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Anatomy > Psychology Final > Flashcards

Psychology Final Flashcards

1
Q

neurons

A

primary cell in nervous system that is responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body.

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2
Q

cell body

A

part of the neuron that contains the nucleus that houses the cell’s genetic material.

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3
Q

dendrites

A

small branches from cell body that receive messages from other cells & transmit those messages to the rest of the cell.

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4
Q

axon

A

transports info in the form of electrochemical reactions from the cell body to the end of the neuron.

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5
Q

neurotransmitters

A

chemicals which function as messengers allowing neurons to communicate with each other.

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6
Q

glial cells

A

specialized cells of the nervous system that are involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing waste, and synchronizing the activity of the billions of neurons that constitute the nervous system.

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7
Q

myelin

A

a fatty sheath that insulates neurons from one another , resulting in increased speed and efficiency of neural communication.

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8
Q

resting potential

A

a relatively stable state in which the cell is not transmitting messages.
–> results in tension due to electrostatic gradient (in/outside of cell have diff charges) concentration gradient (more densely packed ions w/i membrane).

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9
Q

action potential

A

wave of electrical activity that originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length.

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10
Q

refractory period

A

brief period in which a neuron cannot fire

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11
Q

synapses

A

(microscopically small) spaces that separate individual nerve cells.

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12
Q

all-or-none principle

A

individual nerve cells fire at the same strength every time an action potential occurs.

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13
Q

synaptic cleft

A

tiny space b/t the axon terminal and the dendrite.

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14
Q

reuptake

A

process whereby neurotransmitter molecules that have been released into the synapse are reabsorbed into the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron.

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15
Q

glutamate

A

excites nervous system, memory &autonomic nervous system reactions

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16
Q

GABA (gamma-amino butyric acid)

A

inhibits brain activity, lowers arousal, anxiety, and excitation, facilitates sleep.

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17
Q

Acetylcholine

A

neurotransmitter responsible for movement and attention

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18
Q

dopamine

A

responsible for movement, reward-seeking behaviour, cognition and attention.

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19
Q

norepinephrine

A

memory, attention to new/important stimuli, regulation of sleep and mood.

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20
Q

serotonin

A

regulation of sleep, mood, appetite.

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21
Q

agonists

A

drugs that mimic/enhance effects of neurotransmitters.

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22
Q

antagonists

A

inhibit neurotranmitter activity by blocking receptors or preventing synthesis of a nerotransmitter.

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23
Q

horomones

A

chemicals secreted by the glands of the endocrine system.

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24
Q

hypothalamus

A

regulates basic biological needs and motivational systems

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25
Q

pituitary gland

A

master gland of endocrine system that reduces hormones and sends commands about hormone production to the other glands of the endocrine system.

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26
Q

adrenal glands

A

(pair of endocrine glands adjacent to kidneys) releases stress hormones (ie. cortisol and epinephrine)

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27
Q

endorphin

A

(hormone produced by hypothalamus and pituitary gland) functions to reduce pain and induce feelings of pleasure.

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28
Q

central nervous system

A

consists of brain and spinal cord.

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29
Q

peripheral nervous system

A

division of nervous system that transmits signals b/t brain and rest of body & is divided into 2 subcomponents (somatic system and autonomic system).

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30
Q

somatic nervous system

A

transmits sensory info and controls movement of skeletal muscles.

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31
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

Regulates activity of the organs, glands, and other physiological processes.

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32
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

prepares body to react and expend energy in times of stress.

active during flight-or-flight response

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33
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

maintains body functions & conserves resources.

active during rest and digestion

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34
Q

brain stem

A

consist of medulla (regulates basic functions–> breathing, heart rate, salivating, sleeping, etc.) and the pons.

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35
Q

cerebellum

A

involved in monitoring of movement, maintaining balance, attention and emotional responses.

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36
Q

midbrain

A

relay station b/t sensory and motor areas.

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37
Q

forebrain

A

critical to emotion, memory, thinking and reasoning.

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38
Q

basal ganglia

A

involved in facilitating planned movements, skill learning, and integrating sensory and movement info with the brain’s reward system.

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39
Q

limbic system

A

integrated network involved in emotion and memory.

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40
Q

amygdala

A

facilitates memory formation for emotional events, mediates fear responses and recognizes interpreting emotional stimuli (ie. facial expressions).

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41
Q

hippocampus

A

critical for learning and memory, particularly the formation of new memories.

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42
Q

thalamus

A

relays sensory info to diff regions of brain.

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43
Q

cerebral cortex

A

involved in higher functions such as thought, language, and personality.

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44
Q

occipital lobes

A

involved in processes visual info

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45
Q

parietal lobes

A

involved in touch and bodily awareness.

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46
Q

temporal lobes

A

involved in hearing, language and high-level aspects of vision (ie. object/face recognition).

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47
Q

frontal lobes

A

higher-cognition processes (ie. planning, regulating impulses and emotion, language production, and voluntary movement).

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48
Q

corpus callosum

A

collection of neural fibres connecting 2 hemispheres.

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49
Q

neuroplasticity

A

capacity of the brain to change and rewire itself based on individual experience.

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50
Q

lesioning

A

technique in which researchers intentionally damage an area of the brain.

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51
Q

transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

A

a procedure in which an electromagnetic pulse is delivered to a targeted region of the brain.

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52
Q

structural neuroimaging

A

type of brain scanning that produces images of the diff structures of the brain.

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53
Q

computerized tomography (CT) scan

A

structural neuroimaging technique in which x-rays are sent through the brain.

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54
Q

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

structural imaging technique in which clear images of the brain are created based on how diff neural regions absorb and release energy while in the magnetic field.
Cons: not safe for certain cases (ie. car accident/potential of metal in head)

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55
Q

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

A

form of structural neuroimaging allowing researchers or medial personnel to measure white-matter pathways of the brain.

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56
Q

functional neuroimaging

A

types of brain scanning that provides info about which areas of the brain are active when a person performs a particular behaviour.

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57
Q

electroencephalogram (EEG)

& list advantages and disadvantages

A

measures patterns of brain activity with the use of multiple electrodes attaches to scalp.
Advantage: Excellent temporal resolution (measures activity at the millisecond level); inexpensive.
Disadvantage: Poor spatial resolution (does not give a picture of individual brain structures).

