PTCB Practice Questions Flashcards
What is the role of a medication dispensing robot and machines in the retail settings?
To allow the pharmacy personnel to perform other activities while making the filling process more efficient.
24 pints = __ gallons
3
What does NS mean?
normal saline
Which organization oversees Medicare and Medicaid Services?
CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services)
What does a.u. mean?
both ears
Opium is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
Concerta is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
True or False: In Pharmacies which the DEA has granted blanket authorization to destroy controlled substances, Pharmacy Technicians are not allowed to carry out the destruction of these substances under any condition.
False
In Pharmacies which the DEA has granted blanket authorization to destroy controlled substances, Pharmacy Technicians may carry out this task with a pharmacist or nurse witness.
What does disp. mean?
dispense
Which dosage form is designed to dissolve under the tongue?
Sublingual
Which needle size is smallest; 15G, 19G, 25G, or 30G?
30G
What is the metric prefix for thousand?
kilo
Didrex is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule III
The process by which a health insurance company determines if it should be the primary or secondary payer of medical claims for a patient who has coverage from more than one health insurance policy:
Coordination of Benefits
What does t.i.d. mean?
three times a day
What is the minimum and maximum weight limits for a class A balance?
The minimum weight that can be weighed on a Class A Prescription Balance is 120 mg and the maximum weight is 120 g.
Where must Schedule II medications be stored within the pharmacy?
A locked safe
What type of drug is omeprazole?
Prilosec (omeprazole) is a proton pump inhibitor
Laminar flow hoods must be certified every ___ months.
6 months
What temperature range is necessary for storing refrigerated medications?
35.6 - 46.4 F (2 - 8 C)
What does q.h. mean?
every hour
What does q.i.d. mean?
four times per day
What does stat mean?
immediately
How many times can a prescription of alprazolam be refilled at most?
5 refills within 6 months
True or False: An insulin syringe only measures in units.
False
Insulin syringes measures in both ml’s and units
Which Act of Congress addresses the privacy and security of health data?
(HIPPA) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
Melatonin is a non-prescription medication used to treat __________?
insomnia
What does u.d. mean?
as directed
What does SL mean?
sublingually
4 tsp = __ mL
20
What does o.u. mean?
both eyes
An order is written for 500 mL of NS to infuse at 40 gtt/min. How long would it take to infuse the NS if the set delivers 10 gtt/mL?
10 gtt/mL = 10 drops per ml
10 x 500 = 5,000 drops
Flow rate of 40 ggt/min
5,000 / 40 = 125
A bottle of fluticasone propionate nasal spray provides 120 metered sprays. Each spray delivers 50 mcg of fluticasone propionate in 100 mg of formulation through the nasal adapter. A prescription is filled for,“Three bottles, 2 sprays each nostril, qd.” How many days will this supply last?
90 day
How many grams are in 8 kilograms?
8,000
Once punctured, what is the BUD of insulin?
28 days
Convert this roman numeral to a number: CXXVI
126
What is the brand name for eszopiclone?
Lunesta
Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?
Maxide, pioglitazone, spironolactone, furosemide
pioglitazone
Kava is an herbal medication can be used to treat _________?
Anxiety
What dosage form should a diabetic avoid?
Syrup
Restorilis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
1 fluid ounce = __ mL
30
What does q.4h mean?
every 4 hours
You are planning to prepare 600 mL of 20% dextrose solution,by mixingyour 5% and 50% dextrose solution. How much of each solution will be needed?
Allegation problem
50 goes in the upper left of your tic-tac-toe table, 5 in the lower left, and 20 in the middle.
Subtract across the middle: 15 in the upper right and 30 in the lower right.
15 parts of the 50% and 30 parts of the 5%, for a total of 45 parts.
Amount of 50% needed will be:
(15/45) x 600 = 200
Amount of 5% needed will be:
(30/45) x 600 = 400
An order is written to administer2 liters of an IV fluid over 18 hours. What will the flow rate be?
111.1 ml/hr
Divide the volume by the time to get the flow rate: 2L = 2,000 ml
2000/18 = 111.1 ml/hr
What is a FDA Class III Recall?
Recalls for products that are unlikely to cause injury or illness but violate FDA regulations.
