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Psychology I Flashcards

Processing the environment

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1
Q

what are the two types of visual cues?

A

binocular vision (retinal disparity) and monocular cues

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2
Q

what is convergence?

A

convergence is a binocular vision cue.
when something is far away, our eye muscles are relaxed. when something is close, the muscles in our eyes are turning our eyeballs.

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3
Q

what are the different types of monocular cues?

A 
relative size
interposition
relative height
shading and contour
motion parallax
constancy
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4
Q

what is the sensory adaptation in hearing?

A

during loud noises, the small inner muscle contracts, which dampens the vibrations that go into the inner ear. this protects the ear drums from being blown and damaged. it DOES NOT work for immediate loud noises.

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5
Q

what is the sensory adaptation for touch?

A

sensory nerves become desensitized to extreme temperatures, which become saturated so that they stop firing so much

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6
Q

what is the sensory adaptation for smell?

A

able to detect low concentrations of chemcicals in the air initially. over time, sensory smell receptors become desensitized

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7
Q

what is the sensory adaptation for proprioception?

A

able to adapt sense of self and knwoing where you are with environment changes

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8
Q

what is the sensory adaptation for sight?

A

there is down regulation in extreme light, which causes the pupils to constrict and the rods & cones to desensitize

upregulation in dark situations which causes the pupils to get bigger and the rods and cones become more sensitive to light.

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9
Q

what is the just noticeable difference

A

the threshold at which you are able to notice the increase or change in any situation.

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10
Q

what did weber notice in 1834 in rregards to the increment threshold and background intensity

A

noticed that the ratio of increment thrershold to the background intensity is constant.

as the background intensity gets bigger, the incremental threshold gets bigger, this holds true for every type of sensory stimulus

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11
Q

what is the absolute threshold?

A

the minimum intensity of a stimulus that is needed to detect a particular stimulus 50% of the time.

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12
Q

what are some factors that the absolute threshold of sensation are influenced by?

A

expectations, experience, motivation, and alertness

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13
Q

what is the 50% of stimuli that cannot be detected called?

A

subliminal

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14
Q

what are the different types of somatosensation?

A

temperatures - thermoception
pressure - mechanoception
pain - noiceception
position - proprioception

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15
Q

what are the different types of timing of somatosensation?

A

non-adaptive: equal amount of space between each successive action potetional

slowly-adapting: slow to adapt to the change in stimulus. the space between the action potentials increase

fast-adapting: fires very quickly as soon as the stimulus starts, and then stops firing and then it will fire again once the stimulus stops

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16
Q

what is the location for somatosensation based on?

A

dermatomes

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17
Q

what is the vestibular system important for?

A

balance and spatial orientation

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18
Q

what is endolymph?

A

fluid that flows through the three semicircular canals that are orthogonal to each other. shifting endolymph assist our brains with sensing what plane our heads are rotating in, which ultimately causes changes in balance.

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19
Q

what is the purple of the otolithic organs (utricle and siccule)?

A

linear acceleration and gravity

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20
Q

What are the carbonate crystals in the ear responsible for?

A

they are attached to the hair cells in viscous substnace.

when the crystals move, they physically pull (acceleration and gravity) on hari cells that they are attached to. Once the pull happens, an action potential begins and sends the message to the brain.

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21
Q

what is the signal detection theory?

A

looks to see how we make a decision. Decision making, Under conditions of uncertainity.

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22
Q

There are two big strategies in the signal detection theory. What are they?

A

Conservation - always say no unless you are 100% sure that the signal is present. Bad thing about this, all rejections, some misses

Liberal - always say yes. will get a few hits, but also some false alarms

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23
Q

What is bottom up processing?

A

Stimulus influences or perceptrion

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24
Q

What is top down processing >

A

Uses background knowledge to influence perception

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25
Q

What is the purpose of the gesalt principles? and what are they?

A

the purpose of gesalt principles is to explain why we perceive things or how

  1. similarity
  2. pragnanz
  3. proximity
  4. continuity
  5. closure
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26
Q

what is similarity?

A

items that are similar to one another are grouped together by your brain?

