?

A

An autoimmune disorder in which the immune system inappropriately destroys platelets

56
Q

What is Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura?

A

A blood disorder where platelets cause clots to develop in small blood vessels of the body

57
Q

What are some symptoms of ITP?

A
  1. Bruising
  2. Petechiae
  3. Bleeding from nose or mouth
  4. Fatigue
58
Q

What are some symptoms of TTP?

A
  1. Nervous system - headaches, vision change, confusion
  2. Skin - Brusing, bleeding, pale
  3. Urinary - kidney problems, haematuria
58
Q

What are some symptoms of TTP?

A
  1. Nervous system - headaches, vision change, confusion
  2. Skin - Brusing, bleeding, pale
  3. Urinary - kidney problems, haematuria
59
Q

What is asthma?

A

A chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes episodic exacerbations of bronchoconstriction

60
Q

What is eosinophilic asthma?

A

A type of asthma caused by high levels of eosinophils in the lungs

61
Q

What 3 conditions form the atopic triad?

A
  1. Eczema / Atopic Dermatitis
  2. Allergic Rhinitis
  3. Asthma
62
Q

What should be given in an emergency asthma attack?

A
  1. O2
  2. Nebulised salbutamol
63
Q

What is Ipatropium Bromide?

A

A muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist that acts as a bronchodilator

64
Q

What are the symptoms of bronchiectasis?

A

Persistent productive cough

65
Q

What is COPD?

A

A non reversible, chronic deterioration in air flow through the lungs caused by tissue damage

66
Q

What is the pathophysiology of COPD?

A

1.Neutrophils are activated by the inhalation of toxic particles
2. Neutrophils secrete proteases that cause tissue destruction and inflammation

67
Q

What is the treatment for COPD?

A
  1. SABA (Salbutamol) or SAMA (Ipatropium Bromide)
  2. LABA
68
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

An inflammatory lung disease that causes permanent dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles

69
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

70
Q

What is the function of TLR4?

A

Senses LPS on the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria

71
Q

What is the function of TLR5?

A

Senses flagellin

72
Q

What is more indicative of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  1. Longer morning stiffness
  2. Pain eases with use
  3. Good response to NSAIDS
  4. Bilateral
  5. Systemic symptoms
73
Q

What is more indicative of osteoarthritis?

A
  1. Clicking / crunching
  2. Aching in evening
  3. Pain worsens with use
  4. Unilateral
74
Q

What deformities can be seen in osteoarthritis?

A
  1. Degeneration of 1st metatarso-phalangeal joint
  2. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s node
75
Q

What deformities can be seen in rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  1. Swan neck deformity
  2. Boutonierre deformity
  3. Ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal joint
76
Q

What does cANCA indicate?

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

77
Q

What does Sjogrens cause increased risk of?

A

Lymphoma

78
Q

What is Felty’s syndrome?

A

A rare autoimmune disease characterised by
1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Splenomegaly
3. Low neutrophil count

79
Q

What is the role of a 1,3 beta-D-glucan assay?

A

Detect invasive fungal pathogens
1. Candida albicans
2. Pneumocystis Jirovecii
3. Aspergillus fumigatus

80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cholera?

A

Secretes a toxin that deregulates ion transport in epithelial cells

81
Q

What antibitoics are usually given for URTIs?

A

Penicillin, eg. Amoxicillin

82
Q

What are some conditions that are risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A
  1. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
  2. Lynch Syndrome (Hereditary Non Polyposis Colorectal Cancer)
  3. IBD
83
Q

What is Mycobacterium Tuberculosis?

A

An acid fast bacilli

2a Mocks (5 decks)

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