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58
Q

magnetoencephalography (MEG)

& list advantages and disadvantages

A

neuroimaging technique that measures the tiny magnetic feilds created by the electrical activity of nerve cells in the brain.
Advantage: Excellent temporal resolution (measures activ- ity at the millisecond level).
Disadvantage: Poor spatial resolution (does not give a picture of individual brain structures).

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59
Q

positron emission tomography (PET)

& list advantages and disadvantages

A

a type of scan in which a low level of radioactive isotope is injected into the blood and its movement to regions of the brain engaged in a particular task is measured.
Advantage: Provides a picture of the whole brain (although not as clear as fMRI); allows researchers to examine activity related to specific neurotrans- mitters (e.g., dopamine).
Disadvantage: Very poor temporal resolution (takes at least 2 minutes to scan the brain, often longer); involves radioactive isotopes that limit possible participants; very expensive.

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60
Q

functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

& list advantages and disadvantages

A

measures brain activity by detecting the influx of oxygen-rich blood into neural areas that were just active.
Advantage: Excellent spatial resolution (clear images of brain structures).
Disadvantage: Temporal resolution is not as good as ERP or MEG (it takes approximately two seconds to scan the whole brain).

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61
Q

sensation

A

the process of detecting external events by sense organs and turning those stimuli into neural signals.

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62
Q

explain the steps in between sensation and perception

A

refer to p.133 or screen shot for answer

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63
Q

perception

A

involves attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense.

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64
Q

transduction

A

when specialized receptors transform the physical energy of the outside world into neural impulses.

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65
Q

doctrine of specific nerve energies

A

the hypothesis that different senses are separated in the brain.

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66
Q

sensory adaptation

A

the reduction of activity in sensory receptors with repeated exposure to a stimulus.

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67
Q

absolute threshold

A

minimum amount of energy/quantity of a stimulus required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it’s presented.

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68
Q

difference threshold still a little iffy

A

the smallest difference b/t stimuli that can be reliably detected at least 50% of the time.

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69
Q

signal detection theory

A

states that perception of a stimulus is dependant on both sensory experience and judgement made by individual.

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70
Q

review gestalt principles of form perception

A

on page 138.

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71
Q

divided attention

A

paying attention to more than one stimulus/task at the same time.

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72
Q

selective attention

A

involves focusing on one particular event/task.

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73
Q

inattentional blindness

A

failure to notice clearly visible events or objects because attention is directed elsewhere.

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74
Q

hypnosis

A

procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility (which include: -ideomotor suggestions=adopting specific actions

  • challenge suggestions= refrained actions
  • cognitive-perceptual suggestions= altered perceptions/remembering/forgetting)
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75
Q

dissociation theory

A

explains hypnosis is a unique state in which consciousness is divided into two parts: observer and hidden observer.

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76
Q

social-cognitive theory

A

explains hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility.

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77
Q

meditation

A

any procedure that involves a shift in the consciousness to a state in which an individual is highly focused, aware, and in control of mental processes.

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78
Q

What are focused attention meditation and open monitoring meditation?

A

Focused attention= accepting thoughts in a non-judgemental manner and bring focus back to their meditation.
Open monitoring= paying attention to the moment-by-moment sensations they feel.

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79
Q

brain death

A

a condition in which the brain, specifically the brain stem, does not function.

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80
Q

coma

A

a state marked by complete loss of consciousness.

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81
Q

persistent vegitate state

A

a state of minimal to no consciousness in which the patient’s eyes may be open, and the individual will develop sleep-wake cycles w/o clear signs of consciousness.

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82
Q

minimally conscious state (MCS)

A

a disordered state of consciousness marked by the ability to show some behaviours that suggest at least partial consciousness (either consistent/inconsistent).

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83
Q

locked-in syndrome

A

a disorder in which the patient is aware and awake but due to an inability to move appears unconscious.

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84
Q

tolerance

A

when the repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher does to get the intended effects.

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85
Q

physical dependence

A

the need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms.

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86
Q

psychological depedence

A

occurs when addition develops without any signs of physical symptoms of withdrawal.

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87
Q

review table 5.3

A

on page 212

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88
Q

psychoactive drugs

A

substances that effect emotion, behaviour, thinking and perception.

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89
Q

stimulants

A

category of drugs that speed up nervous system, typically enhancing wakefulness and alertness.

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90
Q

ecstasy

A

drug classically defined as a stimulant but also has hallucinogenic effects.

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91
Q

hallucinogenic drugs

A

substances that produce perceptual distortions.

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92
Q

marijuana

A

drug that produces a stimulant, hallucinogenic and relaxing effects.

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93
Q

opiates

A

reduce pain and induce extremely intense feelings of euphoria. (ie. morphine and heroin).

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94
Q

sedative drugs

A

depress activity of nervous system.

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95
Q

learning

A

a process in which behaviour or knowledge changes as a result of an experience.

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96
Q

Explain Pavlov’s dogs.

A

“Pavlov began conducting experiments in which he first presented a sound from a metronome, a device that pro- duces ticking sounds at set intervals, and then presented meat powder to the dogs. After pairing the sound with the food several times, Pavlov discovered that the metronome by itself could elicit salivation”.

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97
Q

classical conditioning

A

learning that occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response that was originally caused by another stimulus.

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98
Q

unconditioned stimulus

A

stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning.

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99
Q

unconditioned response

A

a reflexive, unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus.

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100
Q

conditioned stimulus

A

a once neutral stimulus that later elicits a conditioned response b/c it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus.

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101
Q

conditioned response

A

the learned response that occurs as a result of the conditioned stimulus.

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102
Q

acquisition

A

the initial phase of learning in which a response is established.

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103
Q

extinction (classical conditioning)

A

the loss or weakening of a conditioned response as a result of the unconditioned stimulus no longer being paired with the conditioned stimulus.

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104
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

reoccurrence of a previously extinguished conditioned response, typically after some time has passed since extinction.

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105
Q

generalization

A

process in which a response that originally occurs to a specific stimulus also occurs to different, though similar, stimuli.

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106
Q

discrimination

A

occurs when an organism learns to respond to one original stimulus but not to new stimuli that may be new to original stimulus.

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107
Q

conditioned emotional responses

A

consist of emotional and physiological responses that develop to a specific object or situation.

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108
Q

Explain Little Albert experiment.

A

Watson and Rayner coupled a loud, sudden noise with the appearance of a white mouse (that Albert wasn’t afraid of prior). Albert’s fear of white rats was generalized to other furry, white objects. Shown here, Watson tests Albert’s reaction to a Santa Claus mask.

