APK Flashcards
A therapist designs a cardiovascular training program for a 29-year-old male rehabilitating from a
lower extremity injury. The client has no known cardiovascular pathology and has been cleared for
exercise by his physician. The client’s maximum heart rate during exercise should be calculated in
beats per minute as:
a. 201
b. 170
c. 191
d. 181
c. 191
In coronary artery disease, the following conditions exist, EXCEPT:
a. It may produce ischemia and necrosis of the myocardium
b. Arteries are unable to meet metabolic demands
c. There is inability for vasodilation
d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency
d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency
Orientation is ________.
a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very
troubled by this symptom
b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning, or chronic organic brain syndrome, often
manifesting as a memory impairment.
c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.
d. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you.
c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.
In the glomerular capillary, glomerular filtration is highest in the
a. Beginning
b. Middle to the end
c. Middle
d. End
e. Beginning to middle
a. Beginning
What valve prevents the left ventricular blood from returning to the left atrium?
a. Tricuspid
b. Mitral
c. Ventricular
d. Aortic
b. Mitral
A therapist discusses the importance of proper nutrition with a client diagnosed with congestive
heart failure. Which of the following substances would be most restricted in this client’s diet?
a. Cholesterol
b. Triglycerides
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
d. Sodium
Syncope is
a. also referred to as cardinal signs.
b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.
c. a shrill, harsh sound, especially the respiratory sound heard during inspiration in laryngeal
obstruction.
d. the period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries
during heartbeat
b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.
starts near the end of the R wave and ends just after the T wave on the ECG.
a. Early diastole
b. Late diastole
c. Ventricular systole
d. Atrial systole
c. Ventricular systole
In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may
indicate acute myocardial infarction.
a. STP
b. P wave
c. QRS
d. ST segment
e. T wave
e. T wave
Id is
a. the perception of sensory stimulus in the absence of any sensory stimulus.
b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.
c. a mental state of sadness, low self-esteem, and self-reproach.
d. a mood characterized by elation and increased activity.
b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.
Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during _________.
a. First 1/3 of diastole
b. Rapid ejection period
c. Isovolumic contraction period
d. Atrial systole
a. First 1/3 of diastole
In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________.
a. Efferent arterioles
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Renal artery
d. Segmental artery
a. Efferent arterioles
In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may
indicate acute myocardial infarction.
a. STP
b. P wave
c. QRS
d. ST segment
e. T wave
d. ST segment
Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of
a. primary active transport mechanism.
b. opening of voltage-gated channels.
c. secondary active-transport mechanism.
d. opening of ligand-gated channels.
b. opening of voltage-gated channels.
Which of the following is not used for pain medication?
a. Topical anesthetics such as lidocaine and tetracaine
b. Salicylates such as aspirin, choline magnesium trisalicylate, and salsalate
c. Acetaminophen
d. Allopurinol
d. Allopurinol
Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic
medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate
medical attention?
a. Insomnia
b. Shortness of breath
c. Coughing up blood
d. Dizziness
a. Insomnia
If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the
a. Relative refractory period
b. Atrioventricular mode
c. Absolute refractory period
d. Resting phase
e. Supernormal phase
c. Absolute refractory period
Venous return increases
a. Following generalized vasoconstriction
b. In heart failure
c. During inspiration
d. During a Valsalva maneuver
c. During inspiration
A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac
rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the most relevant for the patient?
a. Weight
b. Elevated serum cholesterol
c. Age
d. Gender
e. Family history
b. Elevated serum cholesterol
A physician instructs a client to take nonprescription or over the counter medication as part of his
treatment program. Which of the following statements about over the counter medication is not
accurate?
a. Over the counter medications usually contain low doses of their active ingredient
b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications
c. The Food and Drug Administration classifies drugs as prescription or nonprescription
d. Over the counter medications are available without a prescription and can be purchased
directly by consumers.
b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications
Which of the following include functions of veins?
I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows
II. Deregulates cardiac input
III. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
IV. Propels blood through venous pump
V. Regulate cardiac output
a. II, III, V
b. I, II and III
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV
c. III, IV and V
The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:
a. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital
organs.
b. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
c. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limbs
d. It can be caused by restricted mobility and an increase in red blood cells
e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.
e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.
Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle
contraction is known as ________.
a. Slow waves
b. Fast waves
c. Spikes
d. Action potentials
a. Slow waves
Renal blood flow decreases with age will lead to:
I. Loss of renal mass observed with aging
II. Decrease in cardiac output with age
III. Age-related sclerotic changes in the renal arteries
a. II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. I only
c. I and II
Dyspnea, a symptom of cardiac dysfunction may be described as follows EXCEPT it ____________.
a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular
relaxation
b. Can occur in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Often occurs with myocardial ischemia and heart failure
d. Is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension
a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular
relaxation
Venous return increases
a. Following generalized vasoconstriction
b. In heart failure
c. During inspiration
d. During a Valsalva maneuver
c. During inspiration
A patient was rushed to the hospital and underwent emergency Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting
after complaining of persistent severe uncomfortable chest pain. This can be classified as _______
according to the angina scale:
a. 2+
b. 5+
c. 3+
d. 1+
e. 4+
c. 3+
In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________.
a. Efferent arterioles
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Renal artery
d. Segmental artery
a. Efferent arterioles
An 80-year-old female without medical illness undergoes annual check-up. Liver function tests such
as AST and ALT is expected to be __________.
a. Twice above the normal range
b. Below the normal range
c. Above the normal range
d. Within normal limits
d. Within normal limits
Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic
medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate
medical attention?
a. Insomnia
b. Shortness of breath
c. Coughing up blood
d. Dizziness
a. Insomnia
Which of the following drug is classified as anti-coagulant?
a. Propranolol
b. Losartan
c. Warfarin
d. Digitalis
c. Warfarin
The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via the ________.
a. Right auricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Left auricle
c. Right ventricle
Paranoia
a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very
troubled by this symptom.
b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning or chronic organic brain syndrome, often
manifesting as a memory impairment.
c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you
d. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.
c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you
The site of the highest vascular resistance in the renal circulation is seen in the ___________.
a. Renal artery
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Efferent arterioles
d. Glomerulus
c. Efferent arterioles
What promotes water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidneys?
a. Glucagon
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Arginine vasopressin
d. Prolactin
d. Prolactin
The “dub” in Korotkoff’s heart sound is
a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole
b. Associated with atrial contraction
c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing
d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure
e. Associated with ventricular filling
c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing
Delirium is
a. The misperception of a sensory stimulus
b. The feeling that insects are crawling on one’s skin
c. A false belief neither based on reality nor culturally derived and not altered by reasonable
evidence to the contrary
d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome
d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome
A fall in the glomerular filtration rate is seen situations, EXCEPT
a. fall in blood pressure.
b. efferent arteriolar contraction.
c. increase in plasma protein concentration.
d. obstruction of the tubules.
e. tetanic venous contraction.
b. efferent arteriolar contraction.
Fires when perfused with oxygen-poor blood.
a. Carotid sinus
b. Axon reflex
c. Carotid body
d. Dendrite reflex
c. Carotid body
A proposed mediator of metabolic theory, accumulation of which causes vasodilation.
a. H+
b. Angiotensin II
c. Atrial
d. H-
a. H+
The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT:
a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the
contractile unit.
b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit.
c. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervation from
the spinal cord.
d. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may
lead to inappropriate conclusions.
e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of
noncontractile structures.
e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of
noncontractile structures.
Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by the following EXCEPT: ______________
a. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades
b. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may
be evident
c. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand
d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the
thumb abducts for several seconds.
d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the
thumb abducts for several seconds.
This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component
a. Isotonic
b. Shunt
c. Concentric
d. Spurt
e. Isometric
b. Shunt
What muscle contraction slow body segments and provide shock absorption as in walking?
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
b. Eccentric
Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid
a. Vagus
b. Abducens
c. Spinal accessory
d. Dorsal occipital
c. Spinal accessory
To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position.
The following statements describe this position. EXCEPT the loose packed position
a. is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule
b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint
c. allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint
d. is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress
b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint
If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the
muscle is graded as
a. fair plus
b. good plus
c. fair minus
d. good minus
d. good minus
Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the
hand.
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Dorsal
d. Volar
e. Anterolateral
d. Volar
These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial
nerve EXCEPT
a. forearm supination.
b. wrist flexion.
c. shoulder internal rotation.
d. elbow extension
a. forearm supination.
When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, which possible substitutions can cause an
inaccurate muscle grade?
