Psychology

Question 1

What are the forms of Non associative learning?

Answer 1

1. Habituation - repeated stimulation leads to a reduction in response over time
2. Sensitisation - an increase in response to a stimulus as a function of repeated presentations of that stimulus
3. Pseudoconditioning (cross-sensitisation) - e emergence of a response to a previously neutral
   stimulus simply as a result of exposures to a different but powerful stimulus.

Question 2

What are the forms of Associative learning?

Answer 2

1. classical conditioning
2. Operant conditioning
3. Social learning theory

Question 3

How is classical conditioning produced?

Answer 3

By repeatedly pairing a neutral conditioned stimulus (CS e.g. bell) with an unconditioned stimulus (UCS e.g. food) that naturally evokes an unconditioned response (UCR e.g. salivation).
Eventually the neutral stimulus alone eventually evokes the desired response (salivation –
now called conditioned response, CR).

Question 4

Who first demonstrated clasdical conditioning?

Answer 4

Pavlov first demonstrated this paradigm in dogs.

Question 5

The development of the association between the CS and the UCR resulting in a CR is called?

Answer 5

acquisition (for animals this takes around 3 and 15 pairings)

Question 6

Delayed or forward conditioning.

Answer 6

CS (bell) presented before UCS (food); the CS+ UCS pairing continued till UCR (saliva) appears

Question 7

Backward conditioning.

Answer 7

UCS (food) presented before CS (bell) – not useful in

animals; used in advertising

Question 8

Simultaneous conditioning.

Answer 8

UCS + CS presented together

Question 9

Trace conditioning

Answer 9

CS presented and removed before UCS presented –
conditioning depends on memory trace.
*A delay of less than 0.5ms is proposed to be the optimum for trace conditioning

Question 10

What is Higher-order conditioning?

Answer 10

the use of an already conditioned stimulus CS1 as UCS for the next level of conditioning and eliciting a CR for another stimulus CS2.

Question 11

What is stimulus generalisation?

Answer 11

the ‘spread’ of associative learning from one stimulus to another e.g. By exposing him to loud frightening noise whenever he was shown a white rat, eventually Albert became fearful of the white rat, even when he heard no loud noise. A similar fear response was seen when any furry white object was shown to Albert.

Question 12

What is discrimination?

Answer 12

learned responses are made only to specific stimuli and not to other similar stimuli e.g. a child may be afraid of dogs but not all four-legged animals

Question 13

What is extinction?

Answer 13

reduction/disappearance of a learned response when the UCS – CS pairing is not available anymore

Question 14

What is Spontaneous recovery?

Answer 14

refers to regaining a previously extinguished learned response after a period of time.

Question 15

What is Counter conditioning?

Answer 15

a form of classical conditioning where a previously conditioned response is replaced by a new response that may be more desirable. Utilised in behavioural therapy - systematic desensitisation, aversion therapy

Question 16

What is the principle of operant conditioning?

Answer 16

An organism learns an appropriate behaviour after many trials because the right behaviour is followed by
appropriate (desirable) consequence.

Question 17

What is reinforcement?

Answer 17

A conditioning that leads to increase in the frequency of behaviour following learning

Question 18

What is a:

1. Positive Reinforcer
2. Negative Reinforcer
3. Primary Reinforcer
4. Secondary Reinforcer

Answer 18

1. Food for pressing a lever (given)
2. Ceasing of electric shock on pressing a lever (taken away)
3. Stimulus affecting biological needs (such as food)
4. Stimulus reinforcing behaviour associated with primary reinforcers (money, praise)

*Both positive and negative reinforcement increase the desired response.

Question 19

What is punishment?

Answer 19

A conditioning that leads to decrease in the frequency of behaviour following learning

Question 20

What is a:

1. Positive Punishment
2. Negative Punishment

Answer 20

1. Points on your driving license for speeding (given)

2. A monetary fine from a parking ticket (taken away)

Question 21

Continuous (aka contingency reinforcement) reinforcement schedule

Answer 21

Reinforcement every time the positive response occurs - e.g. food pellet every time a rat presses a lever in an experiment

Question 22

Partial reinforcement schedule

Answer 22

Only some of the positive responses result in positive reinforcement – the reinforcement is determined by number of responses (ratio) or time (interval)

Question 23

Fixed Interval reinforcement schedule

Answer 23

Reward occurs after a specific period of time regardless of number of responses e.g. a monthly salary irrespective of your level of performance!

Question 24

Variable Interval reinforcement schedule

Answer 24

Reward occurs after a variable (unpredictable) period of time, regardless of the number of responses e.g. an angler catching a fish - the first may be after 10 minutes, the next after 45, then 5 minutes etc.

Question 25

Fixed Ratio reinforcement schedule

Answer 25

Reward occurs after a specific number of responses e.g. after completing 20 MCQs, you give yourself a coffee (or chocolate) break.

Question 26

Variable Ratio reinforcement schedule

Answer 26

Reward occurs after a random number of responses e.g. gambling slot machines. Your first win of £20 on a gamble may occur after 3 tries; then the next win may not occur even if you play 30 times, while the third win
may follow in quick succession after the second.

Question 27

Which reinforcement schedules generate a constant rate of response and why?

Answer 27

Variable schedules, because the chance of obtaining a reward stays the same at any time and for any instance of behaviour

Question 28

What is contingency in operant conditioning?

Answer 28

learning the probability of an event.

Question 29

What is Premack’s principle?

Answer 29

a.k.a. Grandma’s rule –> high-frequency behaviour can be used to reinforce low frequency behaviour
e.g. “eat your greens and you can have dessert”
An existing high-frequency behaviour (eating dessert) is used to reward low-frequency behaviour (eating greens).

Question 30

What is Avoidance learning?

Answer 30

an operant conditioning where an organism learns to avoid certain responses or situations

*A special form of avoidance is escape conditioning seen in agoraphobia where places in which panic occurs are avoided / escaped from leading to a housebound state eventually.

