Psychotic Disorders--General + Stahls Minibook + Trials Flashcards

1
Q

what defines the family of disorders known as the “schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders” (i.e what abnormalities must be present)

A

defined by abnormalities in ONE or MORE of the following FIVE domains:

delusions

hallucinations

disorganized thinking (speech)

grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behaviour (including catatonia)

negative symptoms

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2
Q

what are delusions

A

FIXED beliefs that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence

“fixed false belief”

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3
Q

what types of themes might characterize delusions?

which are most common?

A

persecutory
referential
somatic
religious
grandiose
erotomanic
nihilistic
somatic

PERSECUTORY is most common (referential also common)

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4
Q

define persecutory delusion

A

belief that one is going to be harmed, harassed, and so forth by an individual, organization, or other group

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5
Q

define referential delusions

A

belief that certain gesture, comments, environmental cues and so forth are directed at oneself

–also common

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6
Q

define grandiose delusions

A

when individual believes has exceptional abilities, wealth or fame

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7
Q

define erotomanic delusions

A

when individual believes falsely that another person is in love with him or her

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8
Q

define nihilistic delusions

A

involve conviction that a major catastrophe will occur

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9
Q

define somatic delusions

A

preoccupations regarding health and organ function

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10
Q

under what conditions are delusions deemed “bizarre”

A

if they are clearly implausible and not understandable to same-culture peers and do not derive from ordinary life experiences –> delusions that express a loss of control over mind or body are generally thought to be bizarre

i.e belief that an outside force has removed his or her internal organs and replaced with someone elses organs without leaving any wounds or scars

NONbizarre would be –> belief one is under surveillance by the police despite lack of convincing evidence

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11
Q

give some examples of delusions that involve loss of control over mind/body that are generally thought to be bizarre in nature

A

thought withdrawal (thoughts removed by outside force)

thought insertion (alien thoughts inserted into ones own mind)

delusions of control (ones body or actions beying acted upon or manipulated by some outside force

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12
Q

how do you distinguish between a delusion and a strongly held belief

A

sometimes are to make this distinction

depends in part on the degree of conviction with which the belief is held despite clear or reasonable contradictory evidence regarding its veracity

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13
Q

define hallucination

A

perception like experiences that occur without an external stimulus

they are VIVID and CLEAR with the FULL FORCE AND IMPACT of normal perceptions and NOT under voluntary control

may occur in any sensory modality –> AH most common in SCZ

**must occur in context of a CLEAR SENSORIUM*

may be normal part of some religious/cultural contexts

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14
Q

how are auditory hallucination usually experienced

A

as voices–> can be familiar or unfamiliar

perceived as distinct from one’s own thoughts

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15
Q

define hypnagogic hallucination

A

hallucination that occurs in the process of falling asleep

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16
Q

define hypnapompic hallucination

A

hallucination that occurs in the process of waking up

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17
Q

are hypnagogic and hypnapompic hallucinations true hallucinations?

A

no–> considered within the range of normal experience

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18
Q

how is thought form disorder usually inferred clinically

A

from persons speech

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19
Q

define derailment/loose associations

A

individual switches from one topic to another

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20
Q

define tangentiality

A

answers to questions may be obliquely related or completely unrelated

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21
Q

define incoherence/”word salad”

A

speech that is so severely disorganized is it nearly incomprehensible and resembles receptive aphasia in its linguistic disorganization

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22
Q

how severe must disorganized speech be to make you consider psychosis

A

severe enough to impair effective communication (mildly disorganized speech is common and nonspecific)

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23
Q

how might grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behaviour manifest

A

in a variety of ways

i.e childlike “silliness” to unpredictable agitation

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24
Q

define catatonic behaviour

A

marked DECREASE in REACTIVITY to the environment

ranges from resistance to instructions (negativism)–> maintaining rigid, inappropriate or bizarre posture–> complete lack of motor response (mutism/stupor)

can also include purposeless and excessive motor activity without obvious cause (catatonic excitement)

other features–> repeated stereotyped movements, staring, grimacing, mutism, echoing of speech

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25
Q

are catatonic symptoms always/only seen in schizophrenia?

