APK Flashcards by Jane Doe

A therapist designs a cardiovascular training program for a 29-year-old male rehabilitating from a
lower extremity injury. The client has no known cardiovascular pathology and has been cleared for
exercise by his physician. The client’s maximum heart rate during exercise should be calculated in
beats per minute as:

a. 201
b. 170
c. 191
d. 181

c. 191

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In coronary artery disease, the following conditions exist, EXCEPT:
a. It may produce ischemia and necrosis of the myocardium
b. Arteries are unable to meet metabolic demands
c. There is inability for vasodilation
d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

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Orientation is ________.
a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very
troubled by this symptom
b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning, or chronic organic brain syndrome, often
manifesting as a memory impairment.
c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.
d. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you.

c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

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In the glomerular capillary, glomerular filtration is highest in the
a. Beginning
b. Middle to the end
c. Middle
d. End
e. Beginning to middle

a. Beginning

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What valve prevents the left ventricular blood from returning to the left atrium?
a. Tricuspid
b. Mitral
c. Ventricular
d. Aortic

b. Mitral

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A therapist discusses the importance of proper nutrition with a client diagnosed with congestive
heart failure. Which of the following substances would be most restricted in this client’s diet?
a. Cholesterol
b. Triglycerides
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

d. Sodium

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Syncope is
a. also referred to as cardinal signs.
b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.
c. a shrill, harsh sound, especially the respiratory sound heard during inspiration in laryngeal
obstruction.
d. the period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries
during heartbeat

b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.

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starts near the end of the R wave and ends just after the T wave on the ECG.
a. Early diastole
b. Late diastole
c. Ventricular systole
d. Atrial systole

c. Ventricular systole

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In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may
indicate acute myocardial infarction.
a. STP
b. P wave
c. QRS
d. ST segment
e. T wave

e. T wave

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Id is
a. the perception of sensory stimulus in the absence of any sensory stimulus.
b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.
c. a mental state of sadness, low self-esteem, and self-reproach.
d. a mood characterized by elation and increased activity.

b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.

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Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during _________.
a. First 1/3 of diastole
b. Rapid ejection period
c. Isovolumic contraction period
d. Atrial systole

a. First 1/3 of diastole

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In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________.
a. Efferent arterioles
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Renal artery
d. Segmental artery

a. Efferent arterioles

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In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may
indicate acute myocardial infarction.
a. STP
b. P wave
c. QRS
d. ST segment
e. T wave

d. ST segment

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Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of
a. primary active transport mechanism.
b. opening of voltage-gated channels.
c. secondary active-transport mechanism.
d. opening of ligand-gated channels.

b. opening of voltage-gated channels.

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Which of the following is not used for pain medication?
a. Topical anesthetics such as lidocaine and tetracaine
b. Salicylates such as aspirin, choline magnesium trisalicylate, and salsalate
c. Acetaminophen
d. Allopurinol

d. Allopurinol

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Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic
medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate
medical attention?
a. Insomnia
b. Shortness of breath
c. Coughing up blood
d. Dizziness

a. Insomnia

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If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the
a. Relative refractory period
b. Atrioventricular mode
c. Absolute refractory period
d. Resting phase
e. Supernormal phase

c. Absolute refractory period

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Venous return increases
a. Following generalized vasoconstriction
b. In heart failure
c. During inspiration
d. During a Valsalva maneuver

c. During inspiration

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A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac
rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the most relevant for the patient?
a. Weight
b. Elevated serum cholesterol
c. Age
d. Gender
e. Family history

b. Elevated serum cholesterol

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A physician instructs a client to take nonprescription or over the counter medication as part of his
treatment program. Which of the following statements about over the counter medication is not
accurate?
a. Over the counter medications usually contain low doses of their active ingredient
b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications
c. The Food and Drug Administration classifies drugs as prescription or nonprescription
d. Over the counter medications are available without a prescription and can be purchased
directly by consumers.

b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications

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Which of the following include functions of veins?
I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows
II. Deregulates cardiac input
III. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
IV. Propels blood through venous pump
V. Regulate cardiac output
a. II, III, V
b. I, II and III
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV

c. III, IV and V

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The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:
a. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital
organs.
b. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
c. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limbs
d. It can be caused by restricted mobility and an increase in red blood cells
e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

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Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle
contraction is known as ________.
a. Slow waves
b. Fast waves
c. Spikes
d. Action potentials

a. Slow waves

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Renal blood flow decreases with age will lead to:
I. Loss of renal mass observed with aging
II. Decrease in cardiac output with age
III. Age-related sclerotic changes in the renal arteries
a. II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. I only

c. I and II

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Dyspnea, a symptom of cardiac dysfunction may be described as follows EXCEPT it ____________. a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation b. Can occur in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy c. Often occurs with myocardial ischemia and heart failure d. Is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension

a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation

Venous return increases a. Following generalized vasoconstriction b. In heart failure c. During inspiration d. During a Valsalva maneuver

c. During inspiration

A patient was rushed to the hospital and underwent emergency Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting after complaining of persistent severe uncomfortable chest pain. This can be classified as _______ according to the angina scale: a. 2+ b. 5+ c. 3+ d. 1+ e. 4+

c. 3+

In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________. a. Efferent arterioles b. Afferent arterioles c. Renal artery d. Segmental artery

a. Efferent arterioles

An 80-year-old female without medical illness undergoes annual check-up. Liver function tests such as AST and ALT is expected to be __________. a. Twice above the normal range b. Below the normal range c. Above the normal range d. Within normal limits

d. Within normal limits

Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate medical attention? a. Insomnia b. Shortness of breath c. Coughing up blood d. Dizziness

a. Insomnia

Which of the following drug is classified as anti-coagulant? a. Propranolol b. Losartan c. Warfarin d. Digitalis

c. Warfarin

The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via the ________. a. Right auricle b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Left auricle

c. Right ventricle

Paranoia a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very troubled by this symptom. b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment. c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you d. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you

The site of the highest vascular resistance in the renal circulation is seen in the ___________. a. Renal artery b. Afferent arterioles c. Efferent arterioles d. Glomerulus

c. Efferent arterioles

What promotes water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidneys? a. Glucagon b. Follicle stimulating hormone c. Arginine vasopressin d. Prolactin

d. Prolactin

The “dub” in Korotkoff’s heart sound is a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole b. Associated with atrial contraction c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure e. Associated with ventricular filling

c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing

Delirium is a. The misperception of a sensory stimulus b. The feeling that insects are crawling on one’s skin c. A false belief neither based on reality nor culturally derived and not altered by reasonable evidence to the contrary d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

A fall in the glomerular filtration rate is seen situations, EXCEPT a. fall in blood pressure. b. efferent arteriolar contraction. c. increase in plasma protein concentration. d. obstruction of the tubules. e. tetanic venous contraction.

b. efferent arteriolar contraction.

Fires when perfused with oxygen-poor blood. a. Carotid sinus b. Axon reflex c. Carotid body d. Dendrite reflex

c. Carotid body

A proposed mediator of metabolic theory, accumulation of which causes vasodilation. a. H+ b. Angiotensin II c. Atrial d. H-

a. H+

The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT: a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit. b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit. c. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervation from the spinal cord. d. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may lead to inappropriate conclusions. e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures.

e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures.

Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by the following EXCEPT: ______________ a. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades b. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident c. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds.

d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds.

This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component a. Isotonic b. Shunt c. Concentric d. Spurt e. Isometric

b. Shunt

What muscle contraction slow body segments and provide shock absorption as in walking? a. Isokinetic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric

b. Eccentric

Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid a. Vagus b. Abducens c. Spinal accessory d. Dorsal occipital

c. Spinal accessory

To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position. The following statements describe this position. EXCEPT the loose packed position a. is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint c. allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint d. is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress

b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint

If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the muscle is graded as a. fair plus b. good plus c. fair minus d. good minus

d. good minus

Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the hand. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Dorsal d. Volar e. Anterolateral

d. Volar

These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial nerve EXCEPT a. forearm supination. b. wrist flexion. c. shoulder internal rotation. d. elbow extension

a. forearm supination.

When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, which possible substitutions can cause an inaccurate muscle grade? I. Hip external rotation and flexion II. Lateral flexion of the trunk III. Hip extension IV. Hip internal rotation a. III and IV b. I only c. II, III and IV d. I and II e. II only

b. I only

Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact. a. Ulnar b. Axillary c. Median d. Radial

b. Axillary

A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade? _______ standing balance. a. Fair static and dynamic b. Good static and dynamic c. Good static and fair dynamic d. Fair static and good dynamic

c. Good static and fair dynamic

This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down. a. Zygomaticus Major b. Masseter c. Buccinator d. Temporalis e. Medial Pterygoid

d. Temporalis

Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint? a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. b. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. d. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.

a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. (When the mouth is opened, the convex condyle moves forward onto the articular eminence.)

The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT a. there was inadequate fracture reduction. b. if the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion. c. if malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing. d. the fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone de formed, weak, and possibly causing pain. e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

Dividing the body into front and back, abduction and adduction occurs in this plane. a. Frontal b. Transfrontal c. Horizontal d. Sagittal e. Transverse

a. Frontal

Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in which plane? a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Horizontal

b. Sagittal

Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________. a. Spurling’s b. Lhermitte’s c. Laseque’s d. Lasegne’s

b. Lhermitte’s

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Prone b. Sidelying c. Supine d. Sitting

d. Sitting

When a muscle contracts and produces tension with no change in the angle of the joint, such contraction is: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Isometric d. Isotonic

c. Isometric

The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity b. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but months following the injury c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles d. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the “Y” or “T” type and usually include soft tissue damage e. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane.

c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades poor to zero? a. Sitting b. Prone c. Sidelying d. Supine

a. Sitting

What fracture does NOT involve the bones of the foot? a. Jone’s b. Nutcracker c. Jefferson’s d. Shepherd’s

c. Jefferson’s

Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following EXCEPT: ______________. a. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism b. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture) c. Vitamin E deficiency d. Inadequate fracture manipulation

c. Vitamin E deficiency

What is the motor nerve to the muscles of mastication? a. Trigeminal b. Vagus c. Facial d. Oculomotor

a. Trigeminal

What movements are performed against resistance, with constant load and tension? a. Eccentric b. Isotonic c. Isometric d. Isokinetic

b. Isotonic

Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint? I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. III. As the mouth is closed, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint. a. II, III and IV b. I, II, and III c. I, II and V d. II, III and V

c. I, II and V

A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should: a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion

c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint? a. Trochoid b. Spheroid c. Ginglymus d. Syndesmosis e. Sellar

b. Spheroid

The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion, EXCEPT: a. Flexion and extension originate primary at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints b. Involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front d. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation e. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist

c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front

A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate? a. Children b. Adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. Women

d. Infants

The following statements describe balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT: _________. a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied b. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull c. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone fragments. d. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patient’s leg

a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied

The infrahyoids are the I. Sternohyoid II. Sternothyroid III. Stylohyoid a. II and III b. I and III c. I, II and III d. I and II

d. I and II

When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an a. prime mover. b. co-ordinator. c. synergist. d. fixators. e. antagonist.

c. synergist.