I. Hip external rotation and flexion
II. Lateral flexion of the trunk
III. Hip extension
IV. Hip internal rotation
a. III and IV
b. I only
c. II, III and IV
d. I and II
e. II only
b. I only
Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct
contact.
a. Ulnar
b. Axillary
c. Median
d. Radial
b. Axillary
A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited
postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional
grade? _______ standing balance.
a. Fair static and dynamic
b. Good static and dynamic
c. Good static and fair dynamic
d. Fair static and good dynamic
c. Good static and fair dynamic
This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts
as the subject bites down.
a. Zygomaticus Major
b. Masseter
c. Buccinator
d. Temporalis
e. Medial Pterygoid
d. Temporalis
Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint?
a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence.
b. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves
backwards.
d. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.
a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence.
(When the mouth is opened, the convex condyle moves forward onto the articular eminence.)
The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT
a. there was inadequate fracture reduction.
b. if the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure
could cause delayed union or nonunion.
c. if malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain
a more normal position for healing.
d. the fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone de formed, weak, and possibly causing
pain.
e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align
the bone fragments.
e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align
the bone fragments.
Dividing the body into front and back, abduction and adduction occurs in this plane.
a. Frontal
b. Transfrontal
c. Horizontal
d. Sagittal
e. Transverse
a. Frontal
Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in which plane?
a. Transverse
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Horizontal
b. Sagittal
Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the
spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________.
a. Spurling’s
b. Lhermitte’s
c. Laseque’s
d. Lasegne’s
b. Lhermitte’s
What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades normal to fair?
a. Prone
b. Sidelying
c. Supine
d. Sitting
d. Sitting
When a muscle contracts and produces tension with no change in the angle of the joint, such
contraction is:
a. Eccentric
b. Isokinetic
c. Isometric
d. Isotonic
c. Isometric
The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon
the lower extremity
b. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but months following the injury
c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular
action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the
action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles
d. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the “Y” or “T”
type and usually include soft tissue damage
e. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture
line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane.
c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular
action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the
action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles
What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades poor to zero?
a. Sitting
b. Prone
c. Sidelying
d. Supine
a. Sitting
What fracture does NOT involve the bones of the foot?
a. Jone’s
b. Nutcracker
c. Jefferson’s
d. Shepherd’s
c. Jefferson’s
Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to
mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following
EXCEPT: ______________.
a. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism
b. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture)
c. Vitamin E deficiency
d. Inadequate fracture manipulation
c. Vitamin E deficiency
What is the motor nerve to the muscles of mastication?
a. Trigeminal
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Oculomotor
a. Trigeminal
What movements are performed against resistance, with constant load and tension?
a. Eccentric
b. Isotonic
c. Isometric
d. Isokinetic
b. Isotonic
Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint?
I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves
backwards.
II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
III. As the mouth is closed, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves
backwards.
IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence.
V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.
a. II, III and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. I, II and V
d. II, III and V
c. I, II and V
A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a
manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should:
a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh
b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion
c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh
d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion
c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh
What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?
a. Trochoid
b. Spheroid
c. Ginglymus
d. Syndesmosis
e. Sellar
b. Spheroid
The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion and extension originate primary at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints
b. Involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation
c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not
directly in front
d. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation
e. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist
c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not
directly in front
A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group
should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate?
a. Children
b. Adults
c. Elderly
d. Infants
e. Women
d. Infants
The following statements describe balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT: _________.
a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the
countertraction being applied
b. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting
the line of traction pull
c. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement,
and nonaligned bone fragments.
d. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the
back of the patient’s leg
a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the
countertraction being applied
The infrahyoids are the
I. Sternohyoid
II. Sternothyroid
III. Stylohyoid
a. II and III
b. I and III
c. I, II and III
d. I and II
d. I and II
When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced
by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an
a. prime mover.
b. co-ordinator.
c. synergist.
d. fixators.
e. antagonist.
c. synergist.
During MMT of the right gastrocnemius muscle, what grade would you assign this muscle if your
client were able to stand on his right leg and get up on his toes and complete 20 heel raises?
a. 3+
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3
b. 4
What is the correct position when testing the hip abduction muscles grades normal to fair?
a. Sidelying
b. Supine
c. Sitting
d. Prone
a. Sidelying
Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder
_______
.
a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions?
a. Extension of the elbow
b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
d. Pronation and supination of the forearm
d. Pronation and supination of the forearm
The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT
a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation.
b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and
acromioclavicular ranges of motion.
c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular
elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.
d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction
through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion
c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular
elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.