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109
Q

preparedness

A

the biological predisposition to rapidly learn a response to a particular class of stimuli.

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110
Q

conditioned taste adversion

A

the acquired dislike/disgust of a food/drink b/c it is paired with illness.

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111
Q

operant conditioning

A

type of learning in which behaviour is influenced by consequences.

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112
Q

reinforcment

A

process in which an event/reward that follows a response increases the likelihood of that response occurring again.

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113
Q

reinforcer

A

a stimulus that is dependant on a response, and that increases the probability of that response occurring again.

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114
Q

punishment

A

a process that decreases the future probability of a response.

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115
Q

punisher

A

a stimulus that is dependant on a response and that results in a decrease in behaviour.

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116
Q

positive reinforcement

A

strengthening of a response after potential reinforcers such as praise, money, or nourishment follow that behaviour.

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117
Q

negative reinforcement

A

involved the strengthening of a behaviour b/c it removes or diminishes a stimulus.

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118
Q

avoidance learning

A

type of negative reinforcement that removes the possibility that a stimulus will occur. (paying bills on time to avoid late fees).

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119
Q

escape learning

A

occurs if a response removes a stimulus that is already present. (ie. covering ears during load noise)

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120
Q

positive punishment

A

process in which a behaviour decreases in frequency b/c it was followed by a unpleasant stimulus.

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121
Q

negative punishment

A

a behaviour decreases b/c it removes/diminishes a particular stimulus.

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122
Q

primary reinforcers

A

consists of reinforcing stimuli that satify our basic motivational needs (needs that effect individual’s ability to survive).

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123
Q

secondary reinforcers

A

stimuli that acquire their reinforcing effects only after we learn that they have value.

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124
Q

discriminative stimulus

A

cue or event that indicates that a response, if made, will be reinforced.

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125
Q

extinction (operant conditioning)

A

weakening of an operant response when reinforcement is no longer available.

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126
Q

shaping

A

procedure in which a specific operant response is created by reinforcing successive approximations of that response. (ie. toilet training)

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127
Q

schedules of reinforcement

A

rules that determine when reinforcement is available.

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128
Q

continuous reinforcement

A

every response made results in reinforcement

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129
Q

partial (intermittent) reinforcement

A

only a certain number of responses are rewarded, or a certain amount of time must pass before reinforcement is available.

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130
Q

fixed-ratio schedule

A

reinforcement is delivered after a specific number of responses have been completed.

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131
Q

variable-ratio schedule

A

the number of responses required to receive reinforcement varies according to an average.

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132
Q

fixed-interval schedule

A

reinforces the first response occurring after a set of time passes.

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133
Q

variable-interval shedule

A

the first response is reinforced following a variable amount of time.

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134
Q

partial reinforcement

A

refers to a phenomenon in which organisms that have been conditioned under partial reinforcement resist extinction longer than those conditioned under continuous reinforcement.

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135
Q

latent learning

A

learning that is not immediately expressed by a response until the organism is reinforced for doing so.

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136
Q

observational learning

A

involves changes in behaviour and knowledge that result from watching others.

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137
Q

imitation

A

recreating someone’s motor behaviour or expression, often to complete a goal.

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138
Q

stores

A

retain specific info in memory w/o using it for any specific purpose.

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139
Q

control processes

A

shift info from one memory store to another.

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140
Q

explain the process of a stimulus being passed into LTM

A

http: //revisionforpsy3.wikispaces.com/file/view/

psych. png/235577924/psych.png

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141
Q

attention

A

selects info to be passed into STM.

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142
Q

encoding

A

process of storing info in LTM (*note: not all STM goes through this process).

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143
Q

retrieval

A

bring info from LTM back into STM (when you become aware of existing memories)

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144
Q

sensory memory

A

memory store that accurately holds perceptual info for a brief amount of time.

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145
Q

iconic memory

A

visual memory - usually lasts 1/2 - 1 sec. (shorter than echoic)

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146
Q

echoic memory

A

Auditory memory - usually lasts about 5 secs. (longer than iconic)

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147
Q

George Sperling experiment

A

Involves having a grid of letters flashed on the screen very briefly with or w/o a tone. Within the tone study group, the tone seemed to elongate memory.

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148
Q

change blindness

A

when diff b/t stimuli isn’t apparent to subject.

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149
Q

STM

A

a memory store with limited capacity and duration (ie. 7 (+/-2) tool bench).

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150
Q

LTM

A

holds info for extended periods of time, sometimes permanently.

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151
Q

chunking

A

organizing smaller units of info into larger, more meaningful units. (ie. chess players & increased STM).

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152
Q

serial position effect

A

generally, people will recall the first few items (primacy effect) and the last few items (latency effect) in a list but not the ones in b/t.

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153
Q

proactive interferance

A

process in which first info learned occupied memory, leaving fewer resources left for new info.

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154
Q

retroactive interferance

A

most recently learned info overshadows older recently learned memories that haven’t made it to LTM yet.

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155
Q

rehearsal

A

repeating info until you don’t need to remember it anymore

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156
Q

explain the working memory model

A

a model of shot-term remembering that includes a combo of memory components that can temporarily store small amounts of info for a short period of time.
look up image of model

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157
Q

phonological loop

A

storage component of working memory that relies on rehearsal & that stores info as sounds.

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158
Q

visuospacial effect

A

storage component of working memory that maintains visual images and spacial layouts.

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159
Q

episodic buffer

A

storage component of working memory that combines images & sounds from other 2 components into coherent, story-like episodes.

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160
Q

central executive

A

control centre of working memory, it coordinates attention & exchange of info among the 3 storage components.

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161
Q

declarative (explicit) memories

A

memories we are continuously aware of & that can be verbalized, including facts about the world & one’s personal experiences.

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162
Q

nondeclarative memories

A

include actions/behaviours you can remember & perform w/o awareness.

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163
Q

episodic memory

A

declarative memories for personal experiences that seem to be organized around “episodes” & are recalled from a 1st person perspective.

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164
Q

semantic memories

A

declarative memories that include facts about the world.

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165
Q

procedural memories

A

patterns of muscle movements (ie. you never forget how to ride a bike).

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166
Q

priming

A

states that previous exposure to stimulus will affect individual’s response to it/something similar.

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167
Q

long-term potentiation (LTP)

A

demonstrated that there is an enduring increase in connectivity & transmission of neural signals b/t nerve cells that fire together.