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27
Q

what is pragnanz?

A

reality is reduced or organized to similar form

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28
Q

what is proximity?

A

objects that are close to one another are grouped together

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29
Q

what is continuity?

A

lines are following the smoothest path

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30
Q

what is closure?

A

objects grouped together are seen as a whole

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31
Q

what is the sclera ?

A

the white part of the eye.
it protects the eye and serves as an attachment point for muscles, so that you are able to move your eyeball around when you’re looking at different things

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32
Q

what is the cornea ?

A

transparent.

it protects the front of the eye and bends light a little bit. very sensitive

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33
Q

what is the conjunctiva?

A

a thin layer of epithelial cells.

it protects the cornea from friction and moisturizes it. it also protects from fust and debris

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34
Q

what is the aqueous humour?

A

it is the water chamber and the anterior part of the eye

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35
Q

what is the lens?

A

it is biconvex (curved on both ends)
it bends light a little more and is able to change shape. it can be thinner or thicker, depending on whether an object is nearby or far away.

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36
Q

what makes the lens able to be thinner or thicker?

A

the ciliary body

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37
Q

what is the ciliary body?

A

composed of ligaments (suspensory ligaments), and they’re also connected to the ciliary muscles - on both sides of the lens

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38
Q

what is the iris?

A

it is two different muscles that contract and expand, the size of the hole between the two muscles can get bigger and smaller - able to be pigmented differently

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39
Q

What is the pupil?

A

the whole between the two iris muscles.

if its dark outside, the hole is big
if it light outside, the hole is small

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40
Q

what is the vitreous humour?

A

posterior chamber of the eye. jelly-like substance.

main protein is albumin

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41
Q

what is the retina?

A

composed of a bunch of different cells known as the photoreceptors. tinted red (red-eye)

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42
Q

what is the optic nerve?

A

fibers that the retina sends through the back of the eye, so that the fibers can actually go the brain.

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43
Q

what is the choroid ?

A

it is a membrane that contains a network of blood vessels that nourishes the retinal cells and nourishes other cells within the eye. it is pigmented black

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44
Q

what is the macula

A

an anatomical name for a particular region of the eye. the center of this is the fovea.

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45
Q

what is a rod?

A 
photoreceptor
120 million
night vision
sensitive to light
periphery of eye
rhodopsin located on the optic discs
slow slow recovery
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46
Q

what is a cone?

A 
photoreceptor
6-7 million
color vision
red cones (60%)
green (30%)
blue cones (10%)
centered in the fovea
photopsin
fast recovery time
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47
Q

what happens when sunlight hits a rod in the retina?

A 
sun hits rod
turns rod off
turn on bipolar cell
turns on retinal ganglion cell
optic nerve sends signal to the brain
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48
Q

what happens when light is entering the retina? (rod only)

A
  1. light comes into the cell and changes the confirmation of 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal which also changes the shape of rhodopsin’s confirmation
  2. upon rhodopsin’s confirmation change, it gains a subunit called a transducin which contains an alpha, beta, and gamma subunit
  3. the alpha subunit activates the PDE which in turn changes cGMP to GMP.
  4. cGMP also activates the sodium channels throughout which allow the Na+ to enter the cell
  5. If the Na+ channels are not opened, that causes a decrease in Na+ to enter the cell.
  6. If the Na+ channels are not opened, that causes a decrease in Na+ entering the cell which results in a hyperpolarization
  7. Decrease activity of Na+ channels result in the rods turning off.
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49
Q

What is the location of the rods and cones in the retina?

A

rods are more highly concentrated in the fovea, which allows us to see the intricate parts of our vision.

cones are concentrated at higher levels near the periphery (low concentration of rods)

both cones and rods are at a concentration of about 0, near the blindspot, meaning we are not able to use either photoreceptor in that spot

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50
Q

what side of the brain does the information from the right visual field go to?

A

left brain

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51
Q

what side of the brain does the information from the left visual field go to?

A

right brain

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52
Q

what is parallel processing?

A

being able to detect color, form, and motion all at the same time

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53
Q

what is color in feature detection?