A

NO

often associated with this but catatonia is NONSPECIFIC and may occur in other mental disorders (i.e bipolar, depressive disorders) and in medical conditions

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26
Q

what types of symptoms account for a substantial portion of the morbidity associated with schizophrenia

A

negative symptoms

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27
Q

do you often see negative symptoms with other psychotic disorders

A

no not as much

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28
Q

which two negative symptoms are particularly prominent in SCZ

A

diminished emotional expression

+

avolition

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29
Q

define “diminished emotional expression” as a negative symptom

A

includes reductions in the expression of emotions in the face, eye contact, intonantion of speech (prosody), and movements of hands, head, face that normally give emotional emphasis to speech

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30
Q

define avolition

A

decrease in motivated self-initiated purposeful activities

may sit for long periods of time and show little interest in participating in work or social activities

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31
Q

list all the negative symptoms

A

diminished emotional expression

avolition

alogia

anhedonia

asociality

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32
Q

define alogia

A

diminished speech output

33
Q

define anhedonia

A

decreased ability to experience pleasure from positive stimuli or a degradation in recollection of pleasure previously experienced

34
Q

define asociality

A

apparent lack of interest in social interactions

35
Q

is schizotypal PD considered within the schizophrenia spectrum

A

yes

but abnormalities of beliefs, thinking, and perception are below threshold for dx of psychotic disorder

36
Q

which 2 disorders are defined by abnormalities limited to one domain only of pschosis

A

delusional disorder (delusions only)

catatonia only

37
Q

list disorders that can be accompanied by catatonia

A

neurodevelopmental

psychotic

bipolar

depressive

other

38
Q

how do you assess severity of psychotic disorders

A

there are “assessment measures” included in the DSM that can help assess for severity to help with treatment planning, prognostic decision making and research

there are also dimensional assessments for primary symptoms of psychosis like delusions and hallucinations

39
Q

is schizoaffective disorder considered a distinct nosological category

A

there is growing evidence that it is NOT

40
Q

define psychosis

A

narrowest and current definition: hallucinations and delusions, with lack of reality testing or insight

41
Q

what conditions should you suspect if someone presents with olfactory hallucinations

A

schizophrenia spectrum disorders

temporal lobe seizures

brain neoplasms

Parkinsons disease

42
Q

what is the most common type of hallucination in primary psychiatric disorders

A

AH

43
Q

are command hallucinations an independent predictor of suicide attempts?

A

no—> only individuals who were previously predisposed to suicide attempts have a higher risk of completed suicide

44
Q

what are the most common single cause of visual hallucinations and illusions

A

migraines

45
Q

what type of dementia can be characterized by visual hallucinations

A

dementia with lewy bodies

46
Q

what is charles bonnet syndrome

A

common non psychiatric condition among people with serious vision loss ie due to macular degeneration, glaucoma, and diabetic retinopathy and is characterized by temporary visual hallucinations

47
Q

what sleep disorder can be characterized by visual hallucinations

A

narcolepsy

48
Q

what are cenesthetic hallucinations

A

a type of somatic delusion involving the visceral organs

i.e patient with SCZ reporting pushing sensation of blood or that their brain is on fire

can also be seen in parkinsons patients on dopaminergic agents

49
Q

in what population are nihilistic delusions common

A

psychotic depression in the elderly

50
Q

in what population are delusions of theft common

A

can be a prodrome for neurodegenerative conditions like alzheimer’s when individuals have in fact misplaced their belongings

51
Q

what is abulia

A

not in the 5 negative symptoms

restriction in motivation and initiation/inability to make goals and decisions

52
Q

what is avolition

A

inability to initiate and persist in self directed activities

53
Q

is psychosis a diagnosis

A

NO

“psychosis” is a syndrome, not a diagnosis in and of itself

54
Q

why do we think there is a dopamine deficit in the mesocortical pathway in schizophrenia

A

COULD result from ongoing DEGENERATION due to gutamate excitotoxicity or from a NEURODEVELOPMENTAL impairement in the glutamatergic system

55
Q

what other neurotransmitters have been hypothesized to be implicated in the etiology of schizophrenia in addition to dopamine

A

glutamate

serotonin

56
Q

which dopamine pathway is responsible for the development of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

mesolimbic

57
Q

which dopamine pathway is responsible for the development of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

mesocortical (to the DLPFC and VMPFC)

58
Q

which dopamine pathway is responsible for the development of the affective symptoms of schizophrenia