Question 31

What is Aversive conditioning?

Answer 31

an operant conditioning where punishment is used to reduce the frequency of target behaviour e.g. the use of disulfiram (noxious stimuli) to reduce the frequency of drinking alcohol

Question 32

What is Covert reinforcement?

Answer 32

the reinforcer is an imagined pleasant event
rather than any material pleasure e.g. imagining MRCPsych graduation event to reinforce the behaviour of practicing MCQs.

Question 33

What is Covert sensitisation?

Answer 33

The reinforcer is the imagination of unpleasant consequences to reduce the frequency of an undesired behaviour e.g. an alcoholic may be deterred from continuing to spend on alcohol by imagining his wife leaving him, being unable to support himself and ending up broke and homeless

Question 34

What is Flooding?

Answer 34

An operant conditioning technique where exposure to feared stimulus takes place for a substantial amount of time so the accompanying anxiety response fades away while the stimulus is continuously present e.g. a man with a phobia of heights standing on top of the Burj Khalifa or the Shard. This will lead to the extinction of fear. When a similar technique is attempted with imagined not actual exposure then this is called implosion.

Question 35

What is shaping?

Answer 35

a.k.a. successive approximation
a form of operant conditioning where a desirable
behaviour pattern is learnt by the successive reinforcement of behaviours closer to the desired one.

Question 36

What is Chaining?

Answer 36

reinforcing a series of related behaviours, each of which provides the cue for the next to obtain a reinforcer.

Question 37

What is Incubation?

Answer 37

An emotional response increases in strength if brief but repeated exposure of the stimulus is present. Rumination of anxiety-provoking stimuli can serve to increase the anxiety via incubation. This is
a powerful mechanism that maintains phobic anxiety and PTSD.

Question 38

What is Reciprocal inhibition?

Answer 38

Wolpe:
If stimulus with desired response and stimulus with the undesired response are presented together repeatedly, then the incompatibility leads to a reduction in frequency of the undesired response.

e.g. A family has got a new dog. A 3-year-old child in the family is afraid of dogs and would stay in the same room with the dog only if he could sit on his mother’s lap and had his favourite ice cream.

Question 39

What’s Bandura’s social learning theory?

Answer 39

Bandura believed that not all learning occurred due to direct reinforcement, and proposed that people could learn simply by observing the behaviour of others and the outcomes.

Question 40

What are the Cognitive processing during social learning?

Answer 40

1. Attention to observed behaviour is the basic element in learning.
2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory
3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal
4. Motor copying of the behaviour and imitative reproduction
5. Motivation to act.

Question 41

Who performed the Bobo Doll experiment and what does it show?

Answer 41

Bandura
Children watching a model showing aggression against a bobo doll learnt to display the aggression without any reinforcement schedules–> shows Reciprocal causation

Question 42

What is Gagne’s hierarchy of learning?

Answer 42

1 Classical conditioning (signal learning)
2 Operant conditioning
3 Chaining
4 Verbal association
5 Discrimination learning
6 Concept learning
7 Rule learning
8 Problem solving

Question 43

Gestalt law of perceptual organisation includes

Answer 43

Proximity = Incompletely closed figures are perceived as fully closed
Closure = Incompletely closed figures are perceived as fully closed
Continuity = Continuous items are perceived as one object
Similarity = Similar items are grouped together based on colour or shape etc.
Common fate =Things moving together are perceived as one object.

Question 44

What are the non-pictorial cues for depth perception?

Answer 44

a. Retinal image disparity
b. Stereopsis
c. Accommodation (monocular)
d. Convergence

Question 45

What are the pictorial cues for depth perception?

Answer 45

a. Size
b. Brightness
c. Superimposition
d. Texture
e. Linear perspective (rails converge at distance, wide apart when closer)
f. Aerial perspective (colour – blue mountains means a distant sight)
g. Motion parallax (closer it is faster it seems)

Question 46

What is Visual cliff?

Answer 46

an apparatus used to test an infant’s perception of depth. A pane of thick glass covers a
shallow drop and a deep drop. The underlying surfaces of both deep and shallow sides are covered with the same chequered pattern. Children of six months and older will not venture to the ‘deep side’ and this is taken as an indication that the child can perceive depth

Question 47

What is Autokinesis?

Answer 47

if light is shown from a small, dim, and fixed light source for an extended period of time in a dark room, it will appear as if the light source is moving.

Question 48

What is the phi phenomenon?

Answer 48

a perceptual illusion described by Wertheimer. This refers to the phenomenon in which a false perception of motion is produced by a succession of still images shown with fixed time interval rapidly

Question 49

What is Bottom-up theory of perception?

Answer 49

Gestalt is an example of a bottom-up theory. According to bottom up theories, perception is purely data driven and directly starts with the optic array. Piecing together of basic elements of the data gives rise to more complex systems.

Question 50

What is Top-down theory of perception?

Answer 50

Gregory’s constructivist theory is an example of a top-down theory. According to this theory, retinal images are sketchy and cannot explain the complex and fully formed perceptions that we experience. Perception is best defined as a process of using information known already to formulate and test a hypothesis.

Question 51

What is an illusion?

Answer 51

any perceptual situation in which a physical object is perceived but appears different from what it really is

Question 52

What is a hallucination?

Answer 52

an experience in which an object (e.g. sound or light) is perceived in the absence of any corresponding object in the real world.

Question 53

What are Innate visual processes?

Answer 53

visual scanning, tracking, fixating, figure-ground

discrimination (present from birth)

Question 54

What are Learnt visual processes?

Answer 54

size constancy, shape constancy, depth perception, shape discrimination.

Question 55

What is Dichotic listening?

Answer 55

feeding one message into the left ear and a different message simultaneously into the right ear

Question 56

What is Cocktail party effect?

