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THE-PEAT Flash Card Study > PTCB Practice Questions > Flashcards

PTCB Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of a medication dispensing robot and machines in the retail settings?

A

To allow the pharmacy personnel to perform other activities while making the filling process more efficient.

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2
Q

24 pints = __ gallons

A

3

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3
Q

What does NS mean?

A

normal saline

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4
Q

Which organization oversees Medicare and Medicaid Services?

A

CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services)

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5
Q

What does a.u. mean?

A

both ears

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6
Q

Opium is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

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7
Q

Concerta is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

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8
Q

True or False: In Pharmacies which the DEA has granted blanket authorization to destroy controlled substances, Pharmacy Technicians are not allowed to carry out the destruction of these substances under any condition.

A

False

In Pharmacies which the DEA has granted blanket authorization to destroy controlled substances, Pharmacy Technicians may carry out this task with a pharmacist or nurse witness.

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9
Q

What does disp. mean?

A

dispense

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10
Q

Which dosage form is designed to dissolve under the tongue?

A

Sublingual

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11
Q

Which needle size is smallest; 15G, 19G, 25G, or 30G?

A

30G

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12
Q

What is the metric prefix for thousand?

A

kilo

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13
Q

Didrex is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule III

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14
Q

The process by which a health insurance company determines if it should be the primary or secondary payer of medical claims for a patient who has coverage from more than one health insurance policy:

A

Coordination of Benefits

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15
Q

What does t.i.d. mean?

A

three times a day

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16
Q

What is the minimum and maximum weight limits for a class A balance?

A

The minimum weight that can be weighed on a Class A Prescription Balance is 120 mg and the maximum weight is 120 g.

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17
Q

Where must Schedule II medications be stored within the pharmacy?

A

A locked safe

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18
Q

What type of drug is omeprazole?

A

Prilosec (omeprazole) is a proton pump inhibitor

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19
Q

Laminar flow hoods must be certified every ___ months.

A

6 months

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20
Q

What temperature range is necessary for storing refrigerated medications?

A

35.6 - 46.4 F (2 - 8 C)

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21
Q

What does q.h. mean?

A

every hour

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22
Q

What does q.i.d. mean?

A

four times per day

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23
Q

What does stat mean?

A

immediately

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24
Q

How many times can a prescription of alprazolam be refilled at most?

A

5 refills within 6 months

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25
Q

True or False: An insulin syringe only measures in units.

A

False
Insulin syringes measures in both ml’s and units

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26
Q

Which Act of Congress addresses the privacy and security of health data?

A

(HIPPA) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

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27
Q

Melatonin is a non-prescription medication used to treat __________?

A

insomnia

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28
Q

What does u.d. mean?

A

as directed

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29
Q

What does SL mean?

A

sublingually

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30
Q

4 tsp = __ mL

A

20

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31
Q

What does o.u. mean?

A

both eyes

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32
Q

An order is written for 500 mL of NS to infuse at 40 gtt/min. How long would it take to infuse the NS if the set delivers 10 gtt/mL?

A

10 gtt/mL = 10 drops per ml
10 x 500 = 5,000 drops
Flow rate of 40 ggt/min
5,000 / 40 = 125

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33
Q

A bottle of fluticasone propionate nasal spray provides 120 metered sprays. Each spray delivers 50 mcg of fluticasone propionate in 100 mg of formulation through the nasal adapter. A prescription is filled for,“Three bottles, 2 sprays each nostril, qd.” How many days will this supply last?

A

90 day

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34
Q

How many grams are in 8 kilograms?

A

8,000

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35
Q

Once punctured, what is the BUD of insulin?

A

28 days

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36
Q

Convert this roman numeral to a number: CXXVI

A

126

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37
Q

What is the brand name for eszopiclone?

A

Lunesta

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?
Maxide, pioglitazone, spironolactone, furosemide

A

pioglitazone

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39
Q

Kava is an herbal medication can be used to treat _________?

A

Anxiety

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40
Q

What dosage form should a diabetic avoid?

A

Syrup

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41
Q

Restorilis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

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42
Q

1 fluid ounce = __ mL

A

30

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43
Q

What does q.4h mean?