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168
Q

consolidation

A

process of turning STM into LTM (hippocampus is critical for consolidation)

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169
Q

amnesia

A

a profound loss of at least one type of memory

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170
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

an inability to form new memories for events occurring after a brain injury.

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171
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

condition in which memory for events preceding trauma or injury are lost.

172
Q

explain the case of H.M.

A

H.M. was cured of epilepsy after removing his medial temporal lobes however he was left with anterograde amnesia. This helped us determine that the medial temporal lobes (or damage to hippocampus, surrounding cortex and amygdala) is involved in consolidating memories, enabling info from STM to enter and remain in LTM.

173
Q

storage

A

refers to the time and manner info is retained b/t encoding & retrieval.

174
Q

maintenance rehearsal

A

prolonging exposure to info by repeating it.

175
Q

elaborative rehearsal

A

prolonging exposure to info by thinking about it’s meaning.

176
Q

shallow processing

A

processing superficial properties of a stimulus (ie. spelling of a word).

177
Q

deep processing

A

processing of a stimuli’s meaning/function (better retention and retrieval).

178
Q

encoding specificity principle

A

retrieval is most effective when it occurs in the same context as encoding (ie. scuba example- context effects recall).

179
Q

state dependant memory

A

retrieval is more effective when internal state matches encoding state (drunk Doldy example).

180
Q

weapon focus

A

focus on weapon decreases peripheral accuracy (however damage to the amygdala eliminates this effect).

181
Q

flashbulb memory

A

an extremely detailed memory about an event & the conditions surrounding how one learned about the event.

182
Q

method of loci

A

a mnemonic that connects words to be remembered with locations along a familiar path.

183
Q

acronyms

A

pronounceable words whose letters reperesent the initials of an important phase or set out items.

184
Q

first-letter technique

A

uses the 1st letters of a set of items to spell out words that form a sentence.

185
Q

dual coding

A

occurs when info is stored in more than one form.

186
Q

testing effect

A

finding that practice tests can improve exam performance even w/o any additional studying.

187
Q

schemas

A

organized clusters of memories that consolidate one’s knowledge about events, objects & ideas.

  • Affect memory in 2 ways:
  • ->organization (fits our memories) and distinctiveness (doesn’t fit our memories).
188
Q

constructive memory

A

process in which we first recall a generalized schema & then add specific details.

189
Q

false memory

A

remembering an event incorrectly or even events that didn’t occur.

190
Q

misinformation effect

A 
when info occurring after the event becomes part of memory for that event.
6 steps to reforming procedures:
- employ blind procedures
- use appropriate instructions
- compose line up carefully
- use sequential line ups
- require confident statements
- record the procedures
191
Q

imagination inflation

A

the increased confidence in a false memory of an event repeated imagination of event.

192
Q

guided imagery

A

technique used to help people recover details of event they are unable to recall.

193
Q

Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM)

A

participants study list of highly related words - semantic associates.

194
Q

recovered memory

A

recovery of a traumatic event that is suddenly recovered after blocking the memory of that event for a long period of time. (There is some controversy as to whether or not this is valid or not.)

195
Q

problem solving

A

a means of accomplishing a goal when the solution isn’t clear.

196
Q

algorithms

A

problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules.

197
Q

heuristics

A

problem-solving strategies that stem from prior experiences & provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely situation.

198
Q

mental set

A

a cognitive obstacle that occurs when an individual attempts to apply a routine solution to what is actually a new type of problem.

199
Q

functional fixedness

A

which occurs when an individual identifies an object/technique that could potentially solve a problem but cannot think beyond it’s intended purpose.

200
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

making judgements of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category.

201
Q

availability heuristic

A

estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind.

202
Q

anchoring effect

A

occurs when an individual attempts to solve a problem involving numbers & uses previous knowledge to keep the response w/i a limited range. (ie. bargaining)

203
Q

belief perseverance

A

when an individual believes that they have the correct answer/solution to a problem they will tend to only accept evidence that will confirm those beliefs.

204
Q

confirmation bias

A

occurs when an individual looks for information that might confirm their beliefs instead of evidence that might disconfirm them.

205
Q

satificers

A

individuals that seek to make decisions that are satisfactory/”good enough”

206
Q

maximizers

A

individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every option every choice until they find the perfect fit.

207
Q

cognitive development

A

study of changes in memory, thought & reasoning processes that occur throughout the lifespan. (developed by Piaget, interested in diff ways of thinking & reasoning develop).

208
Q

assimilation

A

a conservative process, in which people fit new info into the belief systems they already possess.

209
Q

accomodation

A

a creative process, in which people modify their belief structures based on experience.

210
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

(0-2yrs) infants thinking about & exploration of the world are based on immediate sensory & motor experiences.

211
Q

object permanence

A

ability to understand that an object still exist even if they can’t be perceived.

212
Q

preoperational state

A

(2-7yrs) language development, using symbols, pretend play & mastering concept of conservation.

213
Q

conservation

A

knowledge that a quantity/amount of an object isn’t the same as the physical arrangement & appearance of that object.

214
Q

concrete operational stage

A

(7-11yrs) when children develop skills in logical thinking and manipulating numbers.

215
Q

formal operational stage

A

(11yrs-adulthood) involves the development of advanced cognitive processes such as hypothetical thinking and abstract reasoning.

216
Q

core knowledge hypothesis

A

proposes that some infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment.

217
Q

habituation

A

refers to the decrease in responding with repeated exposure to an event.

218
Q

dishabituation

A

an increase of responsiveness with presentation of new stimulus.

219
Q

zone of proximal development

A

states that development is ideal when children attempt skills/activities that are just beyond what they can do alone, but they have guidance from adults who are attentive to their progress.

220
Q

scaffolding

A

highly attentive approach to teaching in which the teacher matches guidance to learner’s needs.

221
Q

attachment

A

the enduring emotional bond formed b/t individuals. (ie. Harlow’s monkeys)

222
Q

explain the strange situation experiment & the 3 broad patterns of behaviour

A

procedure in which infant attachment is measured by observing infants behave when exposed to diff experiences that involve anxiety & comfort.

  • secure attachement
  • insecure attachment
  • -> anxious/resistant
  • -> avoidant
  • disorganized/unstable
223
Q

self-awareness

A

the ability to recognize one’s individuality.

224
Q

egocentric

A

children only recognize their perspective (usu. in pre-operational phase).

225
Q

theory of mind

A

the ability to recognize the thoughts, beliefs & expectations of others & to understand that these may differ from one’s own experiences.

