PT APPS Flashcards

1
Q

Your patient with Parkinson’s disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the
following EXCEPT
a. arrhythmias
b. gastrointestinal distress
c. orthostatic hypotension
d. impaired visual accommodation

A

d. impaired visual accommodation

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2
Q

In behavior therapy, this is a process where learning occurs when an individual engages in specific
behaviors in order to receive certain consequences. Examples of this include positive reinforcement,
extinction and punishment.
a. Operant conditioning
b. Role playing
c. Flooding
d. Modeling

A

a. Operant conditioning

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3
Q

A 29-year old male with a history of schizophrenia, disorganized type, is referred for ambulation after
a femoral fracture. Patient recently had an exacerbation of the condition. PT will expect this behavior
from patient ______.
a. Feelings of low self-esteem
b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving
c. Sleep disturbance and flashbacks
d. Increased fear of crowd

A

b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving

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4
Q

A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following
electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers?
a. premature ventricular contractions
b. sinus bradycardia
c. ST segment sagging
d. sinus tachycardia

A

b. sinus bradycardia

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5
Q

A patient with left sided CHF class II, is referred for physical therapy. During exercises, the patient can
be expected to exhibit _________________.
a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension
b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath
d. Weight gain with dependent edema

A

b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

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6
Q

Pain in the calf aggravate by walking and elevation of the lower extremity is MOST LIKELY caused by
___________________.
a. Arterial insufficiency
b. Sciatica
c. Venous insufficiency
d. Lymphedema

A

a. Arterial insufficiency

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7
Q

Sudden muscle cramps brought on by exertion and relieved by rest describes this condition.)
a. Embolic occlusion
b. Thrombophlebitis
c. Lymphedema
d. Claudication

A

d. Claudication

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8
Q

Your patient is a 65-year-old female diagnosed with venous problem. The following therapeutic
procedures are usually indicated to prevent progression of condition EXCEPT: _____________.
a. Patient with problems in the lower extremities should be encouraged to walk, run, rise on toes
b. Electric stimulation is not recommended
c. Gentle massage can be given to move the stagnant blood and relieve the pressure
d. Intermittent pneumatic compression treatments are commonly given, often followed by
exercises

A

b. Electric stimulation is not recommended

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9
Q

A PT is treating a 39-year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. During exercise, the
patient begins to complain of light headedness and dizziness. PT immediately takes patient to a chair
and monitors her vital signs. Her respiration rate is 11 breaths per minute, pulse rate 50 beats per
minute and BP 120/85 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
b. The patient’s vital signs are within normal levels
c. Pulse rate and BP are above normal levels
d. BP and respiration rate are above normal levels

A

a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels

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10
Q

A 70-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes to therapy confused
and has shortness of breath and generalized weakness. You will suspect that the patient
________________.
a. Is experiencing unstable angina
b. Is showing signs of early Alzheimer’s disease
c. Failed to take prescribed hypertension medication
d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

A

d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

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11
Q

A PT employee of a rehabilitation center of a hospital evaluates a patient showing several signs and
symptoms of anemia. Which of these questions would be the MOST useful to gather additional
information in relation to anemia?
a. Does it hurt to take a deep breath?
b. Are you susceptible to bruising?
c. Do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches or blurred vision?
d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

A

d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

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12
Q

A patient was referred to PT with fingertips that are rounded and bulbous. The nail plate is more
convex than normal. These changes were considered by the PT as indicating __________.
a. Trauma to the nail bed
b. Inflammation of the proximal and lateral nail folds
c. Psoriasis
d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

A

d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

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13
Q

Many of patients seen in physical therapy are susceptible to excessive heat exposure. Heat exhaustion
occurs when a person is exposed to more heat than the thermoregulatory mechanisms are capable of
controlling. Although it rarely occurs in pure forms, it can be categorized as any of the following
EXCEPT ______________ heat exhaustion
a. Exercise induced (heat syncope)
b. Salt exhaustion
c. Protein depletion
d. Water-depletion

A

c. Protein depletion

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14
Q

A patient with a left sided congestive heart failure, class II, is referred to PT. while exercising, patient
may exhibit ____________.
a. Weight gain with dependent edema
b. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension
c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath
d. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

A

d. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

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15
Q

A traumatic brain injured patient reports to physical therapy feeling lethargic after being placed on
phenobarbital. The primary purpose of the medication is to
a. prevent seizures
b. reduce spasticity
c. limit arrhythmias
d. decrease agitation

A

a. prevent seizures

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16
Q

A post MI patient is about to begin phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation program. During the initial exercise
session, the patient’s ECG responses are monitored via radio telemetry. PT noticed three PVCs
occurring in a run with no P wave. PTS next strategy is
a. have the patient sit down and rest for a few minutes before resuming exercise
b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately
c. continue the exercise session, but monitor closely
d. modify the exercise prescription by decreasing the intensity

A

b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately

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17
Q

A 75-year-old frail female is being treated at home for general strengthening and mobility. The patient
has a 5 year history of taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin for joint
pain and recently added calcium channel. The possible adverse reactions/side effects include:
a. weight increase, hyperglycemia, hypotension
b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion
c. paresthesia, incoordination, bradycardia
d. increased sweating, fatigue, chest pain

A

b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion

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18
Q

To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids
are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy?
a. Increased susceptibility to notion
b. decrease in BP
c. tachycardia
d. osteoporosis

A

b. decrease in BP

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19
Q

Patient is a 55-year-old female status post removal of lymph nodes in the axilla secondary to cancer.
You apply mechanical intermittent compression and massage. For best results with massage, this
technique is implemented this way
a. massage the distal segment first
b. massage the proximal segment first
c. massage the axillary region first
d. massage applied only every other day

A

b. massage the proximal segment first

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20
Q

The following are characteristics of an arterial ulcer, EXCEPT _______________.
a. Location is usually in the toes, feet lateral malleolus, anterior tibial area
b. Pedal pulses are usually present
c. Has irregular, smooth edges
d. Painful especially if legs are elevated

A

b. Pedal pulses are usually present

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21
Q

A patient in the clinical suddenly had an episode of syncope. PT attempts to rule out orthostatic
hypotension as the cause of fainting. The BEST way to do this is by ______________.
a. Checking resting BP and HR in supine and sitting then repeating measurements after the
patient stands for 1 minute
b. Palpating the carotid arteries and taking HR using the supine position for BP measurement
c. Checking HR and blood pressure in supine after 5 minute of rest and then repeating in a semi-
Fowler position
d. Checking HR and BP at rest and after 3 and 5 minutes of cycle ergometer exercise

A

a. Checking resting BP and HR in supine and sitting then repeating measurements after the
patient stands for 1 minute

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22
Q

A 65-year-old female, 5 weeks post myocardial infarction is attending a cardiac rehab program. The
PT adds a cooling period and patient asks why it is needed. PT’s answer should be _______
a. “it reduces chances of nausea and vertigo.”
b. “it minimizes occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias.”
c. “It allows PT to monitor vital signs after exercise.”
d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

A

d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

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23
Q

Your cardiac patient was given a rest period after symptoms of chest pain and sweating after a mild
exercise. She took nitroglycerin sublingually as per instruction of her cardiologist. The onset of action
from nitroglycerin in this case occurs after _________ minute/s.
a. 30
b. 10
c. 1
d. 5

A

c. 1

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24
Q

A PT is treating a 35-year-old female with thoracic outlet syndrome. While exercising, the patient starts
to complain of light headedness and felt dizzy. PT immediately sits the patient and monitored her vital
signs. PT measures the patient’s respiration rate as 10 breaths per minute, pulse rate at 45 beats per
minute, and blood pressure as 116/84 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels
b. pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
c. patient’s vital signs are within normal limits
d. pulse rate and blood pressure are above normal levels

A

b. pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels

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25
Q

A 55-year-old who underwent recent modified radical mastectomy fox breast cancer is referred to PT.
An important predictor for lymphedema after treatment for breast cancer is ___________.
a. A diet low in sodium
b. Mild strength loss in the affected extremity
c. Use of diuretics
d. Obesity

A

d. Obesity

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26
Q

A patient with stage II primary lymphedema of the left lower extremity is referred to PT for increased
limb girth with evident skin folds. An essential component of lymphedema management is manual
lymphatic drainage which includes _____________.
a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally
b. decongesting the distal portions of the limb first and working proximally
c. deep tissue friction massage for several minutes on fibrotic areas
d. decongesting the trunk after the limb segments

A

a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally

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27
Q

A 66-year-old female patient complains of difficulty of walking. During the rest period, the skin in the
lower leg appears discolored. After walking for about 2 minutes, patient complains of pain in the leg.
A marked pallor is also evident in the skin over the lower third of the extremity. These symptoms are
synonymous with __________.
a. peripheral neuropathy
b. restless leg syndrome
c. neurogenic claudication
d. vascular claudication

A

d. vascular claudication

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28
Q

A patient has a 13-year-old history of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affecting the left lower
extremity. During auscultation of the popliteal artery, the PT would expect to find a/an ________.
a. Bruit
b. + Homan’s sign
c. + pulses
d. intense pain and cramping

A

a. Bruit

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29
Q

Which statement is NOT TRUE about blood pressure?
a. Blood pressure response is higher during weight training than incorporate concentric and
eccentric phase compared to isokinetic
b. Blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance and
therefore is an effective non-invasive performance measure of the pumping mechanism of
the heart
c. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied
d. Blood pressure increases during dynamic resistance exercise, such as free weights,
machines or isokinetics and continues to increase as an exercise set progresses

A

d. Blood pressure increases during dynamic resistance exercise, such as free weights,
machines or isokinetics and continues to increase as an exercise set progresses

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30
Q

Which statement is NOT TRUE about systolic blood pressure?
a. If systolic pressure does not rise with increasing workload, it may indicate that the
functional reserve capacity of the heart has been exceeded
b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm
Hg per metabolic equivalent
c. Normally, systolic blood pressure in the legs is 10-20 percent higher than the pressure in
the arms (brachial artery)
d. Systolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during the ejection cycle,
while diastolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during rest

A

b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm
Hg per metabolic equivalent

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31
Q

A patient with asthma is on medication (albuterol) ventolin from the sympathomimetic group. The
MOST important effect of this drug is _____________.
a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm
b. lower bronchial construction and high blood pressure (BP) that accompanies exercise
c. increases heart rate (HR) and BP to enhance a training effect during aerobic activity
d. raises airway resistance and reduces secretion production

A

a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm

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32
Q

The PRIMARY absolute cardiac contraindication to exercise testing is
a. untreated life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias
b. unstable angina with recent chest pain
c. advanced atrioventricular block
d. uncompensated congestive heart failure

A

b. unstable angina with recent chest pain

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33
Q

The PRIMARY absolute cardiac contraindication to exercise testing is
a. untreated life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias
b. unstable angina with recent chest pain
c. advanced atrioventricular block
d. uncompensated congestive heart failure

A

b. unstable angina with recent chest pain

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34
Q

The treatment of lower extremity edema with intermittent pneumatic compression is MOST
appropriate in this condition.
a. acute thrombophlebitis
b. core pulmonale
c. post operative inguinal node dissection
d. portal hypertension

A

c. post operative inguinal node dissection

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35
Q

You are evaluating a 63-year-old housewife with peripheral vascular disease. She complains of
intermittent claudication and frequently complains of getting tired. The MOST important treatment
goal is to increase __________
a. mobility
b. lower extremity strength
c. collateral circulation
d. range of motion

A

c. collateral circulation

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36
Q

Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms. That and cold and
mist all point to
a. liver disease
b. hypothyroidism
c. cyanosis
d. carotenemia

A

c. cyanosis

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37
Q

A PT discusses the importance of a proper diet with a patient diagnosed with a congestive heart
failure. Which of the following substance would MOST likely be restricted in the patient’s diet?
a. sodium
b. low-density lipoprotein
c. high-density lipoprotein
d. triglycerides

A

a. sodium

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38
Q

This is to test brachial plexus injury, brachial plexus neuritis or Meningitis.
a. Westphal
b. Keri
c. Lhermittes
d. Bіkеlе

A

d. Bіkеlе

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39
Q

The silver fork deformity results from an unreduced or inadequately reduced
a. fracture of the lower ulna
b. fracture of one or more carpals
c. fracture of the first metacarpal
d. Colle’s fracture

A

d. Colle’s fracture

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40
Q

A major reason cervical traction is done intermittently is
a. machine will not overheat
b. b.to increase blood flow to that area
c. greater poundage can be tolerated
d. all of these

A

c. greater poundage can be tolerated

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40
Q

A golfer, while swinging to drive the ball, felt an immediate sharp pain in the right lower
back. The day after patient reported stiffness with easing of pain after a shower. With these
information, the source of pain is MOST LIKELY:
a. Nerve root compression
b. Facet joint impingement
c. A stress fracture
d. Diminished blood supply to the spinal cord

A

b. Facet joint impingement

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41
Q

A patient with pain in the left lateral face and head is found to have limited active and passive
mouth opening range of motion. However, passive lateral deviation is full to both sides. The
probable cause for the limitation in mouth opening range of motion is .
a. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the left
temporomandibular joint
b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left
c. Capsular restriction of the left temporomandibular joint
d. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

A

b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

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42
Q

A post stroke patient standing without any external support has some sway. If he can remain
standing while turning his head or trunks, the functional grade is ____.
a. Normal static and dynamic standing balance
b. Good static and fair dynamic standing balance
c. Good static and normal dynamic standing balance
d. Fair static and good dynamic standing balance

A

b. Good static and fair dynamic standing balance

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42
Q

In order to determine if an exercise session should be terminated, the patient assesses the
level of exertion using the BORG Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale. The patient rates the level
of exertion as 11 on the 6-19 scale. A rating of 11 corresponds to which of the following
.
a. Very, very light
b. Very light
c. Somewhat hard
d. Fairly light

A

d. Fairly light

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43
Q

In a wellness center, a PT was assigned to do a study that examines body composition as a
function of aerobic exercise and diet. The method of data collection that would provide the
MOST accurate of body composition is .
a. Skin fold measurements
b. Hydrostatic weighing
c. Bioelectrical impedance
d. Anthropometric measurement

A

b. Hydrostatic weighing

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44
Q

Body composition is defined as the relative percentage of body weight that is comprised of fat
and fat free tissue. Aside from skin fold measurement and hydrostatic weighing, the other
methods are the following EXCEPT:
a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
b. Body Mass Index
c. Plethysmography
d. Fat content analysis

A

d. Fat content analysis

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45
Q

A 32-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the
spine and associated pain for more than five years. The patient’s MOST typical standing
posture demonstrates .
a. Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae
b. Posterior thoracic rib hump
c. Excessive lumbar curve flattened thoracic curve
d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

A

d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

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46
Q

The MOST effective energy utilization takes place in __________ contraction.
a. eccentric
b. isometric
c. concentric
d. isokinetic

A

a. eccentric

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47
Q

A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. The PT
documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are
MOST consistent with ________________.
a. Hypertension
b. Anemia
c. Diaphoresis
d. Cor pulmonale

A

b. Anemia

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48
Q

Which of the statements about developmental motor control is NOT TRUE?
a. isotonic control develops before isometric control
b. gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control
c. eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement
d. trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control