The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT:
a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row
b. It lies under the pisiform
c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand
d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture
e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon
e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon
What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint?
I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity
II. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in
congruence with the direction of the humeral head
III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised
b. I
c. I and II
d. I and III
e. II
c. I and II
Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder?
I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder
abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion
II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete
III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles
working together.
IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction.
V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the
position of internal rotation
b. I, II, III and IV
c. I, II, and IV
d. I, III, IV, and V
e. I, IV, and V
d. I, III, IV, and V
What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints?
I. Flexor digitorum superficialis
II. Palmaris longus
III. Lumbricals and interossei
IV. Flexor digitorum profundus
V. Flexor pollicis longus
b. I and IV
c. III, IV, and V
d. II and III
e. I, II, and IV
b. I and IV
Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint?
a. Flexor carpi ulnaris
b. Pronator teres
c. Palmaris longus
d. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Pronator teres
Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?
a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy?
a. Decrease muscle spasticity
b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium
c. Analgesia
d. Produce sedation
c. Analgesia
During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur?
a. Midcarpal joint only
b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint
c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint
d. Radiocarpal joint only
b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint
A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report the
heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable?
a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 88 degrees Celsius
d. 71 degrees Celsius
d. 71 degrees Celsius
Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion?
a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel
d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees
a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation of his gait, it showed to
be ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must
be tested to diagnose the condition?
a. 10
b. 6
c. 12
d. 8
d. 8
Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Median Nerve?
a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all
lumbrical
b. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the Anterior Interosseous Nerve
d. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus
a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all
lumbrical
Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint?
I. Shape of the joint
II. Acromioclavicular ligament
III. Strong joint capsule
IV. Conoid and trapezoid
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. IV only
e. II and IV
e. II and IV
Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?
a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
The following statements are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT
a. the ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion
b. an implication of the shoulder’s structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies
on muscles to provide adequate stability.
c. the articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack
congruity.
d. the scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive
suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament.
e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.
e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.
The Median Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. The skin of the palm
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Flexor Carpi Radialis
d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis
d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis
C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the
a. middle trunk.
b. upper trunk.
c. medial cord.
d. lower trunk.
e. anterior cord.
a. middle trunk.
Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through
I. increases in plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions
II. increased peak hip extension in late stance phase
III. increased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
IV. knee hyperextension during the stance phase
V. soft tissues passively limiting dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed
about the ankle during the stance phase
a. I, II and III
b. I, III and IV
c. I, IV and V
d. I and III only
e. II, IV and V
c. I, IV and V
The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern.
a. Tabetic
b. Antalgic
c. Double step
d. Steppage
e. Spastic
a. Tabetic
Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm on the
medial side of the humerus?
a. Median
b. Brachial
c. Ulnar
d. Radial
b. Brachial
Which of the following statements describe the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis?
I. It flexes the distal interphalangeal joint
II. The chief joint that it flexes is the proximal interphalangeal joint
III. Both the Superficialis and Profundus act to clench the fist
IV. Either the Superficialis or Profundus can act to clench the fist
V. It is supplied by the median nerve
b. I, III and IV
c. I, IV and V
d. II, III, and V
e. I, II and II
d. II, III, and V
The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle
from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength
EXCEPT:
______________
.
a. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis
of a neurologic lesion.
b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to
push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other.
c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the
shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 900
against the examiner’s downward pressure.
d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be
displaced medialward and up.
d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be
displaced medialward and up.
A therapist is measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in
supine would best be described as shoulder
_______
.
a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
The following muscles are innervated by the posterior cord, EXCEPT:
a. Infraspinatus
b. Deltoids
c. Pectoralis major
d. Triceps
a. Infraspinatus
Gluteus medius is MOST active during gait at
___________
.
a. Swing phase
b. Toe off
c. Heel strike
d. Midstance
d. Midstance
Which of the following statements describe the supraspinatus? It
____________
.
I. Stabilized the head of the humerus by pulling over the top of the head while
the Deltoid pulls upward on the midshaft of the humerus and Teres, along
with Teres Major.
II. Is essential to the normal adduction of the humerus
III. Is important at the end of abduction when the deltoid is pulling directly
upward along the length of the humerus
IV. Also helps produce smooth abduction at the shoulder joint by pulling
downward and stabilizing the head of the humerus
V. Stabilizes the head of the humerus by pulling over the side of the head while
the Deltoid pulls inward on the midshaft of the humerus
b. I and IV
c. III and V
d. II and IV
e. I and III
b. I and IV
Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true?
I. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 45 degrees
II. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 90 degrees
III. MCP allow 0-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45
degrees
IV. MCP allow 15-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45
degrees
V. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion than the hand
b. I, III and V
c. V only
d. II, IV and V
e. III, IV and V
f. II, III and V
f. II, III and V
What movement is important for a complete upward rotation o scapular shoulder flexion and
abduction?
a. Protraction
b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle
c. Retraction
d. Hyperextension
b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle
What muscle/s extend the distal interphalangeal joint?
I. Extensor digitalis communis
II. Lumbricals
III. Palmar interossei
a. I
b. I and II only
c. I, II and III
d. III
e. I, III only
c. I, II and III
In this gait pattern, the client abducts the paralyzed limb, swings it around, and brings it forward to
place the foot on the ground in front.
a. Scissor
b. Trendelenburg
c. Hemiplegic
d. Vaulting
e. Spastic
c. Hemiplegic
The roots of the brachial plexus are the following:
a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
b. C6, C7, C8, T1 and T2
c. C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7
d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8
a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Laterally rotates the shoulder joint.
I. Deltoid
II. Teres minor
III. Teres major
IV. Infraspinatus
V. Subscapularis
b. V only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, and IV
e. III and IV only
d. I, II, and IV
The following statements describe the sternoclavicular joint EXCEPT:
a. An articular disk is present between the end of the clavicle and the articular notch of the
sternum.
b. The only joint that connects the upper extremity directly with the thorax
c. Motions that occur are elevation and depression, protraction and retraction, and transverse
rotation
d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom
d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom
What reflex results in the extension of the arm and leg on the face side and flexion of arm or leg on the skull side
when the head is turned on one side?
a. Positive support reaction
b. Asymmetric tonic neck
c. Neck righting
d. Tonic labyrinthine
b. Asymmetric tonic neck
Iron is best absorbed in the ___________:
a. Ileum
b. Colon
c. Duodenum
d. Jejunum
c. Duodenum
The following reflexes are at the brainstem level EXCEPT: _____________.
a. Positive support reaction
b. Labyrinthine righting
c. Negative support reaction
d. Asymmetric tonic neck
c. Negative support reaction
What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several times?
a. Moro
b. Body Righting
c. Negative Support Reaction
d. Positive Support Reaction
d. Positive Support Reaction
What condition is not likely to be seen in the perinatal period?
a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis.
b. Dislocated Hip.
c. Talipes Equinovarus.
d. Myelomeningocoele.
a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis.
An eleven-month-old child with cerebral palsy attempts to maintain a quadruped position. Which reflex would
interfere with this activity if it did not integrate appropriately?
a. Gallant reflex
b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex
c. positive support reflex
d. plantar grasp reflex
b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex
The following statements apply to the surgical correction of hammer toe EXCEPT
a. it is most effective to fuse the PIP joint and balance soft tissues over the MTP joint in fixed deformities.
b. directed at reversing the MTP dorsiflexion and the PIP joint plantar flexion.
c. straighten both the proximal and the middle joints of the toe in flexible deformities.
d. in flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons.
e. it may be possible to shorten the proximal phalanx in flexible deformities.
d. in flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons.
The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on the
a. Capsule
b. Muscles
c. Tendons
d. Bony configuration
e. Ligaments
b. Muscles
The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on _________.
a. Ligaments
b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand
c. Capsule
d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand
a. Ligaments
The modified-modified Schober technique is used in assessing lumbar range of motion.
a. using a tape measure held directly over the spine between points 10 cm above the lumbosacral junction with
the patient in the neutral standing position
b. using an inclinometer located on the first lumbar vertebra
c. using a double inclinometer wherein one is placed on the sacrum and the other on the first lumbar vertebra
d. using two landmarks: a line interesting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark
drawn 15 cm superiorly
e. by marking a point 5 cm below and 10 cm superior to the lumbosacral junction
d. using two landmarks: a line interesting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark
drawn 15 cm superiorly
The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods. The use of the
Posterior Superior Iliac Spines (PSISs) as the inferior landmark in the modified-modified Schober (MMS) technique in
assessing the lumbar range of motion has the following advantages EXCEPT
a. that because no motion would be expected on the landmark, there is no need for an additional landmark 5
cm below.
b. that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line
connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra.
c. the landmark placed between midway between the PSISs is at the second sacral level.
d. the sacrum is an inflexible bone, making this landmark easily identifiable.
e. The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods
b. that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line
connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra.