A

based on the presence of cones, trichromatic theory

red cones (60%)
green cones (30%)
blue cones (10%)
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54
Q

what is form in feature detection?

A 
parvo processing
able to figure out what the shape of an object is .
high spatial resolution. 
able to see all intricacies of an object
poor temporal resolution (motion)
allows to see things in color
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55
Q

what is motion in feature detection?

A

magno processing
specialized cells that allow us to encode motion
high temporal resolution
able to track things in motion
poor spatial resolution - nothing is detailed
blurry vision
does not encode color

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56
Q

what is selective attention?

A

ability to maintain attention while being presented with masking or interfering stimuli

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57
Q

what is joint attention?

A

focusing of attention on an object by two separate individuals.

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58
Q

what is divided attention?

A

when an individual must perform two tasks which require attention simultaneously

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59
Q

what is directed attention?

A

allows attention to be focused sustainable on a single task

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60
Q

what is photopic vision

A

high light levels

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61
Q

what is mesonic vision?

A

occurs at dawn or dusk and involves both rods and cones

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62
Q

what is scotopic vision?

A

very low light

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63
Q

what is the path of a sound wave once it hits the ear?

A
  1. pinna
  2. auditory canal (external auditory meatus)
  3. eardrum (tympanic membrane)
  4. malleus
  5. incus
  6. stapes
  7. elliptical window (oval window)
  8. cochlea (fluid inside moving)
  9. circular/round window
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64
Q

where is the organ of corti located?

A

inside the cochlea. which contains both the basilar and tectorial membrane

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65
Q

where are hair cells located?

A

hair cells are located throughout the organ of corti. they vibrate back and forth when there is movement of the fluid inside the

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66
Q

what are kinocilium

A

small filaments that are located at the top of the hair bundle, which are linked together by tip links

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67
Q

how are the top links connected to the kinocilium?

A

via potassium channels that are located on the kinocilium, which ultimately allows potassium on the outside to enter the hair cells.

there are also Ca+ channels located on the hair cells.

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68
Q

what happens when the Ca+ and K+ channels on the hair cell are activated?

A

they will cause an action potential that will activate the spiral ganglion cell which then activates cells that communicate with

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69
Q

what are the sounds frequencies that humans are able to hear?

A

20Hz-20,000Hz

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70
Q

which hair cells have the higher frequency?

A

hair cells close to the base

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71
Q

which hair cells have the lower frequency?

A

hair cells close to the apex

72
Q

what is the patient diagnosis of a patient who may need a cochlear implant?

A

sensorineural hearing loss (conduction problem)

73
Q

What is the path of the cochlear implant?

A 
speech processor
transmitter
receiver
stimulator
cochlea (transfers electrical impulse into a neural impulse)
74
Q

what is auditory space?

A

the area extending around the head in all directions that is used to perceive sound. auditory space include the following features of azimuth, elevation, distance

75
Q

what is adaptation?

A

down regulation of the sensory receptor

76
Q

what is amplification?

A

up regulation of sensory receptor

77
Q

what is a pacinian corpsucle

A

deep pressure and vibration
rapidly-adapting
subcutaneous layer

78
Q

what is a Ruffini’s corpsucle

A

skin stretch
slow-adapting
dermis

79
Q

what is a meissner’s corpuscle

A

pain, temperature, crude touch
slow-adapting
dermis

80
Q

what is a merkel discs

A

light touch and pressure.
high spatial resolution
slowly-adapting
epidermis

81
Q

what is the somatosensory homunculus?

A

topological representation of the body in the brain.

sensory strip contains the somatosensory homunculus - everybody part goes to a specific spot.

82
Q

what is proprioception ?

A

ability to sense exactly where we are in space/sense of position (balance and cognitive)

83
Q

what is kinesthesia ?

A

movement (behavioral)

84
Q

what are the AB fibers?

A 
fast fibers
myelinated
conducts action potential 
high resistance
low resistance
high diameter
85
Q

what are the AD Fibers

A 
medium fibers
myelinated (not as fast as AB fibers)
conducts AP slowly
medium resistance
medium diameter
86
Q

what are the C fibers?