A

every 4 hours

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44
Q

You are planning to prepare 600 mL of 20% dextrose solution,by mixingyour 5% and 50% dextrose solution. How much of each solution will be needed?

A

Allegation problem
50 goes in the upper left of your tic-tac-toe table, 5 in the lower left, and 20 in the middle.
Subtract across the middle: 15 in the upper right and 30 in the lower right.
15 parts of the 50% and 30 parts of the 5%, for a total of 45 parts.

Amount of 50% needed will be:
(15/45) x 600 = 200

Amount of 5% needed will be:
(30/45) x 600 = 400

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45
Q

An order is written to administer2 liters of an IV fluid over 18 hours. What will the flow rate be?

A

111.1 ml/hr
Divide the volume by the time to get the flow rate: 2L = 2,000 ml
2000/18 = 111.1 ml/hr

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46
Q

What is a FDA Class III Recall?

A

Recalls for products that are unlikely to cause injury or illness but violate FDA regulations.

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47
Q

After a patient gives allergy information, what does the technician do with the information?

A

Enter the allergy into the patient’s profile

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48
Q

Crestor, Vytorin, and Zetia are all used to treat ________?

A

High Cholesterol

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49
Q

A bottle with 236 milliliters of liquid allergy medication containsDiphenhydramine HCl 12.5mg/5mL. How milligrams ofDiphenhydramine HCl are in the bottle?

A

590 mg

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50
Q

Which Medicare part covers inpatient hospitals stays?

A

Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital stays.

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51
Q

How much dextrose is in a 900mL solution of D5W?
45g, 500g, 90g, or 180g

A

45g

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52
Q

Ultramis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

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53
Q

Convert this roman numeral to a number: LII

A

52

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54
Q

What does g mean?

A

gram

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55
Q

What volume of a drug for injection 100mg/45mL should be used for 250mg?

A

112.5 mL

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56
Q

Should a patient with a severe allergy to penicillin receive amoxicillin?

A

No

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57
Q

What does IM mean?

A

intramuscular

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58
Q

What does gtt mean?

A

drop

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59
Q

What does p.r. mean?

A

by rectum

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60
Q

Which of the following provides the Medicare prescription drug benefit?

A

Medicare Part D

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61
Q

Morphineis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

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62
Q

Ambien and Lunesta are two medications used to treat what condition?

A

Insomnia

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63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a Schedule I narcotic? OxyContin, Heroin, Marijuana, Ecstasy

A

OxyContin is a schedule II medication.

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64
Q

Vicodin is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

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65
Q

What is the official document used to report theft of a controlled substance?

A

DEA 106

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66
Q

Anabolic Steroids are on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule III

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67
Q

What is a common side effect of warfarin?

A

Internal Bleeding

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68
Q

What PPE can be used in the pharmacy to prevent hazardous drug exposure?

A

Shoe Cover and gloves

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69
Q

Tall man-small man lettering is used for which purpose?

A

Differentiating medications with similar names

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70
Q

Suboxone is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule III

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71
Q

Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) is a system designed to:

A

prevent medication errors in healthcare settings.

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72
Q

1 pound = __ kg

A

0.454

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73
Q

A child’s prescription forceftriaxone is50mg/kg per day in equally divided doses every 12 hours. How many grams of the drug will be administered over the first 5 days if thechild weighs 80 pounds?

(Note: Multiple step problem)

A

9 grams

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74
Q

65 mL = __ tsp

A

13

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75
Q

2 tbsp = __ mL

A

30

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76
Q

How many digits is a BIN number?

A

6 Digits
The NCPDP Processor ID Number (BIN) is a six-digit number that health plans can use to process electronic pharmacy claims if they do not use pharmacy benefit cards with a magnetic stripe.

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77
Q

Chantix is used to treat what condition?

A

Nicotine addiction

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78
Q

A patient comes to the pharmacy counter with a prescription for Amoxicillin 250mg/5mL and the directions indicate 1¼ tsp po bid x 10d. What is the total quantity needed for dispensing?