During MMT of the right gastrocnemius muscle, what grade would you assign this muscle if your client were able to stand on his right leg and get up on his toes and complete 20 heel raises? a. 3+ b. 4 c. 5 d. 3

b. 4

What is the correct position when testing the hip abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Sidelying b. Supine c. Sitting d. Prone

a. Sidelying

Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______ . a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended. b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions? a. Extension of the elbow b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation. b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion. c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation. d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.

The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT: a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row b. It lies under the pisiform c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity II. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in congruence with the direction of the humeral head III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised b. I c. I and II d. I and III e. II

c. I and II

Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder? I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles working together. IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction. V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the position of internal rotation b. I, II, III and IV c. I, II, and IV d. I, III, IV, and V e. I, IV, and V

d. I, III, IV, and V

What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints? I. Flexor digitorum superficialis II. Palmaris longus III. Lumbricals and interossei IV. Flexor digitorum profundus V. Flexor pollicis longus b. I and IV c. III, IV, and V d. II and III e. I, II, and IV

b. I and IV

Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint? a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Pronator teres c. Palmaris longus d. Flexor carpi radialis

b. Pronator teres

Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor? a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy? a. Decrease muscle spasticity b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium c. Analgesia d. Produce sedation

c. Analgesia

During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur? a. Midcarpal joint only b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint d. Radiocarpal joint only

b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint

A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable? a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit c. 88 degrees Celsius d. 71 degrees Celsius

d. 71 degrees Celsius

Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion? a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm. b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.

A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation of his gait, it showed to be ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must be tested to diagnose the condition? a. 10 b. 6 c. 12 d. 8

d. 8

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Median Nerve? a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical b. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the Anterior Interosseous Nerve d. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical

Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Shape of the joint II. Acromioclavicular ligament III. Strong joint capsule IV. Conoid and trapezoid b. I and II c. I and III d. IV only e. II and IV

e. II and IV

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

The following statements are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT a. the ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion b. an implication of the shoulder's structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on muscles to provide adequate stability. c. the articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity. d. the scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament. e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

The Median Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT: a. The skin of the palm b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis c. Flexor Carpi Radialis d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the a. middle trunk. b. upper trunk. c. medial cord. d. lower trunk. e. anterior cord.

a. middle trunk.

Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through I. increases in plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions II. increased peak hip extension in late stance phase III. increased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase IV. knee hyperextension during the stance phase V. soft tissues passively limiting dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase a. I, II and III b. I, III and IV c. I, IV and V d. I and III only e. II, IV and V

c. I, IV and V

The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern. a. Tabetic b. Antalgic c. Double step d. Steppage e. Spastic

a. Tabetic

Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm on the medial side of the humerus? a. Median b. Brachial c. Ulnar d. Radial

b. Brachial

Which of the following statements describe the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis? I. It flexes the distal interphalangeal joint II. The chief joint that it flexes is the proximal interphalangeal joint III. Both the Superficialis and Profundus act to clench the fist IV. Either the Superficialis or Profundus can act to clench the fist V. It is supplied by the median nerve b. I, III and IV c. I, IV and V d. II, III, and V e. I, II and II

d. II, III, and V

The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength EXCEPT: ______________ . a. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurologic lesion. b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other. c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 900 against the examiner’s downward pressure. d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.

d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.

A therapist is measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______ . a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended. b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

The following muscles are innervated by the posterior cord, EXCEPT: a. Infraspinatus b. Deltoids c. Pectoralis major d. Triceps

a. Infraspinatus

Gluteus medius is MOST active during gait at ___________ . a. Swing phase b. Toe off c. Heel strike d. Midstance

d. Midstance

Which of the following statements describe the supraspinatus? It ____________ . I. Stabilized the head of the humerus by pulling over the top of the head while the Deltoid pulls upward on the midshaft of the humerus and Teres, along with Teres Major. II. Is essential to the normal adduction of the humerus III. Is important at the end of abduction when the deltoid is pulling directly upward along the length of the humerus IV. Also helps produce smooth abduction at the shoulder joint by pulling downward and stabilizing the head of the humerus V. Stabilizes the head of the humerus by pulling over the side of the head while the Deltoid pulls inward on the midshaft of the humerus b. I and IV c. III and V d. II and IV e. I and III

b. I and IV

Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true? I. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 45 degrees II. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 90 degrees III. MCP allow 0-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees IV. MCP allow 15-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees V. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion than the hand b. I, III and V c. V only d. II, IV and V e. III, IV and V f. II, III and V

f. II, III and V

What movement is important for a complete upward rotation o scapular shoulder flexion and abduction? a. Protraction b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle c. Retraction d. Hyperextension

b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle

What muscle/s extend the distal interphalangeal joint? I. Extensor digitalis communis II. Lumbricals III. Palmar interossei a. I b. I and II only c. I, II and III d. III e. I, III only

c. I, II and III

In this gait pattern, the client abducts the paralyzed limb, swings it around, and brings it forward to place the foot on the ground in front. a. Scissor b. Trendelenburg c. Hemiplegic d. Vaulting e. Spastic

c. Hemiplegic

The roots of the brachial plexus are the following: a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1 b. C6, C7, C8, T1 and T2 c. C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7 d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8

a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

Laterally rotates the shoulder joint. I. Deltoid II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Infraspinatus V. Subscapularis b. V only c. I, II, and III d. I, II, and IV e. III and IV only

d. I, II, and IV

The following statements describe the sternoclavicular joint EXCEPT: a. An articular disk is present between the end of the clavicle and the articular notch of the sternum. b. The only joint that connects the upper extremity directly with the thorax c. Motions that occur are elevation and depression, protraction and retraction, and transverse rotation d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom

d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom

What reflex results in the extension of the arm and leg on the face side and flexion of arm or leg on the skull side when the head is turned on one side? a. Positive support reaction b. Asymmetric tonic neck c. Neck righting d. Tonic labyrinthine

b. Asymmetric tonic neck

Iron is best absorbed in the ___________: a. Ileum b. Colon c. Duodenum d. Jejunum

c. Duodenum

The following reflexes are at the brainstem level EXCEPT: _____________. a. Positive support reaction b. Labyrinthine righting c. Negative support reaction d. Asymmetric tonic neck

c. Negative support reaction

What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several times? a. Moro b. Body Righting c. Negative Support Reaction d. Positive Support Reaction

d. Positive Support Reaction

What condition is not likely to be seen in the perinatal period? a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis. b. Dislocated Hip. c. Talipes Equinovarus. d. Myelomeningocoele.

a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis.

An eleven-month-old child with cerebral palsy attempts to maintain a quadruped position. Which reflex would interfere with this activity if it did not integrate appropriately? a. Gallant reflex b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex c. positive support reflex d. plantar grasp reflex

b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex

The following statements apply to the surgical correction of hammer toe EXCEPT a. it is most effective to fuse the PIP joint and balance soft tissues over the MTP joint in fixed deformities. b. directed at reversing the MTP dorsiflexion and the PIP joint plantar flexion. c. straighten both the proximal and the middle joints of the toe in flexible deformities. d. in flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons. e. it may be possible to shorten the proximal phalanx in flexible deformities.

d. in flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons.

The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on the a. Capsule b. Muscles c. Tendons d. Bony configuration e. Ligaments

b. Muscles

The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on _________. a. Ligaments b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand c. Capsule d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

a. Ligaments

The modified-modified Schober technique is used in assessing lumbar range of motion. a. using a tape measure held directly over the spine between points 10 cm above the lumbosacral junction with the patient in the neutral standing position b. using an inclinometer located on the first lumbar vertebra c. using a double inclinometer wherein one is placed on the sacrum and the other on the first lumbar vertebra d. using two landmarks: a line interesting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark drawn 15 cm superiorly e. by marking a point 5 cm below and 10 cm superior to the lumbosacral junction

d. using two landmarks: a line interesting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark drawn 15 cm superiorly

The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods. The use of the Posterior Superior Iliac Spines (PSISs) as the inferior landmark in the modified-modified Schober (MMS) technique in assessing the lumbar range of motion has the following advantages EXCEPT a. that because no motion would be expected on the landmark, there is no need for an additional landmark 5 cm below. b. that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra. c. the landmark placed between midway between the PSISs is at the second sacral level. d. the sacrum is an inflexible bone, making this landmark easily identifiable. e. The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods

b. that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra.

This test will show if squeezing the calf muscle while the leg is extended ruptures the Achilles tendon. a. Thomas b. Lachman c. Thompson d. Apley e. Yergason

c. Thompson

This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament. a. External rotation/recurvatum test b. Lachman’s test c. Crossover test d. Apley’s distraction test with internal rotation e. Anterior drawer test

e. Anterior drawer test

Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the following signs indicates a positive simulation test? a. Marked improvement of straight leg raising on distraction as compared with formal testing b. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression muscle tension and tremor c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands. d. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis.

c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands.

A therapist positions a client in sidelying and performs a talar tilt test. A positive talar tilt test indicates a. Deltoid ligament injury b. Excessive tibial torsion c. Ligamentous instability d. Muscular instability e. Calcaneofibular ligament injury

e. Calcaneofibular ligament injury

A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client's knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client's ligamentous integrity is compromised is to a. instruct the referring physician to order radiographs. b. compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology c. compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology. d. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee. e. compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms.

d. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.

A patient is unable to complete full range of hip flexion against gravity. The most appropriate position to observe hip flexion with gravity eliminated is ________. a. Supine b. Half sitting c. Sitting d. Sidelying

d. Sidelying

The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT a. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve b. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the point of discomfort or pain c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve e. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees

a. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve

A patient is seen walking on the ball of the foot with the heel off the ground on one of his lower limbs. One can conclude that he has ________. a. Poliomyelitis b. Pes valgus c. Pes equines d. Genu varum

c. Pes equines

In trochanteric bursitis, ______. I. Pain and tenderness may develop in the lateral thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas. II. Results from friction between the femoral nerve and the greater trochanter. III. There is marked tenderness to superficial palpation immediately above or posterior to the greater trochanter IV. Treatment usually consists of rest, immobilization, and local heat V. There is immediate relief of pain after peritrochanteric injection with corticosteroid and local anaesthetic. a. I, III and V b. II, III and IV c. I, II and III d. I, IV and V

d. I, IV and V

The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: __________. a. Oxoplasmosis b. Syphilis c. Meningitis d. Rubella

c. Meningitis

In the anterior approach in total hip replacement, the position of maximal instability is I. Abduction II. Adduction III. external rotation IV. internal rotation V. circumduction a. I and IV b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV

c. II and III

The following describe the modified Thomas test, EXCEPT: a. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge of a treatment table far enough to allow the knee to bend freely. b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip and knee toward the chest while lying supine c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the pelvis. d. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 80 degrees of knee flexion. e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.

e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.