A

slow fibers
not myelinated
high resistance
small diameter

87
Q

what are pheromones?

A

specialized olfactory cues. it is a chemical signal that is released by one member of the species and it triggers an innate response

88
Q

what is the vomeronasal system?

A

molecucle binds to the receptor. which causes the signal to be tranduced. the g-protein receptor is followed by activation which causes a depolarization
and firing.

SIGNAL FROM THE APICAL CELLS –> ACCESSORY OLFACTORY BULB –> GLOMERULUS –> MITRAL TUFTED CELL –> ACTION POTENTIAL TO THE BRAIN

89
Q

where do mitral tufted cells send axons to?

A

amygdala

90
Q

what is the amygdala involved in?

A

emotion aggression

mating

91
Q

how much do humans rely on pheromones?

A

humans don’t have an accessory olfactory bulb, so we rely little on pheromones

92
Q

what happens when you have a stuffy nose?

A

results in you not being able to smell the molecules that are being released. the cold knocks out your sense of smell, which results in your food tasting different.

93
Q

what is the cribiform plate?

A

separates the brain from the olfactory epithelium

94
Q

what is the olfactory bulb?

A

bundle of nerves. sends projections through the cribiform plate into the olfactory epithelium

95
Q

describe how the brain is able to perceive odor.

A

odor molecule –> GCPR –> G-Protein –> ion channel –> action potential (cribiform/glomerulus) –> mitral tufted cell –> brain

96
Q

what are the three things that we can taste?

A

bitter, salty, sweet, sour, unami (glutamate)

all depend on a particular receptor

97
Q

what are the three different types of papillae?

A

fungiform (located on he anterior tongue)
folliate (located on the sides of the medial and posterior tongue)
circumvoliate (located on the posterior tongue)

98
Q

how many cells are located on each taste bud?

A

5 cells - each one is responsible for one of the 5 tastes

99
Q

what controls the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

cranial nerves 9 & 10

100
Q

what controls the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

cranial nerve 7

101
Q

what will happen if we put a salty receptor inside a sweet cell?

A

brain isnt able to differentiate between a sweet or a salty molecule, so both salt and sugar are able to activate ths sugar(sweet) cell

102
Q

which tastes are the GCPR responsible for?

A

sweet
unami
bitter

103
Q

which tastes are ion channels responsible for?

A

salty

sour

104
Q

what is the label line theory of olfaction?

A

each receptor would respond to specific stimuli and is directly linked to the brain

105
Q

what is the vibration theory of olfaction?

A

asserts that the vibrational frequency of a moecule gives that molecule its specifc odor profile

106
Q

what is steric theory of olfaction (shape theory)?

A

asserts that odors fir into receptors simiar to a lock and key.

107
Q

what is consciousness?

A

awareness of ourselves and they can occur naturally or be induced by external factors such as drugs, or internal factors such as our own mental effors

108
Q

what are the different states of consciousness ?

A
  1. Alertness
  2. Daydreaming (Natural - light meditation)
  3. Drowsiness (Natural - deep meditation)
  4. Sleep (state of unconscious)
109
Q

what is an electroencephalogram?

A

machine that measure brain waves.

110
Q

what are the different types of brain waves?

A

alpha waves - relaxed awake states (8-13hz)
beta waves - normal waking consciousness (12-30 hz)
theta waves - right after you fall asleep (4-7 hz)
delta waves

111
Q

which kind of waves can reappear in deep sleep?

A

alpha

112
Q

how many stages of sleep are there?

A

4 stages of sleep

1st 3 - Non-Rem

113
Q

what happens during N1 ?

A 
sleep and wakefulness
theta waves
hypnagogic
hallucinations
Tetris effect (visual of blocks)
falling ---> hypinc jerks
114
Q

what happens during N2?

A 
theta waves
sleep spindles - help inhibit certain cognitive effects or processes - so we maintain tranquil
k complexes - suppress cortical arousal
memory consolidation
"stay sleep"
115
Q

what happens during N3 ?