A

125 ml

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79
Q

2½ oz = __ g

A

70.75

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80
Q

What does a.m. mean?

A

morning

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81
Q

Marijuana is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule I

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82
Q

What does sig mean?

A

write on label

83
Q

Peyoteis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule I

84
Q

CPOE helps prevent medication errors by ___________?

A

Eliminating hand written prescriptions

85
Q

Fexofenadine is an ________?

A

Antihistamine (Brand name Allegra)

86
Q

What does pulv. mean?

A

powder

87
Q

Is HIPPA enforceable by the FDA?

A

No. FDA primarily regulates food, drugs, medical devices, and cosmetics.

88
Q

Somais on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

89
Q

5.5 lb = __ oz

A

88

90
Q

iPLEDGE program is designed to mitigate the risks associated with taking:

A

Isotretinoin, a medication primarily used to treat cystic acne. iPLEDGE is a mandatory distribution program that is intended to prevent the use of isotretinoin during pregnancy, due to the high risk of birth defects.

91
Q

OxyContin is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

92
Q

What does the abbreviation NPO mean?

A

Nothing by mouth

93
Q

What does inj mean?

A

injection

94
Q

An excipient an ingredient known as a _________?

A

Filler

95
Q

How many milliliters are in 1 teaspoon?

A

5

96
Q

Which drug classification does Meloxicam belong to?

A

NSAID

97
Q

Ativanis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

98
Q

A list of medications available for use within a health care system is called a _________?

A

Formulary

99
Q

Demerolis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

100
Q

When you capitalize the part of the drug name that is DIFFERENT, you are using _______?

A

Tall man letters

101
Q

A 30 mL dose of nighttime cough suppressant contains 12.5 mg of doxylamine succinate. How many milligrams of doxylamine succinate are in the entire 354 mL bottle?

A

147.5 mg

102
Q

This is an autoimmune diseasein whichthe thyroid is overactive, and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones:

A

Graves’ Disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

103
Q

What does IV mean?

A

intravenous

104
Q

What is a clinical decision support alert?

A

An alert that the ordered medication may interact with other medications on the patient profile.

105
Q

What does DAW mean?

A

dispense as written

106
Q

What is Additive Effect?

A

Additive Effect is when the effect of two drugs together is equal to the sum of their individual effects.

107
Q

Where should the measurement be read from when measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?

A

Bottom of the meniscus

108
Q

A bottle with 8 fluid ounces of liquid allergy medication contains 590 mg of Diphenhydramine HCl. How many grams of Diphenhydramine HCl are in 1 gallon of this medication?

(Note: This is a two-step problem)

A

9.44 grams

109
Q

How many pints are in 1 gallon?

A

8

110
Q

What does supp mean?

A

suppository

111
Q

What does div. mean?

A

divide

112
Q

True or False - A Class B scale is the best option for measuring a range from 650 mg to 120 g.

A

True

113
Q

What does q.s. mean?

A

a sufficient quantity

114
Q

What does d.t.d. mean?

A

give of such doses

115
Q

All of the following are required to be on a patient profile except:
Alcohol and illicit drug use, allergies, gender, occupation

A

Occupation

116
Q

What does ad lib. mean?

A

as desired

117
Q

How many fluid ounces are in 1 quart?

A

32

118
Q

Valiumis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

119
Q

What is the proper hand washing guideline in USP 797?

A

Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 30 seconds.

120
Q

Which is the largest capsule size; 000, 0, 1, 5?

A

000 is the largest.

121
Q

What occurs when two drugs work against each other?

A

Antagonism is when two drugs work against each other.

122
Q

What drug class relieves allergy symptoms?

A

Antihistamines

123
Q

The pharmacy recieves a controlled substance order from their wholesaler. There are a total of 435 pills. Of this total, 17% are C2, 19% are C3, 20% are C4, and 44% are C5. How many C3 pills were in the order?

A

83 pills
(82.65 rounded up to 83)

124
Q

Heroinis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule I

125
Q

Which part of the NDC number indicates the manufacturer of a drug?