There is avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. The position/attitude of the hip joint in the different designs of orthoses indicated for this case include: a. Full extension b. Flexion c. Internal rotation d. Hyperabduction e. External rotation

c. Internal rotation

Abnormality in which chromosome causes majority of Down Syndrome cases? a. 21 b. 17 c. 23 d. 19

a. 21

These primitive reflexes are present at birth EXCEPT: a. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex b. Rooting c. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex d. Moro

a. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex

A twelve-month-old child with cerebral palsy demonstrates an abnormal persistence of the positive support reflex. During therapy this would most mainly interfere with ______ activities. a. Standing b. Prone on elbows c. Supine d. Sitting

a. Standing

The avascular stage is the _______ stage of Legg Calves Perthes. a. Fourth b. Second c. First d. Third

c. First

A therapist begins gait training on a patient three days status post cemented total hip replacement. What weight- bearing status would be the most appropriate for the patient? a. Non weight bearing b. weight bearing as tolerated c. partial weight bearing d. weight bearing with a 10 kg weight e. full weight bearing

c. partial weight bearing

The following statements describe Down syndrome EXCEPT: a. In children 1-6 years of age, postural responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore inefficient for maintaining stability. b. Attainment of early motor milestones is thought to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia. c. The presence of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms. d. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength and visual motor controls the group without. e. Deficits in eye-hand coordination, laterality, and visual control were present in older children.

d. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength and visual motor controls the group without.

The following statements apply to skeletal traction EXCEPT a. Lifting the weights releases traction causing violent muscle contractions and must be avoided b. Pin or wire used in used skeletal traction connects to a U-Shaped bow or caliper c. Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site d. Usually applied for extended periods, and using pins, wires or tongs, force is exerted directly on one or more bones e. Skull tongs are used for long-term thoracic fracture or for critical dislocation

c. Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site

32. Hip and knee replacement clients are referred to rehabilitation on ______________. a. Second week b. Third and fifth day c. Third week d. Immediately after surgery

d. Immediately after surgery

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Osteochondritis Dissecans? a. More common among males b. Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues c. More common among females d. Usually occurs following a trauma

a. More common among males

Malalignment syndrome of the knee is caused by __________. I. Hypermobility of the patella II. External tibial torsion III. Femoral anteversion IV. Oversupination a. II and IV b. I, II and III c. II, III and IV d. II only

b. I, II and III

Which of the following findings suggest a congenital hip dislocation in a newborn child? I. (+) Trendelenberg II. (+) barlow’s III. Adductor tightness IV. Limping gait a. III and IV b. I and II c. II, III, and IV d. II and III

d. II and III

A therapist attempts to schedule a client for an additional therapy session after completing the initial examination. The physician referral indicates the client is to be seen two times a week. The therapist suggests several possible times to the client, but the client insists she can only come in on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. The therapist would like to accommodate the client, but already has two clients scheduled at that time. The most appropriate action is to: ___________. a. Inform the referring physician the client only will be seen once this week in therapy b. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. c. Attempt to move one of the client’s scheduled on Wednesday at 4:30 pm to a different time d. Schedule the client on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.

b. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.

Which is the point of reference for the Q angle? a. Anterior superior iliac spine b. Center of the patella c. Posterior inferior iliac spine d. Tibial tuberosity

b. Center of the patella

From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13-15 degrees. An increase in this angle, a factor in in-toeing, is called _______________. a. Retroversion b. Coxa vara c. Coxa valga d. Anteversion

d. Anteversion

The following condition/s is/are considered LEAST damaging in nerve injuries. a. Crush or stretch injury b. Clean, simple laceration c. Mixing of fibers as in higher level lesions d. Avulsion lesions

c. Mixing of fibers as in higher level lesions

This outcome measure of intervention in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome was reported to be 4 times more responsive to clinical improvement than measures of neuromuscular impairment. a. 2-point discrimination b. Light touch with monofilaments c. Functional Status Scale d. Symptoms Severity Scale e. Manual muscle test

d. Symptoms Severity Scale

In the adult, the subarachnoid space ends inferiorly at the level of a. Coccyx. b. lower border of L1. c. sacral promontory. d. S2-S3. e.S5

d. S2-S3.

The primary impairment in patients diagnosed with cerebellar cerebral vascular accident is: a. Impaired speech b. Visual field cuts c. Decreased balance and coordination d. Impaired comprehensive skills

c. Decreased balance and coordination

The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT: a. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve c. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders d. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical

b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve

Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable, nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of the trunk, face or extremities. a. Myoclonus b. Chorea c. Hyperkinesia d. Tremor e. Athetosis

b. Chorea

Drooping of contralateral lower face may indicate a lesion of the a. basal ganglia. b. cerebral cortex c. cerebellum. d. corticobulbar tract. e. corticospinal tract.

d. corticobulbar tract.

The following are tie generalizations concerning the motor innervation of the hand, EXCEPT a. Median nerve for the thenar eminence while ulnar nerve for the hypothenar muscles. b. "Half-half" rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor digitorum superficialis and lumbricals. c. The median nerve supplies most of the flexors of the wrist and digits with proximal attachments on the forearm and in the region of the medial epicondyle. d. The radial nerve supplies all the extensors of wrist and digits with proximal attachments on the forearm and in the region of the lateral epicondyle. e. The ulnar nerve supplies most of the small muscles in the hand.

b. "Half-half" rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor digitorum superficialis and lumbricals.

Seizures at the onset of stroke are found in 10% of this/these type/s of stroke. I. Thrombotic II. Embolic III. Hemorrhagic a. II and III b. I and II c. I and II d. I, II, and III e. II

a. II and III

What blood cells are activated by antigen only when associated with another host cell? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. T-lymphocytes d. B-lymphocytes

c. T-lymphocytes

Which of the following statements is true? I. Functionally, anatomic actions determine muscle participation in postures and movements II.Muscles also participate in posture and movements according to limb and a body position in relation to gravity, applied resistance, and velocity of motion a. I is false, II is true b. I is true, II is false c. I and II are true d. I and II are false

a. I is false, II is true

Craniosacral therapy is an evaluation and treatment approach that assume the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows EXCEPT it is ___________ : a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary b. Unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest c. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals, different from any other rhythm in the body d. Claimed to change in response to trauma, autism or learning disability

a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary

Symptoms associated with bilateral vestibular hypofunction include the following, EXCEPT: a. Oscillopsia b. Postural instability c. Gait ataxia d. Difficulty reading e. Blurred vision

d. Difficulty reading

The following characteristics describe an upper motor neuron disease EXCEPT: _______ . I. There are lesions affecting nerves below the level of the brainstem II. Lesions may be found in descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex III. Symptoms may include hypertonicity and hyperreflexia IV. Tracts in the lateral white column of the spinal cord are damaged V. The ventral gray column of the spinal cord may be affected a. I, II, and V b. I, II and IV c. III, IV and V d. II, III and IV

a. I, II, and V

From the following clinical signs, ataxic gait, hypotonia, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, which part of the brain has sustained injury? a. Basal Ganglia b. Parietal Lobe c. Premotor Cortex d. Cerebellum

d. Cerebellum

A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues, on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing area are both closely associated with it. a. Medial b. Lateral c. Collateral d. Central e. Calcarine

b. Lateral

What explains pain control in acupuncture? a. Decrease of activity of neurons upstream in the system b. Stimulation of unmyelinated nerve fibers c. Release of opiates d. Heat and vibration counterirritant applied to the needle structure

c. Release of opiates

At the anterior clinoid process, the internal carotid artery gives off this tiny, but vitally important arterial branch. a. Superior thyroid b. Anterior cerebral c. Lenticulostriate d. Ophthalmic e. Middle cerebral

d. Ophthalmic

In contrast to a nerve action potential, a muscle action potential has a ________ . a. Slower conduction velocity b. Lower overshoot c. More negative resting membrane potential d. Shorter duration

a. Slower conduction velocity

What part of the central system gathers information about the environment as well as the magnitude of the response of its effects and transmits it to the center? a. Central processor b. Integrating center c. Sensor d. Effector

c. Sensor

Discrete muscle movements relating to swallowing, chewing and facial movement are elicited more readily from stimulation of which part of the primary motor area? a. Lateral b. Inferior c. Superior d. Medial

a. Lateral

In Romberg’s sign, the ___________________ . I. Client stands with feet together and eyes open II. Sign is negative if the client sways and falls when the eyes closed III. Sign is positive if the client sways when the eyes are closed IV. Client stands with feet together and eyes closed V. Sign is positive if the client falls when the eyes are closed a. I and II b. II and IV c. III, IV, and V d. I, III, and IV

c. III, IV, and V

The cardiac output among the elderly at rest and during light exercise is nearly the same as in the young persons because ______ . I. Aged hearts have a faster intrinsic rhythm II. This is partly due to cardiac hypertrophy with its resultant bigger end-diastolic volume III. Of the stiffer arteries among the elderly, end-systolic volume is also greater, increasing the tendency for pulmonary congestion a. I and III b. I only c. I and II d. II and III

d. II and III

Which of the following statements is true concerning vital capacity of client with restrictive lung disease? a. Above normal due to destruction of alveolar septa b. Above normal due to greater radial traction exerted on airway walls c. Below normal due to increased airway resistance d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance

d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance

To facilitate scapular protraction, Bobath advocates positioning the hand I. Hands clasped II. Affected thumb is above the unaffected thumb III. Fingers interlaced IV. Fingers not interlaced V. Unaffected thumb is above the affected thumb a. IV and V only b. I and III only c. I, II, and III d. I, IV and V e. II, III and V

c. I, II, and III

The following statements apply to Percussion and Vibration EXCEPT: a. Alterations in airway diameter and airflow may increase the viscosity of mucus, making percussion more effective in mobilizing secretions that are adherent to the bronchial walls. b. The exact mechanism of action of chest percussion is unknown, but there is some evidence that physical stimulation alters airflow and is associated with the release of pulmonary chemical mediators c. Recommended for the patient who is intubated and mechanically ventilated d. Recommended for patients with impaired cognition or poor coughing ability e. Used to enhance mucociliary clearance from both central and peripheral airways

a. Alterations in airway diameter and airflow may increase the viscosity of mucus, making percussion more effective in mobilizing secretions that are adherent to the bronchial walls.