After a patient gives allergy information, what does the technician do with the information?
Enter the allergy into the patient’s profile
Crestor, Vytorin, and Zetia are all used to treat ________?
High Cholesterol
A bottle with 236 milliliters of liquid allergy medication containsDiphenhydramine HCl 12.5mg/5mL. How milligrams ofDiphenhydramine HCl are in the bottle?
590 mg
Which Medicare part covers inpatient hospitals stays?
Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital stays.
How much dextrose is in a 900mL solution of D5W?
45g, 500g, 90g, or 180g
45g
Ultramis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
Convert this roman numeral to a number: LII
52
What does g mean?
gram
What volume of a drug for injection 100mg/45mL should be used for 250mg?
112.5 mL
Should a patient with a severe allergy to penicillin receive amoxicillin?
No
What does IM mean?
intramuscular
What does gtt mean?
drop
What does p.r. mean?
by rectum
Which of the following provides the Medicare prescription drug benefit?
Medicare Part D
Morphineis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
Ambien and Lunesta are two medications used to treat what condition?
Insomnia
Which of the following is NOT a Schedule I narcotic? OxyContin, Heroin, Marijuana, Ecstasy
OxyContin is a schedule II medication.
Vicodin is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
What is the official document used to report theft of a controlled substance?
DEA 106
Anabolic Steroids are on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule III
What is a common side effect of warfarin?
Internal Bleeding
What PPE can be used in the pharmacy to prevent hazardous drug exposure?
Shoe Cover and gloves
Tall man-small man lettering is used for which purpose?
Differentiating medications with similar names
Suboxone is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule III
Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) is a system designed to:
prevent medication errors in healthcare settings.
1 pound = __ kg
0.454
A child’s prescription forceftriaxone is50mg/kg per day in equally divided doses every 12 hours. How many grams of the drug will be administered over the first 5 days if thechild weighs 80 pounds?
(Note: Multiple step problem)
9 grams
65 mL = __ tsp
13
2 tbsp = __ mL
30
How many digits is a BIN number?
6 Digits
The NCPDP Processor ID Number (BIN) is a six-digit number that health plans can use to process electronic pharmacy claims if they do not use pharmacy benefit cards with a magnetic stripe.
Chantix is used to treat what condition?
Nicotine addiction
A patient comes to the pharmacy counter with a prescription for Amoxicillin 250mg/5mL and the directions indicate 1¼ tsp po bid x 10d. What is the total quantity needed for dispensing?
125 ml
2½ oz = __ g
70.75
What does a.m. mean?
morning
Marijuana is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule I
What does sig mean?
write on label
Peyoteis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule I
CPOE helps prevent medication errors by ___________?
Eliminating hand written prescriptions
Fexofenadine is an ________?
Antihistamine (Brand name Allegra)
What does pulv. mean?
powder
Is HIPPA enforceable by the FDA?
No. FDA primarily regulates food, drugs, medical devices, and cosmetics.
Somais on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
5.5 lb = __ oz
88
iPLEDGE program is designed to mitigate the risks associated with taking:
Isotretinoin, a medication primarily used to treat cystic acne. iPLEDGE is a mandatory distribution program that is intended to prevent the use of isotretinoin during pregnancy, due to the high risk of birth defects.
OxyContin is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
What does the abbreviation NPO mean?
Nothing by mouth
What does inj mean?
injection
An excipient an ingredient known as a _________?
Filler
How many milliliters are in 1 teaspoon?
5
Which drug classification does Meloxicam belong to?
NSAID
Ativanis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
A list of medications available for use within a health care system is called a _________?
Formulary
Demerolis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
When you capitalize the part of the drug name that is DIFFERENT, you are using _______?
Tall man letters
A 30 mL dose of nighttime cough suppressant contains 12.5 mg of doxylamine succinate. How many milligrams of doxylamine succinate are in the entire 354 mL bottle?
147.5 mg
This is an autoimmune diseasein whichthe thyroid is overactive, and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones:
Graves’ Disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.
What does IV mean?
intravenous
What is a clinical decision support alert?
An alert that the ordered medication may interact with other medications on the patient profile.