226
Q

false-belief task

A

testing child to see if they can perceive what another person perceives.

227
Q

attachment behavioural system

A

which is focused on meeting our own needs for security.

228
Q

caregiving behavioural system

A

which is focused on meeting the needs of others

229
Q

introgection

A

the internalization of the conditional regard for significant others.

230
Q

inductive discipline

A

involves explaining the consequences of a child’s actions on other people, activating empathy for other feelings.

231
Q

Primary & secondary sex traits

A

1 - changes in body that are part of reproduction

2 - changes in body that aren’t part of reproduction

232
Q

menarche/spermarche

A

onset of menstruation/first ejaculation of sperm

233
Q

delay gratification

A

putting off immediate temptations in order to focus on longer term goals.

234
Q

reframing

A

learning to look at an experience through a diff frame (ie. failure=opportunity to learn).

235
Q

Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning

A
  • Preconventional morality= characterized with self-interest in seeking reward or avoiding punishment.
  • Conventional morality= regard to social conventions & rules for appropriate moral behaviour.
  • Postconventional morality= Considers rules and laws as relative.
236
Q

identity

A

a clear sense of who you are, what types of people you “belong” with and what roles you should play in society.

237
Q

List pros and cons of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

PROS= highlights that human motivation extends to a number of diff areas rather than just physiological needs.
CONS=
- fulfilling one need b/f moving onto another is simplistic & unrealistic.
- the hierarchy appear to be biased toward individualistic (Western) culture.

238
Q

need to belong (affiliation motivation)

A

motivation to maintain relationships that involve pleasant feelings such as warmth, affection, appreciation & mutual concern for each person’s well-being.

239
Q

passionate love

A

associated with physical & emotional longing for other person.

240
Q

compassionate love

A

related to tenderness & to the affection we feel when our lives are intertwined with another person.

241
Q

achievement motivation

A

the drive to perform at high levels & to accomplish significant goals.

242
Q

approach goal

A

an enjoyable & pleasant incentive that a person is drawn toward, such a praise, financial reward, or a feeling of satisfaction.

243
Q

what are the factors influencing commitment?

A
  • initial strength of attraction
  • number of barriers to leaving the relationship
  • availability of alternatives
244
Q

oxytocin

A

hormone related to feelings of trust & desire to be close to someone.

245
Q

avoidance goal

A

an attempt to avoid an unpleasant outcome (ie. shame or embarrassment).

246
Q

self-efficacy

A

an individual’s confidence that they can plan & execute a course of action to solve a problem.

247
Q

self-determination theory

A

an individual’s ability to achieve their goals & attain psychological well-being is influenced by the degree to which they are in control of behaviours necessary to achieve those goals.

248
Q

extrinsic motivation

A

motivation geared towards gaining rewards/public recognition

249
Q

amotivational

A

feeling of having little to no motivation to perform a behaviour.

250
Q

intrinsic motivation

A

process of being internally motivated to perform behaviours & overcome challenges.

251
Q

over-justification effect

A

decrease in internal motivation due to dependancy on reward.

252
Q

framing effect

A

states that when the correct course of action isn’t obvious the diff phrasing of the question/problem can produce a diff result.

253
Q

emotion

A

composed of:

1) subjective thought/experience
2) accompanying patterns of neural activity and physical arousal
3) an observable behavioural expression

254
Q

amygdala

A

medial portion of temporal lobes and fired where stimuli is perceived as emotionally arousing & is especially sensitive to fear-relevant images.

255
Q

James-Lange theory of emotion

A

suggests that our physiological reactions to stimuli precede the emotional experience of fear.

256
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

suggests that the brain interprets a situation & generates subjective emotional feelings & these representations in the brain trigger responses in the body.

257
Q

facial feedback hypothesis

A

suggests our emotional expressions can influence our subjective emotional states.

258
Q

two factor theory

A

holds that the pattern of physical arousal and cognitive labels we attach to them form the basis of our emotional experiences.

259
Q

emotional dialects

A

variations across cultures in how common emotions are expressed.

260
Q

display rules

A

refer to the unwritten expectations we have regarding when it’s appropriate to show a certain emotion.

261
Q

explain B= f(PxE)

A

behaviour is a function of the person and the envionment

262
Q

mimicry

A

taking on (for ourselves) the behaviours, emotional displays & facial expressions of others.

263
Q

chameleon effect

A

people mimic others non-conciously, automatically coping others’ behaviours w/o realizing it.

264
Q

social norms

A

(usually unwritten) guidelines for how to behave in social contexts.

265
Q

social loafing & it’s influences

A

when people put less effort into working on a task with other people.
Influences of social norms include:
- low efficacy beliefs
- believing that one’s contributions aren’t important to the group
- not caring about the group’s outcome
- feeling like others aren’t trying very hard

266
Q

social facilitation

A

when one’s performance is affected by the presence of others.

267
Q

groupthink

A

refers to stifling of diversity that occurs w/i individuals & instead having to focus on others & maintaining harmony in the group.

268
Q

normative influence

A

social pressure to conform to a group’s beliefs to be accepted & avoid rejection.

269
Q

informational influence

A

when people internalize beliefs and values of group as if they were their own.

270
Q

bystander effect

A

presence of others decreases likelihood of helping behaviour.

271
Q

diffusion of responsibility

A

responsibility for taking action is spread across more than one person, thus making no single individual feel personally responsible.

272
Q

pluralistic ignorance

A

occurs when there’s a disjunction b/t private beliefs of individuals & the public behaviour they display to others.

273
Q

social roles

A

more specific sets of expectations for how someone in a specific position should behave.

274
Q

Explain Stanford Prison study and Milgram’s study.

A

-

275
Q

stress

A

physiological reaction that occurs when perceived demands exceed existing resources to meet them.

276
Q

appraisal

A

cognitive act of assessing and evaluating the potential threat & demands of an event.

277
Q

primary appraisal

A

questioning/deciding if situation is stressful.

278
Q

secondary appraisal

A

determining how to cope with stress/treat.

279
Q

fight-or-flight response

A

a set of physiological changes that occur in response to psychological/physical treats.

280
Q

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

A
  • Alarm = recognition of threat & physiological reactions that accompany it
  • Resistance = using physical/,mental resources to respond to stressor in an appropriate way.
  • Exhaustion = when stressful experience depletes physical resources & physiological stress response decreases.
281
Q

hypothalamic-pituatary-adrenal (HPA) axis

A

a neural & endocrine circuit that provides communication b/t nervous system& the endocrine system.