Bilateral vestibular deficits results in the following, EXCEPT: I. Postural instability II. Disequilibrium III. Oscillation IV. Skew deviation a. IV b. I c. II d. III

a. IV

Reflex contraction of the agonist muscles results in patterns of inhibition of their antagonist muscles through what reflex? a.Stretch reflex b.Rebound phenomenon c.Crossed extensor reflex d.Lengthening reaction e.Reciprocal inhibition

e.Reciprocal inhibition

The oral cavity is normally heavily populated by microorganisms that can potentially harm the lungs. Which of the following effectively prevents translocation of these organisms to the lung substance? a. Stiffness of the lung substance b. Mucociliary excalator c. Swallowing reflex d. Esophageal peristalsis

b. Mucociliary excalator

The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine landmarks. Which of the following are true? I. C2-level with hyoid bone II. C4-C5-level with thyroid cartilage III. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum IV. T12 body- tip of the xiphoid process V. L4 spinous process- level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium VI. S2- height of posterior superior iliac spine a. I, II, III and IV b. II, IV, V and VI c. I, II, III and VI d. III, IV, V and VI e. II, III, V, and VI

e. II, III, V, and VI

Secretion removal techniques are an integral component of a pulmonary rehabilitation program. What is the simplest method to clear secretions from the upper airways? a. Positioning b. Vibration c. Percussion d. Cough

d. Cough

The following are short term goals in clients with rheumatism EXCEPT a.Provide assistive devices for safety. b. Decrease inflammation c. Maximize endurance to ADL and functional activities. d. Maintain strength and endurance to activity

d. Maintain strength and endurance to activity

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis and currently exhibiting acute symptoms in wrist will benefit from grade I or II mobilization technique because it a. Reduce preexisting deformity b. Retards synovitis and the progression of the disease process, albeit only temporary. c. Increases the range of motion by stretching restrictions d.Temporarily relieves pain, thereby allowing freer motion of the wrist.

d.Temporarily relieves pain, thereby allowing freer motion of the wrist.

The following treatments are appropriate for a patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed with acute glenohumeral joint pain, EXCEPT: a. Grade III and IV mobilization b. Gentle joint oscillation techniques of small amplitude c. Periodic immobilization in a sling d. Passive range of motion in a pain free range

a. Grade III and IV mobilization

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis and currently exhibiting acute symptoms in wrist will benefit from grade I or II mobilization technique because it a. Reduce preexisting deformity b.Retards synovitis and the progression of the disease process, albeit only temporary c.Increases the range of motion by stretching restrictions d. Temporarily relieves pain, thereby allowing freer motion of the wrist.

d. Temporarily relieves pain, thereby allowing freer motion of the wrist.

Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration in patients with diabetes include the following, EXCEPT: a. Limited mobility of the great toe metatarsophalangeal joint b. Increased plantar sensation c. Foot deformities d. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint e. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint

b. Increased plantar sensation

The following conditions are contraindications to aquatic therapy EXCEPT a. Raynaud’s disease b. Fever c. Infectious disease d. UTI

a. Raynaud’s disease

While performing ROM, your patient with dermatomyositis complains daily about pain. For BEST long term positive result, the PT's strategy should be a. discontinue exercise and use only positioning splint b. do ROM to the maximum limits possible c. continue to stretch slightly past the point of pain d. stop exercise as soon as patient complains of pain

d. stop exercise as soon as patient complains of pain

Joint stiffness, a common complain of RA and OA patients has these physical components. a. inertia, viscocity, friction, plasticity, elasticity b. elongation, viscocity, friction, plasticity, inertia c. texture, inertia, viscocity, plasticity, elasticity d. friction, elongation, texture, viscocity, elasticity

a. inertia, viscocity, friction, plasticity, elasticity

is issued to a PT who passes the board examination, after approval of his ratings and payment of required fees. a. Diploma from the Board Examiners b. Certificate of Recognition for passing the Board Examinations c. Certificate of Completion d. Certificate of Registration

d. Certificate of Registration

For a research study to be ethical, which of the following should take place FIRST? a. patient should be informed that he has the right to terminate the experiment at any time b. end results of the experiment should be explained to the patient c. have patient sign the informed consent document d. patient should be debriefed following the experiment

c. have patient sign the informed consent document

A PT is designing an exercise program for a patient with ankylosing spondylitis. Which of these strategies should NOT be considered? a. Rigid progressive resistive exercise using weights b. Relaxation activities including breathing strategies c. Flexibility exercise for the trunk d. Aerobic capacity/endurance, conditioning or reconditioning like an aquatic program

a. Rigid progressive resistive exercise using weights

The client losing his ability to write due to a brain lesion is a result of this neurological disorder a. Agraphia b. Bradykinesia c. Agnosia d. Apraxia e. Aphasia

a. Agraphia

Very slow movements a. Dystonia b. Chorea c. Bradykinesia d. Dysarthria e. Athetosis

c. Bradykinesia

When a patient can pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended, he is Brunnstrom’s development stage _______ . a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 1

a. 5

The product of breathing frequency and tidal volume (VT) is a. stroke volume b. cardiac output c. ventilation d. metabolic rate

c. ventilation

To test this nerve, the client protrudes the tongue and moves it from side to side. What nerve is this? a. Spinal accessory b. Glossopharyngeal c. Hypoglossal d. Nervus Intermedius

c. Hypoglossal

This/These muscle/s retract/s the protracted scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised arm. It/They keep the scapula applied to the chest wall with other muscles. a. Pectoralis Minor b. Trapezius c. Levator Scapulae d. Rhomboids e. Serratus Anterior

d. Rhomboids

Increased curvature of the spine in an anterior direction is termed _____________ . a. Kyphosis b. Kypholordosis c. Lordokyphosis d. Lordosis

d. Lordosis

What is the ankle joint in short leg brace is for patients with foot drop? a. Total control b. Anterior ankle stop c. Partial control d. Posterior ankle stop

d. Posterior ankle stop

A therapist instructs a 65 year old female in ambulation activities. The therapist instructs the patient to place her affected foot on the ground, but to avoid transmitting weight through the foot. The therapist’s instructions best describe this ___________ weight bearing technique. a. Touch down b. Semi c. Non d. Partial

a. Touch down

The following are characteristic of an ideal mattress overlays EXCEPT __________________ . a. 30 lbs. of 25% ILD (indentation Load Deflection). b. Density of 1.3 lb/ft3. c. Thickness of 3-4 inches. d. Thickness of 1-2 inches

d. Thickness of 1-2 inches

Which of the following statements does NOT describe work hardening programs? a. Work oriented. b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening, stretching, endurance, and coordination exercises. c. A job specific type of rehabilitation program that attempts to address vocational and behavioral needs of clients. d. Supposed to simulate or duplicate actual job tasks.

b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening, stretching, endurance, and coordination exercises.

What fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of another part of the same hemisphere? a. Commissural b. Projection c. Assimilation d. Association

d. Association

A patient informs her Physical Therapist how frustrated she feels after being examined by her physician. The client explains that she becomes so nervous, she cannot ask any questions during scheduled office visits. The therapist’s most appropriate response is to _______ . a. Offer to go with the client to her next-scheduled physician b. Tell the client it is a very normal response to be nervous in the presence of a physician c. Offer to call the physician and ask any relevant questions d. Suggest that the client write down questions for the physician and bring them with her to the next scheduled visit

d. Suggest that the client write down questions for the physician and bring them with her to the next scheduled visit

Partial tearing to the ________ ligament occurs at its femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia on the femur. a. Anterior cruciate b. Lateral collateral c. Posterior cruciate d. Medial collateral

d. Medial collateral

What hamstring muscle also acts as a hip extensor? a. Short head of biceps femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Long head of biceps femoris d. Vastus medialis

c. Long head of biceps femoris

Twisting the trunk to the right is primarily a result of contraction of the: I. Left external oblique II. Right external oblique III. Right internal oblique IV. Left internal oblique a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and IV

a. I and III

Which breathing exercise attempts to improve ventilation by decreasing the respiratory rate and increasing the tidal volume? a. Segmental b. Low frequency c. High frequency d. Pursed lip

d. Pursed lip

Which of the following factors facilitate the rate of penetration of a substance across a membrane? a. Lipid solubility b. Protein synthesis c. High molecular weight d. Increased hydration

a. Lipid solubility

What cranial nerve has sensory roots that carry taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? a. Hypoglossal b. Glossopharyngeal c. Vagus d. Facial

d. Facial

This lifting or stooping technique reduces the stress on both the back and the knees. The feet are positioned shoulder width apart with one foot slightly in front of the other. One hand is placed on the forward thigh or a fixed object as the knees and hips are bent and then lowers the supporting hand as he stands up. a. Tripod b. Partial squat lift with support c. Diagonal d. Deep squat e. Power

b. Partial squat lift with support

A therapist presents an inservice entitled 'Preventing Pressure Ulcers to a group of therapy aides. As part of the inservice, the therapist identifies risk factors associated with the development of pressure ulcers. Which of the following is not considered a significant risk factor? a. Incontinence b. nutritional deficiencies c. vocational dysfunction d. psychological stress and depression

c. vocational dysfunction

Which of the following assesses L5 radiculopathy? a. Repetitive rising on toes on involved side b. Squatting and rising c. Bending forward and touching toes d. Walking on heels with toes in the air e. Repetitive rising or heels on uninvolved side

d. Walking on heels with toes in the air

What is the maximal volume inspired after normal inspiration? a. Functional residual capacity b. Vital capacity c. Tidal volume d. Inspiratory reserve volume

d. Inspiratory reserve volume

To improve a patient's gait, the following is indicated for an ankle-foot orthosis EXCEPT a. genu valgus at midstance. b. foot drop at heel strike due to weak gastroc-soleus muscles. c. mediolateral instability at the ankle. d. foot drop in swing phase. e. weak push-off at late stance phase.

a. genu valgus at midstance.

The following are disadvantages of soft post-operative dressing after an amputation, EXCEPT: ________ a. Allows for active joint ROM and removal for easy wound inspection b. If applied with too much tension, may risk tourniquet effect c. Frequent dressing changes interrupt tissue healing d. Difficult to control amount of tension in the bandage

a. Allows for active joint ROM and removal for easy wound inspection

The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following EXCEPT a. formation of present and past information about the patient b. identification of a specific treatment plan c. Preparation of the informed consent. d. assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans e. development of a specific, current problem

c. Preparation of the informed consent.

A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is evaluated in the clinic. Which objective finding is the strongest indication that the spinal cord injury is NOT complete? a. Weakness of the brachioradialis b. Intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder c. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence d. Absent triceps reflex e. Weakness of the biceps muscle

c. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence

The following statements describe the “Screw-Home Mechanism” of the knee EXCEPT when _______. i. Seated and a person flexes his knee, the tibia goes into internal rotation to unlock the knee. ii. Standing from a seat the femur goes into internal rotation during the last few degrees of flexion. iii. Standing from a seat the femur goes in external rotation during the last few degrees of extension iv. Seated and a person flexes his knee, the femur goes into external rotation at the last few degrees of extension. a. III b. I c. II and III d. II and IV

c. II and III

The following are expected in a C4 lesion, EXCEPT: a. Can provide minimal assistance, therefore dependent in bed mobility b. Involves the diaphragm and trapezius c. Chin control can be used to control power wheelchair d. Can assist with all transfers e. Dependent in all transfers

d. Can assist with all transfers

Despite the presence of third cranial nerve paralysis, it was determined upon examination, that the eye is able to rotate inward, indicating that the superior oblique muscle is intact. This indicates that cranial nerve a. III is also denervated. b. IV is partially denervated. c. III is only partially denervated. d. IV is intact.

d. IV is intact.

