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PTB Flashcards

1
Q

it is used to identify pathogenic organisms and to determine whether malignant cells are present

A

SPUTUM STUDIES

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2
Q

what is the usual method of obtaining a sputum sample?

A

Expectoration

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3
Q

When obtaining a sputum sample, a nurse should instruct the patient to

A

Inhale and deplate

to get the sputum at the base of the lungs

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4
Q

best time to obtain sputum sample

A

early in the morning

the microoganisms accumulate overnight

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5
Q

Sputum specimen should be delivered to the lab within ____

A

2 hours

to prevent overgrowth of microorganisms

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6
Q

TWO TYPES OF TUBERCULOSIS

A
  1. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
  2. Extrapulmonary Tuberculosis
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7
Q

The nurse offers _______ after the collection of specimen in sputum studies.

A

oral hygiene

provide comfort

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8
Q

TB causative agents

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium Africanum
  • Mycobacterium bovis
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9
Q

TB among children is called ______

A

Primary Complex

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10
Q

4 mode of transmissions of TB

( A-D-D-I )

A

Airborne, Droplet, Direct invasion, Ingestion of unpasteurized milk or dairy products

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11
Q

To prevent the transmission of airborne microoorganisms, nurse x must wear ____.

A

N95/well fitted respirator mask

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12
Q

transmission of smaller particles/microrganism

A

Airborne

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13
Q

transmission of bigger particles/microrganism

A

Droplet

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14
Q

It is a rare mode of transmission where in a person must wear gloves, mask, and gown as precautionary measures. Nurses must leave the PPE’s in the patient room before going out.

A

Direct invasion

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15
Q

what are the extreme temperatures to destroy microorganisms

A

63° C in 30 mins and 71.6° C degrees in 15 secs

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16
Q

Incubation Period of TB

A

2-8 weeks

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17
Q

How long must a patient adhere to the pTB regimen in order to become non-contagious?

A

2-4 weeks

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18
Q

patients/ people under CLOSED CONTACTS are

A

those who stayed in an ENCLOSED SPACE FOR 3 MONTHS

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19
Q

patients/ people under HIGH RISK GROUP are

A

those who stayed in a CLOSED ENVIRONMENT (prison/inmates)

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20
Q

patients/ people under HIGH RISK CLINICAL GROUP are

A

Patients with AIDS, HIV, DM, Renal Failure

(immunocompromised)

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21
Q

6 CARDINAL SIGNS of PULMONARY TB

( P-H-L-A-W-N)

A

Persistent Cough
Hemoptysis
Low Grade Fever ( in the afternoon)
Anorexia
Weight Loss
Night Sweats

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22
Q

what are the three Dx Tests for pTB?

( D-C-T )

A
  • Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM)
  • Chest X-ray
  • Tuberculin Skin Test
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23
Q

What will you instruct to a patient when applying the SPOT/Conventional Therapy

A

Ask the patient to go back early in the morning to collect his/her sputum

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24
Q

when will you obtain the sputum sample when applying the “SPOT-SPOT” method ?

A

1ST SPOT: Collect after the chief complaint/ on the spot
2ND SPOT: After 1 hour
3RD SPOT: Early in the next morning

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25
Q

. Tuberculin Skin Test:
+10 mm means?

A

Exposed patients/Positive pTB

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26
Q

Tuberculin Skin Test:
+5 mm means?

A

immunocompromised patients (AIDS,HIV patients)/Positive pTB

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27
Q

A patient that is NOT yet diagnosed/with TB before & taking TB drugs for 2 months is classified as ?

A

new TB

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28
Q

After receiving treatment for her TB, patient C was rediagnosed with the illness, which is categorized as?

A

Relapse patients

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29
Q

The TB treatment for Patient A was unsuccessful. This is categorized as?

A

Treatment after failure patients

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30
Q

RETURN AFTER DEFAULT; loss of contact/follow-up for 2 months is classified as?

A

Treatment after loss to follow-up patients

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31
Q

The man has no known treatment/undocumented TB treatment is identified to be marked as ?

A

Other previously treated patients

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32
Q

Patient K does not fit in any category under classification of previous TB treatment is marked as ?

A

Patients with unknown previous TB treatment history

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33
Q

DOTS- Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is done in ______

A

health center/clinic

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34
Q

How long is the Intensive Phase of DOTS

A

2 months

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35
Q

How long is the Maintenance Phase of DOTS

A

4 months

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36
Q

First Line of drugs in PTB

A

Rifampicin , Izoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol, Streptomycin

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37
Q

What are the two classes of second line drugs in PTB?

A

Amino glycosides and Fluoroquinolones

38
Q

Multi-drug Therapy is applied in PTB treatment to?

A

To reduce resistance particulary to Isoniazid & Rifampicin

39
Q

the nurse knows that she will discontinue administering RIPE drugs to PTB patient if she observes:

40
Q

discontinue administering ethambutol if the patient portrays

A

Visual impairment

41
Q

Tinnitus and hearing impairment are caused by what drug under the PTB Multi-drug Therapy?

A

Streptomycin

42
Q

Oliguria and albuminuria are caused by what drug under the PTB Multi-drug Therapy?

A

Streptomycin & Rifampicin

43
Q

Isoniazid can cause ?

A

Psychosis and convulsion

44
Q

Thrombocytopenia and anemia are caused by what drug under the PTB Multi-drug Therapy?

A

Rifampicin

45
Q

Multiple Drug Resistance TB (MDR-TB) means ?