A

a. isotonic control develops before isometric control

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49
Q

A PT is evaluating a 76-year-old female with chronic forward head posturing in standing and
sitting. To decrease the forward beading, the PT should stretch the _____________.
a. longus capitis and longus colli muscles
b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles
c. rectus capitis anterior muscles
d. middle trapezius and rhomboid muscles

A

b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles

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50
Q

A 60-year-old male patient was referred to PT for an exercise testing after experiencing
shortness of breath twice 2 weeks prior to consultation. After monitoring the vital signs, the
data collected are interpreted. The BEST indicator that patient had exerted maximal effort is
__________.
a. Decrease in diastolic BP of mmHg when compared to the resting value
b. Rating of 12 on a perceived exertion scale
c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity
d. Rise in systolic diastolic BP of 50 mmHg when compared to the resting value

A

c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity

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51
Q

For each degree in Fahrenheit use in body temperature, pulse rate will increase about beats.
a. 14
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10

A

d. 10

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52
Q

A PT will evaluate the shoulder of a patient with hepatitis B. PT finds no open wound abrasions.
Patient has good hygiene. The prescription includes passive range of motion because of
adhesive capsulitis. Which of these precautions is absolutely necessary to prevent infection for
PT?
a. PT should wear gloves
b. none of these
c. PT should wear a mask
d. PT should wear a gown

A

b. none of these

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53
Q

What does it take to be an effective leader? All of the following are examples EXCEPT:
a. Provide little control or feedback
b. Resolve conflict early
c. Provide subordinates an opportunity for growth
d. Encourage creativity and innovation

A

a. Provide little control or feedback

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54
Q

In the functional balance grades, what rate will you give a patient who is able to maintain
balance while weight shifting? (JD)
a. fair
b. poor
c. normal
d. good

A

d. good

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54
Q

A patient exhibits weak quadriceps (4/5) and complains of difficulty in descending stairs. Among
the techniques below, the BEST exercise to regain strength in the quadriceps is
a. isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees/second
b. partial sit-ups later progressing to lunges
c. progressive resistance exercises. 70 percent IRM, 3 sets of 10
d. maximum isometric exercise, at 45 and 90 degrees of knee extension

A

b. partial sit-ups later progressing to lunges

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55
Q

A patient with multiple sclerosis is a subject in a research study testing the efficacy of a new
medication. The patient reports that the medication she is taking makes her feel much better
and allows her to move more easily. At the end of the study, it is revealed that she was part of
the control groups. Her responses are MOST LIKELY due to
a. sampling bias
b. pretest - treatment interference
c. placebo effect
d. Hawthorne effect

A

c. placebo effect

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56
Q

Patient comes to therapy because of poor motor control of the Lower extremities PT determines
that to work efficiently toward bringing the patient back to prior level of ambulation, he must
follow this sequence of control
a. stability, controlled stability, mobility skill
b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill
c. mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill
d. skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility

A

b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill

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57
Q

This is a test for thoracic outlet syndrome where patient is positioned in sitting or supine. The
therapist moves the patient’s arm overhead in the frontal plane while monitoring the patient’s
radial pulse. A positive test is indicated by an absent or diminished radial pulse and may be
indicative of compression in the costoclavicular space.
a. Roos
b. Allen
c. Adson maneuver
d. Wright test

A

d. Wright test

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58
Q

A 52-year-old male weighing 175 lbs. complained of left neck pain radiating to his left thumb.
His Spurling’s sign was positive in the left with depressed left biceps jerk. His X-rays showed a
spondylosis with narrowing of his C5-C6 interspace. The program would MOST LIKELY include
____________.
a. Continuous traction, sitting, with neck at neutral with 20 lbs weight
b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and
poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs
c. Continuous traction lying down with a single pulley in the headboard holding a
weight of 10 lbs which may be increased to 30
d. Intermittent cervical traction while sitting with neck flexed at 45 degrees and
poundage gradually increasing to 10 newtons

A

b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and
poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs

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59
Q

A grade of Fair of lumbar extensors means that the patient is able to do this: (JD)
a. Clear the upper chest off the table
b. Clear the umbilicus off the table
c. Clear the costal rib off the table
d. Clear the xiphoid process off the table

A

b. Clear the umbilicus off the table

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60
Q

A 50-year-old paraplegic was referred for evaluation and management after one week of bed
inactivity. The MMT yielded: upper extremity muscles were grossly graded 3+/5, both hip
flexors and extensor graded 3/5, both quadriceps is 2+/5 and both ankle dorsiflexors are 2-/5.
Initial goals of treatment should be ______.
a. Increase muscle strength
b. All of these
c. Increase postural tolerance
d. Independence in ADL

A

a. Increase muscle strength

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60
Q

In measuring wrist flexion with a goniometer, the bony landmark used to align the instrument
are
a. Lateral condyle of the humerus and the ulna
b. Styloid process of the ulna and
the fifth proximal IP joint
c. Lateral midline of the ulna and
the fifth metacarpal
d. Lateral midline of the radius and first metacarpal

A

c. Lateral midline of the ulna and
the fifth metacarpal

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61
Q

In research it is a concept in statistical test referring to which data have the capacity to vary once
certain limits have been imposed.
a. coefficient of concordance
b. degree of freedom
c. t value
d. p value

A

b. degree of freedom

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62
Q

A patient is performing concentric strengthening exercises of the triceps. In this type of technique,
maximum force is generated at
a. full extension
b. mid-range
c. full flexion
d. all throughout the range

A

b. mid-range

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62
Q

In normal cadence, the knee flexes after heel strike to approximately ____
degrees.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 25

A

c. 15

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63
Q

Which of these statements on water temperature during aquatic exercise is TRUE?
a. heat transfer increases with velocity
b. water retains heat 1000 times more than air
c. differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with
minimal change in temperature of the water
d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

A

d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

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64
Q

Which of these statements on water temperature should NOT be considered when preparing an
aquatic exercise program?
a. Cardiovascular training and aerobic exercise should be performed in water temperature
between 22 degrees C and 25 degrees C.
b. Therapeutic exercise performed at 33 degrees C may be beneficial for patients with acute,
painful musculoskeletal injuries because of the effects of relaxation, elevated pain
threshold and decreased muscle spasm.
c. Flexibility and strengthening exercises; gait training and relaxation may be performed in
temperatures between 26 degrees C and 33 degrees C.
d. Intense aerobic training performed above 80 percent of a patient’s maximum heart rate
should take place in temperature between 22 degrees C

A

a. Cardiovascular training and aerobic exercise should be performed in water temperature
between 22 degrees C and 25 degrees C.

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64
Q

The middle score of a distribution which divides a group of scores into equal parts with half of the
scores falling above and half of the scores falling below is the
____________
.
a. Quota
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Mean

A

b. Median

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65
Q

A patient standing in a corner wall with arm bilaterally abducted and externally rotated against the
wall is MOST LIKELY stretching the .
a. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major
b. Clavicular portion of pectoralis minor
c. Sternal portion of pectoralis major
d. Sternal portion of pectoralis minor

A

a. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major

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66
Q

The principle that states that there will only be an increase in muscle strength if adequate resistance
is given is .
a. Overload
b. McGill
c. Davies
d. Action- reaction

A

a. Overload

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66
Q

A patient immersed in the pool up to the umbilicus effectively off-loads percent of his body weight.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 60
d. 50

A

d. 50

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67
Q

This statement is TRUE of the peak torque of a concentric contraction of the plantarflexors.
a. It occurs at the end of the range where the plantarflexors are the most shortened.
b. It does not change with different velocities of isokinetic testing
c. It is measured in joules
d. It decreases as the muscles fatigue

A

d. It decreases as the muscles fatigue

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68
Q

A 34-year-old motorcycle delivery crew who figured in a vehicular accident was referred to you.
Evaluation revealed that he had no function of the biceps and the brachialis but has functions of the
triceps and deltoid muscles. You can suspect:
a. Nerve root lesion is at C5-C6
b. Lesion is at the lateral cord of the brachial plexus
c. None of these
d. Lesion is at the posterior cord of the brachial plexus

A

b. Lesion is at the lateral cord of the brachial plexus

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69
Q

A PT is implementing a closed kinetic chain exercises for a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate
ligament insufficiency. Which is INAPPROPRIATE to include in the program?
a. Walking backwards on a treadmill
b. Exercise in a stair climber
c. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion
d. Limited squats to 45 degrees

A

c. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion

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70
Q

A 65-year-old former banker with mild dementia is included in a national study testing of efficacy of
a new drug to increase memory. The patient’s family reports that he is perky while taking the
medication and memory seem to be better. At the conclusion of the study, it is revealed that the
patient was part of the control group. These responses are MOST LIKELY due to
a. Hawthorne’s effect
b. sampling bias
c. placebo effect
d. Pretest treatment interference

A

c. placebo effect

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71
Q

At what phase of the gait cycle would a PT expect to notice an everted posture of the calcaneus
a. terminal stance (heel off) to pre swing (toe off)
b. from midstance through heel off (toe off)
c. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)
d. initial swing (acceleration) through midswing

A

c. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)

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72
Q

Patient is suffering from complete paralysis of the gluteus maximus. To compensate during the
stance phase of the gait cycle, the patient will exhibit
a. external tibial torsion at heel strike
b. increased plantarflexion
c. hyperextension of the spine
d. maintenance of knee flexion

A

c. hyperextension of the spine

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73
Q

A patient fatigues easily while performing progressive resistive exercises. Which of the following
exercise techniques will produce LESS fatigue?
a. Oxford
b. De Lorme
c. Brandon
d. Borg

A

a. Oxford

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73
Q

Which of these statements on the center of buoyancy should NOT be considered when designing a
pool program for a patient who underwent a below knee amputation?
a. In the vertical position, posteriorly placed buoyancy devices will cause the patient to lean
backward, anterior buoyancy will cause the patient to lean forward
b. A patient with a unilateral lower extremity amputation will lean toward the residual limb side
in a vertical position
c. During unilateral manual resistance exercises the patient revolves around the therapist in a
circular motion
d. In the vertical position, the human center of buoyancy is located at the sternum

A

a. In the vertical position, posteriorly placed buoyancy devices will cause the patient to lean
backward, anterior buoyancy will cause the patient to lean forward

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74
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of isometric exercise?
a. contractions should be held for at least 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in the
muscle
b. occurs when a muscle contracts without a length change
c. resistance is variable and accommodating
d. strengthening is developed at a point in the range, not over entire length of muscles

A

a. contractions should be held for at least 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in the
muscle

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75
Q

A PT wants to compare frequencies of carpal tunnel syndrome occurring in different groups of
workers restaurant waiters and call center agents. The MOST suitable statistical tool for analysis
data is
a. t-test
b. normal distribution curve
c. chi square test
d. simple one-way ANOVA

A

c. chi square test

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75
Q

Patient can only reach 60 degrees of passive straight leg raising. To improve the range of motion,
the hold-relax technique should be applied to
a. adductors and hip extensors
b. quadriceps and hip flexors
c. abductors and hip flexors
d. hamstrings and hip extensors

A

d. hamstrings and hip extensors

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76
Q

The middle score of a distribution which divides a group of scores into equal parts with half of the
scores falling above and half of the scores falling below is the:
a. Mean
b. quota
c. median
d. mode

A

c. median

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76
Q

Which of these statements is TRUE, regarding water temperature during aquatic exercise, EXCEPT?
a. water retains heat 1000 times more than air
b. heat transfer increases with velocity
c. differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with
minimal change in temperature of the water
d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

A

d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

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76
Q

An orthopedic surgeon referred a 25-year-old basketball player for instruction to improve strength of
his ankle using closed kinematic chain exercises to increase ankle proprioception and reduce risk
for ankle sprains. Which of these exercises should be part of your exercise program?
a. Ankle eversion-inversion exercises using free weights strapped to his ankle
b. Ankle eversion exercises using theraband resistance while the patient is sitting on the floor
with his knee extended
c. Walking on an inclined plane
d. Half squats

A

c. Walking on an inclined plane

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77
Q

Which research model contains the characteristics of variable manipulation control and
randomization?
a. experimental model
b. case study
c. descriptive model
d. historical model

A

a. experimental model

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78
Q

A PT is evaluating the gait of an individual who is undergoing pre-employment procedures. While
checking the cadence, he counted 115 steps per minute. This value is considered
__________
.
a. Low
b. Average
c. Very high
d. High

A

b. Average

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79
Q

When mobilizing a joint, correct technique is crucial. The statements below describe the
mobilization technique EXCEPT .
a. Commence with grade I distraction when possible
b. One joint at a time is moved in one direction
c. The extremity to be treated is placed in comfortable position
d. A joint is mobilized in the closed pack position

A

d. A joint is mobilized in the closed pack position

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80
Q

A group of PT clinicians is performing research in which a specific myofascial technique is applied
to a patient with chronic back pain. They are using a single-case experimental design with an A-B-A-
B format. Their research hypothesis states that pain-rating scores will decreases with the treatment
intervention. Accepting this hypothesis would be indicated if
a. B is less than A
b. B is equal to A
c. B is greater than A at the 1.0 level
d. B is greater than A at the 0.05 level

A

a. B is less than A

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81
Q

A PT goes over a research study that examines knee flexion ROM two weeks following arthroscopic
surgery. Granting knee flexion ROM two weeks after arthroscopic surgery is a normally distributed
variable, what percentage of patients in the population would achieve a goniometric measurement
value between the mean and one standard deviation above the mean?
a. 68
b. 34
c. 14
d. 48

A

b. 34

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82
Q

A 66-year-old with a right gastrocnemius contracture is in the whirlpool. The correct temperature for
the submersion is
______
degrees F.
a. 92
b. 108
c. 104
d. 98

A

c. 104

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82
Q

Depending on the size of the body area immersed and the patient’s physical status, an effective hot
or very hot whirlpool may range from 103 degrees F to 115 degrees F. In centigrade this will be
equivalent to
__________
degrees C
a. 39.9 - 46.1
b. 38.8 - 44.1
c. 40.2 - 43.2
d. 36.5 - 42.1

A

a. 39.9 - 46.1

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82
Q

Paraffin melts at 54.5 degrees C but is used as a therapeutic modality because
a. paraffin requires a longer treatment time
b. paraffin requires fewer calories of heat to raise its temperature
c. the addition of mineral oil lowers its specific heat
d. it has a low specific gravity

A

c. the addition of mineral oil lowers its specific heat

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83
Q

The ability of a cold modality to affect local and systemic changes depends on the temperature of
the cold and the duration of the application. The other factors include the following EXCEPT
a. skin-modality temperature gradient
b. vascular supply to the area
c. thermal conductivity and thickness of each tissue layer
d. room temperature

A

d. room temperature

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84
Q

PT has just completed a study investigating the relationship between ratings of perceived exertion
(RPE) and type of testing modality: arm ergometry versus leg ergometry. PT finds a correlation of .52
with the arm testing while the correlation is 0.75 with the leg testing. This means that
a. The common variance of both types of testing is only 20 percent
b. Both arm and leg ergometry are highly correlated RPE
c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately
correlated
d. Both arm and leg ergometry are only moderately correlated with RPE