Answer 56

the ability of people to be able to switch their attention rapidly to a nonprocessed message. The cocktail party effect shows that certain types of stimuli can elicit switching between messages

Question 57

What is Broadbent’s early selection filter theory?

Answer 57

Our ability to process information is capacity limited.
o A temporary buffer system receives all information and passes it to a selective filter.
o The selection is based on physical characteristics of the information – one source is selected and
others are rejected.

People can only attend to one physical channel of information at a time

Question 58

What is Triesman’s attenuation theory?

Answer 58

physical characteristics and semantic relevance (meaning) are used to select one message for full processing while other messages are given partial processing

Question 59

What is Deutsch-Norman late selection filter model?

Answer 59

This model rejects Broadbent and suggests that filtering occurs only later, after all inputs are analysed at a higher level.

Question 60

What is Pigeon-holing?

Answer 60

Later Broadbent revised the early selection filter theory and stated that apart from filtering, pigeon-holing can also take place.
o Pigeonholing is similar to filtering but selection is not based on physical characters; it is based on
categorisation

Question 61

What is Closed loop control?

Answer 61

when we first learn a task it is under conscious attention system

Question 62

What is open loop control?

Answer 62

When we become skilled at it, open loop control takes over. Open loop is controlled by automatic motor
processes. It is fast and allows conscious attention to be diverted to other activities

Question 63

What is Focused attention?

Answer 63

The ability to perceive individual items of information (respond discretely to the specific modality of stimuli).

Question 64

What is Sustained attention?

Answer 64

The ability to maintain a consistent behavioral response during continuous and repetitive
activity.

Question 65

What is Selective attention?

Answer 65

The ability to avoid distractions from internal or external cues and maintain a behavioural
or cognitive set in the face of competing stimuli.

Question 66

What is Alternating attention?

Answer 66

The ability of mental flexibility that allows individuals to shift their focus of attention and move between tasks having different cognitive requirements.

Question 67

What is Divided attention?

Answer 67

This is the highest level of attention and it refers to the ability to respond simultaneously to multiple tasks or multiple task demands.

Question 68

What are tests for selective attention?

Answer 68

Stroop test and letter cancellation tasks

Question 69

What is seen in psychosis/schizophrenia re: attention?

Answer 69

an underlying attentional abnormality for those
with a genetic predisposition for psychosis. The overall reaction time is much slower in patients with
schizophrenia and their relatives; sustained attention, distraction, verbal memory and controlled
processing are also affected.

Question 70

What are the 3 different processes involved in memory?

Answer 70

1. Encoding - It leads to the formation of initial memory traces and receives information from the
   outside.
2. Storage - Retention of information and maintenance
3. Retrieval - Accessing and recovering information from memory stores

Question 71

Who divided memory to primary (short term) and secondary memory (long term)?

Answer 71

William James

Question 72

What is sensory memory?

Answer 72

This is modality specific, has a large capacity but gets disrupted by the inflow of new information in the same modality.
Each sense has its own sensory memory:

• iconic (visual) lasting 0.5 seconds
• echoic (auditory) lasting 2 seconds e

No processing is involved in sensory
memory. If attention is paid to the sensory memories during perception, sensory memory gets
consolidated or ‘moves’ into the short-term memory system.

Question 73

What’s the capacity of the short term memory and how long does it last?

Answer 73

7+/- 2 items

encoding is largely acoustic

Unaided, STM lasts 15 to 30 seconds
By maintenance rehearsal, this can be increased further up to indefinite periods.
W/o maintenance rehearsal then by 15 seconds the original material is completely forgotten

Question 74

What are some tests of short term memory?

Answer 74

digit span+/-2

Normal reverse digit span in a working age adult is 5

Question 75

What is Long term memory?

Answer 75

This has unlimited capacity and lasts for an indefinite duration. The coding is largely semantic, though visual and acoustic coding can occur to some extent

Question 76

What is Semantic memory?

Answer 76

Semantic memory includes factual knowledge of the world. It is proposed to be made of multiple episodic memory components

information is stored in pure form without specification of time and place

Question 77

Who proposed a working memory model and what is it?

Answer 77

Working memory is proposed to have central
executive and 2 arms – phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad.

The central executive is capacity limited but modality free, similar to attention system.

The phonological loop consists of auditory rehearsal loops while visuospatial scratch pad consists of pattern recognition and movement perception components.

The 4th component of WM is sometimes called episodic buffer. This is a multimodal store that integrates info from the slave systems onto LTM. This buffer is important for chunking.

Question 78

What is primacy and recency regarding memory?

In organic anterograde amnesia which is better preserved?

Answer 78

Regardless of the length of a list, the initial words (primacy) and last few words (recency) are remembered better than those at the middle of the list.

recency is better preserved than primacy

Question 79

What are modes of retrieval (i.e. moving from LTM -> STM)?

Answer 79

-Recognition (solving MCQs)
-Recall (actively searching and reproducing),
-Reintegration/reconstruction (recollection of past
experiences based on certain cues).
An eyewitness testimony is a reconstructive memory, which is a mode of retrieval from long-term memory. However, reconstructive memory of events as in eyewitness testimony is affected by the type of questioning asked to elicit the memory.

Question 80

Who plotted the forgetting curve and what does it show?

Answer 80

Hermann Ebbinghaus

-Forgetting is maximum in the first few hours (NINE), and the rate of forgetting gets less with time.
-Forgetting is never complete, and some information is
retained over longer periods of time, even for life.
-Recalling the material during the test period increases the probability of remembering items
or events.
-Continuous motor skills, such as cycling and swimming, show no forgetting at all. But
discrete motors skills such as typing are lost more quickly.

Question 81

What are flashbulb memories?

Answer 81

Distinctly vivid long-lasting memories of a personal circumstance surrounding a person’s discovery of
shocking events.

*forgetting curve for the flashbulb memories is far less
affected by time than other types of memories.