282
Q

corticotrophin-releasing factor

A

what hypothalamus releases when stress is perceived & also stimulates the pituitary gland to release adrenocoriticotrophic hormone.

283
Q

adrenocoriticotrophic hormone

A

stimulates the release of cortisol

284
Q

cortisol

A

hormones secreted by adrenal cortex that prepares the body to respond to stressful circumstances.

285
Q

oxytocin

A

stress-sensitive hormone that is typically associated with maternal bonding & social relationships.

286
Q

psychoneuroimmunology

A

study of relationship b/t immune system & nervous system & nervous system functioning.

287
Q

vasopressin

A

a stress-reducing hormone released by hypothalamus & pituitary gland.

288
Q

coronary heart disease

A

condition in which plaques from BV that supply heart with blood and oxygen resulting in restricted blood flow.

289
Q

type A & B personality

A 
A= people who tend to be impatient & worry about time, are easily angered, competitive and highly motivated. 
B= people who are more laid back & characterized by a patient, easygoing & relaxed disposition.
290
Q

coping

A

refers to the process used to manage demands, stress & conflict.

291
Q

broaden-&-built theory

A

states that positive emotions help an individual broaden their thought processes to build new resources.

292
Q

optimism

A

tendency to have favourable, constructive view on situation & expect positive outcomes.

293
Q

pessimists

A

negative perception and outcome of life.

294
Q

pessimistic explanatory style

A

internally base negative events & believe it is a constant, stable quality.

295
Q

list off the big 5 personality traits/five factor model

A
  • Openness to experience = aware of emotions & intellectually curious.
  • Conscientiousness = disciplined & focused on what is expected of them.
  • Extraversion = outgoing and social individuals.
  • Agreeableness = gets along & seeks help from others.
  • Neuroticism = increased negative affectivity
296
Q

resilience

A

ability to effectively recover from illness/adversity.

297
Q

post-traumatic growth

A

capacity to grow & experience long-term positive effects in response to negative events.

298
Q

biofeedback

A

therapeutic technique that measures autonomic responses, provides feedback thereby increasing awareness of bodily responses.

299
Q

mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR)

A

goal is to help coping strategies & relaxation by increasing link b/t the body & mind.

300
Q

intergrated mind-body training (IMBT)

A

involves relaxing, posture correction, & increased awareness of body.

301
Q

brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)

A

protein in nervous system that promotes survival, growth, & formation of new synapses.

302
Q

learned helplessness

A

an acquired suppression of avoidance/escape behaviour in response to unpleasant, uncontrollable circumstances.

303
Q

compensatory control

A

psychological strategies people use to preserve a sense of non-random order when personal control is compromised.

304
Q

DON’T FORGET TO MAKE CUE CARDS FOR MODULES 13.2 & 13.3!

A

-

305
Q

negative affectivity

A

the tendency to respond to problems with a pattern of anxiety, hostility, anger, guilt, or nervousness. Thereby increasing difficulty of finding appropriate coping strategy.

306
Q

explicit processes

A

correspond roughly to “conscious” thought, deliberative, effortful, very fast, operate largely outside of intentional control.
*effects implicit processes.
Ie. Nancy is negative –> affects our perception of Nancy’s positivity and negativity.

307
Q

implicit processes

A

comprise our “unconscious” thought; they are intuitive, automatic, effortless, very fast, and operate largely outside of our intentional control.

308
Q

dual process model

A

models of behaviour that account for implicit and explicit processes.

309
Q

person perception

A

process by which individuals categorize and form judgements about others.

310
Q

self-fulfilling prophecies

A

your beliefs affect your actions, which affect other people’s actions, which then reinforce your beliefs.

311
Q

false consensus effect

A

tendency to project our self concept onto the social world. (ie. I like sports, therefore everyone likes sports).

312
Q

naive realism

A

tendency to assume that the way we see things is the way they are.

313
Q

self serving biases

A

biased ways of processing self relevant info to enhance a positive self evaluation.

314
Q

internal attribution

A

when the observer explains the actions of another in terms of some innate quality of that person. (ie. guy cuts you off=jerk).

315
Q

external attribution

A

when observer explains the actions of another as a result of a situation (he cut me off cause of a pot hole in the road).

316
Q

fundamental attribution error (FAE)

A

tendency to over emphasize internal attribution and under emphasize external attribution.

317
Q

Ingroup bias

A

as positive biases toward the self get extended to include one’s ingroups, people become motivated to see their ingroups are superior to their outgroups

318
Q

Minimal group paradigm

A

how easily people will form social categories

319
Q

stereotype

A

a cognitive structure, a set of beliefs about the characteristics that are held by members of a specific social group; these beliefs function as schemas, serving to guide how we process info about social world.

320
Q

prejudice

A

an affective, emotionally driven process, including negative attitudes toward and critical judgements of other groups. Prejudice itself is an emotional process, but it in turn is reinforced by negative stereotypes.

321
Q

discriminiation

A

behaviour that disfavours or disadvantages members of a certain social group in some way.

322
Q

contact hypothesis

A

social contact b/t people in diff social groups is extremely important to overcome prejudice.

323
Q

Ingroups/outgroups

A
  • Ingroups= people with whom we affiliate ourselves with

- Outgoups= people with whom, we don’t affiliate ourselves with.

324
Q

4 common approaches to change the public’s behaviour

A

1) Technological - focuses on making desired behaviour as easy as possible through technologies and structures that influence the person.
2) Legal - focuses on policy change; get laws right and people will behave in desired ways.
3) Economic - focuses on financial incentives and penalties; usu through taxes and pricing.
4) Raising awareness - focuses on info; get info right and educate everyone.

325
Q

elaboration likelihood model

A

audiences are sufficiently motivated to pay attention and carefully process the situation and be persuaded by the facts of the argument or the substance

326
Q

Central route (in reference to the elaboration likelihood model )

A

all about substance & how compelling argument is

327
Q

Peripheral route (in reference to the elaboration likelihood model )

A

all about style, not substance

328
Q

construal theory

A

describes how info affects us differently depending on psychological distance from info.

329
Q

identifiable victim effect

A

people are more powerfully moved by story of a single suffering person than by information about a whole group of people.

330
Q

experimental system

A

operates more implicitly, quickly & intuitively & is predominantly emotional (ie. personal experiences, images, stories, etc.)