A

c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately
correlated

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84
Q

A PT observes that the gait of patient status post pneumonia is characterized by heel walking.
Possible cause of this deviation can be any of the following EXCEPT:
a. Tightness of the dorsiflexor muscle
b. Weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle
c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors
d. Pes calcaneous deformity

A

c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors

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85
Q

A newborn is 5 weeks premature and evaluated at birth using the APGAR test. The APGAR score that may result in a
possible neurological complication is
a. 3 at 10 minutes
b. 9 at 1 minute
c. 8 at 5 minutes
d. 8 at 1 minute

A

a. 3 at 10 minutes

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86
Q

A 16-year-old female dancer complains of subpatellar pain after 2 weeks of vigorous rehearsal for a hip-hop competition.
PT’s evaluation shows a large Q angle, pain on palpation at the inferior pole of the patella and mild swelling at both knees.
The BEST strategy for this condition is
a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening
b. taping to increase lateral patellar tracking
c. hamstring strengthening
d. vastus lateralis strengthening

A

a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening

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87
Q

These statements on the comparison of plantar fasciitis and tarsal tunnel syndrome are TRUE EXCEPT
a. Pain is worse in walking, running and in the morning (sometimes improves with activity) in plantar fasciitis but worst
with standing, walking and at night for tarsal tunnel syndrome
b. Pain in plantar fasciitis is usually on the plantar aspect of the foot, at the anterior calcaneus while in tarsal tunnel
syndrome it is in the medial heel and medial longitudinal arch
c. When resisted isometric movements are done, both exhibit normal strength
d. Plantar fasciitis is due to overuse while tarsal tunnel syndrome is usually brought about by trauma, a space
occupying lesion or inflammation

A

c. When resisted isometric movements are done, both exhibit normal strength

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88
Q

The following are symptoms of a rotator cuff tear EXCEPT
a. reduction of ROM
b. drop arm test is positive
c. poor scapula thoracic and glenohumeral rhythm
d. significant reduction of AROM into abduction

A

d. significant reduction of AROM into abduction

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89
Q

A 64-year-old patient will undergo total hip replacement in a week. Which of these is NOT included among pre-operative
instructions?
a. gait training with an appropriate device that will be used post operatively
b. deep breathing and coughing exercise
c. basic precautions for early bed mobility
d. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks post operatively

A

d. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks post operatively

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90
Q

A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM and strengthening exercises. Which strategy would
NOT be appropriate for the patient?
a. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique
b. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance
c. joint mobility to increase joint play
d. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights

A

c. joint mobility to increase joint play

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90
Q

A football player suffered a grade II inversion ankle sprain 2 weeks ago. The Best intervention in the early subacute phase
of rehabilitation would most likely include
a. functional football related drills
b. mobilization at the talocrural and subtalar joints
c. plyometric based exercise
d. closed chain strengthening and proprioceptive exercises

A

d. closed chain strengthening and proprioceptive exercises

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90
Q

While talking to a patient about a previous exercise program, the patient mentioned that his PT from another clinic said that the performed negative work. Negative work or a negative muscular contraction is BEST defined as
a. the muscle develops tension and increases in length
b. purposeful voluntary motion
c. the muscle develops tension and decreases in length
d. muscle length remains constant as tension is developed

A

a. the muscle develops tension and increases in length

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91
Q

A PT is conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-
old bank executive and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and
badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is ____ weeks.
a. 24 – 28
b. 6 – 8
c. 12—14
d. 36 – 40

A

a. 24 – 28

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92
Q

The correct sequence for a positive Landau reflex response is:
a. First the back extends, then the neck flexes with leg in extension
b. First the head, then the back and legs extend
c. Simultaneous neck and back in flexion with legs in extension
d. First the legs will extend, then neck extension with back flexion

A

b. First the head, then the back and legs extend

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92
Q

A PT is completing a development assessment of a 7-month-old infant with normal development. The reflex that would
NOT be integrated is .
a. Asymmetrical tonic
b. Moro
c. Landau
d. Symmetrical tonic neck

A

c. Landau

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93
Q

Which of these is NOT TRUE about the pre-operation stage of cognitive development?
a. Children develop tools for representative scheme symbolically through language imitation, imaginary play and drawing
b. Preceded by the sensorimotor stage
c. Ends at 5 years
d. Starts when child begins to learn language

A

c. Ends at 5 years

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94
Q

The condition that may result from persistent wearing of high heels is .
a. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
b. Bilateral bunion
c. Metatarsalgia
d. Pes planus

A

c. Metatarsalgia

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95
Q

A child with cerebral palsy has difficulty releasing food from the hand to the mouth. To assist the hand opening when the
food is in the mouth, the caregiver should
a. passively extend the fingers
b. slowly stroke the finger flexors in a distal to proximal directions
c. slowly stroke the finger extensors in a proximal to distal direction
d. apply a quick stretch to the finger flexors

A

c. slowly stroke the finger extensors in a proximal to distal direction

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96
Q

A female PT is treating a 1-year-old child with Down Syndrome at home. She notices decreasing strength in the extremities
with neck pain and limited neck motion. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+. PT suspects .
a. Atlanto-axial subluxation with lemniscal impingement
b. Lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome
c. Upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome
d. Atlanto-axial subluxation with spinal cord impingement

A

d. Atlanto-axial subluxation with spinal cord impingement

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97
Q

An infant is independent in sitting, including all protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling,
cruise sideways and stand alone. The infant still exhibits plantar grasp in standing. These infant’s chronological age is close
to _______ months.
a. 5
b. 8-9
c. 10-15
d. 6

A

b. 8-9

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97
Q

A positive Kleiger’s test indicates __________.
a. deltoid ligament tear
b. Achilles tendon rupture
c. flatfoot
d. tibiotalar dislocation

A

a. deltoid ligament tear

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98
Q

A 50-year-old golfer complains of pain on getting up that eases with ambulation. There’s also pain when running and upon
palpation of the distal end of calcaneus. Evaluation also reveals pes planus. PT suspects plantar fasciitis. Initial strategy
would include: .
a. Use of night resting splint
b. Strengthening of ankle dorsiflexors
c. Modalities to reduce pain
d. Use of customized orthosis

A

a. Use of night resting splint

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99
Q

Prematurity is associated with neonatal morbidity and mortality. It is defined as the birth before the:
a. 32nd week of gestation
b. 35th week of gestation
c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation
d. 30th week of intrauterine development

A

c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation

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100
Q

Which of the following is MOST important goal in treating pediatric patients with postural reaction deficits?
a. automatic response
b. age-appropriate responses
c. lower extremity control before upper extremity control
d. conscious responses

A

a. automatic response

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101
Q

An infant who was thirty-three weeks gestation age birth and is now 3 weeks of chronological age would BEST respond
to .
a. Neutral warmth
b. Fast vestibular
c. Visual stimulation with a colored object
d. Vibration

A

a. Neutral warmth

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101
Q

An infant is independent in sitting, all protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise
sideways and stand alone. The infant still demonstrates plantar grasp in standing. The infant’s chronological age is ____
months.
a. 5
b. 8-9
c. 10-15
d. 6

A

b. 8-9

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102
Q

A test to determine if there are loose bodies in the knee joint is called _________.
a. McMurray’s test
b. patello-femoral test
c. valgus / varus stress test
d. Apley’s tests

A

a. McMurray’s test

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102
Q

If a child exhibits emerging hand dominance, has crude release, can seat self in chair and walk backwards, he is ________
old.
a. 2 years
b. 10 months
c. 14 months
d. 18 months

A

d. 18 months

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103
Q

Which test is done when a PT suspects an unreduced anterior shoulder dislocation? The patient is asked to place the hand
on the opposite shoulder and then attempts to lower the elbow to the chest.
a. Sulcus sign
b. Feagin test
c. Protzman
d. Dugas

A

d. Dugas

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104
Q

What is the test for anterior meniscus pathology and also termed the “tenderness displacement test”?
a. Apley’s
b. Steinmann’s
c. McMurray’s
d. Lachman’s

A

b. Steinmann’s

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105
Q

A 60-year-old male complains of pain in the left hip region. The symptoms appear to be consistent with hip osteoarthritis.
The test to perform to assist in making this diagnosis would be:
a. Thomas
b. Posterior impingement
c. Craig’s
d. Scouring

A

d. Scouring

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105
Q

PT was referred a patient with vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee. The findings include: negative FABERE test,
negative grind test and a positive Noble’s compression test. These test results MOST LIKELY point to
a. DJD of the hip
b. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root
c. an iliotibial band friction disorder
d. SI joint dysfunction

A

c. an iliotibial band friction disorder

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106
Q

Among the activities below, the BEST way to facilitate walking without support in a 2-year-old patient with Down Syndrome
is:
a. strengthening exercises for quadriceps using weights
b. use of walker with rollers to increase distance
c. use of reflex inhibiting patterns in lower extremities
d. weight shifting in standing while dancing to music

A

d. weight shifting in standing while dancing to music

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106
Q

A 60-year-old golfer was referred to PT for a sacroiliac joint pain. In your evaluation, you plan to include a Gillet’s test. Which
of these methods describe how test is carried out?
a. Patient in supine with correct trunk alignment, pelvis and lower limbs. You stand at edge of table by patient’s feet
palpating medial malleolus to assess asymmetry. Have patient come to long sitting position and assess the leg length.
b. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center sacrum at same level
as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to extend hip of limb being tested.
c. Patient is sidelying at edge of bed while holding bottom leg in maximal hip and knee flexion (knee to chest). Standing
behind patient passively extend hip of uppermost limb.
d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center
of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to
chest

A

d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center
of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to
chest

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107
Q

Vibration is often used to facilitate muscle tone in children with Down Syndrome. The muscle group MOST in need of
facilitation are
a. neck and back flexors and extensors, elbow extensors and knee flexors and extensors
b. back extensors, elbow flexors and extensors, hip adductors and knee extensors
c. neck flexors and extensors, trunk flexors, hip adductors and knee extensors
d. neck and back extensors, elbow extensors hip abductors and knee extensors

A

d. neck and back extensors, elbow extensors hip abductors and knee extensors

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108
Q

A 36-year-old fast food delivery crew got involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained an injury to the posterior cord of
the brachial plexus. Which muscle would not be affected by the injury?
a. latissimus dorsi
b. infraspinatus
c. teres major
d. subscapularis

A

b. infraspinatus

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109
Q

During 180 degrees of abduction in the scapulohumeral rhythm, there is roughly a ratio of movement of the humerus to the
scapula.
a. 2:1
b. 1:1
c. 1:3
d. 1:2

A

a. 2:1

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110
Q

A study of the local population was necessary to determine the need for a geriatric center in the area. The Pts performing
the study divided the population by sex and selected a random sample from each group. This is an example of what type of
sampling?
a. random cluster
b. stratified random
c. systematic random
d. 2 step cluster

A

b. stratified random

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111
Q

Which is NOT a test for rotatory instability of the knee?
a. Ballottement
b. jerk test of Hughston
c. active pivot shift
d. Dial

A

a. Ballottement

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112
Q

A PT is evaluating a patient diagnosed with an acute posterior cruciate sprain. The mechanism of injury for the posterior
cruciate is ______________.
a. a forceful larding on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed
b. hyperextension medial rotation of the leg with lateral rotation of the body
c. a valgus force applied to the knee when the foot is fixed
d. an anteriorly directed force applied to the tibia when the foot is fixed

A

a. a forceful larding on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed

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113
Q

A positive crossover sign is indicative of ___________.
a. possible disc lesion causing traction on the ipsilateral nerve roots
b. tightness of iliotibial band
c. malingering patient
d. possible disc lesion causing traction on the contralateral nerve roots

A

d. possible disc lesion causing traction on the contralateral nerve roots

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113
Q

Crutches for an elderly hip fracture patient might differ from those for the young paraplegic patient of the same height in
that
a. they would have suction tips for greater safety
b. there would be no more padding at the axillary piece
c. they would be shorter
d. the hand piece would be lower

A

a. they would have suction tips for greater safety

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114
Q

A plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine vertical. Ideal positioning of
selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below, EXCEPT:
a. Slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint
b. Slightly anterior to the hip joint
c. Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus
d. Through the calcaneocuboid joint

A

b. Slightly anterior to the hip joint

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115
Q

A 76-year-old male patient demonstrates significant proprioceptive losses in both lower extremities, distal greater than
proximal useful compensatory strategies in is ambulation training would
include .
a. Shorten ambulation and focus on wheelchair mobility
b. Constant verbal cueing about his foot position
c. Practice walking on a smooth surface floor
d. Letting patient watch position of his feet while practicing standing and stepping

A

d. Letting patient watch position of his feet while practicing standing and stepping

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116
Q

A PT is evaluating the gait of a 5-year-old girl. PT notices that the child is unsteady and has a wide base
support. She appears to lurch at times with minimal truncal bobbing in an anterior and posterior position. The
child cannot maintain standing position with the feet placed together for more than 5 seconds. The area of the
brain MOST LIKELY affected is the
a. cerebellar atmosphere
b. substantia nigra
c. corticospinal tracts
d. basal ganglia
2. A TBI injured patient is so

A

a. cerebellar atmosphere

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117
Q

A TBI injured patient is sometimes disoriented to time and place, has poor memory for recent events and
almost no carry over for new learning. The MOST important goal in this case is
a. different daily tasks to increase ease of cognitive retrieval
b. daily structure to reduce distraction
c. independence to tasks with varying environments
d. increase arousal and attention through sensory stimulation

A

b. daily structure to reduce distraction

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118
Q

A child stimulated for negative support reaction will respond positive through increased .
a. Extensor tone in lower extremities
b. Flexor tone in upper extremities
c. Flexor tone in lower extremities
d. Extensor tone in upper extremities

A

c. Flexor tone in lower extremities

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118
Q

An injury of the median nerve at the level of the wrist and hand can cause the following functional loss
EXCEPT
a. thumb opposition
b. weak or no pinch
c. flexion of the little finger
d. thumb flexion

A

c. flexion of the little finger

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119
Q

Patients with peripheral nerve injury demonstrate optimal peripheral nerve integrity and muscle
performance over the course of months.
a. 18-24 months
b. 2-3 months
c. 9-12 months
d. 4-8 months

A

d. 4-8 months

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120
Q

A 54 year old female bank executive was referred to the clinic after right breast lumpectomy with axillary
lymph node dissection. PT noted that scapular control is poor when upper extremity flexion or abduction
isbegan. Given the limitation, the PT intervention at this time should focus on .
a. Active assistive pulley exercises to assist rotator cuff muscles following damage to the
suprascapularnerve
b. Strengthening of the right deltoids to help stabilize the shoulder, which compensates for
damage to the dorsal scapular nerve
c. Strengthening of the right rhomboid to promote normal function of the scapula as a result of
damage to the dorsal scapular nerve
d. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to promote scapular control following damage
to the long thoracic nerve

A

d. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to promote scapular control following damage
to the long thoracic nerve

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121
Q

Ultrasound vibrations propagated through the housing of the applicator into the hand of the PT are
called .
a. Parasitic vibrations
b. Oscillating conversion
c. Ultrasonic conversion
d. Bactericidal vibrations