Question 82

What is the Decay theory of forgetting?

Answer 82

neural engrams breakdown with time. This means that disuse with time is the cause of forgetting

Question 83

What is the Displacement theory of forgetting?

Answer 83

Displacement theory states that due to capacity limitation new info replaces old information.

Question 84

What is the Retrieval failure theory of forgetting?

Answer 84

Retrieval failure theory states that due to lack of proper cues to recall we forget things.

Question 85

What is interference theory of forgetting?

Answer 85

According to interference theory forgetting occurs due to interference.

When newly learnt material interferes with recall of old material, this is called retroactive interference.

Proactive interference refers to the interference of new learning from older learnt material.

Question 86

What’s amnesia?

Difference between anterograde and retrograde?

Answer 86

a marked impairment in episodic memory
Anterograde Amnesia: The loss of the ability to form or
retain new episodic memories after an injury/lesion/event
Retrograde amnesia: The loss of episodic memories that were stored before brain damage had
occurred

Question 87

What’s Transient global amnesia?

Answer 87

transient cerebral ischemia causing a temporary lack of blood supply to the regions of the brain concerned with memory functions.

The main features include sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia with a retrograde amnesia for the preceding days or weeks

*if this amnesia occurs without brain injury it is psychogenic amnesia

Question 88

What is Fugue?

Answer 88

a type of psychogenic global amnesia in which there is a sudden loss of all autobiographical memories, knowledge of self and personal identity. Usually, there is a period of wandering, and there is an amnesic gap upon recovery. It usually last a matter of hours or days. Memory recovery is complete after few hours or days.

Question 89

what is Rey-Osterrieth complex figure test?

Answer 89

non-verbal memory test. Here the subject is first asked to copy a complex geometric figure and then to draw from memory after an interval of 30 minutes. The recall is impaired in patients with dementia and amnesic syndrome

Question 90

what are Wechsler memory tests?

Answer 90

subject is asked to read a short story from the Wechsler memory scale containing 25 elements and both immediate and delayed recall after an interval of 30 minutes is tested.

Question 91

The average age of the earliest retrieved memory is?

Answer 91

3.5 years

Question 92

The brain areas mediating performances in STM are principally?

Answer 92

the pre-frontal lobes

Question 93

The phonological STM system is mediated by?

Answer 93

the left hemisphere regions of Broca’s area and

prefrontal cortex

Question 94

The visuospatial STM system is mediated by?

Answer 94

the parietal and prefrontal areas of the right

hemisphere.

Question 95

The brain areas responsible for LTM include?

Answer 95

the regions of the limbic system especially the
hippocampus and the entorhinal cortex of the medial temporal lobe

*Episodic memory
Semantic memory
Autobiographical memory

Question 96

Psychoanalytic theories of personality?

Answer 96

Variable and situational (situationalism)
Shared features (nomothetic)

Question 97

Eysenck’s factors and Cattell’s traits re: personality?

Answer 97

• Shared features (nomothetic)

* Consistent/enduring (dispositional)

Question 98

Kelly’s personal construct theory of personality?

Answer 98

Unique features (idiographic)
•Consistent and enduring (dispositional)

Question 99

Situationlism and Humanistic school theories of personality?

Answer 99

Unique features (idiographic)
•Variable and situational (situationalism)

Question 100

Allport’s theory of personality

Answer 100

1. Cardinal traits: influential, core traits
2. Central traits: 5 – 10 traits, less general
3. Secondary traits: least important, least consistent traits that only close friends can notice.

Question 101

Cattell’s approach to personality?

Answer 101

Surface traits are correlated to one another but not important for understanding one’s personality and Source traits that are basic building blocks of the 16 PF questionnaire devised by Cattell.

Question 102

Eysenck’s approach to personality?

Answer 102

3 dimensional traits. These are neuroticism

vs. stability), psychoticism and extraversion (vs. introversion

Question 103

Cloninger’s psychobiological model of personality?

Answer 103

four dimensions of temperament:

1. Novelty-seeking (includes frustration avoidance, impulsive decision-making)
2. Harm-avoidance (pessimistic worry about the future, passive avoidant behaviour, fear of
   uncertainty) ;
3. Reward-dependence (sentimentality, social attachment, and dependence on praise and approval)
4. Persistence (high perseverance and tolerance of frustration)

Which may manifest as 3 components of character:
self-directedness, cooperativeness, and self-transcendence.

Question 104

What are the DSM clusters of personality?

Answer 104

In general Cluster A personalities are associated with
low reward-dependence. Cluster B personality with high novelty-seeking and Cluster C personalities with
high harm-avoidance traits.

mad, bad, sad

Question 105

What is Rotter’s locus of control theory?

Answer 105

a single trait theory

Question 106

What are the Big Five Traits acc. to McCrae & Costa?

Answer 106

1. Openness
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extraversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism
   (OCEAN)

Question 107

Age related Big Five Trait changes

Answer 107

NEO decreases with age; AC

increases with age.

Question 108

Principles of projective tests for measuring personality

Answer 108

iindividually administered tests to obtain information about emotional functioning.

based on the principle that ambiguous unstructured open-ended situations stimulate projection
of an individual’s internal emotional world onto the stimulus (environment)

Question 109

Examples of of projective tests for measuring personality

Answer 109

-Rorschach is the most commonly used, consists of 10 inkblots, sequentially presented and asked
to describe. Has two phases – free association and inquiry phase –
-Thematic Apperception Test (Murray) TAT has 20-30 pictures and one blank card and the subject
has to make a story from each depicted picture; not all cards are used. Stimuli somewhat more
structured.
-Jung introduced Word Association Test (WAT). In WAT and
-sentence completion test
-Draw-a-person test

Question 110

Examples of non projective tests for measuring personality

Answer 110

Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI)
Q-sort technique
The International Personality Disorder Examination (IPDE):

Question 111

Who theorised the pyramid of needs and what are the components?