Which of the following statements describe Horner's syndrome? i. Pupil of the eye on injured side is miotic due to dilator paralysis ii. Partial ptosis due to denervation of levator palpebrae superioris iii. Anhidrosis and vasodilation on affected side iv. Complete ptosis and vasodilation on unaffected side a. III only b. II, III and IV c. I, II and III d. I and IV e. IV only

c. I, II and III

The following are true of the femoral artery EXCEPT a. if the common iliac or external iliac artery is partially occluded, the femoral artery pulse may be diminished. b. the femoral vein lies medial to the femoral artery and is a clinical site for venous puncture. c. passes under the inguinal ligament at about its midpoint. d. the femoral nerve lies lateral to the femoral artery. e. palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle.

e. palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle.

Nerve primarily responsible for ankle plantar flexion a. Obturator b. Sciatic c. Femoral d. Tibial e. Peroneal

d. Tibial

Which of the following statements is true concerning muscles acting in hip flexion? a. The hip flexors are inactive during abdominal sit ups b. Their maximum isometric torques are greatest when the hip is extended c. The iliopsoas is the only hip flexor that can produce enough tension to flex the hip beyond 90 degrees with the subject in sitting position d. Their minimum isotonic torque occurs when the hip is flexed

a. The hip flexors are inactive during abdominal sit ups

Which of the following are treatment philosophies of neuropathic arthropathy (or Charcot’s joint)? i. Treatment is mainly palliative ii. Immobilization and joint protection are two important principles of treatment iii. Where conservative management fails, joint replacement is performed iv. Where conservative management fails, surgical fusion is recommended v. Whenever possible, the underlying neurologic disorder should be treated a. I, II and V b. II, IV and V c. I, III and IV d. I, II and IV

b. II, IV and V

Which of the following statements is true in motions of the knee? a. Accessory motions are normally produced when the knee is in full extension b. Axial rotation occurs best when the knee is extended c. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of knee extension d. The axis for flexion and extension is clinically approximated as directed through the center of the lateral and medial condyles of the femur

c. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of knee extension

A patient is unable to extend the knee in the sitting position or perform straight leg raising when supine. This may be due to weakened or paralyzed ________. a. Gluteus maximus b. Quadrates femoris c. Iliopsoas d. Quadriceps femoris

d. Quadriceps femoris

LD is a 35-year-old male who came in for weakness and pain of the left lower extremity of one-week duration. Past medical history is unremarkable except for (+) history of poliomyelitis at age 7 years. Pertinent physical examination revealed (+) left lower atrophy with note of leg length discrepancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? (KRISTAN) a. Post-polio syndrome b. Guillain-Barre Syndrome c. Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease d. Spinal cord injury

a. Post-polio syndrome

The following findings are compatible with a left hemisection of the T10 cord level EXCEPT a. absent pain and temperature on the right side of the trunk at the level of the umbilicus. b. complete paralysis of the left lower rectus abdominis. c. absent pain and temperature sensation on the left side of the trunk at the level of the umbilicus. d. absent pain and temperature sensation on the right anterior thigh area.

c. absent pain and temperature sensation on the left side of the trunk at the level of the umbilicus.

In the foot, the contribution of the first metatarsal head to weight bearing is a. 1/6 b. 1/5 c. 2/5 d. 2/6 e. 1/7

d. 2/6

Sensation to the middle finger is supplied by neurologic level a. C8 b. C6 c. C7 d. T1 e. C5

c. C7

A client with a confirmed posterior cruciate ligament tear is able to return to full dynamic activities following rehabilitation. The following serve as a secondary restraint to the posterior cruciate ligament EXCEPT a. Popliteus. b. medial collateral ligament. c. lateral collateral ligament. d. iliotibial band.

d. iliotibial band.

The following statements describe the pelvic girdle and femur EXCEPT: a. The pelvic girdle consists of two innominate bones: the sacrum and coccyx b. The iliofemoral ligament firmly connects the femur’s proximal end to the ilium c. Gliding and cartilaginous joints allow no movement whatsoever in both sexes d. The ilium, ischium and symphysis pubis make-up each hip bone e. The pubic portion of the innominate bones fusing to form the symphysis pubis is of the cartilaginous joint type.

c. Gliding and cartilaginous joints allow no movement whatsoever in both sexes

These muscles are supplied by branches of 7th cranial nerve EXCEPT ______. a. Nasalis b. Mentalis c. Levator palpebrae superioris d. Orbicularis oculi

c. Levator palpebrae superioris

An example of telereceptor a. The ear b. A free nerve ending c. Tropomyosin d. The carotid baroceptor e. A muscle spindle

a. The ear

For the anterior and lateral spinothalamic tract, _______________. a. The anterior spinothalamic predominantly controls pressure while the anterior spinothalamic controls touch b. The lateral spinothalamic predominantly controls pain while the anterior spinothalamic controls temperature c. The third order neuron of both tracts will have its cell body at the thalamus d. The anterior spinothalamic tract is uncrossed while the lateral spinothalamic tract is predominantly crossed.

c. The third order neuron of both tracts will have its cell body at the thalamus

During heavy exercise, there is an increase in sympathetic activity. This would result in vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the following organ/s EXCEPT: a. Splanchnic organs b. Skeletal muscle c. Kidneys d. Liver

b. Skeletal muscle

What is the average length of the spinal cord in the adult? a. 40 to 42 inches b. 33-35 cm c. 33-35 inches d. 43-45 cm e. 43-45 inches

d. 43-45 cm

Which statement explains why visceral pain is referred to a somatic structure? a. Somatic and visceral afferents project to different spinothalamic neurons b. Somatic efferents project to the decreased threshold of somatic structures c. Impulses from the viscera increase the threshold of spinothalamic neurons d. The pain is referred to the somatic structure with the same embryonic origin

d. The pain is referred to the somatic structure with the same embryonic origin

Which of the following nerves is NOT a true peripheral nerve, but an evaginated fiber tract of the diencephalons? a. Optic b. Auditory c. Oculomotor d. Olfactory e. Trochlear

a. Optic

Fracture of the second lumbar vertebra will involve which spinal cord segment? a. L2 b. L1 c. T12 d. L4

a. L2

A T10 female with complete paraplegia will a. Have normal orgasm b. Experience labor pain c. Still be capable of having children d. Not be able to bear children e. Have decreased libido

c. Still be capable of having children

In central cord syndrome, ______________. a. Associated with congenital narrowing of the spinal canal b. Occurs with flexion injuries of the neck c. Sensory deficits are more severe than motor impairments d. Motor function of the lower extremity is more affected than that of the upper extremity.

a. Associated with congenital narrowing of the spinal canal

In a C6 lesion, the following may be expected of the client, EXCEPT:___________. a. Bed mobility independent b. Involves the deltoid, biceps, rhomboids, supinator and supraspinatus c. Involves the wrist extensors, latissimus dorsi, pectoralis, serratus anterior, pronator teres and teres minor. d. Can assist in independent transfers

b. Involves the deltoid, biceps, rhomboids, supinator and supraspinatus

Which is a characteristic of the intrinsic muscles of the foot? a. Their major function include supporting the arches in walking and running b. Their proximal attachments are either in the tibia or fibula c. Their distal attachments are either in the tibia or fibula d. All but one are located in the plantar surface

a. Their major function include supporting the arches in walking and running

Which objective finding is the strongest indication that a C6 spinal cord injury is not complete? a. Intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder b. Weakness of the biceps muscle c. Absent triceps reflex d. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence

d. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence

What dermatome is used to test C7? a. Middle finger b. Forearm c. Apex of the axilla d. Thumb

a. Middle finger

Sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh is innervated by what nerve? a. Medial femoral cutaneous b. Lateral femoral cutaneous c. Sural d. Saphenous

b. Lateral femoral cutaneous

Sensation to the middle finger is supplied by neurologic level __________. a. C6 b. C5 c. C7 d. C8

c. C7

In a C5 lesion, the following may be expected of the client, EXCEPT: _____________. a. Can give minimal to moderate assistance resulting in bed mobility dependency b. Can assist with limited transfers due to involved musculature c. Can propel manual wheelchair on level surfaces with the assistance of projection hand rims d. Involves the deltoid, biceps, rhomboids, supinator and supraspinatus

b. Can assist with limited transfers due to involved musculature

While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae. Where does the first thoracic nerve exit? a. Above the second thoracic vertebra b. Below the first thoracic vertebra c. Above the first thoracic vertebra d. Below the second thoracic vertebra e. Below the seventh cervical vertebra

b. Below the first thoracic vertebra

Which of the following statement is NOT true of the knee joint? a. Stability is provided by the tissues, ligaments, muscles and cartilage b. Can sustain vertical force up to six times the body weight c. Requires co-contraction of front and back muscles to support the body weight in the erect position d. A trochoginglimus joint with two degrees of freedom of motion

c. Requires co-contraction of front and back muscles to support the body weight in the erect position

The quadriceps muscle represents the _________ myotome. a. L1 b. L5 c. L2 d. L3 e. L4

d. L3

Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual field defects EXCEPT: a. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia b. Lesion of the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia c. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the chiasm produces ipsilateral blindness d. Transaction of the optic nerve results in ipsilateral monocular blindness e. A temporal field defect in the other eye is a result of a lesion involving both optic nerve

b. Lesion of the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia

If a 40-kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the (in kilograms per square centimeter) is equal to ______. a. 20 b. 10 c. 30 d. 40

b. 10

What ligament prevents posterior motion of the pelvis on the femur (hip hyperextension) when standing? a. Ischiofemoral b. Pubofemoral c. Puboischial d. Iliofemoral

d. Iliofemoral

The following statements describe care of knee extension mechanism injuries, EXCEPT: a. Resistance for straight-leg-raises is kept to an upper limit of 6.8 kg. b. Hamstring stretching is useful in preventing overcompression of the patella against the underlying bony surface. c. Flexion-to-extension motions or heavy resistance may aggravate these type of injuries. d. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon the extensor mechanism. e. When using stationary bike, resistance should be kept low and a steady pace of about 20 mph maintained.

d. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon

The spinal cord tapers at the level of the lower border of the 1st lumbar vertebra called a. Filum terminale b. Coccyx c. Conus medullaris d. Coccygium finale e. Cauda equine

c. Conus medullaris

The following muscles externally rotate the hip EXCEPT a. obturator internus. b. piriformis. c. quadratus lumborum. d. gemelli.

c. quadratus lumborum.

The following statements describe the menisci (intra-articular cartilage), EXCEPT: a. The lateral meniscus can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia b. Crescent-shaped wedges of fibrocartilage which occur in margins of the medial and lateral tibial condyles. c. Facilitate articulation between the tibia and the femur, and cushion articular surfaces. d. Medial meniscus may tear when the femur is internally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and abduction e. Lateral meniscus may tear when the femur is externally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and adduction

e. Lateral meniscus may tear when the femur is externally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and adduction

c. Preparation of the informed consent.