A

a. Parasitic vibrations

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122
Q

In comparing the clinical features of cerebral artery thrombosis with cerebral embolism, the former
a. presents an abrupt onset with rapidly developing symptoms
b. has the most common site of occlusion in the internal carotid artery
c. usually includes a sudden loss of consciousness
d. includes more generalized disturbance of cerebral function

A
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123
Q

A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility
training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral
weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing
a. leukopenia
b. peripheral neuropathy
c. myopathy
d. quadriparesis

A

b. peripheral neuropathy

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124
Q

The correct sequence in the hierarchy of the criteria of a profession is
a. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy
of judgment
b. representative organization, lifetime commitment, service to clients, specialized education, autonomy
of judgment
c. autonomy of judgment, lifetime commitment, specialized education, representative organization,
service to clients
d. service to clients, autonomy of judgment, specialized education, representative organization, lifetime
commitment

A

a. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy
of judgment

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125
Q

A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition.
During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the
player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT?
a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock
b.Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears,
eyes, or mouth
c.Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat
d.Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

A

d.Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

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126
Q

A PT is preparing a 45-year-old female patient for treatment. The latter asked if she could go to the comfort
room. Wondering why patient has not returned to the treatment area after several minutes, PT checked and
found patient slumped on the floor face down. The appropriate course of action the PT should take is:
a. check level of response, call for help, establish airway and assess breathing
b. check level of response, call for help, assess breathing and establish airway
c. call for help, check level of response, assess breathing and establish airway
d. call for help, check level of response, establish airway and assess breathing

A

a. check level of response, call for help, establish airway and assess breathing

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127
Q

A 63-year-old male CVA patient was applied functional electrical stimulation on the affected ankle
dorsiflexors in conjunction with her gait training program. The rationale for the application of FES for this case
is
_____________
.
a. to promote substituting actions
b. all of these
c. used as an orthotic device
d. to delay muscle atrophy

A

c. used as an orthotic device

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128
Q

On initial standing, a patient with a chronic stroke is pushing strongly backward, displacing the center of
mass at or near the posterior limits of stability. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is
________
.
a. contraction of the hip extensors
b. contracture of the hamstrings
c. spasticity of the tibialis anterior
d. spasticity, of the gastrocnemius soleus

A

d. spasticity, of the gastrocnemius soleus

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129
Q

The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the temporal lobe of the brain, EXCEPT:
a. emotional liability
b. difficulty with memory loss
c. Wernicke’s aphasia
d. learning deficits

A

a. emotional liability

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130
Q

A newborn with whole arm paralysis resulting from a traction injury at birth was referred to physical
therapy. The initial plan of care for the patient should include
a. passive mobilization of the shoulder in overhead motions
b. age-appropriate task training of the upper extremity
c. splinting the shoulder in abduction and internal rotation
d. partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after
immobilization

A

d. partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after
immobilization

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131
Q

The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be
___________
.
a. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable
b. sustainable, simple, quantifiable
c. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable
d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable

A

c. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable

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132
Q

This is a tool to asses and treat balance dysfunction but does not assist to diagnose the cause of balance
dysfunction. It consists of eight test conditions used in the battery with each leg measured on two counts, the
time spent in each test position and the number of steps that a patient are performed.
a. Functional Reach
b. Berg Balance Scale
c. Fugl Meyer Sensory Assessment
d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery

A

d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery

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133
Q

A 58-year-old female is recovering from a surgical resection of an acoustic neuroma and presents with
symptoms of dizziness, vertigo, horizontal nystagmus and postural instability. To manage these problems, the
program should include
a. strengthening exercises focusing on spinal extensors
b. repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo
c. Hallpike’s exercises to improve speed in movement transitions
d. prolonged bedrest to allow vestibular recovery to occur

A

b. repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo

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133
Q

What is the FIRST step in controlling organizational behavior in a PT Department?
a. establish system of measuring performance
b. develop system of review
c. determine types of jobs and skills needed
d. monitor performance and provide feedback

A

c. determine types of jobs and skills needed

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134
Q

A 75-year-old male patient with persistent balance difficulty and a history of recent falls (2 in the past
month) is referred for evaluation and management. During the initial session, it is important to examine
the
a. level of dyspnea during functional transfers
b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance
c. spinal musculoskeletal changes secondary to degenerative joint disease (DJD)
d. cardiovascular endurance during a 5-minute walking test

A

b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance

135
Q

The following are guidelines during vestibulo-ocular retraining EXCEPT
a. Use of gravity, varying surface conditions, visual conditions and environmental cues should
included in therapeutic planning
b. The center of gravity is allowed to move at each stage of treatment
c. Individualize each program based on the patient’s specific impairments (rehabilitation versus
compensation training)
d. Use of practice, feedback and repetition are vital for skill refinement

A

b. The center of gravity is allowed to move at each stage of treatment

136
Q

A 64-year-old female patient who underwent a minimally invasive total knee replacement was referred
to PT. The referring physician stated in the chart that patient ha stage 1 Alzheimer’s disease. The PT will
therefore NOT expect to find
a. memory loss
b. anxiety and irritability
c. cannot concentrate
d. profound communication deficits

A

d. profound communication deficits

137
Q

This inner ear disease that affects balance has the following symptoms: intense vertigo, occasionally
unilateral deafness, buzzing or ringing in the ear.
a. otitis media, chronic
b. bulging disc C4-C5
c. otitis externa
d. Meniere’s disease

A

d. Meniere’s disease

138
Q

The primary objective for record keeping in the PT clinic is:
a. Quality of care assessment
b. Betterment of patient care
c. Communication of patient care
d. Medical-legal issues

A

b. Betterment of patient care

139
Q

In a person with normal balance, the fastest sensory system to provide balance information is the:
a. Visual system
b. Vestibular system
c. Somatosensory system
d. All 3 systems are equally fast

A

c. Somatosensory system

140
Q

A patient with multiple sclerosis has dysmetria in both upper extremities. The BEST intervention for this
problem is
a. 4lb. weight cuffs of wrist during activities of daily living training
b. pool exercises using water temperature more than 85 degrees
c. isokinetic training using low resistance and fast movement speeds
d. PNF patterns with dynamic reversals with carefully graded resistance

A

d. PNF patterns with dynamic reversals with carefully graded resistance

141
Q

While a patient recovering from a spinal cord injury was attending his exercise session, he declared that he
will walk again. Which of these injuries would make functional ambulation MOST unrealistic?
a. Brown-Sequard syndrome
b. complete T9 paraplegia
c. posterior cord syndrome
d. cauda equina injury

A

b. complete T9 paraplegia

142
Q

If a patient has diagnosis of anterior interosseus syndrome, the activity that will be most difficult to
perform is
a. opposition
b. resisted wrist extension with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees
c. wrist ulnar deviation with the thumb tucked inside a closed fist
d. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb

A

d. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb

143
Q

Which modality causes the greatest increase in tissue temperature?
a. Infrared
b. Ultrasound
c. Moist hot packs
d. Diathermy

A

d. Diathermy

144
Q

The ideal temperature of the water in the whirlpool when treating a patient with severe arterial
insufficiency is
___
.
a. 90-92 degrees Celcius
b. 90-92 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 33.5-35.5 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit

A

d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit

145
Q

A CP spastic diplegia patient exhibits weak hip abduction. Which activity will LEAST LIKELY strengthen his
abduction?
a. Sidelying with hip raises
b. Supine to prone
c. Prone to supine
d. Kneeling to half-kneeling on either side

A

b. Supine to prone

146
Q

A patient with multiple sclerosis has dysmetria in both upper extremities. The BEST intervention for this
problem is
a. 4lb. weight cuffs of wrist during activities of daily living training
b. pool exercises using water temperature more than 85 degrees
c. isokinetic training using low resistance and fast movement speeds
d. PNF patterns with dynamic reversals with carefully graded resistance

A

d. PNF patterns with dynamic reversals with carefully graded resistance

147
Q

A PT is evaluating a 50-year-old housewife with vestibular problems. Patient is asked to assume a long
sitting position with the head turned to the left side. PT then moves the patient backward so that the head is
extended over the end of table about 30 degrees below horizontal. This maneuver causes severe dizziness and
vertigo. A special test with the head turned to the right produces no symptoms. PT document the results as a
positive
___________
.
a. sharpened Romberg’s test
b. positional test
c. left Dix-Hallpike test
d. right Dix-Hallpike test

A

c. left Dix-Hallpike test

148
Q
A
148
Q

A small company with 15 employees is considering changing the chairs of the work area. In ergonomics, it
is important to be able to adjust any chair to meet the basic anthropometric dimensions of the worker. The
guiding principles in the selection of seating are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. The foot support should be used with seats that are higher than normal
b. The seat surface should be 3 to 5 cm above the fold of the knee when the worker is standing
c. The backrest must have a well-formed lumbar pad, which should offer good support at a height of
100 to 200 mm above the lowest point of the seat
d. The depth of the seat should allow disk load rest against the backrest to reduce disk loa

A

b. The seat surface should be 3 to 5 cm above the fold of the knee when the worker is standing

149
Q

Which of the following factors is likely to cause subluxation and shoulder pain in hemiplegia?
a. spastic retraction with elevation of scapula
b. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula
c. PROM with normal scapulohumeral rhythm
d. spastic paralysis of the bicep

A

b. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula

150
Q

A PT assigned in the oncology department of a large medical center is going over the medical chart of a male patient
before initiating airway clearance techniques. The patient’s cell counts are as follows: hematocrit - 44 percent, white blood
cells - 8,500 mm, platelets - 30,000/ul, hemoglobin level -15 gm/dl. Which blood test value suggests that chest percussion for
airway clearance is contraindicated?
a. Platelets
b.Hemoglobin
c.White blood cells
d.Hematocrit

A

a. Platelets

151
Q

A patient exhibits quadriceps weakness 4/5 and difficulty descending stairs. The BEST intervention to restore functional
strength in the quadriceps is .
a. progressive resistance exercises, 70 percent 1 repetition maximum, three sets of 10
b.partial squats, progressing to lungs
c.maximum isometric exercise at 45 degrees and 90 degrees of knee extension
d.Isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees per second

A

b.partial squats, progressing to lungs

152
Q

Consider the following clinical picture of the knee joint: there is marked swelling, tibia can be displaced forward in the
femur, pain and marked instability of the knee joint. The structure LIKELY involved is the
a. posterior cruciate
b. anterior cruciate
c. tibial collateral
d. fibular collateral
ligament.

A

b. anterior cruciate

153
Q

A 75-year-old female was referred to PT for a fall risk assessment. Patient fell twice at home. If patient’s timed up and go
(TGU) score is 33 seconds, her fall risk is
a. moderate, based on a mildly abnormal score
b. low, based on a mildly abnormal abnormal score
c. high, based on an abnormal score
d. moderate, based on poor sensory adaptation respons

A

c. high, based on an abnormal score

154
Q

A PT is treating a 1-year-old child with Down Syndrome at home and noted decreasing strength in the extremities, with
neck pain and limited neck motion. Upper extremity deep tendon reflexes are 3+. The PT thinks it is .
a. Lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome
b. Upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome
c. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with lemniscal impingement
d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement

A

d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement

155
Q

A PT received a referral for a patient behaving like an autistic child. During evaluation, what is the MOST pertinent factor
that can be observed in the patient?
a. defensive when touched
b. responsive to most but not all commands
c. quiet and did not want to separate from the mother
d. delayed in gross motor skills

A

a. defensive when touched

156
Q

A 15-year-old grade 10 female was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but
when seated, the curve disappears. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is .
a. Short iliopsoas muscle
b.Lumbar Facet Dysfunction
c. Leg length discrepancy
d. Unilaterally weak gluteus medius

A

c. Leg length discrepancy

157
Q

A PT conducts an upper quarter screening evaluation of a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis. With the patient sitting,
the MOST appropriate technique to facilitate palpation of the rotator cuff is .
a. Passive abduction of the humerus
b. Passive extension of the humerus
c. Active medial and lateral rotation of the humerus
d. Active extension and flexion of the elbow

A

b. Passive extension of the humerus

158
Q

The PT manager of a big rehabilitation center is insistent about conducting a bimonthly meeting to solve the problem of
declining productivity. In the meantime, he turns his back on the increased load placed on the already overworked staff.
Based on the managerial grid, the BEST classification of this manager is .
a. 9.1
b. 9.9
c. 1.9
d. 5.5

A

a. 9.1

159
Q

During an exercise session, the mother of a 15-year-old patient was making inappropriate comments that upset the
patient and made her lose her cool. The MOST appropriate action for the PT to take is .
a. Ask mother to wait at the reception area
b. Give patient a 15-minute break
c. Ask another PT to treat the patient
d. Discontinue treatment

A

a. Ask mother to wait at the reception area

160
Q

A patient presents with a vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee, a negative FABERES test, negative Grind test
and a positive Noble’s compression test. A possible cause can be
a. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root
b. DJD of the hip
c. an iliotibial band friction disorder
d. SI joint dysfunction

A

c. an iliotibial band friction disorder

161
Q

This is a test for epicondylitis where patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle,
pronates the patient’s forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral
epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis.
a. Mill’s
b. Lateral epicondylitis test
c. Medial epicondylitis test
d. Cozen’s

A

a. Mill’s

162
Q

This is a test associated with a pars interarticularis stress fracture or spondylolisthesis. The patient stands on one leg and
extends the spine while balancing on the left. The test is repeated with the patient standing on the opposite leg. A positive
test is indicated by pain in the back
a. Segmental instability
b. Stork standing
c. Pheasant
d. Quadrant

A

b. Stork standing

163
Q

PT is conducting an exercise class for geriatrics. Below, which would be of LEAST benefit among the exercises the
participant?
a. active neck extension
b. active stretching of the pectoral muscles
c. active neck flexion
d. active hip extension

A

c. active neck flexion

164
Q

Patient is unable to take in an adequate supply of nutrients by mouth due to side effects of radiation. Patient’s physician
orders tube feeding. Which type of tube is MOST commonly used for short term feeding?
a. tracheostomy
b. endotracheal
c. endobronchial
d. nasogastric

A

d. nasogastric

165
Q

A PT wants to determine whether a treatment was effective in lowering extremity edema in a group of patients with
peripheral vascular edema. Volumetric measurements using a water displacement method is chosen as the outcome
measure. The data were then compared to a control group without treatment. The BEST method to analyze the data is
.
a. Pearson’s Product moment
b. chi-square
c. ANOVA
d. t-test

A

d. t-test

166
Q

In a normal gait, the stance phase usually takes up approximately percent of the pattern.
a. 80
b. 60
c. 20
d. 40

A

b. 60

167
Q

A 75-year-old patient was referred to the clinic. What technique is usually included in the PT program?
a. ankle weights
b. lengthening stride
c. walking aids
d. hip group strengthening

A

d. hip group strengthening

168
Q

Which statement of Speed’s test is FALSE?
a. The test may also be performed by forward flexing the patient’s arm to 90 degrees and then asking the patient to
resist an eccentric movement into extension
b. A positive test elicits increased tenderness in the bicipital groove and is indicative of bicipital tenderness
c. The examiner resists the shoulder forward flexion by the patient while the patient’s forearm is first supinated,
then pronated, and the elbow is completely extended
d. It is less effective than Yergason’s test because the tendon moves over the bone during the test