Answer 111

Maslow

physiological –> safety –> belonging –> self-esteem –> self-actualisation

Question 112

Features of self-actualising people

Answer 112

 Spontaneous in their ideas and actions.
 Creative.
 Interested in solving problems.
 Appreciate life.
 Have a system of internalized independent morality.
 Able to view all things in an objective manner.

Question 113

What is Yerkes-Dodson Law?

Answer 113

An inverted U-shaped curve relates the level of arousal with the performance of an act. Optimum arousal (moderate) is required for best performance; too low or too high arousal proves to be a hindrance e.g. sexual performance.

Question 114

Sources of high need for Achievement include:

Answer 114

1. Parents who encouraged independence in childhood
2. Praise and rewards for success
3. Association of achievement with positive feelings
4. Association of achievement with one’s own competence and effort, not luck
5. A desire to be effective or challenged
6. Intrapersonal strength
7. Desirability
8. Feasibility
9. Goal Setting abilities

Question 115

Ekman’s primary human emotions

Answer 115

6 –> surprise, fear, sadness, anger, happiness and disgust

Question 116

3 components of emotion

Answer 116

1. Subjective ‘cortical’ experience 2. Physiological ‘visceral’ changes 3. Associated behavioural (‘skeletal’) changes.

Question 117

James-Lange theory of emotions

Answer 117

Perception of a stimulus leads to bodily (skeletal and visceral) changes. The peripheral responses send feedback to the cortex via thalamus leading to the perception of the emotion.

‘Emotion is secondary to physiological changes

Question 118

Cannon-Bard theory of emotions

Answer 118

On the perception of a stimulus, thalamus coordinates signals to cortex leading to a conscious experience and simultaneously sends signals to hypothalamus leading to physiological changes.

Question 119

Schachter-Singer labelling theory of emotions

Answer 119

On the perception of a stimulus, both physiological changes and a conscious experience of general arousal take place simultaneously

This theory suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example if your heart is racing and you’re about to have an exam you label yourself as afraid, but if your heart is racing and your about to kiss your boyfriend/girlfriend you label your emotional state as excited.

Stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind appraisal of them.

Question 120

Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory of emotions

Answer 120

appraisal precedes affective reaction – hence affective primacy cannot be supported

Question 121

Serotonin Transporter and life events

Answer 121

individuals with one or two copies of the short allele of the 5-HT T promoter polymorphism exhibited more
depressive symptoms, diagnosable depression, and suicidality in relation to stressful life events than individuals homozygous for the long allele

Question 122

What are the three systems of Sigmund Freud’s Topographical model of the mind?

Answer 122

Unconscious, conscious and preconscious (Maintains the ‘repressive barrier’ to censor unacceptable wishes and desires )

Question 123

Biorhythms
What is:
1. Circadian rhythm
2. ultradian rhythm
3. infradian rhythm
4.  circannual r rhythm

Answer 123

1. sleep-wake cycle,
2. cycles lasting < 24 hours
3. cycles lasting more than a day
4. Infradian rhythms that occur as a result of seasonal changes

Question 124

What is an internal pacemaker located in the anterior hypothalamus that regulates many biorhythms?

Answer 124

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Question 125

What are external time cues that drive biorhythms?

Answer 125

zeitgebers

Question 126

The strategies to improve encoding include:

Answer 126

Using imageries
Mnemonics
sing primacy-Recency effects
Chunking

Question 127

The theory of motivated forgetting suggests that we forget things because unconsciously we want to. This is based on the psychoanalytic concept of

Answer 127

Repression

Question 128

The modification of memories in terms of one’s general attitude is called

Answer 128

Retrospective falsification

Question 129

Tests to determine premorbid IQ

Answer 129

National Adult Reading Test
Weschler’s test for Adult reading
Barona demographic equation method
Matrix reasoning subtest of WAIS-R.

Question 130

What is a common cause of absent mindedness?

Answer 130

Failure of prospective memory

Question 131

Who introduced Type A / Type B personality classification and what are they?

Answer 131

Friedman and Rosenman

Type A persons show impatience, excessive time consciousness, insecurity, high competitiveness, hostility and aggression and are incapable of relaxation. They may be high achievers and workaholics. Type B persons are relaxed and easy-going; creative, often self-analyze and evade stress but cope poorly when under stress.

Question 132

If the conditioned stimulus (CS) ends prior to the application of unconditioned stimulus (UCS) it is called

Answer 132

Trace conditioning

Question 133

Timeout refers to a technique that is aimed at

Answer 133

Time out or loss of privileges are used as negative reinforcement strategies to reduce unwanted behaviours in children

Question 134

Which tests are for abstract reasoning?

Answer 134

Goldstein’s card sorting test

Question 135

Which is unimpaired in formal testing in amnesic syndrome?

Answer 135

Immediate memory

Question 136

What is biofeedback and what can it modify?

Answer 136

Biofeedback involves the transmission to subjects of information about biological functions. It can modify cardiovascular function and is a useful method of reducing muscle tension.

Question 137

The cognitive deficit that is characteristic of delirium is

Answer 137

Poor attention span

Question 138

In studies on arousal levels related to different emotions, which emotion produces the maximum rise in temperature compared to all other emotions?

Answer 138

Anger

Question 139

What is Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of (Successful) Intelligence?

Answer 139

intelligent behaviour arises from a balance between analytical, creative and practical abilities, and that these abilities function collectively to allow individuals to achieve success within particular sociocultural contexts

Question 140

Cognitive processing during social learning

Answer 140

. Attention to observed behaviour is the basic element in learning. 2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory 3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal 4. Motor copying of the behaviour and imitative reproduction 5. Motivation to act.

Question 141

Raven’s progressive matrices test is used to assess

Answer 141

General intellectual ability (nonverbal intelligence)

Question 142

Which one among the following refers to the act of bringing past experiences as they happened into conscious awareness?