A

mesocortical to the VMPFC

59
Q

which dopamine pathway is responsible for the development of the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

mesocortical to the DLPFC

60
Q

what is the NMDA receptor theory of schizophrenia

A

theory that NMDA receptor hypofunction may be related to symptoms of schizophrenia

based on observation that ingestion of PCP–an NMDA receptor antagonist–basically causes same sx of schizophrenia, including positive sx, affective sx like blunted affect, negative sx like social withdrawal and cognitive sx like executive dysfunction

61
Q

how does glutamate interact with dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway

A

bascially: TONIC INHIBITION of dopamine in mesolimbic pathway

descending cortico-brainstem glutamate pathway normally acts as BRAKE for mesolimbic dopamine pathway via GABA interneurons –> tonic inhibition

if glutamate projections are HYPOACTIVE –> brake released–> hyperqactive mesolimbic dopamine system–> may explain positive sx schizophrenia

a theory!

62
Q

how does glutamate normally interact with the mesocortical pathway

A

basically: usually TONICALLY EXCITE mesocortical dopamine pathway

act as dopamine neuron accelerators in this pathway

if glutamate is hypoactive in this pathway–> no tonic excitation–> hypoactive dopamine in mesocortical pathway

a theory!

63
Q

where do ascending 5HT projections originate from in the brain

A

raphe nucleus in brainstem

64
Q

how does stimulation of 5HT1A receptors affect dopamine release

A

increases dopamine release

65
Q

how does stimulation of 5HT2A receptors affect dopamine release

A

inhibits dopamine release (dopamine “brake”)

66
Q

how does stimulation of 5HT1A receptors affect glutamate release

A

inhibits glutamate release (glutamate “brake”)

67
Q

what was the research questions in the CATIE phase 1 trial

A

are there measurable differences in effectiveness between antipsychotics (risperidone vs olanzapine vs ziprasidone vs quetiapine vs perphenazine) in the treatment of patients with schizophrenia?

68
Q

when was CATIE phase 1 trial published

A

2005

69
Q

how was CATIE phase 1 run?

A

patients with schizophrenia were randomized to one of the 5 APs in the trial

double blind

70
Q

what was the primary endpoint for the CATIE trial phase 1

A

all cause discontinuation

(meant to try and incorporate both participant and clinician considerations in determining efficacy in treatment)

secondary outcomes: scores on the PANSS and “successful treatment time”

71
Q

what % of people discontinued treatment with the medication they were randomized to prior to the end of the first phase of the trial

A

74%

72
Q

what does CATIE stand for

A

clinical antipsychotic trials of intervention effectiveness

73
Q

what were the results of the CATIE trial phase I (beyond the 74% that discontinued)

A

–time to discontinuation for any reason was longest for olanzapine (not significant)

–time to discontinuation due to lack of efficacy was longest for olanzapine

–no difference between meds in time to discontinuation due to SEs though rates of d/c due to SEs were highest for olanzapine and lowest for risperidone

–“successful tx time” = longest for olanzapine

–those on olanzapine less likely to be hospitalized due to worsening psychotic sx and biggest improvement in PANSS

–olanzapine had ore weight gain, dyslipidemia

–no significant diff in EPS between meds though those on perphenazine more likely to stop due to PES

74
Q

summarize the implications of the CATIE trial

A

nearly 3/4 of patients with schizophrenia stopped or changed their AP within 18 months of initiation

ppl remained on olanzapine for longer compared to others

the FGA (perphenazine) was overall comparable to the SGAs in the study

olanzapine seemed to be most effective but most intolerable

75
Q

what dud the CUTLASS trial stand for

A

cost utility of atypical antipsychotics

76
Q

what was the research questions in the CUTLASS trial

A

are SGAs better than FGAs for those with schizophrenia needing an antipsychotic CHANGE

also, are there improvements in quality of life and savings in health service use to justify the additional costs of SGAs over FGAs

77
Q

what is a summary of the CUTLASS trial findings

A

“in people with SCZ whose medication is changed for clinical reasons, there is no DISadvantag… in using FGAs rather than NONCLOZAPINE SGAs”

78
Q

what was the primary endpoint in the CUTLASS trial

A

total score on the quality of life scale with a 5 point difference considered meaningful clinically