A

d. It is less effective than Yergason’s test because the tendon moves over the bone during the test

169
Q

An 80-year-old patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s type of dementia was referred for balance and coordination training.In
preparing a plan of care, it is essential to know that the patient is
a. usually trusted to be responsible for own daily care needs
b. usually trusted with transfers with appropriate positioning of the wheelchair
c. likely not open to activity training if unfamiliar activities are used
d. more likely to remember recent experiences than past ones

A

c. likely not open to activity training if unfamiliar activities are used

170
Q

The following are considerations when confirming the fit of axillary crutches, EXCEPT:
a. The angle of elbow flexion should be approximately 20-25 degrees
b. For axillary rest in the axilla, the tip should be approximately 2 inches lateral and 4-6 inches anterior tothe toes
of the shoes
c. The space between the top of the axillary rest and the floor of the axilla should be approximately 2 inches
d. For patient’s grasp of the handpieces, the wrist should be in flexion

A

d. For patient’s grasp of the handpieces, the wrist should be in flexion

171
Q

A deep thickness burn is expected to heal if there is no infection in days.
a. 21 – 35
b. 36 - 42
c. 2 – 5
d. 7 – 21

A

a. 21 – 35

172
Q

This is an exercise technique designed to facilitate contraction and stability through joint compression. The
compression force is most often applied to joints through gravity acting on body weight, manual contacts or weight belts.
a. Approximation
b. alternating isometrics
c. traction
d. rhythmic inhalation

A

a. Approximation

173
Q

A stage of sprain injury with symptoms that include moderate pain swelling, minimal instability of the joint, minimal to
moderate tearing of the ligament and decreased range of motion
a. Grade 3
b. Grade 4
c. Grade 2
d. Grade 1

A

c. Grade 2

174
Q

A PT is performing segmental breathing exercises with a patient following atelectasis. When implementing manual
control, the MOST appropriate technique to emphasize lingual expansion is when the hands are placed
a. below the clavicle on the anterior chest wall
b. on the right side of the chest below the axilla
c. over the posterior aspect of the lower ribs
d. on the left side of the chest below the axilla

A

d. on the left side of the chest below the axilla

175
Q

A PT measures a patient for a wheelchair. Which measurement technique is used to determine armrest height in a
wheelchair?
a. femur to radial head distance
b. seat to anterior superior iliac spine
c. seat to olecranon distance
d. elbow to acromion distance

A

d. elbow to acromion distance

176
Q

A PT is inspecting the work station of patient with cumulative trauma. When seated before a video display terminal, the
screen should be positioned inches from the patient.
a. 30
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40

A

c. 20

177
Q

The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee EXCEPT
a. excessive toe-out built in
b. rigid SACH heel cushion
c. excessive suspension
d. loose fitting socket

A

c. excessive suspension

178
Q

A PT is carrying out mobilization techniques to regain normal mid-thoracic extension. After 4 sessions, the patient
complained of localized pain that lasts more than 24 hours. The PT’s strategy should be
a. stop PT for one week
b. change to self-stretching activities because the patient does not tolerate mobilization
c. stay with current mobilization techniques and follow with a cold pack to the thoracic spine
d. change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation

A

d. change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation

179
Q

In most Code of Ethics of a profession, the first principle usually refers to
a. provision of accurate information to the consumer
b.exercising sound judgment
c. receiving remuneration of services
d.respecting rights and dignity of individuals

A

d.respecting rights and dignity of individuals

180
Q

The following are tests to assess manual dexterity and coordination, EXCEPT: .
a. Jebson-Taylor Hand Function
b. Minnesota Rate of Manipulation
c. Grind
d. Purdue Pegboard

A

c. Grind

181
Q

Of the following ligaments situated around the ankle joint, the one that is MOST susceptible to strain
is the
a. calcaneofibular
b. talofibular
c. tibiofibular
d. talotibial

A

b. talofibular

182
Q

The following are characteristics of the left hemisphere of the brain EXCEPT:
a. Understand language
b. Express negative emotions
c. Mathematical calculations
d. Analytical

A

b. Express negative emotions

183
Q

A 48-year-old female was referred to PT with a C6 nerve root injury. Which of the clinical findings
would NOT be expected with this type of injury?
a. Diminished brachioradialis reflex
b. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers
c. Diminished sensation on the anterior arm and index finger
d. Weakness in the biceps and supinator

A

b. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers

184
Q

A patient is evaluated after a stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the
patient cannot tell whether the PT is touching with one or two points. PT suspects that there is
impaired function in the
a. spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex
b. dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex
c. anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus
d. lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory cortex

A

b. dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex

185
Q

A PT is getting a gross measurement of hamstrings length by passively extending the lower
extremity of apatient in short sitting. The MOST common substitution to exaggerate hamstring length
is .
a. Anterior rotation of the pelvis
b. Hiking of the contralateral hip
c. Posterior rotation of the pelvis
d. Weight shift to the contralateral side

A

c. Posterior rotation of the pelvis

186
Q

A 43-year-old patient is recovering from a complete SCI at L2 level. The expected outcome would
MOST LIKELY include .
a. Loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion
with lighttouch, proprioception and position sense preserved
b. Loss of arm function is greater than leg function with early loss of pain and
temperature sensation
c. A spastic or reflex bladder
d. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve root

A

d. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve root

186
Q

The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the frontal lobe of the brain
EXCEPT
a. perseveration, in attention
b. homonymous hemianopsia
c. contralateral weakness
d. personality changes, antisocial behavior

A

b. homonymous hemianopsia

187
Q

At what level may a spinal cord injury patient begin to be a functional ambulator?
a. T1 - T8
b. T9 - T12
c. L4-L5
d. L1 - L3

A

d. L1 - L3

188
Q

The following conditions can cause pressure ulcers to develop in SCI patients EXCEPT
a. voluntary motor paralysis
b. sensory impairment
c. autonomic dysfunction
d. bladder incontinence

A

c. autonomic dysfunction

189
Q

Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see
weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find
more weakness in
a. wrist extension
b. forearm supination
c. thumb abduction
d. lateral rotation or the shoulder

A

c. thumb abduction

190
Q

The CORRECT technique in stretching the iliotibial band is
a. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side. The uppermost thigh is adducted
with the hip in 90 degrees flexion
b. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table.
Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity assisted stretch.
c. All of these
d. Patient is positioned in hook lying with the uninvolved leg crossed over the leg to be
stretched. The involved leg is adducted with gentle isometric abduction contraction

A

b. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table.
Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity assisted stretch.

191
Q

A patient status medial meniscus repair is referred to PT. The responsibility of the physician post
operatively is
a. determine weight bearing status
b. select an appropriate resistive exercise program
c. specify the frequency and duration of ROM exercises
d. specify the parameter for superficial modality application

A

a. determine weight bearing status

192
Q

When doing range of motion exercises with a patient who suffered a head injury, a PT notes that the
patient lacks full elbow extension and classifies the end-feel as hard. The MOST LIKELY cause is
a. anterior capsular tightness
b. triceps weaken
c. heterotopic ossification
d. spasticity of the biceps

A

c. heterotopic ossification

193
Q

A licensed physical therapist may append the following initials after his/her name.
a. RPT
b. LPT
c. PTRP
d. PTR

A

c. PTRP

194
Q

A PT attempts to assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI. The test that would provide the PT with
desired information is ____________.
a. Patient reads selected items from a chart
b. Patient is asked to identify familiar odors with eyes closed
c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance
d. Patient protrudes tongue while PT checks for lateral deviation

A

c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance

194
Q

Because of the complex vascularity of this artery system, severe impairment can cause locked in
syndrome, coma or vegetative state and Wallenberg Syndrome which presents with ipsilateral facial
pain, ipsilateral ataxia and vertigo.
a. anterior cerebral
b. posterior cerebral
c. middle cerebral
d. vertebral basilar

A

d. vertebral basilar

195
Q

Patellar tracking dysfunction is a common problem especially those with active lifestyles. Dynamic
factors for patellar tracking dysfunction include ______________.
a. a lateral femoral condyle that is not sufficiency prominent anteriorly
b. shallow trochlear groove
c. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency
d. increase in the angulation between the quadriceps muscle and the patellar tendon

A

c. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency

196
Q

A 57-year-old male patient with sciatica complains of severe lumbar pain and paresthesia extending
to the left ankle. Straight leg raising is positive in the left lower extremity. The MOST LIKELY source
of pain is ___________.
a. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion
b. piriformis syndrome
c. sacroiliac joint dysfunction
d. a lumbar disc is with a right posterior herniation or protrusion

A

a. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion

197
Q

A basketball player of a major professional league was prescribed a knee derotation brace for all his
games. The condition that would BEST benefit the use of derotation brace is _________.
a. posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
b. anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
c. medial meniscus tear
d. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency

A

d. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency

198
Q

A PT is applying electrical stimulation to treat a patient with shoulder subluxation due to a stroke.
The electrode placement should be over the ________________.
a. posterior deltoid and teres minor
b. middle deltoid and supraspinatus
c. posterior deltoid and supraspinatus
d. serratus anterior and pectoralis major

A

c. posterior deltoid and supraspinatus

198
Q

A patient who sustained burns on 25 percent of his body was admitted! If patient has hypovolemia,
the laboratory value MOST affected is
a. oxygen saturation ratio
b. hemoglobin
c. prothrombin time
d. hematocrit

A

d. hematocrit

199
Q

The range of motion requirements for normal gait include the following, EXCEPT:
a. knee flexion: 0 - 60 degrees
b. ankle dorsiflexion: 0 - 10 degrees
c. hip extension: 0 - 30 degrees
d. hip flexion: 0 - 30 degrees

A

c. hip extension: 0 - 30 degrees

200
Q

A patient with right lateral epicondylitis reports that symptoms are the same after 2 weeks of treatment.
PT evaluated the patient and found out that the left biceps reflex is 1+. The PT’s next strategy is to
conduct a complete examination of the region.
a. midcervical
b. cervico thoracic
c. upper cervical
d. cervicocranial

A

a. midcervical

201
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury finds it difficult to transfer from mat to wheelchair. The patient can’t
seem to process the idea of how to coordinate this movement. In this situation the MOST effective use
of feedback during the early motor learning is to
a. focus on guided movement and proprioceptive inputs
b. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs
c. give feedback only after a short (5 sec) delay
d. concentrate on knowledge of performance and proprioceptive inputs

A

b. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs

201
Q

A patient who was in cast for 3 weeks after a grade III left ankle sprain was referred to PT for mobility
exercises. Evaluation shows a loss of 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. The MOST difficult activity for this
patient is
a. ambulating barefoot
b. ambulating over rough surfaces
c. descending a ramp
d. descending stairs

A

d. descending stairs

202
Q

A patient has difficulty going down ramps. His knees wobble and are unsteady. The action to take is
a. prolonged icing to reduce hamstring pain
b. progressive resistance training for the quadriceps
c. stretching thru posterior resting splint for tight plantarflexors
d. continuous passive movement machine to keep the range

A

b. progressive resistance training for the quadriceps

203
Q

An 82-year-old female is referred to PT for pain in the left sacroiliac joint. Initial evaluation reveals the
following: higher left ASIS than right ASIS, shorter leg length on the left side (measured in supine
position) and the left PSIS lower than the right PSIS. In what position should you place patient to
perform the correct sacroiliac mobilization of the left innominate?
a. Supine
b. Prone
c. None of these
d. Right sidelying

A

c. None of these

204
Q

A PT treats a 40-year-old male status post knee surgery. The PT performs goniometric measurements
to quantify the extent of the patient’s extension lag. Which of the following would not provide a
plausible rationale for the extension lag?
a. Muscle weakness
b. Inhibition by pain
c. Patient apprehension
d. Bony obstruction

A

d. Bony obstruction

205
Q

While doing postural screening for a patient referred for low back pain, PT notices that the knees are
in genu recurvatum. The possible contributory postures include _________.
a. Forefoot varus and posterior pelvic tilt
b. Ankle dorsiflexion and hip abduction
c. Lateral tibial torsion and anterior pelvic tilt
d. Ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt

A

d. Ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt

206
Q

A sports PT was conducting evaluation of female varsity volleyball players. One of them complained
of a chronic right knee pain and recurrent effusion. The PT performed an apprehension test and patient
immediately grimaced and contracted her quadriceps maximally. The PT would suspect the presence
of
a. chondromalacia patella
b. internal knee derangement
c. recurrent patellar dislocation
d. rheumatoid arthritis

A

c. recurrent patellar dislocation

207
Q

A 55-year-old street sweeper is referred to you with shoulder pain. After evaluating patient, you
suspect subscapularis tendinitis. Which symptom pointed to your diagnosis?
a. Painful resisted shoulder adduction
b. Pain was provoked by passive glenohumeral external rotation
c. Tenderness at the greater tubercle of the humerus
d. Pain was provoked by active glenohumeral external rotation

A

b. Pain was provoked by passive glenohumeral external rotation

207
Q

During 180 degrees of abduction in the scapulohumeral rhythm, there is roughly a ratio of movement
of the humerus to the scapula.
a. 2:1
b. 1:1
c. 1:3
d. 1:2

A

a. 2:1

208
Q

A PT involved in a research project chooses a simple random sample to draw a sample from the
population. With this type of sampling PT ensures that _______________.
a. sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population
b. every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen
c. sample size will be large
d. data collected from the sample will be normally distributed

A

b. every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen

209
Q

Which of the following statements on Speed’s Test is FALSE.
a. A positive test elicits increased tenderness in the bicipital groove and is indicative of
bicipital tendinitis
b. It is less effective than Yergason’s test because the tendon moves over the bone during
the test
c. The examiner resists the shoulder forward flexion by the patient while the patient’s forearm
is first supinated, then pronated, and the elbow is completely extended
d. The test may also be performed by forward flexing the patient’s arm to 90 degrees and then
asking the patient to resist an eccentric movement into extension

A

b. It is less effective than Yergason’s test because the tendon moves over the bone during
the test

210
Q

A comparison of the effects of exercise in water, on land or combined on the outcome of patients with
intraarticular anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction revealed that less joint effusion was noted after
8 weeks in the water group. An appropriate statistical test to compare the girth measurements of the
3 groups is
a. chi square
b. analysis of variance
c. analysis of covariance
d. Pearson’s Product Moment

A

b. analysis of variance

211
Q

A 29-year-old data encoder complains of numbness and tingling in the right hand, a median nerve
involvement. Upon a visit to the jobsite for evaluation, it was revealed that patient was working on a
very rigid 10hour shift with only 15-minute break every 4 hours. A recommendation to the supervisor
to ease the symptoms of the patient could be
a. provide the worker a resting splint
b. give frequent rest periods of 15 min every hour
c. require worker to attend a cumulative trauma disorder
d. lessen work schedule to 8 hours

A

b. give frequent rest periods of 15 min every hour

211
Q

A patient with vestibular problems was referred to PT. Evaluation revealed spontaneous
nystagmus that can be minimized by visual fixation, oscillopsia, and loss of gaze stabilization. There
was also marked disequilibrium and an ataxic wide-based gait veering to the left. These symptoms
are consistent with .
a. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
b. Acoustic neuroma
c. Acute unilateral vestibular dysfunction
d. Meniere’s disease