A

slow wave
delta waves (0.5 - 2 Hz)
dead to the world
walk and talk in sleep

116
Q

what happens during REM sleep?

A

eyes moving rapidly
muscles are paralyzed
paradoxical sleep
dreams

117
Q

what are circadian rhythms ?

A

regular body rhythms (internal biological clock)
control body temperature and sleep cycle
daylight is very important from regulating the body’s clock
the reason for jet lag
also changes based on age.
this is what prevents you from sleeping in.

118
Q

what is dreaming?

A

happens during REM sleep
EEG shows brain waves that look like the person is awake
each dream lasts about 5-20 minutes
dreams are not localized in a particular part of the brain.
activity in the prefrontal cortex is decreased, which is used for logical thinking and planning.
we are not aware of what defies logic

119
Q

what is the evolutionary reasons of why dreams occur?

A
  • stimulate threates so we’re ready for them in the real world
  • problems in altered biochemical state
  • byproduct of neurodevelopment and serves no purpose at all
120
Q

what are some other theories of why dreams occur?

A
  • unconscious and conscious thoughts help our brain maintain conscious flexibility (learn and be creative when awake)
  • clean up by sweeping away some thoughts and replacing them with others - memory consolidation
  • role of daydreaming and REM sleep unclear
  • perserve and develop neural pathways (normally growing infants spend a lot of time in REM sleep)
121
Q

what is the theory of dr.freud?

A

dreams represent our unconscious wishes, urges, and feelings
ICEBERG THEORY - the unconscious elementts come from our dreams
manifest conent - what happens during the dream
latent content - hidden meaning of the ream

interperting dreams can help to identify and resolve conflict

122
Q

what is the activation synthesis hypothesis?

A

we get a lot of electrical impulses in the brain stem that are interpeted by the frontal part of the cortex in the brain - it is making sense of the random impulses that keep firing during REM sleep

brain stem activity - activation
cerebral cortex - synthesization

brain circuits/activity

123
Q

what do people experience during sleep deprivation?

A

more irritable and perform worse on memory and detention takss than people who do not get enough sleep?

124
Q

why do people who experience sleep deprivation experience a higher risk of obestity.

A

increase cortisol levels which tells your body to make more fat.

you also produce more of a hormone that tells your body that you’re hungry

125
Q

why do people who experience sleep deprivation experience a higher risk of depression?

A

due to REM sleep helping your body to process emotional experiences which protects against depression

126
Q

how much sleep is enough sleep?

A

about 7-8 hours average, the exact number varies by the individual and age.

127
Q

what is insomnia ?

A

persistent trouble falling asleep or staying asleep

medication is available but taking medications too long can result in dependence and tolerance.

treatment often involves psychological training as well as or sometimes instead of medication and sometimes lifestyle changes are necessary.

128
Q

what is narcolepsy?

A

can’t help themselves from falling asleep
1/2000 people suffer frp, tjos
lapsing into REM sleep
the cause is unsure.
it is linked to the absence of a certain neurotransmitter that helps with alertness

129
Q

what is sleep apnea?

A

1/20 people
stop breathing while sleep
happens over 100 times per night
don’t get enough of deeper sleep
prevents you from going into N3 (slow wave sleep_
snoring can be an indivation of sleep apnea

130
Q

what is sleepwalking an sleep talking?

A

occur during N3 stage sleep and are usually harmless

occur more frequently in children, partially because children eperience more N3 sleep than adults.

131
Q

what is the main problem with sleep when there is an airway issue?

A

obstruction to the airways causes a significant problem in terms of breathing at night.

soft tissues around our neck may potentially relax at night and may block airflow intermittently

may potentially cause an obstruction to airflow resulting in snoring or gasping

132
Q

what is obstructive sleep apnea?

A

it is very common when there is a problem with the airways during sleep.

nighttime symptoms: snoring, gasping for air due to lack of airflow

daytime symptoms: tired/sleepy. unrefreshed.

diagnosed through sleep studies or polysomnography. looking for 15 or more apneas per hour.

133
Q

what is the main problem during sleep if there is a problem with the brain?

A

central sleep apnea

134
Q

what is central sleep apnea?