A

The first 4–5 digits

126
Q

Ambienis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

127
Q

If two drugs are taken together and one of them intensifies the action of the other, what type of drug interaction has occurred?

A

Synergism is when the effect of two drugs together is greater than the sum of their individual effects.

128
Q

What doesp.o. mean?

A

by mouth

129
Q

Xanaxis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

130
Q

Adderall is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

131
Q

What does a.d. mean?

A

right ear

132
Q

The FDA publishes a book calledApproved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, which is more commonly known as the:

A

Orange Book

133
Q

Percocetis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

134
Q

How long do DEA forms need to be kept?

A

2 years

135
Q

Which of the following medications is recommended for addressing symptoms associated with BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)?
Meclizine, Levofloxacin, Gemfibrozil, Terazosin

A

Terazosin

136
Q

How is 34 written in roman numerals?

A

XXXIV

137
Q

What does tsp mean?

A

teaspoon

138
Q

This federal law requires pharmacists to review Medicaid recipients’ entire drug profile before filling their prescriptions.

A

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

139
Q

A drug with no accepted medical use and extremely high potential for abuse is classified as what schedule-controlled substance?

A

Schedule I (Such as drugs such as Marijuana, Ecstasy, Peyote, and Heroin.)

140
Q

Duragesic is on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

141
Q

What does aa mean?

A

of each

142
Q

What doesDW mean?

A

distilled water

143
Q

What is an FDA Class I Recall?

A

Recalls for products that could cause severe injury or death.

144
Q

Name the dose form that is inserted into the rectum, vagina, or urethra.

A

suppository

145
Q

The pharmacy technician can reconstitute a 100 mL bottle of Amoxycillin in 50 seconds. How many of these bottles can the technician reconstitute in 30 minutes?

A

36 bottles

146
Q

When is a DEA form 222 required to be used?

A

Ordering any Schedule II controlled substance. If the form isn’t filled out correctly, the wholesaler is not allowed to deliver the medication.

147
Q

If a pharmacy technician suspects a dosage error, what should they do first?

A

Alert the pharmacist to double check dose.

148
Q

Covert 5.5 kg to pounds.

A

5.5 kg is 12.1 lbs

149
Q

Which DEA form is needed for destroying outdated or damaged controlled substances?

A

DEA 41

150
Q

Comminution is defined as ____________?

A

The action of reducing a material to small particles

151
Q

What is the metric prefix for millionth?

A

micro

152
Q

True or False - Bar Code technology is not used in a pharmacy setting.

A

FALSE

153
Q

Benztropine, Amantadine and Ropinirole are all indicated for which disease.

A

Parkinson’s Disease

154
Q

What is the metric prefix for hundredth?

A

centi

155
Q

You need 800 mL of 10% dextrose solution. How much of your 50% and 5% dextrose solution will you need to mix?

A

Mix 89 mL of the 50% and 711 mL of the 5%

156
Q

A prescription calls for 25mg of a medication t.i.d. for 7 days. The stock solution is composed of a 100mg/3mL. How many ml’s is needed to fill the order?

A

15.75 ml

157
Q

What does prn mean?

A

as needed

158
Q

What is the metric prefix for tenth?

A

deci

159
Q

Lunestais on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule IV

160
Q

What is the brand name for aripiprazole?

A

Abilify (an Antipsychotic)

161
Q

Proton pump inhibitor that is used to treat which disease?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

162
Q

The generic drug suffix for a proton pump inhibitor is _____?

A

prazole

163
Q

What DEA form needs to be filled out to transfer controlled substances from one pharmacy to another?

A

DEA 105

164
Q

What does ung. mean?

A

ointment

165
Q

True or False: Schedule III, IV and V may be stocked on shelves throughout the pharmacy.

A

TRUE

166
Q

The percent equivalent of a 1:125 ratio is:

A

1/125 =x/100
125x = 100
x = 0.8

167
Q

How is 59 written in roman numerals?

A

LIX

168
Q

If a physician writes an order for 400 mL of D5W to be infused over a 4-hour time period, and the IV drop factor is 12 gtt/mL, how manydrops per minute should be delivered?