What does DAW mean?
dispense as written
What is Additive Effect?
Additive Effect is when the effect of two drugs together is equal to the sum of their individual effects.
Where should the measurement be read from when measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?
Bottom of the meniscus
A bottle with 8 fluid ounces of liquid allergy medication contains 590 mg of Diphenhydramine HCl. How many grams of Diphenhydramine HCl are in 1 gallon of this medication?
(Note: This is a two-step problem)
9.44 grams
How many pints are in 1 gallon?
8
What does supp mean?
suppository
What does div. mean?
divide
True or False - A Class B scale is the best option for measuring a range from 650 mg to 120 g.
True
What does q.s. mean?
a sufficient quantity
What does d.t.d. mean?
give of such doses
All of the following are required to be on a patient profile except:
Alcohol and illicit drug use, allergies, gender, occupation
Occupation
What does ad lib. mean?
as desired
How many fluid ounces are in 1 quart?
32
Valiumis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
What is the proper hand washing guideline in USP 797?
Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 30 seconds.
Which is the largest capsule size; 000, 0, 1, 5?
000 is the largest.
What occurs when two drugs work against each other?
Antagonism is when two drugs work against each other.
What drug class relieves allergy symptoms?
Antihistamines
The pharmacy recieves a controlled substance order from their wholesaler. There are a total of 435 pills. Of this total, 17% are C2, 19% are C3, 20% are C4, and 44% are C5. How many C3 pills were in the order?
83 pills
(82.65 rounded up to 83)
Heroinis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule I
Which part of the NDC number indicates the manufacturer of a drug?
The first 4–5 digits
Ambienis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
If two drugs are taken together and one of them intensifies the action of the other, what type of drug interaction has occurred?
Synergism is when the effect of two drugs together is greater than the sum of their individual effects.
What doesp.o. mean?
by mouth
Xanaxis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
Adderall is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
What does a.d. mean?
right ear
The FDA publishes a book calledApproved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, which is more commonly known as the:
Orange Book
Percocetis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
How long do DEA forms need to be kept?
2 years
Which of the following medications is recommended for addressing symptoms associated with BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)?
Meclizine, Levofloxacin, Gemfibrozil, Terazosin
Terazosin
How is 34 written in roman numerals?
XXXIV
What does tsp mean?
teaspoon
This federal law requires pharmacists to review Medicaid recipients’ entire drug profile before filling their prescriptions.
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990
A drug with no accepted medical use and extremely high potential for abuse is classified as what schedule-controlled substance?
Schedule I (Such as drugs such as Marijuana, Ecstasy, Peyote, and Heroin.)
Duragesic is on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
What does aa mean?
of each
What doesDW mean?
distilled water
What is an FDA Class I Recall?
Recalls for products that could cause severe injury or death.
Name the dose form that is inserted into the rectum, vagina, or urethra.
suppository
The pharmacy technician can reconstitute a 100 mL bottle of Amoxycillin in 50 seconds. How many of these bottles can the technician reconstitute in 30 minutes?
36 bottles
When is a DEA form 222 required to be used?
Ordering any Schedule II controlled substance. If the form isn’t filled out correctly, the wholesaler is not allowed to deliver the medication.
If a pharmacy technician suspects a dosage error, what should they do first?
Alert the pharmacist to double check dose.
Covert 5.5 kg to pounds.
5.5 kg is 12.1 lbs
Which DEA form is needed for destroying outdated or damaged controlled substances?
DEA 41
Comminution is defined as ____________?
The action of reducing a material to small particles
What is the metric prefix for millionth?
micro
True or False - Bar Code technology is not used in a pharmacy setting.
FALSE
Benztropine, Amantadine and Ropinirole are all indicated for which disease.
Parkinson’s Disease
What is the metric prefix for hundredth?
centi
You need 800 mL of 10% dextrose solution. How much of your 50% and 5% dextrose solution will you need to mix?
Mix 89 mL of the 50% and 711 mL of the 5%
A prescription calls for 25mg of a medication t.i.d. for 7 days. The stock solution is composed of a 100mg/3mL. How many ml’s is needed to fill the order?
15.75 ml
What does prn mean?
as needed
What is the metric prefix for tenth?
deci
Lunestais on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule IV
What is the brand name for aripiprazole?