A

centers that control breathing have a problem, there is no obstruction.

looking for 5 or more of the apneas per hour during sleep

problem with brain’s control system for ventilation.

CHEYENNE STOKES BREATHING results of heart failure, stroke, and renal failure.

135
Q

what problems do you have when there is an issue with the lungs inflating and deflating during sleep?

A

hypoventilation disorder.
buildup of carbon dioxide and not enough oxygen
medications can depress respiratory system
polycythemia

136
Q

what can a buildup of CO2 eventually lead to in a problem with hypoventilation issues?

A

right sided heart failure

137
Q

what can a decrease of O2 eventually lead to in a problem with hypoventilation issues?

A

problems with brain (cognitive impairment) and problems with heart (arrythmias)

138
Q

what is hypnosis?

A

induced state of consciousness in which it can only happen with your permission. you must be relaxed and open and able to focus on one thing (one location/internal breathing) . allows you to retrieve memories (dangerous), also has the ability to produce false memories. decreases brain activity and can assist in controlling pain.

139
Q

what is meditation?

A

during deep mediatation, you see an increase in theta waves. during light meditation, you see an increase in alpha waves. you are to focus on breathing.

activity in the prefrontal cortex, right hippocampus, and right interior insula are increased.

ability to control their attention

140
Q

what are depressants?

A

psychoactive drugs that decrease body’s basic functions and neuroactivity. decrease heart rate, processing time, and reaction time.

141
Q

what is alcohol.

A

a depressant drug. it slows down your SNS (usually helps to respond to dangerous situations). it interrupts your sleep cycle (specifically REM).

ability to form new memories and synapses are reduced which is a negative inpact. and person is more likely to act on impulses due to disinhibition.

142
Q

what is a barbituate?

A

a depressant. aka. tranquilizer.

induce sleep and reduce anxiety. decrease CNS. reduced memory, judgement, and concentration

143
Q

what is a benzodiapene?

A 
a depressant. aka. BENZOS.
most prescribed suppressant drugs.
enhance brains response to GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter - opens up GABA activated chloride channels in your neurons which allows more chloride ions to enter the neuron and make it more negatively charged, which then makes it more resistant to excitation. 
1. short acting (insomnia)
2. intermediate acting (insomnia)
3. long acting (anxiety)
144
Q

what are opiates?

A

treat pain and treat anxiety
ex.heroin and morphine
act at body’s receptor sites for endorphins (natural pain reduces)

increased doses of opiates lead to euphoria

145
Q

what are stimulants?

A

they stimulate or intensitfy neural activity and bodily functions. it can range from caffeine to hardcore drugs

146
Q

what is caffeine?

A

a stimulant. it adds energy. physiologically addictive : body grows accostumed to them and starts to experience negative reactions when you don’t get enough. e.g. coffee drinker and withdrawl symptoms when you don’t get it.

147
Q

what is nicotine?

A

a stimulant. suppresses your appetitie. at high levels, it can actually cause muscles to relax and cause the release of neurotransmitters that may reduce stress.

physiologically addictive: body grows accostumed to them and starts to experience negative reactions when you don’t get enough

148
Q

what is cocaine?

A

a stimulant. causes the release of so much dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

regular users : during wthdrawal experience emotional disturbances, suspicion, convulsions, cardiac arrest, and respiratory failure

149
Q

what do amphetamines trigger the release of?

A

dopamine

150
Q

what do methamphetamines do?

A 
can cause a feeling of euhporia (8 hrs)
highly addictive (devote lives for anothe rfix)

long term addicts: lose ability to maintain normal levels of dopamine as their brain tries to continuously adjust to the intense highs

151
Q

what does hallucinogens do?

A

altered perceptions

152
Q

what is ecstasy?

A

hallucinogens. synthetic drug that strattles the fence of stimulant and hallucinogen

stimulant : increase dopamine and serotonin leading to euphoric feelings

increase CNS, BP, dehydration, over-heating

can damage neurons that produce serotonin –> results in a permanently depressed mood.

hallucinogen causes you to perceive things that aren’t there.