A

20 gtt

60gtt x 4 hours = 240

400ml/240 = 1.67 ml infused in 1 minute

1.67 x 12 = 20 drops per minute

169
Q

Of all the prescriptions received at the pharmacy last Tuesday, 892 were refills. The remainder were new prescriptions, with 168 from patient drop-offs, 183 coming in electronically, and 69 coming in by phone. What percentage of the total prescriptions received were new drop-offs?

A

12.85%

892+168+183+69 =1,312
168÷1,312=0.128
0.128×100=12.8%

170
Q

What does the abbreviation gtt mean?

A

drops

171
Q

What does sol mean?

A

solution

172
Q

What doesgr. mean?

A

grain

173
Q

What does top. mean?

A

topical

174
Q

What does mEq mean?

A

milliequivalent

175
Q

The pharmacy technician knows that 600 mL of 20% dextrose solution contains _____ grams of dextrose.

A

120 grams

176
Q

What does b.i.d. mean?

A

twice daily

177
Q

What does a.c. mean?

A

before meals

178
Q

True or False - A side effect of Nitrofurantoin is urine discoloration.

A

True

179
Q

What does p.c. mean?

A

after meals

180
Q

Glucosamine is a non-prescription medication used to treat what?

A

arthritis symptoms

181
Q

3 kg = __ lb

A

6.6

182
Q

9 tsp = __ tbsp

A

3

183
Q

611 cm = __ mm

A

6,110

184
Q

How many ounces are in 1 pound?

A

16

185
Q

The pharmacist is preparing 200 mL of a famotidine suspension containing 75mg/5mL. How many 20 mg tablets of famotidine will be needed?

A

150 tablets

186
Q

If you needed to find information about the pharmacology of a drug what is a good resource?

A

PPI (Patient Package Insert)

187
Q

Do OSHA regulations address all of the following: Bloodborne pathogens, wet surfaces and potential slip/falls, and exposure to hazard chemicals?

A

Yes: OSHA regulations address the following potential hazards in a pharmacy: Exposure to bloodborne pathogens (HIV, Hepatitis B & C), exposure to hazardous chemicals or drugs, exposure of eyes or bodies to corrosive materials, exposure to latex allergy, exposure to wet surfaces that could cause slip and falls, and availability of personal protective equipment.

188
Q

5,912 mL = __ L

A

5.912

189
Q

64 fluid ounces = __ pints

A

4

190
Q

Cocaineis on which controlled substance schedule?

A

Schedule II

191
Q

What is an FDA Class II Recall?

A

Recalls for products that might cause significant injury or temporary illness.

192
Q

Which federal law introduced a ‘proof-of-efficacy’ requirement?

A

The Kefauver Harris Amendment is also known as the ‘Drug Efficacy Amendment.’ A 1962 amendment

193
Q

What class of medication is Loratadine?

A

Antihistamine

194
Q

On a DEA222 order form is a triplicate. Which area does each of the colors go to when the form is filled in its entirety?
(Blue, Green, and Brown copies)

A

Brown: Supplier
Green: DEA
Blue: Purchaser

195
Q

The ‘Red Book’ is a resource that focuses on ______?

A

Drug pricing

196
Q

How many grams are in 1 ounce?

A

28.35

197
Q

What does cap. mean?

A

capsule

198
Q

What is the duration of validity for a pharmacy’s DEA permit?

A

3 years

199
Q

What is a root cause analysis?

A

A process used to identify factors that contributed to the occurrence of a medication error or adverse event.

200
Q

What is the meaning of the final set of numbers of an NDC?

A

Package size

201
Q

When preparing sterile compounds what is the first PPE that you will put on?

A

Shoe Covers

202
Q

Once reconstituted, how long is azithromycin good for?

A

10 days

203
Q

True or False: both Amlodipine and Epinephrine are considered high risk medications.

A

False

Amlodipine is a medication used to treat high blood pressure and chest pain (angina), it is not high risk,

Epinephrine is a high-risk drug because of its potential for causing harm if used incorrectly.

THE-PEAT Flash Card Study (6 decks)

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