This test will show if squeezing the calf muscle while the leg is extended ruptures the Achilles tendon.
a. Thomas
b. Lachman
c. Thompson
d. Apley
e. Yergason
c. Thompson
This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior
portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament.
a. External rotation/recurvatum test
b. Lachman’s test
c. Crossover test
d. Apley’s distraction test with internal rotation
e. Anterior drawer test
e. Anterior drawer test
Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the
following signs indicates a positive simulation test?
a. Marked improvement of straight leg raising on distraction as compared with formal testing
b. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression muscle tension and tremor
c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the
same plane as the patient stands.
d. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis.
c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the
same plane as the patient stands.
A therapist positions a client in sidelying and performs a talar tilt test. A positive talar tilt test indicates
a. Deltoid ligament injury
b. Excessive tibial torsion
c. Ligamentous instability
d. Muscular instability
e. Calcaneofibular ligament injury
e. Calcaneofibular ligament injury
A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client’s knee by completing a series of special tests. The most
accurate way to determine if the client’s ligamentous integrity is compromised is to
a. instruct the referring physician to order radiographs.
b. compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology
c. compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology.
d. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.
e. compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms.
d. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.
A patient is unable to complete full range of hip flexion against gravity. The most appropriate position to observe
hip flexion with gravity eliminated is ________.
a. Supine
b. Half sitting
c. Sitting
d. Sidelying
d. Sidelying
The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT
a. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is
no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
b. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the
point of discomfort or pain
c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain
d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may
be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve
e. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees
a. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is
no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
A patient is seen walking on the ball of the foot with the heel off the ground on one of his lower limbs. One can
conclude that he has ________.
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Pes valgus
c. Pes equines
d. Genu varum
c. Pes equines
In trochanteric bursitis, ______.
I. Pain and tenderness may develop in the lateral thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas.
II. Results from friction between the femoral nerve and the greater trochanter.
III. There is marked tenderness to superficial palpation immediately above or posterior to the greater
trochanter
IV. Treatment usually consists of rest, immobilization, and local heat
V. There is immediate relief of pain after peritrochanteric injection with corticosteroid and local
anaesthetic.
a. I, III and V
b. II, III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, IV and V
d. I, IV and V
The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: __________.
a. Oxoplasmosis
b. Syphilis
c. Meningitis
d. Rubella
c. Meningitis
In the anterior approach in total hip replacement, the position of maximal instability is
I. Abduction
II. Adduction
III. external rotation
IV. internal rotation
V. circumduction
a. I and IV
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
c. II and III
The following describe the modified Thomas test, EXCEPT:
a. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge of a treatment table far enough to allow the knee to bend
freely.
b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip and knee toward the
chest while lying supine
c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the pelvis.
d. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 80 degrees of knee flexion.
e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.
e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.
There is avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. The position/attitude of
the hip joint in the different designs of orthoses indicated for this case include:
a. Full extension
b. Flexion
c. Internal rotation
d. Hyperabduction
e. External rotation
c. Internal rotation
Abnormality in which chromosome causes majority of Down Syndrome cases?
a. 21
b. 17
c. 23
d. 19
a. 21
These primitive reflexes are present at birth EXCEPT:
a. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
b. Rooting
c. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
d. Moro
a. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
A twelve-month-old child with cerebral palsy demonstrates an abnormal persistence of the positive support reflex.
During therapy this would most mainly interfere with ______ activities.
a. Standing
b. Prone on elbows
c. Supine
d. Sitting
a. Standing
The avascular stage is the _______ stage of Legg Calves Perthes.
a. Fourth
b. Second
c. First
d. Third
c. First
A therapist begins gait training on a patient three days status post cemented total hip replacement. What weight-
bearing status would be the most appropriate for the patient?
a. Non weight bearing
b. weight bearing as tolerated
c. partial weight bearing
d. weight bearing with a 10 kg weight
e. full weight bearing
c. partial weight bearing
The following statements describe Down syndrome EXCEPT:
a. In children 1-6 years of age, postural responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore inefficient for
maintaining stability.
b. Attainment of early motor milestones is thought to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity
in some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia.
c. The presence of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not
result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms.
d. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength
and visual motor controls the group without.
e. Deficits in eye-hand coordination, laterality, and visual control were present in older children.
d. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength
and visual motor controls the group without.