153
Q

what is LSD?

A

interferes with serotonin transmission which causes people to experience sensations that didn’t actually come from the environment.

visual hallucinations.

154
Q

what is marijuana?

A

mild hallucinogens. sensitivity to colors, sounds, tastes, and smells. decreases inhibition and relaxes CNS. impairs motor coordination and perceptual skills. disrupts memory formation.

THC stays in your body for a week.

155
Q

what is a common medical use of hallucinogen?

A

treatment of PTSD

156
Q

what is homeostasis

A

how you are able to maintain your temperature, heart beat, and metabolism

157
Q

oral route of drug administration

A

most common route.
swallow something (eating/drinking)
slowest route because it has to go through GI tract
1/2 hour

158
Q

inhalation route of drug administration

A

smoking or snorting.
straight to the brain
faster route (10 sec)

159
Q

injection route of drug administration

A

most direct
straight into blood vein
intravenous (toxins + drugs)
risk if paraphenelia is not sterilized

160
Q

transdermal route of drug administration

A

absorbed through the skin
released over several hours
eg. patches

161
Q

intramuscular route of drug administration

A

straight into the muscle
more gradual
epipen (straight into the large muscle in the thigh)
may vaccines

162
Q

what is the reward pathway in the brain?

A

dopamine is produced in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) which is located in the midbrain. the dopamine is then sent to the amygdala (emotions), hippocampus (memories), nucleus accumbens (motor function), and prefrontal cortex (attention/planning)

163
Q

drugs and the reward pathway

A

the reason why some drugs are more addictive than others is due to the fact of the degree that they are activating the reward system.

164
Q

Nucleus accumbens, amygdala and hippocampus are all apart of what?

A

the mesolimbic pathway - BIG PART of the reward circuit in the brain

165
Q

what is tolerance?

A

you need more of a drug so that you are able to achieve the same effect

166
Q

what does intoxication mean?

A

drug is entering your body. it is behavorial and psychologic effects. very drug specific

167
Q

what does withdrawal mean?

A

stop taking a substance after prolonged use which results in sickness/illness,

168
Q

what is a substance induced disorder ?

A

mood
anxiety, sleep, sexual function
psychosis - voices/paranoid

169
Q

what is a substance use disroder

A

drug impairment causing issues with school, work, home.

170
Q

what is a hallucinogen persisting perception disorder?

A

re-experiencing of altered perceptions after the cessation of hallucinogen use. these symptoms continue either continuously or episodically for weeks after hallucinogen intoxication and cause significant distress or impairment to daily activities .

171
Q

dexotification

A

flusinflushing out all of the toxins from the body. administered medications for vomiting, nausea, pain, etc. strong addictions need strong medications

ex: opiates work at receptor site for endorphins. METHADONE is an opoid agonist - it activates opoid receptors, but acts mores slowly. so it dampens the high and reduce cravings.

more effective when combined with behavorial therapy

172
Q

Nicotine Patch

A

the patch contains low levels of nictotine - medications that act on the nicotine receptors - prevents the release or re-uptake of dopamine which is the neurotransmiter that sends the reward signal to the brain –> reduce cravings

173
Q

in-patient behavorial treatment

A

residents in a hospital/treatment facility

174
Q

out-patient behvoairal treatment

A

patient lives at home or wherever and come in for therapy

175
Q

cognitive behavorial therapy

A

drug addiction
alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, methamphetamines, and nicotine.
cognitive and behavorial components
research shows the skills people learn in CBT last after the therapy ends.

176
Q

motivational interviewing

A

aka. motivational enhacement therapy
working with patients to find intrinsiv motivation to change
focused, goal-directed
can lead to group therapy or CBT

177
Q

group meetings and 12-step programs

A

Alcoholics Anonymous and Narcotics Anonymous

ACCEPTANCE
acknowledge your addiction is a chronic progressive disease that you can’t control on your own

SURRENDER
give yourself over to a higher power and accept the help offered through the power and group

ACTIVE INVOLVEMENT
meetings and activities which can include other recovering addicts becoming a sponsor

MCAT PREP (4 decks)

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