A

Resistant to Isoniazid and Rifampicin

46
Q

Extensively Drug Resistance TB (XDR-TB) is resistant to what drug/s?

A

Isoniazid, Rifampicin, and Fluoroquinolones

47
Q

Extremely Drug Resistance TB (XXDR-TB) is resistant to what drug/s?

A

Resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin, and Fluoroquinolones

48
Q

Total Drug Resistance TB (TDR-TB) is resistant to what drug/s?

A

Resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin, and Fluoroquinolones

49
Q

It is a diagnostic procedure that detects fluids, tumors, foreign bodies and other pathologic conditions

A

CHEST X-RAY

50
Q

Side effect of Rifampicin

A

Red-orange urine/secretions

51
Q

What vitamin will you give for a patient taking Izoniazid?

A

Vitamin B6

52
Q

Streptomycin is contraindicated to Pott’s dse because?

A

It can damage the Cranial Nerve VIII

53
Q

Do we offer mouthwash before taking specimen/sputum?

A

No, water only

mouthwash kills the microorganisms and may lead to innacurate results

54
Q

Two Sputum: Positive

A

Positive pTB

55
Q

Two Sputum: One negative, One positive

A

Obtain Chest X-ray

56
Q

How many hours will you wait for the 2nd spot in SPOT-SPOT??

57
Q

mm: HIV

58
Q

drugs listed under C1, intensive phase

A

2HRZE (Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol)

59
Q

drugs listed under C1, maintenance phase

A

4HR (Isoniazid, Rifampicin )

60
Q

drugs listed under C2, maintenance phase

A

5HRE (Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ethambutol)

61
Q

drugs listed under C2, intensive phase

A

2HRZES (Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide,Ethambutol,Streptomycin)

62
Q

patients classified as : New pTB, Extensive Parenchyma Lesions are under the category treatment of ?

( C1, C2, C3 or C4)

63
Q

patients classified as : Relapse, Treatment failure, return after default,and others are under the category treatment of ?

( C1, C2, C3 or C4)

64
Q

patients classified as : New pTB; with minimal lesions are under the category treatment of ?

( C1, C2, C3 or C4)

65
Q

patients classified as : Chronic pTB; Positive TB after supervise treatment , are under the category treatment of ?

( C1, C2, C3 or C4)

66
Q

drugs under C3, Intensive Phase are?

A

2HRZ (Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide)

67
Q

drugs under C3, maintenance phase are ?

A

4HR (Isoniazid,Rifampicin)

68
Q

Amikacin, Kanamycin, and Capreomycin are drugs under?

A

Second line: Amino glycosides

69
Q

Ciprofloxacin, Moxifloxacin amd Levofloxacin are drugs under?

A

Second line: Fluoroquinolones

70
Q

it is an airway clearance technique (ACT) to clear the lungs

A

CHEST PHYSIOTHERAPY

71
Q

the main goal of performing the chest physiotherapy is to ___?

A

to remove
tracheobronchial secretions

72
Q

how long do we perform the Chest Physiotherapy?

A

20-40 MINUTES

73
Q

what is the best time to perform chest physiotherapy?

A
  1. Upon awakening
  2. Before meals
  3. 30 mins to 2hrs after meals; to prevent aspiration
  4. At bed time ; to prevent sleep disturbance.
74
Q

are we allowed to perform CPT on bare skin?

75
Q

CPT is done in patients with Airbone Infections. True / false?

A

false

increases the risks for transmision of microorganisms

76
Q

what kind of clothes are allowed for the patient to wear in CPT?

A

Light, soft clothing, such as a T-shirt

77
Q

The patient can wear tight clothing, jewelry, buttons, and
zippers around the neck, chest and waist during CPT. True or False?

A

False

no tight clothing, jewelry,buttons,zippers around neck, waist and chest

78
Q

Classifications of CPT

A
  • Postural Drainage
  • Percussion
  • Vibration
79
Q

it involves positioning a person with the assistance of gravity to aid the normal airway clearance mechanism

A

Postural Drainage

80
Q

Length of time to hold Positions under postural drainage

A

3-15 minutes

81
Q

Positions under Postural Drainage?

A

Sitting, Trendelenburg, Prone,Side-lying

82
Q

This position includes placing a small pillow under head, 2 pillows under bent knees.

A

Trendelenburg

83
Q

This position includes putting 2 or 3 pillows under stomach so that chest is lower than hips.

84
Q

This position includes placing a small pillow under head and 2 or 3 pillows under hips

A

Side-lying

85
Q

Under postural drainage, what breathing technique must be instructed to the patient ?

A

Breathe in through nose and out through mouth.Always breathe out for longer than breathe in.

This allows lungs to empty as much as possible.

86
Q

This is accomplished by rhythmically striking the thorax/chest wall with a cupped hand or mechanical device directly over the lung segment(s) being drained. Also referred to as cupping, clapping, and tapotement

A

Percussion

87
Q

How long do we perform percussion?

A

2-3 mins; maximum 5 mins

88
Q

Special attention must be taken to not clap over the:

A
  1. Spine, Breastbone, Stomach
  2. Lower ribs or back

1. may cause fracture
2. May cause damage to spleen, kidneys , liver

89
Q

it involves the application of a fine tremorous action/ rapid vibratory impulse is transmitted through the chest wall from the flattened hands to loosen and dislodge the airway secretions

90
Q

how long do we perform vibration under the CPT?

A

15 seconds

Renal and Respiratory Procedures (3 decks)

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