A

c. Acute unilateral vestibular dysfunction

212
Q

The navicular drop test in weight bearing can be utilized clinically in the examination of
a. integrity of the dorsal talonavicular ligament
b. medial longitudinal arch collapse
c. tendon injury to the tibialis anterior muscle
d. motion across the longitudinal axis of the midtarsal joint

A

b. medial longitudinal arch collapse

213
Q

The following are Bobath’s concepts of muscular weakness, EXCEPT:
a. A muscle may be weak only as a prime mover but “strong” whenever an abnormal mass
movement pattern occurs
b. The weakness is due to being relatively overcome by spastic antagonistic muscles
c. Soft tissue periarticular contraction can enhance or stimulate weakness
d. Sensory deficit cannot result in weakness

A

d. Sensory deficit cannot result in weakness

214
Q

Patient is able to accomplish only 60 degrees of passive straight leg raising. To improve the range of
motion, the hold-relax technique should be applied to
a. hamstrings and hip extensors
b. adductors and hip extensors
c. abductors and hip flexors
d. quadriceps and hip flexors

A

a. hamstrings and hip extensors

215
Q

Which of these disease processes will not help from percussion and shaking?
a. pulmonary fibrosis
b. bacterial pneumonia
c. bronchiectasis
d. cystic fibrosis

A

a. pulmonary fibrosis

216
Q

A PT is prescribing a wheelchair for his 68-year-old patient who is 5 ft. 7 inches tall. The MOST useful
feature to include in the prescription is
a. desk armrests
b. a 20 in. seat height
c. a 17.5 in. seat height
d. elevating leg rests

A

c. a 17.5 in. seat height

216
Q

Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower
lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed?
a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips
b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees
c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat
d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat

A

a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips

217
Q

The use of hyperbaric oxygen in treating chronic dermal wounds is more useful in
a. wounds from insect bites
b. arterial insufficiency ulcers
c. venous insufficiency ulcers
d. burn wounds

A

c. venous insufficiency ulcers

218
Q

A 16-year-old high school student was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right
thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated it disappeared. This is MOST LIKELY due to
a. leg length discrepancy
b. unilateral weak gluteus medius
c. short iliopsoas muscle
d. lumbar facet dysfunction

A

a. leg length discrepancy

219
Q

The following prosthetic causes may result in vaulting during gait of an amputee EXCEPT
a. prosthesis may be too long
b. excessive alignment stability
c. inadequate socket suspension
d. foot in inadequate plantarflexion

A

d. foot in inadequate plantarflexion

220
Q

The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be
a. sustainable, simple, quantifiable
b. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable
c. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable (specific, measurable, realistic)
d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable

A

b. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable

221
Q

A basic facility standard that should be included in the construction of PT department is the ______.
a. parking facilities
b. basic space and staffing requirements
c. geography and population to be served
d. type and size of hospital to be served

A

b. basic space and staffing requirements

222
Q

The body weight transmitted to a unilateral cane opposite the affected side is about _______ percent.
a. 20-25
b. 80
c. 40-45
d. 10-15

A

a. 20-25

222
Q

A PT prepares to complete a sensory examination on a patient recovering from a lower extremity burn.
Which of the following would serve as the BEST predictor of altered sensation?
a. presence of skin graft
b. percentage of body surface affected
c. depth of burn injury
d. extent of hypertrophic scarring

A

c. depth of burn injury

223
Q

A 66-year-old female is recovering from stroke and at 4 months is ambulating with a straight cane
inside the house. During therapy, PT asks patient to practice walking without assistive device.
Recurvatum is observed that worsens with continued walking. The BEST strategy for the PT is:
a. Put the patient on an exercise machine and work on increasing quadriceps torque
outpatient at higher loads and increasing speeds
b. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standind and continue
with the straight cane
c. Give the patient a small-based quad cane to improve stability, and have him/her practice
active ROM in supine
d. Give the patient a KAFO to control the hyperextension and a hemi walker

A

b. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standind and continue
with the straight cane

224
Q

A PT chooses the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying endurance for a patient rehabilitating
from a lengthy illness. Which variable would be most appropriate to measure when determining the
patient’s endurance level with this objective test?
a. Heart rate response
b. Perceived exertion
c. Elapsed time
d. Distance walked

A

d. Distance walked

224
Q

A patient using a wheelchair is about to be discharged from the hospital. He asks his family to build a
ramp that will allow entry into the house. What is the MAXIMUM recommended grade for the ramp?
a. 10.4 percent
b. 8.3 percent
c. 9.3 percent
d. 6.5 percent

A

b. 8.3 percent

225
Q

In designing a ramp for patients with wheelchair, for every inch of threshold height, there should be a
corresponding _____ inches of ramp length.
a. 12
b. 10
c. 15
d. 8

A

a. 12

226
Q

A PT should have sustainable understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat
effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is NOT TRUE?
a. Early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity
b. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning
c. Early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes
d. Motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe

A

b. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning

227
Q

A medial or lateral whip during gait of an amputee can occur because of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
a. inadequate rotation of the knee
b. tight socket fit
c. improper alignment of toe break
d. valgus in the prosthetic knee

A

a. inadequate rotation of the knee

228
Q

A PT is working on a male inpatient on therapeutic positioning. Due to financial problems, he was referred
to PT only recently. The patient has developed significant weakness of the diaphragm and is
hypertensive. The MOST appropriate patient position to initiate treatment is:
a. prone
b. Trendelenburg
c. reverse Trendelenburg
d. supine

A

c. reverse Trendelenburg

228
Q

A PT should have adequate understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat
effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is INCORRECT?
a. early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes
b. motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe
c. early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity
d. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning

A

d. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning

228
Q

When comparing the gait cycle of young adults with the gait cycle of the older adults, the TRUE statement
is
a. The younger population has a short period of double support
b. The younger population has a shorter stride length
c. The younger population has a decrease in speed of ambulation
d. The younger population has a shorter step length

A

a. The younger population has a short period of double support

229
Q

When utilizing the skinfold measurement procedure to check body composition, the following guidelines
are followed EXCEPT
a. Wait one to two seconds before reading the caliper
b. skinfold calipers should be positioned one centimeter away from the examiner’s fingers when
pinching the side, positioned perpendicular to the skinfold and centered between the base and
top of the fold
c. Take only one measurement at each site
d. Maintain pinching of the site during the reading of the caliper

A

c. Take only one measurement at each site

230
Q

Which test of aerobic capacity is a reliable and valid functional capacity measure with reported minimal
detectable change scores in patients with heart failure?
a. Canadian Aerobic Fitness Step test
b. 6 Minute Walk Test
c. Bruce protocol treadmill test
d. Lower extremity ergometer test

A

b. 6 Minute Walk Test

231
Q

When reduction of weight transmission through the lower limb is desired, the ideal weight bearing
device is _________.
a. Ischial ring
b. Quadrilateral socket
c. Patellar tendon bearing
d. Any of these

A

d. Any of these

232
Q

In a normal gait, the stance phase usually takes up approximately _____ percent of the pattern.
a. 40
b. 20
c. 80
d. 60

A

d. 60

232
Q

Herzberg’s Two Factor Motivation Theory includes which of the following?
a. responsibility and growth
b. advancement and promotion
c. longer work hours and increased work load
d. satisfies and dissatisfies

A

d. satisfies and dissatisfies

233
Q

The parents of a child with cerebral palsy offers the PT a cash gift. He refuses but family insists saying it
is their way of saying thank you for the services he has rendered. The PT’S BEST response is to
__________.
a. accept money and use it to buy small needs for the PT department
b. accept money and use it to set up a feeding program
c. decline the gift
d. accept money and donate to charity

A

c. decline the gift

234
Q

A study of a local community population was necessary to determine the need for a Senior’s Day care
center in the area. The PT performing the study divided the population by sex and selected a random
sample from each group. This is an example of what type of sampling?
a. stratified random sample
b. random cluster sample
c. systematic random sample
d. two stage cluster sample

A

a. stratified random sample

235
Q

The following are contraindications of traction EXCEPT
a. vascular condition
b. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease
c. hypermobility
d. local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and
infections

A

b. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease

236
Q

If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may
be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity if pus-filled sputum that
may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of ________
a. chronic bronchitis
b. emphysema
c. asthma
d. bronchiectasis

A

d. bronchiectasis

237
Q

World Health Organization defines this term as abnormalities of anatomical, physiology or psychologic
origin within specific organs or systems of the body.
a. functional limitation
b. handicap
c. functional disability
d. Impairment

A

d. Impairment

238
Q

A patient who sprained the left ankle 3 days ago reports pain (4/10) and worsening moderate swelling.
During this time, the strategy that would be BEST to use is ___________.
a. contrast baths followed by limb elevation
b. cold/intermittent compression combination with leg elevated
c. cold whirlpool followed by massage
d. intermittent compression followed by elevation

A

b. cold/intermittent compression combination with leg elevated

239
Q

High level training for a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury (TBI) who is graded as Level VII in
the Rancho Los Amigos Cognitive Function Scale should concentrate on _____________.
a. Providing assistance as needed using guided movements during training
b. Involving the patient in decision making and monitoring for safety
c. Providing maximum supervision as needed to ensure successful performance and safety
d. Providing a high degree of environmental structure to ensure correct performance

A

b. Involving the patient in decision making and monitoring for safety

240
Q

A PT treating a patient with lower extremity lymphedema with mechanical compression decides to shift
to aquatic therapy. Hydrostatic pressure exerted by the water is expected to .
a. Lower effusion and assist venous return
b. Increase resistance as speed of movement increases
c. Provide joint unloading and enhance ease of active movement
d. Raise cardiovascular demands at rest and with exercise

A

a. Lower effusion and assist venous return

241
Q

This is associated with a pars interarticularis stress fracture or spondylolisthesis. The patient stands on
one leg and extends the spine while balancing on the leg. The test is repeated with the patient standing on the
opposite leg. A positive result is indicated by pain in the back.
a. Quadrant
b. segmental instability
c. Stork standing
d. Pheasant

A

c. Stork standing

242
Q

To prevent the onset of pneumonia for a non-ambulating patient, PT can recommend:
a. bedside sitting 2-3 times/day
b. chest tapping four times a day
c. starting spirometry and wheelchair mobility
d. nebulizer twice a day

A

a. bedside sitting 2-3 times/day

243
Q

Which PNF pattern has the patient “hold” in that part of the range where weakness exists?
a. contract - relax
b. slow reversal
c. rhythmic stabilization
d. approximation

A

c. rhythmic stabilization

244
Q

A short-term goal for a patient with a neurological deficit is as follows: The patient will transfer from tall
kneeling to half kneeling with supervision. This activity is an example of
a. controlled mobility
b. skill
c. mobility
d. stability

A

a. controlled mobility

245
Q

If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be
clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity of puss-filled sputum that
may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of _________.
a. chronic bronchitis
b. emphysema
c. bronchiectasis
d. asthma

A

c. bronchiectasis

246
Q

A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates a significant instability and hypertonicity in the hips. To
regain stability, the most appropriate strategy is ____________.
a. slow-reversal-hold to lock hip in prone position
b. slow-reversal-hold to lower trunk in sitting position
c. rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees
d. rhythmic stabilization to trunk in sidelying position

A

c. rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees

247
Q

The organizational plan of a PT department usually has the following objectives EXCEPT
a. reflects the operation of the services
b. provides supervising functions within the program/services
c. provides the direction of services
d. describes the interrelationship within the overall organization

A

a. reflects the operation of the services

248
Q

Professional negligence is commonly identified as .
a. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner
b. The unintended injury to person or property
c. “Res ipsa loquitor”
d. The intended injury to person or propert

A

a. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner

249
Q

When planning to establish a PT clinic, it is BEST to first
a. plan a marketing strategy
b. research on the needs of the community
c. plan a budget to determine how much business loan is required
d. look for a location where to set up

A

b. research on the needs of the community

249
Q

A PT is increasing a patient’s functional mobility in a seated position. To manage the patient MOST
effectively and efficiently, the following should be performed in what order?
1 - weight shifting of the pelvis
2 - isometric contractions of the lower extremity
3 - trunk range of motion exercises
4 - isotonic resistance of the quadriceps
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 3, 2, 1, 4
c. 2, 3, 1, 4
d. 4, 3, 2, 1

A

b. 3, 2, 1, 4

250
Q

A PT is instructing a stroke patient with gait training, PT noted that learning is going well because
errors are decreasing and overall endurance is improving. The BEST strategy to promote continued
motor learning at this time in the patient’s rehabilitation is to
a. intervene early whenever errors appear before bad habits become firmly entrenched
b. have the patient practice walking in different environments
c. provide continuous feedback after every walking trial
d. have the patient continue to practice in the parallel bars until all errors are gone

A

b. have the patient practice walking in different environments

251
Q

The Rule of Nines assigns percentage of burn to an adult’s anterior leg as ________.
a. 12.0
b. 4.5
c. 6.0
d. 9.0

A

d. 9.0

252
Q

A PT examines a patient seated in a wheelchair and notices that it has inadequate seat width.
The MOST LIKELY consequence to this is excessive pressure ____________.
a. on the greater trochanters
b. in the popliteal fossa
c. under the distal high
d. under the ischial tuberosities

A

a. on the greater trochanters

252
Q

A PT notices a bluish discoloration of the skin and nail beds of a 57-year-old male referred to
PT for pulmonary rehabilitation. This finding indicates _____________.
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperoxemia
c. Hyperoxia
d. Hypoxemia

A

d. Hypoxemia

253
Q

Which of the following statements about developmental motor control is FALSE?
a. Trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control.
b. Isotonic control develops before isometric control.
c. Gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control.
d. Eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movemen

A

b. Isotonic control develops before isometric control.