331
Q

analytic system

A

operates more at explicit level of consciousness, is slower and more methodical & uses logic and discursive thinking to try and understand reality (ie. reasoning sing language).

332
Q

value appeals

A

audiences more likely to listen to a message that is framed in a way that seems relevant to their values.

333
Q

preach

A

one-sided appeal where you only argue for your own perspective.

334
Q

flip-flopper

A

2-sided appeal acknowledging diff appeals.

335
Q

attitude inoculation

A

strategy for strengthening attitudes and making them more resistant to change by first exposing people to a weak counter-argument & then refuting the argument.

336
Q

processing fluency

A

ease with which info is processed.

337
Q

authority

A

use of experts/authority figures can enhance the impact of message being delievered

338
Q

social validation

A

use the behaviour of others as a guide to inform us what to do.

339
Q

reciprocity

A

social norm in which people must repay others for a deed.

340
Q

door-in-the-face technique

A

involves asking something relatively big, then following with a request for something really small making you feel obligated to meet them part way.

341
Q

foot-in-the-door technique

A

involves making a simple request followed by a more substantial request.

342
Q

cognitive dissonance theory

A

when we hold inconsistent beliefs resulting in dissonance and are therefore motivated to reduce tension in any way we can.

343
Q

personality

A

pattern of thinking, feeling and behaving that is unique to each individual & remains relatively consistent over time & situations.

344
Q

idiographic approach

A

creating detailed descriptions of a specific person’s unique personality characteristics.

345
Q

personality trait

A

a person’s habitual patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving.

346
Q

nomothetic approach

A

examine personality in large groups of people with the aim of making generalizations about personality structure.

347
Q

factor analysis

A

used to group items that people respond to similarly.

348
Q

HEXACO model of personality

A

6 factor theory that is very similar to FFM but adds additional factor: Honesty-humility.

349
Q

dark triad

A

refers to 3 traits that descirbe a person who is socially destructive, aggressive, dishonest and likely to commit harm in general.

  • machiavellanism= manipulative, deceitful & self interested.
  • psychopathy= low empathy, prefer conflict.
  • narcissism = egotistical & “full of themselves”
350
Q

right-wing authoritarianism

A

highly problematic set of personality characteristics that involve:

1) obeying orders & deferring to the established authorities in a society.
2) supporting aggression against those who dissent/differ from established social order
3) believing strongly in maintaining the existing social order.

351
Q

state

A

temporary physical/psychological engagement that influences behaviour.

352
Q

reciprocal determinism

A

behaviour internal/external factors interact to determine one another & that our personalities are abased on interactions among these aspects.

353
Q

conscious mind

A

current awareness (containing everything you are aware of right now).

354
Q

unconscious mind

A

vast and powerful but inaccessible part of your unconscious, operating w/o your conscious endorsement or will to influence& guide your behaviours.

355
Q

id, super ego and ego

A 
id= collection of basic biological drives, including those directed toward sex and aggression.
superego= moral compass and values
ego= decision maker, reconciling b/t superego and id.
356
Q

defence mechanisms

A

conscious strategies the ego uses to reduce/avoid anxiety.

  • Repression= keeping distressing info out of conscious awareness by burying it in the unconscious.
  • Denial= refusing to acknowledge unpleasant info, particularily
  • Rationalization= attempting to hide one’s true motives
357
Q

psychosocial development (5 stages)

A
  • fixation= becoming preoccupied with obtaining the pleasure associated with a particular stage.
    1) oral stage
    2) anal stage
    3) phallic stage
    4) latency stage
    5) genital stage
358
Q

projective tests

A

personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires/conflicts.
- Rorschach inkblot test
- Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Critiques= low reliability and validity

359
Q

Analytical psychology

A

focuses on role of unconscious archetypes in personality development.

360
Q

personal unconscious

A

a vast repository of experiences & patterns that were absorbed during the entire experimental unfolding of the persons life.

361
Q

collective unconscious

A

separate, non-personal realm of the unconscious that holds the collective memories & mythologies of human kind, stretching deep into our ancestral past.

362
Q

achetypes

A

images & symbols that reflect common “truths” held across cultures, such as universal life experiences or types of people. (ie. Hero vs. Shadow)

363
Q

inferiority complex

A

struggle that many people have with inferiority, which stem from experiences of helplessness & powerlessness during childhood.

364
Q

person-centred perspective

A

people are basically good & given the right environment their personality will develop fully & normally.

365
Q

self-actualization

A

drive to grow and fulfill one’s potential.

366
Q

asylums

A

residential facilities for the mentally ill.

367
Q

medical model

A

sees psychological conditions through the same lens as Western medicine tends to see physical conditions (a set of symptoms, causes and outcomes with treatments aimed at changing physiological processes in order to alleviate symptoms.

368
Q

3 traits of maladaptive behaviour (referring to psychological disorders)

A

1) whether it causes distress to cultural framework
2) impairs day-to-day functioning
3) increased risk of injury/harm to oneself/others

369
Q

Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM)

A

standardized manual to aid in the diagnosis of disorders.

370
Q

5 axis system?

A

-

371
Q

Explain Rosenhan study

A

Had healthy patients complain to doctors of delusion and were sent to a mental institution. Despite displaying normal behaviours doctors believed patients to be mentally unstable due to diagnosis and therefore misinterpreted and misconstrued behaviours.

372
Q

mental disorder defense

A

claims that the defendant was in such an extreme, abnormal state of mind when committing the crime that they couldn’t discern that the actions were legally/morally wrong. (M’Naghten rule)

373
Q

personality disorder

A

particularly unusual patterns of behaviour (relative to cultural context) that are maladaptive, distressing to oneself/others & resistant to change.

374
Q

DSM-5 Clusters

A
  • Cluster A= odd/eccentric behaviour (ie. paranoid or schizoid PD)
  • Cluster B= dramatic, emotional and erratic behaviour (ie. antisocial/ borderline PD)
  • Cluster C= anxious, fearful and inhibited behaviour (ie. avoidant/ obsessive-compulsive PD)
375
Q

do we need to know specifics of diff disorders?

A

-

376
Q

comorbidity

A

presence of 2 disorders simultaneously.

377
Q

dissociative disorder

A

a category of mental disorders characterized by a split b/t conscious awareness from feeling, cognition, memory and identity.

378
Q

Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)/ Multiple personality disorder

A

person experiences a split identity such that they feel diff aspects of themselves as though they were separated from each other.