Abilify (an Antipsychotic)
Proton pump inhibitor that is used to treat which disease?
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
The generic drug suffix for a proton pump inhibitor is _____?
prazole
What DEA form needs to be filled out to transfer controlled substances from one pharmacy to another?
DEA 105
What does ung. mean?
ointment
True or False: Schedule III, IV and V may be stocked on shelves throughout the pharmacy.
TRUE
The percent equivalent of a 1:125 ratio is:
1/125 =x/100
125x = 100
x = 0.8
How is 59 written in roman numerals?
LIX
If a physician writes an order for 400 mL of D5W to be infused over a 4-hour time period, and the IV drop factor is 12 gtt/mL, how manydrops per minute should be delivered?
20 gtt
60gtt x 4 hours = 240
400ml/240 = 1.67 ml infused in 1 minute
1.67 x 12 = 20 drops per minute
Of all the prescriptions received at the pharmacy last Tuesday, 892 were refills. The remainder were new prescriptions, with 168 from patient drop-offs, 183 coming in electronically, and 69 coming in by phone. What percentage of the total prescriptions received were new drop-offs?
12.85%
892+168+183+69 =1,312
168÷1,312=0.128
0.128×100=12.8%
What does the abbreviation gtt mean?
drops
What does sol mean?
solution
What doesgr. mean?
grain
What does top. mean?
topical
What does mEq mean?
milliequivalent
The pharmacy technician knows that 600 mL of 20% dextrose solution contains _____ grams of dextrose.
120 grams
What does b.i.d. mean?
twice daily
What does a.c. mean?
before meals
True or False - A side effect of Nitrofurantoin is urine discoloration.
True
What does p.c. mean?
after meals
Glucosamine is a non-prescription medication used to treat what?
arthritis symptoms
3 kg = __ lb
6.6
9 tsp = __ tbsp
3
611 cm = __ mm
6,110
How many ounces are in 1 pound?
16
The pharmacist is preparing 200 mL of a famotidine suspension containing 75mg/5mL. How many 20 mg tablets of famotidine will be needed?
150 tablets
If you needed to find information about the pharmacology of a drug what is a good resource?
PPI (Patient Package Insert)
Do OSHA regulations address all of the following: Bloodborne pathogens, wet surfaces and potential slip/falls, and exposure to hazard chemicals?
Yes: OSHA regulations address the following potential hazards in a pharmacy: Exposure to bloodborne pathogens (HIV, Hepatitis B & C), exposure to hazardous chemicals or drugs, exposure of eyes or bodies to corrosive materials, exposure to latex allergy, exposure to wet surfaces that could cause slip and falls, and availability of personal protective equipment.
5,912 mL = __ L
5.912
64 fluid ounces = __ pints
4
Cocaineis on which controlled substance schedule?
Schedule II
What is an FDA Class II Recall?
Recalls for products that might cause significant injury or temporary illness.
Which federal law introduced a ‘proof-of-efficacy’ requirement?
The Kefauver Harris Amendment is also known as the ‘Drug Efficacy Amendment.’ A 1962 amendment
What class of medication is Loratadine?
Antihistamine
On a DEA222 order form is a triplicate. Which area does each of the colors go to when the form is filled in its entirety?
(Blue, Green, and Brown copies)
Brown: Supplier
Green: DEA
Blue: Purchaser
The ‘Red Book’ is a resource that focuses on ______?
Drug pricing
How many grams are in 1 ounce?
28.35
What does cap. mean?
capsule
What is the duration of validity for a pharmacy’s DEA permit?
3 years
What is a root cause analysis?
A process used to identify factors that contributed to the occurrence of a medication error or adverse event.
What is the meaning of the final set of numbers of an NDC?
Package size
When preparing sterile compounds what is the first PPE that you will put on?
Shoe Covers
Once reconstituted, how long is azithromycin good for?
10 days
True or False: both Amlodipine and Epinephrine are considered high risk medications.
False
Amlodipine is a medication used to treat high blood pressure and chest pain (angina), it is not high risk,
Epinephrine is a high-risk drug because of its potential for causing harm if used incorrectly.