Answer 142

The process of recalling an entire memory from a partial cue, like remembering a speech upon hearing the first few words, is called reintegration.

Question 143

Information is held in the long term memory by the process of

Answer 143

Elaborative rehearsal

Question 144

Amnesic syndrome is characterised by a marked impairment in

Answer 144

Episodic memory

Question 145

The brain region thought to be responsible for majority of working memory functions is?

Answer 145

Frontal lobe

Prefrontal cortex

Question 146

What is Ribot’s law in memory disturbances??

Answer 146

In organic amnesia recent memory content is lost before remote content.

Question 147

In the alcoholic blackouts, the following type of memory loss is seen:

Answer 147

Anterograde amnesia due to failure to consolidation

Question 148

Tip of the tongue state is a well investigated example of

Answer 148

Blocking (retrieval failure)

Question 149

What are Maslow’s M deficiency needs (D motives) and growth/being needs (B motives)

Answer 149

deficiency needs - Safety needs, Physiological needs, Love and belonging needs, Esteem needs

Question 150

The commonest cause of long-term forgetting is

Answer 150

Retrieval failure

Question 151

Of all sensory systems, the system least developed at birth is?

Answer 151

Vision

Visual acuity reaches near adult levels by 6 months of age

Question 152

What is the perceptual set?

Answer 152

perceptual bias that predisposes the perceiver to notice only certain aspects of a stimulus and to ignore the other aspect

• determined by factors both in the perceiver and in the stimulus
• influenced by Emotions
• influenced by past experiences

Question 153

What are the 2 parts of attitudes?

Answer 153

-Beliefs are based on our knowledge of the world and link an object to an attribute. They
are non-evaluative and objective e.g. ‘USA is a nation built on capitalism’.
-Values relate to the importance or desirability of the object. It is largely subjective and has
preferential patterns attached e.g. ‘I do not like capitalism’. Values can turn beliefs to
attitudes – ‘I dislike American people’.

Question 154

What is the Three-component model of attitudes?

Answer 154

1. Affective component: what the person feels about the object (favourable/ unfavourable
   evaluations) – e.g. I love chocolate
2. Cognitive component: thoughts, beliefs, knowledge about the object – e.g. Chocolate keeps me active
3. Behavioural component: actual or intended responses to the object e.g. I eat chocolate
   every day

Question 155

What are the Functions of attitudes?

Answer 155

-Knowledge function: attitudes are frames of reference that simplify the world, help make quick appraisals
-Value expressive function: reflect fundamental self-concepts – self-expressive and maintains personal integrity e.g. vegetarianism
-Social adjustment function: help to function in a group setting, social acceptance
-Ego-defensive function protects from character or personal deficiencies – this function
makes attitudes very resistant to change

Question 156

What is Cognitive dissonance theory?

Who coined it?

Answer 156

People strive for consistency between thoughts, feelings and actions. If there is a discrepancy
between different attitudes (cognitive dissonance) or between attitudes and behaviours (attitude-behaviour discrepancy), then this initiates and drives either a change in attitudes (more common) or a change in behaviours

Coined by Festinger

Question 157

What is the 1-Dollar 20-Dollar experiment?

Answer 157

All subjects in an experiment were asked to do a very boring repetitive task for 30 minutes. The first group was a control group; the second group (called 1-
dollar group) was paid $1 to say that the task was fun and interesting, the third group (called 20-dollar group) was paid $20 to say that the task was fun and interesting. All participants were asked to rate how enjoyable they had found the task. Contrary to popular belief, the group, which was paid more, did not appreciate the boring task.

As they obtained a good incentive, they
did not develop a dissonance. They lied about its usefulness but in fact they did not change their
belief about the boring nature of this task. In contrast, the lowly paid group did experience a cognitive dissonance between the two facts - ‘This task is boring’ and ‘I am doing this task without much incentive’, hence they changed their initial attitude towards the task and, in fact, started liking the task

Question 158

How to reduce dissonance apart from modifying attitudes or behaviours?

Answer 158

1. Removal or denial of the dissonant cognition
2. Trivialising the dissonant cognition
3. Adding a new consonant cognition to counterbalance the dissonance

Question 159

What is the Thurstone scale?

Answer 159

measures attitudes
hundreds of statements are produced pertaining to a particular topic. These statements are presented to a
sample (similar to a panel of judges) who is asked to score the statements on an 11 point scale. A set number of statements e.g. 10 each on both extremes (positive and negativeattitude) are chosen based on the consistency of scores given by the judges.

Question 160

What is a Likert scale?

Answer 160

measures attitudes
includes graded ‘agree’ to ‘disagree’ measures. This is one of the most popular and statistically more reliable measures. It is easy to construct, and no assumptions are made about the equality of intervals

Five responses to each statement

Question 161

What is Sociometry?

Answer 161

used to measure interpersonal attitudes in a repertory grid-like fashion i.e. who like whom tables. These are called sociograms.

Question 162

What is Osgood’s semantic differential scale?

Which bias might it be subjec to?

Answer 162

used to measure verbally expressed attitudes. s. It
allows different attitudes about a particular topic to be measured on the same scale

7 points on the scale

It may be subject to positional response bias.

Question 163

What is the Theory of looking glass self?

Answer 163

by Cooley suggests that like a mirror,
others around us reflect our self-image

*We develop self-concept by Reaction of others

Question 164

What is touching the dot experiment?

aka rouge test

Answer 164

It demonstrates Self-recognition
When a red dot is unknowingly placed on the face of a child, the child starts touching its face to
explore the dot when a mirror is shown. This ‘touching the dot’ phenomenon does not occur less
than 15 months of age. 5 to 25% infants touch the dot by 18 months while nearly 75% touch the
dot by age 20 months.

Question 165

What is attribution?

Answer 165

This is the process by which we make judgments about causes of behaviour.