Which ankle-foot orthoses has excellent cosmesis? a. Eugen b. Scott c. Seattle d. Tenfel

c. Seattle

The airway branch where alveoli first appear is the ___________. a. Respiratory bronchiole b. Trachea c. Terminal bronchi d. Main bronchi

a. Respiratory bronchiole

A patient has been admitted to your hospital with severe lower back pain. The patient will be placed in a pelvic belt for intermittent skin traction. The following applies to proper pelvic belt application EXCEPT: a. The straps must be parallel to each other and to the patient's thighs when attached to the traction cords. b. As an alternative setup, the traction bar holding the pulleys is positioned higher, creating a greater upward pull on the patient's lower back. c. The patient may be placed in Williams position with hips flexed 30 and knees flexed 30 as part of daily care. d. Although pelvic traction may be applied directly on the skin, it may also be applied over clothing made of cotton (for better traction) and wrinkle-free (to avoid excessive pressure on the skin). e. The free ends of the belt are wrapped around the hip bone so the iliac crests are covered.

c. The patient may be placed in Williams position with hips flexed 30 and knees flexed 30 as part of daily care.

A therapist adjusts the height of the parallel bars in preparation for client ambulation. When at the appropriate height, the parallel bars should provide _____ degrees of elbow flexion. a. 5-15 b. 30-4 c. 15-25 d. 35-45

c. 15-25

Functional capacity evaluation is often used to determine _______. I. The need for further rehabilitation II. Physical capabilities and work tolerance III. A person’s unwillingness to return to work. IV. The need for job modification V. The degree of the person’s disability in order to collect disability pay a. III, IV, and V b. I, II, and IV c. II and III d. IV and V

b. I, II, and IV

A patient's job requires him to move boxes weighing 35 pounds from a transport cart to an elevated conveyor belt. The patient can complete the activity, however is unable to prevent hyperextension of the spine. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to a. implement a pelvic stabilization program b. design an abdominal strengthening program c. review proper body mechanics d. use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt

d. use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt

The most appropriate position to test the strength of a patient’s middle trapezius is a. Supine b. Prone c. Sitting unsupported d. Sidelying e. Supported sitting

b. Prone

A therapist records the vital signs of a 45 year old male prior to beginning treatment. The therapist palpates the patient's radial pulse for 15 seconds but has difficulty computing the actual pulse rate since the rhythm is irregular. The most accurate method to identify the actual pulse rate is to a. ask someone to take the rate for you. b. palpate the radial pulse for a full minute. c. record the original pulse and document the rhythm. d. select another pulse site and palpate for 15 seconds. e. recheck hand positioning and palpate the radial pulse for additional 15 seconds.

b. palpate the radial pulse for a full minute.

According to the Nagi Model of Functional status, what is the inability of an individual to perform an action or activity in the way it is done by most people? a. Functional limitation b. Handicap c. Disability d. Impairment

c. Disability

Proximal attachment of the internal abdominal oblique a. Spinous process of T6 downward, thoracolumbar fascia, posterior crest of the ilium b. Inguinal ligament, crest of the ilium, and thoracolumbar fascia c. Linea aspera of the femoral shaft d. Greater trochanter e. Medial shaft of the humerus

b. Inguinal ligament, crest of the ilium, and thoracolumbar fascia

A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client’s knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client’s ligamentous integrity is compromised is to: a. Compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology b. Compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee c. Compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms d. Instruct the referring physician to order radiographs

b. Compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee

Of the body water compartment, the largest is occupied by the _________. a. Transcellular fluid b. Intracellular fluid c. Interstitial fluid d. Plasma

b. Intracellular fluid

The MOST frequently injured ligament of the ankle is the ______. a. Anterior talofibular b. Calcaneotibial c. Calcaneofibular d. Anterior talotibial

a. Anterior talofibular

Forward bending is a complex movement of combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of the tasks that occur during everyday activities require trunk flexion. The following statements apply to this movement, EXCEPT: a. Short hamstring muscles, because of their attachment to the posterior leg and to the ischial tuberosity, may limit hip flexion ROM b. Stretching short hamstrings may affect lumbar motion during forward bending c. LBP could result from excessive lumbar motion due to their influence on lumbopelvic rhythm during forward bending d. Restricted hip motion is coupled with excessive lumbar motion e. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine

e. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine

Which muscles must contract to maintain the body erect in normal relaxed standing? a. Gastrocnemius b. tibialis anterior c. soleus d. quadriceps femoris

c. soleus

Motions in the foot take place on certain joints. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortise b. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the midtarsal joint c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia and fibula within the ankle mortise d. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints e. Subtalar inversion and

a. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortise

What structure forms the floor of the femoral triangle? I. Iliacus II. Pectineus III. Adductor longus a. II and III only b. I, II and III c. I and II only d. I and III only

b. I, II and III

Rupture of the ____________ ligament allows excessive backward movement of the tibia on the femur. a. Posterior cruciate b. Medial collateral c. Lateral collateral d. Anterior cruciate

a. Posterior cruciate

A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to “lock” the joint when the knee is fully extended. This key is the: a. Piriformis b. Gastrocnemius c. Soleus d. Popliteus

d. Popliteus

This deepest muscle of the leg inverts the foot and plantar flexes the transverse tarsal joint a. Flexor digitorum longus b. Tibialis anterior c. Flexor hallucis longus d. Tibialis posterior e. Abductor hallucis

d. Tibialis posterior

The following statements are true of breathing exercises, EXCEPT: a. Used when thoracic excursion is decreased as a result of retained secretions or pain b. Benefit includes increase tidal volume, improve thoracic-cage mobility and increased inspiratory capacity c. May be used during weaning from mechanical ventilation d. Indicated during mechanical ventilation e. Indicated in the ICU setting for patients with neuromuscular disease

d. Indicated during mechanical ventilation

This structure provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities. a. Brachioradialis b. Quadriceps c. strong rectus abdominis d. thoracolumbar fascia e. sacrospinalis group

d. thoracolumbar fascia

Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT: _______________. a. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons b. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons c. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

This muscle is a pure flexor of the elbow when the forearm is in midposition. a. Pronator teres b. Biceps brachii c. Brachialis d. Brachioradialis e. Anconeus

d. Brachioradialis

Following are changes in the mechanical properties of muscle fibers occurring in patients with spasticity, EXCEPT: __________________. a. Increase muscle tone in the antigravity muscles b. Increased levels of muscle fiber atrophy c. Structural changes such as the appearance of target fibers d. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

d. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to ________ side. a. Incoordination of the contralateral side b. Paralysis of the ipsilateral c. Paralysis of the contralateral d. Tremors of the ipsilateral side

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side

The posterior deltoid muscle fibers produce which of the following shoulder motions? a. Abduction, external rotation and extension b. Extension and external rotation c. Flexion and extension d. Extension and abduction

b. Extension and external rotation

What starts when foot contacts the floor and ends with subsequent floor contact on the same foot? a. Gait cycle b. Walking speed c. Cadence d. Normal gait

a. Gait cycle

A physical therapist uses a S.O.A.P note format for all of his daily documentation. The following will be found in the assessment section of a S.O.A.P. note EXCEPT: ______. a. Discussion of a client’s progress in therapy. b. Short and long term goals. c. Client’s rehabilitation potential d. Client’s equipment needs and equipment ordered

d. Client’s equipment needs and equipment ordered

A therapist completes a daily progress note utilizing S.O.A.P. format. Which of the following entries does NOT belong in the objective section? a. Incision on the left anterior forearm covered with sterile strips b. Left lower extremity range of motion within normal limits c. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes d. Tenderness to palpation in L2-L2 area

c. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes

A therapist complete daily documentation using S.O.A.P. note format. The following entries typically belong to the subjective section, EXCEPT: ________. a. Patient goal: return home without assistance b. Complains of pain when reaching for his shoes c. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain d. Denies pain with cough or sneeze

c. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain

These lung segments can be auscultated anteriorly EXCEPT the ________ lobe. a. Inferior lingual of the upper b. Apical segment of the upper c. Lateral segment of the middle d. Medial segment of the lower

d. Medial segment of the lower

In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, the following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT: _________. a. When performing functional training using PNF, activities are broken down into parts and the parts are practiced b. The use of approximation promotes stability and balance while traction and stretch increase the ability to move c. When using PNF in gait training, resistance is used to increase the patient’s ability to balance but not the ability to move d. The use of a firm, large, pliant, smooth mat is ideal when performing PNF mat activities

c. When using PNF in gait training, resistance is used to increase the patient’s ability to balance but not the ability to move

What percent is the energy expenditure in a single below knee amputee? a. 20 b. 90 c. 50 d. 10 e. 30

a. 20

Which of the following examples therapeutically increase the pressure on a given area? a. Frequent body weight shifts b. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking c. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics d. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis e. Use of orthotics to increase the force arm length

c. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics

Which hip-repair surgical procedure severs hip muscles and tendons around joint to decrease pressure and pain within the joint? The success rate is low and return to full weight status is a lengthy process. a. Muscle release b. Displacement osteotomy c. Double-cup arthroplasty d. Femoral prosthesis e. Arthrodesis

a. Muscle release

You were training a patient to perform bed to chair transfer. If he was able to accomplish majority of the transfer without assistance, how will your rate his performance? a. Dependent with supervision b. Independent c. Dependent with close guarding d. Dependent with minimum assistance

b. Independent

Sudden, violent, hurling movements of a limb may indicate a lesion of the ____________. a. Basal Ganglia b. Corticospinal tract c. Cerebellum, cerebellum d. Cerebral cortex e. Corticobulbar tract

a. Basal Ganglia

When measuring for a wheelchair seat height / leg length, measure from the user's a. toes to the fibular head. b. height and divide by two. c. heel to the fibular head and add 4 inches to clear the footrest. d. heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest e. heel to the greater trochanter, divide by three add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest.

d. heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest

What level of amputation must be avoided in a patient who will wear a prosthesis? a. Knee disarticulation b. Upper one third of the leg c. Hemipelvectomy d. Distal one-third of the leg

c. Hemipelvectomy

The greatest socket pressure in the above knee amputee is felt over the _______. a. Popliteal fossa b. Anterior superior iliac spine c. Patellar tendon d. Ischial tuberosity

d. Ischial tuberosity

This type of burn involves only the outer epidermis, which may be red with slight edema, and healing occurs without any evidence of scarring. a. Full-thickness burn b. Superficial partial-thickness burn c. Subdermal burn d. Deep partial-thickness burn e. Superficial burn

e. Superficial burn

A graft that contains only superficial layers of the dermis in addition to the epidermis. a. Heterograft b. Split thickness skin graft c. Mesh graft d. Autograft e. Allograft

b. Split thickness skin graft

A client with chronic low back pain has failed to make any progress toward meeting established goals in over three weeks of treatment. The therapist has employed a variety of treatment techniques, but has yet to observe any sign of subjective or objective improvement in the client’s condition. The most appropriate action would be to: a. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status b. Continue to modify the client’s treatment plan c. Re-examine the client and establish new goals d. Transfer the client to another therapists schedule.

a. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status

The terminal branches of an axon come in contact with the dendrites of the succeeding neuron at which junction points? a. Receptor b. Synapse c. Effector d. End-organ

b. Synapse

Paralysis of the median nerve will manifest the following conditions, EXCEPT a. the index and middle fingers lose their ability to flex. b. the digits on the radial side are affected more than the medial side. c. thumb flexion and opposition are lost and the thenar muscle atrophy. d. the adductor (thenar muscle) remains useful, enabling the thumb and index finger to hold a small object with the assistance of the 1st interossei. e. an active grasp may be accomplished by extending the wrist as far as possible.

e. an active grasp may be accomplished by extending the wrist as far as possible.