254
Q

A PT is part of a health team that will examine applicants for flight attendants of an airline company.
His task was to examine the posture of applicants. Which of these descriptions would NOT match a
good posture?
a. chest is slightly up and forward
b. front of pelvis and thighs are in a straight line
c. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other
d. arms hang relaxed at the sides with palms of hand facing toward the body

A

c. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other

255
Q

PT is evaluating a 40-year-old male patient referred by a pulmonary specialist. Pt observes a pattern
of breathing with periods of alternate deep breathing and apnea. Patient reports the same occurs at
bedtime. This type of breathing or disorder in rate and rhythm is consistent with
a. diaphragmatic
b. Biot’s
c. ataxic
d. Cheyne-Stokes

A

d. Cheyne-Stokes

256
Q

The plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine
vertically. Ideal positioning of selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below
EXCEPT
a. midway through the tip of the shoulder
b. through the external auditory meatus
c. through the axis of the odontoid process
d. slightly anterior to the coronal suture

A

d. slightly anterior to the coronal suture

256
Q

A patient with a deep partial thickness burns over 30 degrees of the body is referred to PT from the
Burn Unit. The expected healing process in this type of burn includes
a. moderate edema with spontaneous healing and minimal grafting
b. depressed skin area that heals with grafting and scarring
c. marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring
d. blisters and minimal edema with spontaneous healing

A

d. blisters and minimal edema with spontaneous healing

257
Q

A patient who sustained a CVA a month ago is starting to exhibit ability to produce movement patterns
outside the limb synergies. According to Brunnstrom, this is in the stage of recovery.
a. fourth
b. fifth
c. third
d. second

A

a. fourth

258
Q

Criteria that can be used to assess motor learning include all of the following EXCEPT
a. ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback
b. resistance to contextual change
c. performance acquisition of a motor task
d. retention-recall of a motor task after a period of no practice

A

a. ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback

258
Q

A PT teaches a patient in supine to posteriorly tilt pelvis. The patient has full active and passive range of
motion in the upper extremity but cannot do full shoulder flexion while in posterior pelvic tilt position. What
could be the BEST explanation for this?
a. Latissimus dorsi tightness
b. Capsular tightness
c. Quadratus lumborum tightness
d. Pectoralis minor tightness

A

a. Latissimus dorsi tightness

259
Q

While performing a finger to nose test a patient demonstrates hesitancy in getting started and is then
unable to control the movement. The moving finger hits the side of the face and misses the nose completely.
These findings are consistent with moderate impairment in ___________.
a. Response orientation
b. Dysmetria
c. Dyssynergia
d. Dysdiadochokinesia

A

b. Dysmetria

259
Q

A study was made to determine the need for a new wellness center in the community. The population was
divided by sex and random sampling was selected from each group. This is an example of _____________
sample.
a. random cluster
b. stratified random
c. two stage cluster
d. systematic random

A

b. stratified random

260
Q

The test for the presence peripheral arterial involvement in patient with calf musculature pain is ____.
a. Percussion test
b. Homan’s sign
c. Claudication time
d. blood pressure

A

c. Claudication time

260
Q

A 22-month-old child with Down syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an early
intervention program. Daily training activities that should be considered include .
a. Locomotor training using motorized treatment
b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing
c. Rolling activities
d. Stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization

A

b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

260
Q

While performing a postural screening for chronic pain, the PT notices excessive internal rotation of the
shoulders and winging of the scapula during overhead motion. Treatment should concentrate on
strengthening of the:
a. Upper trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles
b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles
c. Rhomboids and stretching of upper trapezius
d. Pectoral muscles and stretching of upper trapezius

A

b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles

261
Q

A patient has chronic pulmonary disease. A contraindication to starting extremity joint mobilization is
.
a. Reflex muscle guarding
b. Long term corticosteroid therapy
c. Concurrent inhalation therapy
d. Function chest wall immobility

A

b. Long term corticosteroid therapy

262
Q

A 68-year-old male patient with a 10-year history of diabetes complains of cramping, pain, fatigue of the
left buttock after walking 500 feet or climbing stairs. Pain is relieved during rest. The skin of the involved
leg is pale and slightly cold. These symptoms point to
a. Raynaud’s phenomenon
b. Spinal root impingement
c. Peripheral arterial disease
d. Peripheral nerve injury

A

c. Peripheral arterial disease

263
Q

A 68-year-old male patient has an irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient has an
irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient did not complain of pain. These
symptoms are consistent with an/a ___________.
a. Arterial ulcer
b. Diabetic ulcer
c. Venous ulcer
d. Arterial insufficiency

A

c. Venous ulcer

264
Q

A 65-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was referred to PT. Pulmonary testing
reveals that forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEVI) and vital capacity (VC) are within 60 percent of
predicted values. What is the correct exercise prescription?
a. exercise at 75-80 percent of the target heart rate, 7 times per week
b. exercise at 75-80 percent of the target heart rate, 3 times per week
c. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and increase slowly, 7 times per week
d. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and exercise slowly, 3 times per week

A

c. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and increase slowly, 7 times per week

265
Q

A female patient with a 10-year history of scleroderma is referred to PT to improve function and
endurance. She was recently treated with corticosteroids for a bout of myositis. Evaluation shows limited
ROM and fibrotic soft tissue with hyperesthesia. The MOST essential strategy in the beginning is
.
a. Treadmill walking with body weight support at intensity 40 percent HR max
b. Closed-chain and modified aerobic step exercises
c. Soft tissue mobilization and stretching
d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool

A

d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool

266
Q

A postpartum patient with stress incontinence is referred to the clinic for pelvic floor exercises. During
the beginning of the exercise program, the BEST technique should include .
a. Supine, squeeze the spincters and hold for 3 seconds
b. Hooklying, bridge and hold for 5 seconds
c. Supine, squeeze sphincters and hold for 10 seconds
d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds

A

d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds

267
Q

The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is _________ seconds.
a. 10 - 15
b. 1 – 5
c. 5 – 10
d. 15 – 20

A

a. 10 - 15

267
Q

A patient is not able to take in enough supply of nutrients by mouth because of the side effects of
radiation therapy. Because of this, the physician ordered the implementation of tube feeding. What type of
tube is MOST commonly used for short term feeding?
a. Endotracheal
b. Endobronchial
c. Nasogastric
d. Traecheostomy

A

c. Nasogastric

268
Q

Republic Act 5680 mandates that the Board of PT-OT should be composed of _________.
a. A PT as Chairman, 2 Physiatrists and 2 OTS
b. A PT as Chairman, 1 Physiatrist and 1 OT
c. A Physiatrist as chairman, 1 PT and 1 OT
d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTS and 2 OTS

A

d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTS and 2 OTS

269
Q

Schematic drawings on the construction of a PT department should include __________.
a. All of these
b. Actual size of each department section
c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the
department
d. Very detailed arrangement of the fixed and non-fixed equipment

A

c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the
department

269
Q

In a PT clinic, departmental records and data are collected for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
a. Organizational control
b. Standards of practice
c. Standards of work
d. Department planning

A

b. Standards of practice

270
Q

A 75-year-old male patient with persistent balance difficulty and a history of recent falls (2 in the past
month) is referred for evaluation and management. During the initial session, it is important to examine
the
a. level of dyspnea during functional transfers
b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance
c. spinal musculoskeletal changes secondary to degenerative joint disease
d. cardiovascular endurance during a 5-minute walking test

A

b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance

271
Q

A 64-year-old female patient who underwent a minimally invasive total knee replacement was referred to
PT. The referring physician stated in the chart that patient ha stage 1 Alzheimer’s disease. The PT will
therefore NOT expect to find
a. memory loss
b. anxiety and irritability
c. cannot concentrate
d. profound communication deficits

A

d. profound communication deficits

272
Q

A PT participating in a study to check the fitness level of the senior population in a barangay in quezon
city is using a simple random sample to draw a sample from the population. By selecting this type of
sample, the PT ensures that .
a. The sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population
b. Every member of the population has an equally opportunity of being chosen
c. The sample size will be large
d. The data collected from the sample will be normally distributed

A

b. Every member of the population has an equally opportunity of being chosen

273
Q

A PT wants to study whether a treatment was effective in reducing lower extremity edema in a group of
patients with peripheral vascular edema. Volumetric measurements using a water displacement method
is selected as the outcome measure. The data were compared to a control group receiving no treatment.
Analysis of data is BEST done by utilizing _______________.
a. chi square
b. Pearson’s product moment
c. ANOVA
d. t-test

A

d. t-test

273
Q

PT was referred a patient with a pulmonary condition. She was to evaluate chest expansion using a tape
measure. The 3 sites involved in the assessment are.
i. 3rd intercostal space
ii. under the axilla
iii. nipple line or xiphisternal junction
iv. 5th intercostal spine
v. T10 rib area
a. If I, III, V are correct
b. If II, III, V are correct
c. If I, II, III are correct
d. If III, IV, V are correct

A

b. If II, III, V are correct

274
Q

A PT designs a research work that will examine body composition as a function of aerobic exercise
and diet. Which method of data collection would provide the MOST Valid measurement of body
composition?
a. hydrostatic weighing
b. bioelectrical impedance
c. skinfold measurements
d. anthropometric measurements

A

a. hydrostatic weighing

275
Q

PT wants to begin behavior modification techniques as part of a plan of care to help shape the
behavioral response of a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury. The BEST form of
intervention is to
a. scold patient every time a wrong behavior happens
b. encourage the staff to tell patient which behaviors are correct and which are not
c. allow patient enough time for self-correction of the behavior
d. use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors

A

d. use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors

276
Q

A 43 year old male worker suffered carbon monoxide poisoning in a chemical plant. He sustained
permanent damage to the nervous system affecting the basal ganglia. The exercise program should
be feared to neutralize expected impairment of
a. motor planning with use of guided and cued movement
b. motor paralysis with the use of full weights to increase strength
c. muscular spasms and hyperreflexia with ice wrap application
d. impaired sensory organization of balance using standing balance training

A

a. motor planning with use of guided and cued movement

276
Q

The maximum strength of a tetanic contraction of a muscle operating at a normal length is
approximately _________ of a muscle.
a. 3.5 kg/sq cm
b. 5.5 kg/sq cm
c. 1.5 kg/sq cm
d. 2.5 kg/sq cm

A

a. 3.5 kg/sq cm

276
Q

In the modified Ashworth Scale for Grading Spasticity a grade 2 is described as
a. slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance
throughout the remainder (less than half of the ROM)
b. considerable increase in muscle tone, passive movement difficult
c. slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance
at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension
d. more marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily
moves

A

d. more marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily
moves

276
Q

Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment?
a. hydrostatic weighing
b. eyeballing method
c. electrical impedance
d. anthropometric measurements

A

a. hydrostatic weighing

276
Q

A 28-year-old fast food delivery man figured in a bad vehicular accident that landed him in the
intensive care unit. Patient is confused. His laboratory findings include: hematocrit -28 percent,
hemoglobin – 10 g/100 mL and serum white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3. With these, the PT can
say that
a. all values are abnormal
b. only hematocrit value is abnormal
c. hematocrit and hemoglobin values are abnormal; WBC is normal
d. only serum and WBC is abnormal

A

a. all values are abnormal

277
Q

A patient exhibiting symptoms of thalamic pain syndrome, cortical blindness and memory impairment.
PT will suspect occlusion in the artery.
a. vertebral basilar
b. middle cerebral
c. posterior cerebral
d. anterior cerebral

A

c. posterior cerebral

277
Q

While evaluating a patient with cerebral palsy, the spastic diplegia type, PT will observe the
following abnormalities, EXCEPT:
a. ankle dorsiflexion
b. scissoring gait pattern
c. hips flexed and adducted
d. knees flexed with valgus

A

a. ankle dorsiflexion

277
Q

A sports PT was invited to deliver a talk on plyometrics before athletes of a university-based athletic
association. Which of the following does NOT refer to plyometric?
a. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and
75 percent range of motion
b. It is appropriate only in the later stages of rehabilitation of active individuals who must
achieve a high level of physical performance in specific high demand activities
c. It Is characterized by a rapid eccentric contraction during which muscle elongates,
followed immediately by a rapid reversal of movement with a resisted shortening
contraction of the same muscle
d. It is a system of high velocity resistance training

A

a. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and
75 percent range of motion

277
Q

A PT reviews a laboratory result of an inpatient who sustained burns over 25 percent of her body in
a fire. Granting the patient exhibits hypovolemia, which of the following laboratory values would be
MOST significantly affected?
a. hematocrit
b. prothrombin time
c. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. oxygen saturation rate

A

a. hematocrit

278
Q

Because of a traumatic brain injury, a patient is unable to bring foot up into the next step during stair
climbing. The PT’s BEST strategy to promote learning the task is to have patient do
a. step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars
b. standing up from halt kneeling
c. balancing of stairs while PT brings the foot up
d. marching in place between parallel bars

A

a. step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars

279
Q

A patient with a left CVA demonstrates right hemiparesis and strong and dominant hemiplegia
synergies in the lower extremity. The BEST strategy to break up these strategies is
a. supine, PNF D2F with knee flexing and D2F with knee extending
b. foot tapping in a sitting position
c. bridging, pelvic elevation
d. supine-lying hip extension with adduction

A

c. bridging, pelvic elevation

280
Q

A 2-year-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is treated in as early
intervention program. Daily training activities that can be considered include
a. rolling activities, initiating movement with stretch and tracking resistance
b. stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization
c. locomotor training using body weight support
d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

A

d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

281
Q

A 3-year-old child with spastic cerebral palsy and at a 6 month old gross developmental level is
referred to the clinic. The plan of care would include
a. visually tracking a black and white object held 9 inches from his/her face
b. reaching for a black and white object while in the supine position
c. reaching for a multi colored object while in an unsupported standing position
d. reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position

A

d. reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position

281
Q

A PT has been invited to be resource speaker during a workshop for budding athletes on plyometrics.
Among the exercises below, what can be included?
a. Running downhill
b. Skip and hop in all directions
c. Walking backwards
d. Lateral movement to stabilize knee

A

b. Skip and hop in all directions

282
Q

A PT is performing a cognitive function test on a patient status post stroke. As part of the test: PT
examines the patient’s abstract ability. Which of these tasks is MOST appropriate?
a. discuss how two objects are similar
b. identify letters or numbers traced on the skin
c. copy drawn figures of varying size and shape
d. orientation to time, person and place

A

a. discuss how two objects are similar

283
Q

The following are characteristics of the right hemisphere of the brain EXCEPT
a. process information in a holistic manner
b. hand-eye coordination
c. produce written and spoken language
d. artistic abilities

A

c. produce written and spoken language

284
Q

A sports PT is tasked to prescreen athletes to identify who are susceptible to heat illness. Which of
these elements would be MOST useful to the project?
a. flexibility
b. height
c. percent body fat
d. weight

A

c. percent body fat

285
Q

A 36-year-old fast food delivery crew got involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained an injury to
the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which muscle would not be affected by the injury?
a. latissimus dorsi
b. infraspinatus
c. teres major
d. subscapularis

A

b. infraspinatus

286
Q

A PT is treating a patient with a behavior pattern involving his speech. There is absence of
spontaneous speech but prompt repetition of your words. The type of aphasia MOST LIKELY
present in this patient is ____________.
a. transcortical motor
b. transcortical sensory
c. conduction
d. Wernicke’s

A

a. transcortical motor

287
Q

Choose a form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is
greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of
motion.
a. Clasp-knife response
b. Hemiballism
c. Clonus
d. Cogwheel rigidity

A

a. Clasp-knife response

288
Q

A patient who has been diabetic for more than 20 years have vascular insufficiency and diminished
sensation of both feet with poor healing of a superficial skin lesion. It is essential that the patient
understand the precautions and guidelines on foot care. Which of these is a CONTRAINDICATION to
diabetic care?
a. Wash feet daily and hydrate with moisturizing lotion
b. Inspect skin daily for inflammation, swelling, redness, blisters or wounds
c. Do daily hot soaks
d. Wear flexible shoes that allow adequate room and change shoes frequently

A

c. Do daily hot soaks

289
Q

A physical training program applied over a sufficient period of time can lead to improved physical
performance. The statement describing the effects of physical training that is NOT accurate is _____.
a. prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from
subsequent training programs
b. training induces physiological changes in the skeletal muscles and the cardiorespiratory
system
c. the changes resulting from training are influenced by the frequency, duration and intensity
of training
d. training effects can be maintained by one or two days of exercise per week