379
Q

anxiety disorders

A

category of disorders involving fear/nervousness that is excessive, irrational and maladaptive.

380
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

involves frequently elevated levels of anxiety, generally from the normal challenges & stresses of everyday life

381
Q

Panic disorder

A

an anxiety disorder marked by occasional episodes of sudden, very intense fear.

382
Q

*agoraphobia

A

resulting from an intense panic attack in public. Downward cycle, resulting in isolation and avoidance of public settings.

383
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

very strong fear of being judged by others/being embarrassed/humiliated in public.

384
Q

exposure

A

repeatedly and in stages exposed to the object of their fear so that they can work past their emotional reactions.

385
Q

obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

plagued by unwanted, inappropriate & persistent thoughts (obsessions) & tend to engage in repetitive, almost ritualistic behaviours (compulsions).

386
Q

major depression

A

disorder marked by prolonged periods of sadness, feelings of worthlessness & hopelessness, social withdrawal & cognitive & physical sluggishness.

387
Q

bipolar disorder

A

characterized by extreme highs and lows in mood, motivation and energy.

388
Q

Pessimistic explanatory style:

  • Internalizing
  • Stabilizing
  • Globalizing
A
  • Internalizing=blaming oneself
  • Stabilizing= blaming persistence of situation
  • Globalizing= expanding blaming to overall life
389
Q

List barriers of seeking mental health assistance

A

expense, availability, stigmas surrounding mental illness, gender roles.

390
Q

List pros and cons of “involuntary treatment” for mental health

A 
Pros= improves mental health, decreases cost of mental illness on society, increases effectiveness of treatment, safer society. 
Cons= unethical (strips freedom), forced medication, biased (races/low SES).
391
Q

clinical psychologists

A

have received PhD level of training & are able to formally diagnose & treat mental health issues ranging from the everyday & mild to the chronic and severe.

392
Q

counselling psychologist

A

mental health professionals who typically work with people needing help with more common problems (ie. stress, coping & mild forms of anxiety disorders) rather than severe mental disorders.

393
Q

psychiatrists

A

medical doctors who specialize in mental health & who are allowed to diagnose & treat mental disorders through prescribing medications.

394
Q

deinstitutionalization

A

mental health patients were released back into their communities, generally after having their symptoms alleviated through medication.

395
Q

residential treatment centres

A

housing facilities in which residents receive psychological therapy & life skills training with the explicit goal of helping residents become re-integrated into society as well as they can.

396
Q

community psychology

A

an area of psychology that focuses on identifying how individuals’ mental health is influenced by the neighbourhood, economics & community resources, social groups & other community-based variables.

397
Q

insight therapies

A

general term referring to therapy that involves dialogue b/t client & therapist for the purposes of gaining awareness & understanding of psychological problems & conflicts.

398
Q

psychodynamic therapists

A

forms of insight therapy that emphasize the need to discover & resolve unconscious conflicts.

399
Q

4 factors that help access the unconciousness

A

1) free association=patients don’t censor thoughts
2) dream analysis= observing dreams and what they could mean symbolically
3) resistance= keeps info out consciousness
4) transference= relive and direct emotional experience toward therapist.

400
Q

phenomenological approach

A

therapist looks at client’s feelings and thoughts as they unfold rather than looking for unconscious motives or duelling in the past.

401
Q

client-centred therapy

A

focuses on individuals’ abilities to solve their own problems and reach their full potential with the encouragement of the therapist.

402
Q

behavioural therapies

A

address problem behaviours and the environmental factors that trigger them, as directly as possible.

403
Q

systemic desensitization

A

gradual exposure to a feared stimulus/situation is coupled with relaxation training.

404
Q

aversive conditioning

A

behavioural technique that involves replacing a positive response to a stimulus with a negative response (typically by using punishment).

405
Q

cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

A

form of therapy that consists of procedures such as cognitive restructuring, stress

406
Q

negative explanatory style

A

tendency to make internal, stable & global attributions for negative events.

407
Q

decentring

A

occurs when one is able to “step back” from one’s normal consciousness & observe oneself more objectively as an observer.

408
Q

mindfulness-based cognitive therapy

A

involves combining mindfulness meditation with standard cognitive-behavioural therapy tools.
*Helpful with depression, bipolar, GAD & suicidal thoughts.

409
Q

systems approach

A

orientation that encourages therapists to see if individual’s systems are being influenced by different interacting systems (ie. family).

410
Q

psychopharmacotherapy

A

the use of drugs to attempt to reduce client’s symptoms.

411
Q

psychotropic drugs

A

medications designed to alter psychological functioning

412
Q

blood-brain barrier

A

a network of tightly packed calls that only allow specific types of substances to move from the bloodstream to the brain in order to protect delicate brain cells against harmful infections & other substances.

413
Q

antidepressant drugs

A

medications designed to elevate mood & reduce other symptoms of depression.

414
Q

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

A

deactivate monoamine oxidase (MAO) which breaks down serotonin, dopamine & norepinephrine (key neurotransmitters) at the synaptic cleft of nerve cells.

415
Q

tricyclic antidepressants

A

block re-uptake of serotonin & norepinephrine.

416
Q

selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A

increase activity of serotonin at postsynaptic cell by slowing the rate of re-uptake of serotonin molecules into the presynaptic cell.

417
Q

mood stabilizers

A

drugs used to prevent/decreasing severity of mood swings experienced with people diagnosed with bipolar.

418
Q

lithium

A

one of the first mood stabilizers to be preserved regularly in psychiatry.

419
Q

anti-anxiety drugs

A

affect the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (–> which decreases neural activity)

420
Q

antipsychotic drugs

A

used to treat symptoms of psychosis, including delusions, hallucinations & severely disturbed/disorganized thought.

421
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

a movement disorder involving involuntary movement & facial tics.

422
Q

atypical antipsychotics

A

claim that these drugs are less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects including movement disorders (most common in first-generation antipsychotics are prescribed).

423
Q

frontal lobotomy

A

procedure involving surgically removing regions of the cortex.

424
Q

leucotomy

A

the surgical destruction of brain tissues in the prefrontal cortex.

425
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

involves passing an electrical current through the brain in order to induce a temporary seizure.

426
Q

transcranial magnetic simulation (TMs)

A

therapeutic technique in which a focal area of the brain is exposed to a powerful magnetic field.

427
Q

deep brain stimulation

A

technique that involves electrically stimulating specific regions of the brain which provides immediate effects.

Anatomy (5 decks)

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