We tend to attribute behaviours to events that co-vary with those behaviours over time. e.g. if A
is an event that occurs when the behaviour B is observed, then we often assume A causes B

Question 166

What is required to make an appropriate attribution?

Answer 166

1. Consensus (if consensus is low = dispositional attribution)
2. Distinctiveness (If distinctiveness is high, stimulus or target is considered to be at fault)
3. Consistency (if consistency is low = situational attribution)

Question 167

What are the three dimensions of Weiner’s systematic attributional theory?

Answer 167

1. Locus: external/internal
2. Stability: transient/permanent
3. Controllability: controllable/uncontrollable

Question 168

What is Fundamental attribution error or correspondence bias?

Answer 168

o overestimating dispositional factors and not situational factors while attributing causes for other’s behaviours.

*Attributing others mistakes to their personal dispositions

Question 169

What is Actor-observer effect?

Answer 169

When one is involved as an agent in a specific behaviour then he/she attributes external causality to the behaviour

Question 170

What is Self-serving bias (SSB)?

Answer 170

The actor observer effect is most pronounced when judging negative behaviours This may be absent or reversed for positive behaviours. Hence such self-serving bias offers self enhancement and defense.

Question 171

What is Just world hypothesis?

Answer 171

the idea that ‘I am a just person living in a just world; everyone here gets what they really deserve’. ‘Bad things happen to bad people’, leading to blaming-the-victim culture.

Question 172

What is False consensus effect?

Answer 172

the tendency to view other person’s behaviour to be representative of a group’s behaviour (culture or racial stereotypes are thus
formed).

Question 173

What is Halo effect?

Answer 173

The tendency to perceive other persons as wholly good or bad based on few observed traits (e.g. physical attractiveness); i.e. making inferences about people using limited, superficial information

Question 174

What is Pygmalion effect or Rosenthal effect?

Answer 174

A form of self-fulfilling prophecy wherein students
with poor expectations from their teachers internalize their negative label and perform
poorly, and those with positive expectations internalise their positive labels and succeed
academically

Question 175

What is Theory of Mind (ToM) and when does it develop?

Answer 175

Theory of Mind (ToM) develops around age 3 ½ to 4 years. ToM refers to the understanding that
other persons do have mental processes similar to self; in this context it forms an essential part of
the social attribution process.

Question 176

What is Sally-Anne Test?

Answer 176

Children are first shown the picture of Sally,
leaving a chocolate on the counter before departing the scene. Anne later comes in and moves the
object from the counter to a box. The children are then asked to predict where Sally will look for
the chocolate when she returns to the room. Children aged 4 and above generally grasp the
notion that Sally will hold a false belief and look at the place where she left the chocolate initially.
3-year-olds fail to ascribe this false belief to Sally.

Question 177

What is the deceptive container task?

Answer 177

A child is shown a closed candy container and is asked, “What’s in here?” When the child answers ‘candy’, the container is opened, revealing a pencil. Later when the child is asked what she originally thought was in the container when she was first asked,
Three-year-olds incorrectly answer “a pencil,” demonstrating a lack of false belief whereas 4-
year-olds correctly say “candy.”

Question 178

What are Second-order false belief tasks?

When do children typically pass?

Answer 178

These tasks relate to the understanding that other people (a second person) can have their own
thoughts about another (third) person’s state of mind.
These tests are usually passed by the age of 6 years in typically developing children.

Question 179

Where are the Key neural regions for normal ToM?

Answer 179

the amygdala, orbitofrontal cortex, inferior parietal and medial frontal cortex.

Question 180

Which factors influence relationships?

Answer 180

1. Proximity: minimal requirement for most relationships.
2. Exposure refers to reciprocal disclosure – this may enhance the relationship. Females do more self-disclosure than males.
3. Similarity – may increase self-esteem in a relationship as one gets validation for similar
   interests.
4. Complementarity – not so important initially but increases in importance as a longterm relationship develops.
5. Compatibility is proportional to both similarity and complementarity.

Question 181

Types of love:

Answer 181

1. Companionate love: True or conjugal love where intimacy and commitment seen; passion
   is not high.
2. Passionate love: intimate and passionate but not much commitment – obsessive, romantic
   and infatuated.
3. Consummate love: intimacy, passion and commitment all well mixed.
4. Fatuous love: passion and commitment but no intimacy seen.

Question 182

What re the 3 functions of language?

Answer 182

1. Ideational Function: enable people thinking with language to interpret experience.
2. Interpersonal Function: enable people acting with language to communicate experience and thoughts
3. Textual Function: enable people organise of a message with language.

Question 183

What is?

1. Phonology
2. Morphology
3. Syntax
4. Phonetics
5. Semantics
6. Pragmatics
7. Sociolinnguistics
8. Semiotics

Answer 183

1. Phonology: The study of sound structure
2. Morphology: The study of sound structure
3. Syntax: The study of sentence structure
4. Phonetics: The study of physical act of speaking
5. Semantics: The study of the connection of language to meanings. Semanticists consider that meanings are inherent in sentences; while communication intentionists consider that meaning is not inherent but comes from something that people do when using language
6. Pragmatics: The study of the connection of context to meanings.
7. Sociolinguistics: The study of the connection of language to social situations
   8 Semiotics: The study of signs and symbols in relation to their form and content

Question 184

Techniques of persuasive communication

Answer 184

1. Ingratiation: eliciting likeableness
2. Reciprocity: doing a favour first, making one indebted.
3. Arousal of guilt
4. Scarcity: ‘offers valid only till stocks last; so hurry!’
5. Social validation: ‘everyone is going to Argos? What about you?’
6. Multiple requests
   a. Foot in the door technique: if one agrees to small request this increases the likelihood of saying yes again.
   b. Door in the face technique (concession effect): when a larger request is turned down initially this increases the likelihood of agreeing to a smaller subsequent request.
   c. Low-ball tactic: hiding the costs and disadvantages initially but revealing after an agreement is reached.