A

a. prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from
subsequent training programs

290
Q

A CVA patient with extensor synergy will find difficulty ______________.
a. going down stairs with affected leg first
b. during the swing phase of gait
c. standing on affected leg on midstance
d. during circumduction

A

b. during the swing phase of gait

291
Q

A 68-year-old male with a 9-year history of Parkinson’s disease is referred to physical therapy.
Patient demonstrates significant rigidity, decreased passive ROM in both upper extremities in the
typical distribution and frequent episodes of akinesia. The exercise intervention that BEST
addresses these problems is __________.
a. quadruped position, upper extremity PNF D2 flexion and extension
b. modified plantigrade, isometric holding, stressing upper extremity shoulder flexion
c. resistance training, free weights for shoulder flexor at 80 percent of one repetition maximum
d. sitting, PNF bilateral symmetrical upper extremity D2 flexion patterns, rhythmic initiation

A

d. sitting, PNF bilateral symmetrical upper extremity D2 flexion patterns, rhythmic initiation

292
Q

The following statements are TRUE about cardiovascular response to exercise in trained and
sedentary patients EXCEPT
a. trained patients will have a larger stroke volume during exercise
b. the sedentary patient will reach aerobic threshold faster than the trained patient, if workload
are equal
c. cardiovascular response to increase workload will increase at the same rate for sedentary
and for trained patients
d. if exercise intensities are equal, the sedentary patient’s heart rate will increase faster than
the trained patient’s heart rate

A

c. cardiovascular response to increase workload will increase at the same rate for sedentary
and for trained patients

293
Q

The following are considerations when treating a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma, EXCEPT:
a. ecchymosis in patients with low platelet count
b. possible fractures from thoracic bone metastasis
c. pneumonia may develop because of a completely obstructed bronchus
d. change in skin color

A

d. change in skin color

294
Q

A PT is performing a respiratory evaluation including the following test: respiratory rate, blood
pressure, pulse and measurement of chest expansion. A normal measurement of difference between
the rest period and full expansion over the xiphoid process is
a. 1 ½ inches
b. 1 inch
c. 2 inches
d. ½ inch

A

a. 1 ½ inches

295
Q

Patient was on bed rest for several months. Which of these does NOT occur in a patient after an
extended bed rest?
a. Increase in the heart rate response to activity
b. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance
c. Increase in lung volume
d. Decrease in physical work capacity

A

c. Increase in lung volume

295
Q

The following are Bobath’s concepts of muscular weakness EXCEPT
a. sensory deficit cannot result in weakness
b. weakness is due to being relatively overcome by spastic antagonistic muscles
c. a muscle may be weak only as a prime mover but “strong” whenever an abnormal mass
movement pattern occurs
d. soft tissue periarticular contraction can enhance or stimulate weakness

A

a. sensory deficit cannot result in weakness

296
Q

After complete healing, wound will have only how many percent strength of intact skin?
a. 80
b. 70
c. 50
d. 60

A

a. 80

297
Q

The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal
movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated
reactions, the approach MOST closely illustrates .
a. Kabat
b. Rood
c. Brunstrom
d. Bobath

A

d. Bobath

298
Q

The patient is now able to pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended. This
means he is in the stage of Brunnstrom’s stages of development.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5

A

d. 5

299
Q

The MOST important consideration among the factors below in the clinical assessment for
wheelchair and seating system is .
a. Abnormal reflexes
b. Sensory deficits
c. Contracture
d. Muscle tone

A

c. Contracture

300
Q

A patient with vascular problem develops an infected skin ulcer on the left heel. The modality that
would NOT be applied for this patient is
a. low intensity direct current – can be used for wound healing
b. ultraviolet radiation – can be used for wound healing
c. high voltage galvanic stimulation – still a galvanic type of current that can be used for wound
healing
d. hot moist pack

A

d. hot moist pack

301
Q

Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 2 chronic dermal wound?
a. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt.cm2
b. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
c. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm
d. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2

A

b. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2

302
Q

Electrical stimulation of spastic muscles has been proven to effectively reduce spasticity. The
following are parameters to apply EXCEPT
a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with 200-500 microseconds
duration
b. stimulus: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction
c. duty cycle: 1:2
d. pulse rate: greater than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contraction

A

c. duty cycle: 1:2

303
Q

Ohm’s Law describes the relationship among
a. voltage, resistance and amperage
b. amperage, conductance and resistance
c. conductance, voltage and resistance
d. voltage, conductance and amperage

A

a. voltage, resistance and amperage

304
Q

A PT will apply electrical stimulation to a patient with venous stasis ulcer on the right lower extremity.
The correct type of electrical stimulation to promote wound heating is
a. direct
b. biphasic pulsed
c. interferential
d. TENS

A

a. direct

305
Q

In electrotherapy, the frequencies generated by high voltage units are usually no greater than 100 to
140 Hz while that produced by low voltage units are ________ Hz.
a. 500 - 1,000
b. 2,000 - 3,000
c. 3,000 - 4,000
d. 1,000 - 2,000

A

d. 1,000 - 2,000

306
Q

Patient is a 16 year old female student with idiopathic scoliosis. PT plans to apply bipolar or
quadripolar electrodes over the overstretched and weakened muscles. He can select the following
parameters EXCEPT
a. duration: gradually increased until patient tolerates 8 hours of stimulation
b. pulse rate: 50 pes
c. waveform: rectangular monophasic waveform with 220 microseconds output
d. stimulus amplitude: 50 to 70 mmA

A

b. pulse rate: 50 pes

307
Q

In electrotherapy, if the peak pulse duration in high voltage generators ranges from 50-100 usec, for low
voltage generators it is msec. (Possible Ref: Michlovitz 6th Ed Chapter 9 pp. 278-9)
a. 600-800
b. 01-02
c. 900-950
d. .03-500

A

d. .03-500

308
Q

Pt applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who the day after complained of peeling and itching.
These disappear after 3 days. The dosage received was dose. (Ref: Dunaway Set A Question 25)
a. Minimal erythemal
b. First degree erythemal
c. Suberythemal
d. Third degree erythemal

A

b. First degree erythemal

309
Q

The major advantage of using red-glass in heat lamp is _____________.
a. there is less light glare
b. it filters out long infra-red rays
c. it increases the physiological effects of radiation
d. it filters out harmful ultraviolet rays

A

a. there is less light glare

310
Q

A PT applies 3.0 MHz ultrasound at 1.5 w/cm2 to treat a patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Majority of
the ultrasound energy will be absorbed within a depth of ______ centimeters.
a. 4 – 5
b. 1 – 2
c. 5 – 6
d. 2 – 3

A

b. 1 – 2

311
Q

According to the temperature law of Vant Hoff, for every rise of 10 degrees C the rate of oxidation is
increased how many times?
a. Once
b. 2.5
c. 3
d. Twice

A

b. 2.5

312
Q

These statements on reflex heating are TRUE, EXCEPT:
a. It is also termed consensual heating and Landis Gibbon’s Reflex
b. The effect is felt after several hours
c. It is useful for patients with circulatory problems such as diabetes or peripheral vascular
disease
d. The technique involves the application of heat to one area of the body that results in an
increase in cutaneous circulation and other reactions in another area

A

b. The effect is felt after several hours

313
Q

A PT checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several patients report the heat being
very strong. Which of the following temperatures would be acceptable?
a. 83 degrees Celsius (181 degrees F)
b. 64 degrees Celsius (147 degrees F)
c. 94 degrees Celsius (201 degrees F)
d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F)

A

d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F)

314
Q

Erb’s Law states that ____________.
a. All of these
b. opening currents are more effective than closing currents in causing normal depolarization
c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization
d. Less current is necessary to produce minimum contraction with cathode than anodal closing current

A

c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization

315
Q

In the reeducation and facilitation of muscles, electrical stimulation is used as a guide to improve
proprioceptive and visual sense of the motions and activities being facilitated. When bipolar electrodes are
placed over the large muscles or muscle groups, you select the following parameters, EXCEPT:
a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with a duration of 200-500 microseconds
b. stimulus amplitude: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction
c. duty cycle: 1:1 cycle to produce rhythmical muscle contractions
d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

A

d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

316
Q

A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of
chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity.
An important guideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is _____.
a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site
b. observe infection control procedures
c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months
d. observe skin care precautions

A

d. observe skin care precautions

317
Q

Pulsed ultrasound is applied to a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendonitis. The statement about
pulsed ultrasound that is MOST consistent when compared with continuous ultrasound is:
a. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is reduced
b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced
c. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is increased
d. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is increased

A

b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced

318
Q

Froment’s sign is a test used to determine function of the
a. ulnar
b. axillary
c. median
d. radial

A

a. ulnar

319
Q

Laser radiation is commonly used for .
a. Relief of neurogenic pain
b. Accelerate wound healing
c. Prevention of nerve degeneration
d. Relief of arthritic pain

A

b. Accelerate wound healing

320
Q

The complication that may result from excess ultraviolet radiation is .
a. Telangiectasis
b.Herpes simplex
c.all of these
d. Impetigo

A

c.all of these

321
Q

The current leakage from an electrode intended for direct patient connection should NOT be more than
microamperes.
a. 40
B.30
c.50
d. 60

A

c.50

322
Q

PT records the parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment in a patient’s medical record. The
standard unit of measure when recording alternating current frequency is
a. volt
b. Coulomb
C.pulse per second
d.hertz

A

d.hertz

323
Q

The following are approaches of electrical stimulation to control spasticity EXCEPT
a. alternately stimulating agonist and antagonist muscle
b. stimulation of the spastic muscles themselves
c. none of these
d. stimulation of antagonist to utilize the effect of reciprocal inhalation

A

c. none of these

324
Q

This test, also known as Ritchie or Trillart, is the BEST indicator of injury to the anterior cruciate
ligament especially the posterolateral band.
a. Gravity drawer
b. Lachman’s
c. Slocum
d. Godfrey

A

b. Lachman’s

325
Q

This is a special test that conforms lateral epicondylitis. Patient reports pain as the therapist resist the
attempt to make a fist, pronate the forearm, radially deviate and extend the wrist.
a. Golfer’s elbow
b. Ludwig’s
c. Wilson’s
d. Cozen’s

A

d. Cozen’s

326
Q

This is a test for a rotator cuff pathology or shoulder impingement where patient is positioned in sitting
or standing. Then therapist flexes the patient’s shoulder to 90 degrees and medially rotates the arm. A positive test is indicated by pain and may be indicative of shoulder impingement involving the supraspinatus
tendon.
a. Hawkin’s kennedy
b. Supraspinatus
c. Drop arm
d. Neer

A

a. Hawkin’s kennedy

327
Q

The duration of the faradic impulse is approximately
a. Variable
B.0.01 of a second
C.0.001 of a second
d. 1 mega second

A

C.0.001 of a second

328
Q

In electrical stimulation this current mode is described as a time period with a gradual rise of the current
intensity which is maintained at a selected level for a given period of time followed by a gradual or abrupt
decline in intensity.
A.continuos
B. ramped
c. Surged
d. Interrupted

A

B. ramped

329
Q

The PT of an elderly patient with a stage III decubitus ulcer on the plantar surface of the right foot is
applying electrical stimulation after trying conservative treatment without much success. The BEST
choice for electric current in this condition is
a. low voltage biphasic pulsed
b. high voltage monophasic pulsed
c. medium frequency interferential
d. medium frequency burst

A

b. high voltage monophasic pulsed

330
Q

All of the following apply to reaction of degeneration, EXCEPT:
a. Stages of reaction of degeneration denote the etiology of the lesion
b. It indicates an organic lesion
c. Lesion is in the lower motor neuron
d. Stages of reaction of degeneration denotes the severity of the lesion

A

a. Stages of reaction of degeneration denote the etiology of the lesion

331
Q

To maximize reduction of lymphedema following mastectomy in the upper extremity by means of
massage, it is MOST important that the ___________.
a. massage strokes occur in centrifugal direction
b. local heat be applied before massage
c. hand be massaged before the forearm
d. upper arm be massaged before the forearm

A

d. upper arm be massaged before the forearm

332
Q

A PT gives pre-operative instruction to a patient who is to undergo hip arthroplasty surgery. Part of the
session includes discussion on the importance of preventing deep vein thrombosis following surgery.
Which is the BEST indicator that the patient is at minimal risk of acquiring a deep vein thrombosis?
a. ability to ambulate on frequent schedule
b. ability to utilize pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings
c. ability to achieve full hip range of motion written the allowable limits
d. ability to perform ankle pumps and muscle setting exercise

A

a. ability to ambulate on frequent schedule

333
Q

A 67-year-old female is referred to PT because of severe claudication occurring after walking more than
200 feet, muscle fatigue and cramped of both calf muscles. A closer look yielded a pale and shiny skin
with some trophic nail changes. The BEST strategy is
a. begin with interval walking exercising just to the point of pain
b. avoid exercise stress until patient is on medication for at least 1 week
c. non-weight bearing exercises like cycle ergometer
d. walking program of moderate intensity

A

a. begin with interval walking exercising just to the point of pain

334
Q

A PT working in an acute hospital evaluates a patient recovering from surgery. Apart from diabetes,
patient has no other significant past medical history. Which of the following would most merit
IMMEDIATE medical attention?
a. lack of significant clinical findings following the examination
b. discovery of significant past medical history unknown to the physician
c. signs of confusion and lethargy
d. systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg during exercise

A

c. signs of confusion and lethargy

335
Q

A patient with left piriformis syndrome is referred to PT. Two years ago patient underwent a left total hip
arthroplasty. Because of this, the modality which will require extra precaution when applied to the
patient is:
a. Continuous ultrasound
b. TENS
c. Hot pack
d. Massage to the left hip

A

a. Continuous ultrasound

336
Q

A PT applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who the day after complained of peeling and
itching. These disappear after 3 days. The dosage received was .
a. Third degree erythemal dose
b. First degree erythemal dose
c. Minimal erythemal dose
d. Suberythemal dose

A

b. First degree erythemal dose

337
Q

A patient with a long-standing rheumatoid arthritis of the MP and IP joints is referred to PT. Upon
evaluation, therapist observed that patient can flex IP when MCP is in neutral position but cannot flex IP
when MCP is hyperextended. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is
a. lateral band slippage on volar aspect
b. MCP joint subluxation
c. finger muscle tenosynovitis
d. intrinsic muscle tightness

A

d. intrinsic muscle tightness

338
Q

This is a test for posterior shoulder instability. The patient lies supine with the shoulder abducted
to 100 degrees and laterally rotated 90 degrees and with the elbow flexed to 90 degrees so that the
arm is horizontal. The examiner stabilizes the scapula with one hand palpating the posterior humeral
head with the fingers and stabilizes the upper limb by holding the forearm and elbow at the elbow.
The examiner then brings the arm into forward flexion. The test is known as
a. push - pull
b. load and shift
c. Norwood stress
d. posterior apprehension or stress

A

c. Norwood stress

339
Q

The following are tests to assess manual dexterity and coordination, EXCEPT:
a. Jebson-Taylor Hand Function
b. Minnesota Rate of Manipulation
c. Grind
d. Purdue Pegboard

A

c. Grind