Accurate, clear, and concise documentation is becoming increasingly important for all health care providers. The following suggestions to improve documentation would be useful, EXCEPT: a. Co-sign the entries of other medical personnel when necessary according to state and facility requirements b. avoid empty or open lines between entries in the medical record c. make sure all entries in the medical record are typewritten d. use abbreviations that have been standardized or accepted by a specific facility or the profession

c. make sure all entries in the medical record are typewritten

A therapist completes a physical examination of a patient before beginning pulmonary rehabilitation. If the therapist would like to obtain information on the use of accessory muscles during ventilation, which area should the therapist observe? a. Neck and shoulders b. Neck and abdomen c. Shoulders and upper thorax d. Mid thorax

a. Neck and shoulders

The following responses are part of the withdrawal reflex, EXCEPT: a. Flexor b. Extensor c. Crossed extensor d. Crossed flexor

d. Crossed flexor

Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle area is a. 8 x 12 b. 10 x 10 c. 8 x 10 d. 8 x 8

c. 8 x 10

Which of the following statements is NOT true of manual techniques? a. Manual techniques should be applied only over the lung that approximates the chest wall with full inspiration b. The medial segment of the right lower lobe is not accessible to manual techniques c. Commonly accepted anatomic landmarks for percussion and vibration include the level of the 10th thoracic vertebra posteriorly and the xiphoid process anteriorly with normal respiration d. Manual technique is contraindicated for patients with severe brain injury because they do not increase intracranial pressure.

d. Manual technique is contraindicated for patients with severe brain injury because they do not increase intracranial pressure.

Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques are the most appropriate to achieve the therapists goals of improving a patient’s lower extremity strength? a. Contract relax and rhythmic stabilization b. Repeated contraction and slow reversal c. Contract relax and hold relax d. Hold relax and slow reversa

b. Repeated contraction and slow reversal

A patient rehabilitating from injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy for gait training with an appropriate assistive device. The PT attempts to instruct the patient using axillary crutches, but feels it does not offer the client enough stability or support. Which of the following assistive devices would be most appropriate for client? a. Parallel bars b. Cane c. Walker d. Lofstrand crutches

c. Walker

A therapist examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown etiology and identifies a shortening of the cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius and levator scapulae, the most probable postural deviation is: a. Forward shoulders b. Kyphosis c. Forward head d. Lordosis e. Head leaning to lateral side

c. Forward head

Which of these large vessels arise from the arch of the aorta? I. Right carotid vein II. Brachiocephalic trunk III. Left common carotid artery IV. Left subclavian artery V. Right subclavian artery a. III and IV only b. II, III, and IV c. II, III, and V d. I, II, and III

b. II, III, and IV

The maximal heart rate (in beats per minute) during exercise allowable for a 70-year-old male is _______. a. 150 b. 190 c. 120 d. 70

a. 150

Following are changes in the mechanical properties of muscle fibers occurring in patients with spasticity, EXCEPT: a. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished b. Increased muscle tone in the antigravity muscles c. Structural changes such as the appearance of target fibers d. Increased levels of muscle fiber atrophy e. Predominance of type I fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle months after stroke, when spasticity of cerebral origin has been established

a. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

A client with cardiopulmonary pathology is referred to physical therapy. The therapist documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and skin coolness. These clinical signs are most consistent with a. cor pulmonale. b. atelectasis. c. anemia. d. diaphoresis.

c. anemia.

c. 3+

The femoral artery is a branch of ______. a. Descending aorta b. External iliac c. Inferior vena cava d. Internal iliac

b. External iliac

The filum terminale is distally fixed at the ________. a. S5 vertebra b. Symphysis pubis c. Sacral promontory d. First coccygeal vertebra

d. First coccygeal vertebra

The human peripheral nervous system is composed of _________. I. 10 pairs of cranial nerves II. 12 pairs of cranial nerves III. 31 pairs of spinal nerves IV. 33 pairs of spinal nerves a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and IV

c. II and III

While treating a patient with unilateral lower extremity weakness, the patient performs hip flexion in supine with the therapist assisting the patient complete the full range of motion. This is BEST described as ____________ exercise. a. Active-assisted b. Passive-assistive c. Active-resistive d. Resistive-assistive

a. Active-assisted

__________ is characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid. a. Ballismus b. Spasticity c. Dystonia d. Chorea e. Athetosis

e. Athetosis

In this lifting technique, the individual squats in front of the object with feet and knees approximately shoulder width apart. This should only be used when lifting small, light items or when insufficient space is provided. This lift should be avoided by those with knee problems. a. Deep squat b. Golfer’s c. Tripod d. Diagonal e. Power

a. Deep squat

A therapist examines the residual limb of a patient with a transtibial amputation following ambulation activities with a patellar tendon bearing prosthesis. The therapist identifies excessive redness over the patella. The most likely cause is a. socket not properly aligned. b. excessive withdrawal in sitting. c. excessive number of residual limb socks. d. settling due to limb shrinkage.

d. settling due to limb shrinkage.

What slow writhing movements of a wormlike character involving the extremities, trunk and neck is a movement disorder resulting from pathological changes involving the cortex and basal ganglia? a. Ataxia b. Athetosis c. Chorea d. Hemichorea

b. Athetosis

A patient diagnosed with spasmodic torticollis conditions is an example of: a. Asthenia b. Asynergia c. Dyssynergia d. Dystonia

d. Dystonia

Painful sensation of the missing body part is termed ____. a. Phantom pain b. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy c. Phantom sensation d. Phantom disease

a. Phantom pain

A therapist performs palpation as part of a respiratory assessment with the patient in standing. Which structure would be most appropriate to assess with the therapist positioned behind the patient? a. Lower lobes b. Upper lobes c. Left middle lobe d. Mediastinum e. Right middle lobe

a. Lower lobes

Congenital muscular torticollis is a musculoskeletal anomaly with the following characteristics EXCEPT: _____________ a. A surgical treatment approach is lengthening of the involved muscle b. The children referred to PT before 1 year of age have better outcomes than those referred later c. The conservative treatment approach is a stretching program to lengthen the involved muscle. d. The restricted neck range of motion secondary to a spastic sternocleidomastoid

d. The restricted neck range of motion secondary to a spastic sternocleidomastoid

A therapist instructs a client in ambulation activities using axillary crutches. What two points of control should be used when guarding the client? a. Elbow and hip b. Shoulder and hip c. Shoulder and thorax d. Thorax and hip

b. Shoulder and hip

The main determinant in the uptake of oxygen by the lungs is ________. a. Ventilation: perfusion ratio. b. Lung perfusion. c. Dead space: total ventilation ratio. d. Lung ventilation.

a. Ventilation: perfusion ratio.

A group of therapists conducts scoliosis screenings on adolescents. The most appropriate action after identifying an adolescent with a moderate scoliotic curve is to a. educate the adolescent as to the causes of scoliosis. b. refer the adolescent for further orthopedic assessment. c. instruct the adolescent in the importance of proper posture. d. devise an exercise program for the adolescent.

b. refer the adolescent for further orthopedic assessment.

Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic components of the movement being attempted by the patient is a. Result Oriented. b. Knowledge of Function. c. Knowledge of Results. d. Performance Oriented. e. Knowledge of Performance.

e. Knowledge of Performance.

a. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

Allograft rejection is a result of ___________. a. Provoked immunity b. Destruction of the antigen by phagocytosis, a property of innate immunity c. Histocompatibility complexes d. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the antigen, a property of acquired immunity.

d. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the antigen, a property of acquired immunity.

If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking gait would you choose? a. Swing-through three-point b. Four-point c. Three-point-and-one (partial-weight-bearing) d. Three-point (non-weight-bearing) e. Two-point

a. Swing-through three-point

Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for severe hip pain from degenerative joint disease in elderly patients who are poor surgical risks and have little prospect of walking? a. Double-cup arthroplasty b. Muscle Release c. Femoral Prosthesis d. Arthrodesis e. Displacement Osteotomy

d. Arthrodesis

The objectives of stroke rehabilitation include the following EXCEPT a. Reestablish a meaningful and gratifying life. b. To achieve an acceptable level of functional independence c. Facilitate neurological recovery, minimize disability d. Successfully reintegrate back into home, family, and community

b. To achieve an acceptable level of functional independence

The lining mucus of the airways is composed of a. an upper non-viscous upper layer and a sticky lower layer b. a homogeneous sticky fluid c. an upper sticky layer and a lower non-viscous layer d. a homogeneous clear, non-viscous fluid

c. an upper sticky layer and a lower non-viscous layer

For good prosthetic acceptance, a juvenile amputee should be fitted before the age of (in years) __________. a. Eight b. Two c. Four d. Ten

c. Four

Mouth breathing results in this condition in the alveolar air. a. Cleaner b. Drier c. Warmer d. lower 02

d. lower 02

When performing passive range of motion exercises to a quadriplegic in side lying, the MOST effective hand placement for hip extension is one hand ________. a. And forearm at the heel and knee, one hand stabilizing the thigh b. At the heel, one hand supporting the mid thigh c. And forearm supporting the leg at the knee, one stabilizing the pelvis d. At the heel, one hand supporting the knee

c. And forearm supporting the leg at the knee, one stabilizing the pelvis

In the neuropathic extremity, a poor indicator of inflammation is a. Head and redness b. Redness and edema c. Edema or pain d. Pain and disturbance of function e. Edema or loss of function

d. Pain and disturbance of function

A bundle of muscle fiber in the skeletal muscles is called: ___________ a. Fasciculus b. Myofilaments c. Myofibrils d. Sarcomere

a. Fasciculus

The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing is the ______ nerve. a. Radial b. Median c. Musculocutaneous d. Ulnar

b. Median

As action potential travels over the muscle fiber membrane, large quantities of calcium ions are released which activate the forces between filaments to initiate contraction. This causes the _________. a. Myosin filaments to slide outward among the actin filaments b. Actin filaments to slide outward among the myosin filaments c. Myosin filaments to slide inward among the actin filaments d. Actin filaments to slide inward among the myosin filaments