The following statements apply to skeletal traction EXCEPT
a. Lifting the weights releases traction causing violent muscle contractions and must be avoided
b. Pin or wire used in used skeletal traction connects to a U-Shaped bow or caliper
c. Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the
chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site
d. Usually applied for extended periods, and using pins, wires or tongs, force is exerted directly on one or more
bones
e. Skull tongs are used for long-term thoracic fracture or for critical dislocation
c. Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the
chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site
- Hip and knee replacement clients are referred to rehabilitation on ______________.
a. Second week
b. Third and fifth day
c. Third week
d. Immediately after surgery
d. Immediately after surgery
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Osteochondritis Dissecans?
a. More common among males
b. Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues
c. More common among females
d. Usually occurs following a trauma
a. More common among males
Malalignment syndrome of the knee is caused by __________.
I. Hypermobility of the patella
II. External tibial torsion
III. Femoral anteversion
IV. Oversupination
a. II and IV
b. I, II and III
c. II, III and IV
d. II only
b. I, II and III
Which of the following findings suggest a congenital hip dislocation in a newborn child?
I. (+) Trendelenberg
II. (+) barlow’s
III. Adductor tightness
IV. Limping gait
a. III and IV
b. I and II
c. II, III, and IV
d. II and III
d. II and III
A therapist attempts to schedule a client for an additional therapy session after completing the initial examination.
The physician referral indicates the client is to be seen two times a week. The therapist suggests several possible
times to the client, but the client insists she can only come in on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. The therapist would like to
accommodate the client, but already has two clients scheduled at that time. The most appropriate action is to:
___________.
a. Inform the referring physician the client only will be seen once this week in therapy
b. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.
c. Attempt to move one of the client’s scheduled on Wednesday at 4:30 pm to a different time
d. Schedule the client on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.
b. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.
Which is the point of reference for the Q angle?
a. Anterior superior iliac spine
b. Center of the patella
c. Posterior inferior iliac spine
d. Tibial tuberosity
b. Center of the patella
From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13-15 degrees. An increase in this angle, a
factor in in-toeing, is called _______________.
a. Retroversion
b. Coxa vara
c. Coxa valga
d. Anteversion
d. Anteversion
The following condition/s is/are considered LEAST damaging in nerve injuries.
a. Crush or stretch injury
b. Clean, simple laceration
c. Mixing of fibers as in higher level lesions
d. Avulsion lesions
c. Mixing of fibers as in higher level lesions
This outcome measure of intervention in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome was reported to be 4 times
more responsive to clinical improvement than measures of neuromuscular impairment.
a. 2-point discrimination
b. Light touch with monofilaments
c. Functional Status Scale
d. Symptoms Severity Scale
e. Manual muscle test
d. Symptoms Severity Scale
In the adult, the subarachnoid space ends inferiorly at the level of
a. Coccyx.
b. lower border of L1.
c. sacral promontory.
d. S2-S3.
e.S5
d. S2-S3.
The primary impairment in patients diagnosed with cerebellar cerebral vascular accident is:
a. Impaired speech
b. Visual field cuts
c. Decreased balance and coordination
d. Impaired comprehensive skills
c. Decreased balance and coordination
The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:
a. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change
b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve
c. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders
d. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical
b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve
Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable, nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of
the trunk, face or extremities.
a. Myoclonus
b. Chorea
c. Hyperkinesia
d. Tremor
e. Athetosis
b. Chorea
Drooping of contralateral lower face may indicate a lesion of the
a. basal ganglia.
b. cerebral cortex
c. cerebellum.
d. corticobulbar tract.
e. corticospinal tract.
d. corticobulbar tract.
The following are tie generalizations concerning the motor innervation of the hand, EXCEPT
a. Median nerve for the thenar eminence while ulnar nerve for the hypothenar
muscles.
b.
“Half-half” rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor
digitorum superficialis and lumbricals.
c. The median nerve supplies most of the flexors of the wrist and digits with
proximal attachments on the forearm and in the region of the medial epicondyle.
d. The radial nerve supplies all the extensors of wrist and digits with proximal
attachments on the forearm and in the region of the lateral epicondyle.
e. The ulnar nerve supplies most of the small muscles in the hand.
b.
“Half-half” rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor
digitorum superficialis and lumbricals.