d. Actin filaments to slide inward among the myosin filaments

The central bare zone of the sarcomere has no heads but only tails of the myosin. This is the ______ zone. a. Pseudo A b. H c. I d. Pseudo H

d. Pseudo H

The following are typically utilized when measuring skinfold in anthropometric measurements designed to determine percent body fat, EXCEPT: a. Lateral calf b. Subscapular c. Iliac crest d. Triceps

a. Lateral calf

In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), the following statements are true EXCEPT: a. There is not a good correlation between results of electrophysiological studies and symptoms the patient report b. Severe symptoms may not be associated with deficits in grip or complains of weakness. c. As the CTS progresses, the symptoms of paresthesia may decrease and be replaced with actual muscle atrophy and weakness d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective

d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective

Poor prognostic indicator/s for recovery from traumatic brain injury is/are I. Post-traumatic amnesia of more 14 days II. Glasgow coma scale of 9 on the third day post-injury III. Minimal multimodality evoked potential a. I b. I and II c. I and III d. II e. III

a. I

Facilitated diffusion is characterized by ______. I. Presence of a carrier II. Simple diffusion is greater than rate of transport III. Rate of transport is greater than simple diffusion IV. Absence of a carrier a. IV only b. I only c. I and III d. II and IV

c. I and III

Males generally become stronger than females after puberty because males _________. a. Have higher muscle strength per cross-sectional area b. Keep themselves in condition through proper diet and exercise c. Develop a greater muscle mass d. Have faster rate of biologic maturation

c. Develop a greater muscle mass

What fibers transmit deep somatic pain? a. B b. D c. A d. C

d. C

What structures send impulses to inhibitory interneurons to relax antagonist muscles? a. Flower spray endings b. Annulospiral endings c. Golgi tendon organs d. Spindle

d. Spindle

Decrementless conduction of the nerve impulses is due to the fact that a. there is no one way conduction across synapses. b. Na ions move along its electrochemical gradient. c. outward movement of K ions favors conduction. d. energy for conduction is derived from the nerve fiber. e. Na channel activation allows Na ions to move intracellularly

e. Na channel activation allows Na ions to move intracellularly

The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing is the a. Radial b. radio-ulnar. c. median. d. musculocutaneous. e. Ulnar.

c. median.

When the anterior cerebral artery is affected in a cerebrovascular accident, you would expect the following impairments EXCEPT a. loss of bowel and bladder control. b. aphasia. c. apraxia. d. thalamic pain syndrome.

d. thalamic pain syndrome.

Klumpke’s palsy involves the following nerve roots: a. C6-C7 b. C7-C8 c. C4-C5 d. C8-T1 e. T1-T2

d. C8-T1

The following are types of radial nerve compression, EXCEPT: a. Honeymoon palsy b. Pronator syndrome c. Saturday night palsy d. Supinator syndrome

b. Pronator syndrome

In a "Bridegroom's Palsy" there will be a. difficulty in scapular retraction. b. difficulty in pushing. c. a wrist drop deformity. d. some weakness in supination. e. difficulty in shoulder extension.

c. a wrist drop deformity.

In Huntington’s Disease, the following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. Characterized by progressive dementia with involuntary movements b. There is ataxic gait and cuneiform movement c. A rapidly progressing disease that usually begins shortly after an infectious disorder d. Noted memory loss and personality changes e. Disease of the central nervous system that progresses slowly

c. A rapidly progressing disease that usually begins shortly after an infectious disorder

Movements are random and involuntary. a. Chorea b. Dysarthria c. Apraxia d. Athetosis e. Akinesia

a. Chorea

Which of the following statements describe the post-polio syndrome? a. Treatment should include early progressive resistive exercises with low velocity isokinetic exercises. b. Risk is reduced by vaccination even after the onset of the initial infection c. Usually occurs about 30 years after the initial polio infection d. Assistive exercises with passive stretches are indicated with constant isometric contractions e. Muscles that show the greatest weakness are the muscles that did not fully recover after the initial infection

c. Usually occurs about 30 years after the initial polio infection

A lesion in area ______ of the cerebral cortex results in flaccid paralysis of the contralateral musculature with areflexia. a. 4 b. 8 c. 2 d. 6

a. 4

Subjects with pure word deafness _______. a. Respond approximately to environmental sounds b. Cannot understand or repeat spoken language c. Cannot understand written language d. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language

d. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language

A therapist examines a 42-year-old self-referred female. The client describes the onset of a variety of medical problems approximately one month ago, including right lower extremity weakness, decreased balance and blurred vision. Examination confirms the client’s complains, in addition to identifying decreased pinprick sensation and ankle clonus in the right lower extremity. The suspected diagnosis of this client is ___________. a. Multiple sclerosis b. Myasthenia gravis c. Parkinson’s disease d. Cerebral thrombosis

a. Multiple sclerosis

The definition of coma is a Glasgow Coma Scale of less than ________. a. 3 b. 8 c. 5 d. 11 e. 15

b. 8

A therapist examines a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome. All of the following are signs/symptoms associated with this syndrome EXCEPT a. weakness. b. absent sensation. c. difficulty breathing. d. areflexia.

b. absent sensation.

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT I. nerve impulses are propagated by the continuous progression of the action potential along the length of the fiber in myelinated fibers II. nerves with larger axons have lower stimulus thresholds for development of an action potential than do nerves with smaller axons. III. nerves with large-diameter axons have greater conduction velocities than do nerves with smaller diameter axons IV. conduction velocity is also substantially greater in myelinated axons than in unmyelinated axons. a. I b. II c. III d. IV

a. I

Paralysis of the radial nerve cannot result in which condition? a. The extensors of the wrist and the long extensors of the digits are paralyzed. b. If the wrist is supported in extension by means of a splint grip strength may be good. c. Extension in drop-wrist position is due to tendon action, not active contraction. d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp.

d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp.

All of the following techniques are commonly used to treat apraxia EXCEPT a. a new task should be broken down into smaller components b. repetition of tasks may be necessary c. the therapist should speak slowly and directly to the patient d. multiple step commands should be used for activities of daily living

d. multiple step commands should be used for activities of daily living

What is an abnormal contraction occurring in denervated muscle fibers after motor neurons have been destroyed, in which individual fibers contract in an unsynchronized manner, produces muscle flutter but no effective movement? a. Twitch b. Convulsion c. Fibrillation d. Fasciculation

c. Fibrillation

What energy from this system is used for maximal short bursts of muscle activity (8-10 seconds)? a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic c. Phosphagen d. Glycogen-lactic acid

c. Phosphagen

What structure stores and releases calcium ions during the contractile process? a. Sarcoplasmic retinaculum b. Myosin c. Myofilament d. Tubules

a. Sarcoplasmic retinaculum

This nerve innervates the Rhomboids. a. Nerve to rhomboids b. Suprascapular c. Subscapular d. Dorsal scapular e. Medial pectoral

d. Dorsal scapular

Which of the following muscles will be affected in a Tunnel of Guyon compression neuropathy? I. Adductor pollicis II. 4th and 5th flexor digitorum profundus III. Flexor digiti minimi a. I b. III c. I and III d. II and III

c. I and III

Theoretical relationships are established between the primary concept to be measured and one or more other concepts in this type of Validity. a. Prescriptive b. Content c. Predictive d. Face e. Construct

e. Construct

At a comfortable room temperature (24-25 deg C) the major mechanisms of heat exchange between the skin and environment are ______________. I. Evaporation II. Radiation III. Conduction IV. Dehydration V. Convection a. III, IV and V b. I, III and V c. I, II and III d. II, III and V

c. I, II and III

When a muscle crosses more than one joint, the muscle not only has an effect on each joint but is in turn influenced by the position of the joints. The following muscles cross more than one joint, EXCEPT: a. biceps brachii b. triceps brachii c. anconeus d. pronator teres

c. anconeus

Atrial depolarization is seen in the ECG as the a. PQP complex b. U wave c. Twave d. QRS complex e. P wave

e. P wave

Is systolic pressure is 135 mm Hg and diastolic pressure is 90, then the pulse pressure is a. 90 b. 3.0 c. 45 d. 1.50

c. 45

This test determines if there is a tear in the supraspinatus muscle by fully abducting the arm and slowly lowering it to the side. a. Drop arm b. Ober c. Mcmurray d. Apley compression e. Lachman

a. Drop arm

The following motions are applied to the median nerve dominant test, EXCEPT: a. Forearm supination, and wrist and finger extension b. Elbow extension c. Shoulder girdle depression d. Shoulder internal rotation e. Shoulder abduction in the coronal plane to approximately 110 degrees

d. Shoulder internal rotation

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation has been used for pain management over the years. Conventional TENS has the following properties EXCEPT: a. Uses relatively short purse durations (2-50 microseconds) b. Stimulates large-diameter fibers c. Uses intensities below the motor thresholds d. Uses relatively low pulse frequencies (50-100 pulses per second) e. Stimulates superficial cutaneous nerve fibers

d. Uses relatively low pulse frequencies (50-100 pulses per second)

A client uses transcutaneous electrical neuromuscular stimulation for pain modulation. Which set of parameters best describes conventional TENS? a. 200-250 pps, short phase duration, low intensity b. 150-200 pps, long phase duration, low intensity c. 100- 150 pps, short phase duration, high intensity d. 50-100 pps, short phase duration, low intensity

d. 50-100 pps, short phase duration, low intensity

In retinacular test, the proximal IP joint is held in a neutral position and the distal IP joint attempts to move into flexion. When the proximal IP joint is flexed to slightly relax the retinaculum, and the distal IP joint flexes a. The distal IP joint capsule is probably contracted b. The retinacular ligaments are loose c. There is no contraction in the distal IP joint capsule d. The proximal IP joint is contracted e. The retinacular ligaments are tight

e. The retinacular ligaments are tight

A therapist is employed in a large rehabilitation center which has recently seen a large increase in the facilities’ census. The increase in patient load has placed a considerable strain on the department and tasks which were previously performed by therapists are often completed by unskilled volunteers. The therapist is very concerned by this increasingly familiar pattern, but does not know where to turn. Which of the following steps is the MOST appropriate to bring this to the departments attention? a. Discuss your patient care concerns with your immediate supervisor and suggest possible staffing alternatives b. Instruct the director of physical therapy to hire an additional therapist as quickly as possible c. Disregard the situation since the increase in patient census is only a temporary phenomenon d. Schedule an appointment to discuss your patient care concerns with the facilities chief financial officer.

a. Discuss your patient care concerns with your immediate supervisor and suggest possible staffing alternatives

The director of rehabilitation in an orthopedic private practice prepares a list of interview questions for applicants applying for a vacant position. Which of the following would be an acceptable interview question? a. Have you ever filed a workers’ compensation claim? b. Have you held a position like this in the past? c. Are you in good health? d. How much weight can you lift?

b. Have you held a position like this in the past?