Question 185

What is Propaganda?

Answer 185

mass suggestion or influence via emotional manipulation of an individual.

Question 186

Propaganda techniques

Answer 186

1. Induction of stereotypes
2. Substitution of names to facilitate scapegoating and scaremongering
3. Selected facts presentation
4. Repeating same messages in various forms
5. Presenting assertions instead of rational arguments
6. Pinpointing an enemy

Question 187

What is conformity?

Answer 187

Conformity is a process where no explicit requirement is made to do a certain task, but peer influence, and the need for acceptance pushes one to carry out the task

Question 188

What is obedience?

Answer 188

Obedience refers to conditions where the individual is explicitly asked to do a task, and this instruction comes from an authority

Question 189

Who conforms more often?

Answer 189

Men conform less than women
People with lower intelligence, poorer ego strength, poor leadership abilities and having inferiority feelings conform more often.

Question 190

What is risky shift?

Answer 190

The group can make more risky decisions than what an individual him/herself can.

Question 191

What is group polarisation?

Answer 191

A group discussion process can strengthen average individual inclinations and polarise the group in the direction where most individuals were heading already.

Question 192

What is groupthink?

Answer 192

While making extreme decisions, the desire to agree with other members of a group can override
rational judgment applicable in individual decision-making

Question 193

What are the explanations for group processes?

risky shift, group polarisation and groupthink?

Answer 193

• Normative influence: People have a need not to appear odd or ‘stick out’ like a sore thumb. So they say yes to what others in the group say.
• Informational influence: Having more information after group discussion can facilitate decision-making
• Social identity: A group norm is established soon after a group is formed. This creates a social identity and pressure to conform to maintain the belongingness.

Question 194

What id Robert Bales observe about groups?

Answer 194

the most talkative member spoke for 40-50% of the time, and second most talkative 23-30% of the time

Question 195

What are the 6 sources of social power identified by French and Raven?

Answer 195

1. Reward Power - based on the perceived ability to give positive consequences or remove negative ones
2. Coercive Power - the perceived ability to punish those who not conform with your ideas or demands
3. Legitimate Power - based on the perception that someone has the right to prescribe behaviour due to election or appointment to a position of responsibility
4. Referent Power - through association with others who possess power
5. Expert Power - based on having distinctive knowledge, expertness, ability or skills
6. Information Power (Similar to 5) - based on controlling the information

Question 196

Lewin (1939) identified which leadership styles?

Answer 196

1. Autocratic – leader’s decision-making occurs without consultation from the others and causes the most discontent. It works if no need for input on decision i.e. that motivation would not be affected by not being consulted.
2. Democratic – leader’s decision-making involves others though the decision may ultimately made by the leader having facilitated group discussion and discussed opinions. It is a well-regarded process but can be time-consuming.
3. Laissez-Faire – leader’s involvement in decision-making is minimal, so others make their own decision. It works well if those involved are capable and motivated, and no need for central coordination.

Question 197

What are the components of prejudice?

Answer 197

1. Cognitive component – stereotypes
2. Affective component – hostility
3. Behavioural component – which according to Allport can be
   a. anti-locution
   b. avoidance
   c. discrimination
   d. physical attack or
   e. extermination in terms of increasing severity

Question 198

What is Adorno’s authoritarian personality theory?

Answer 198

Authoritarians are prejudiced in a generalised
manner; difficult upbringing and disciplinarian rules in childhood may lead to a projection of difficulties on minorities.

Question 199

What is Scapegoating theory?

Answer 199

In situations of extreme frustration when the source of such frustration is too powerful, we may tend to displace aggression towards a soft target – the scapegoat.

Question 200

What is Relative deprivation theory?

Answer 200

The discrepancy between actual attainments and expectations of a society is called relative deprivation.
Any acute changes can cause a sudden substantial relative deprivation, leading to unrest and scapegoating follows.

Note that the relative deprivation is subjective to individuals in a group, and the competition may be within individuals (egoistic) or between groups
(fraternalistic).

Question 201

What is Realistic conflict theory?

Answer 201

This asserts that the mere suggestion of competition is enough to trigger prejudices.

(no real lack of resources or acute deprivation is necessary)

Question 202

What does Elliott’s Blue eyes and brown eyes experiment tell us about reducing prejudice?

Answer 202

Prejudice exhibited by a person could be

lesser when he/she himself experienced such prejudice in the past.

Question 203

What is Allport’s Contact hypothesis for reducing prejudice?

Answer 203

When contact occurs between opposite group members under equal status and in pursuit of common goals, this can reduce prejudice.

Question 204

What is Psychoanalysis Theory of aggression?

Answer 204

Human aggression is due the death instinct Thanatos - an instinctive biological destructive death related urge that gradually builds up in everyone
and must at some point be released

Question 205

What is Evolutionary Theory of aggression?

Answer 205

Through the process of natural selection, aggression ensures survival of the aggressor’s genes passing from one generation to the other. It helps in the fight for the survival of the fittest.

Question 206

What is Genetic theory of aggression?

Answer 206

It is controversial whether aggression is inherited; it is often the case in animal species. But in humans however, people may not necessarily inherit the tendency to be aggressive; instead they may inherit certain temperaments, such as impulsiveness,
that in turn make aggression more likely

Question 207

What is Social learning theory of aggression?

Answer 207

Bandura Doll demonstrates the power of observational learning.

Question 208

What is The frustration-aggression hypothesis of aggression?

Answer 208

proposed by Dollard et al. (1939). It holds that frustration always results in aggression and conversely aggression will not occur unless a person is frustrated

Question 209

What is aggressive cue theory?

Answer 209

Berkowitz (1993) later modified Dollard’s proposal
Frustration produces not aggression but a readiness to respond aggressively; once this readiness exists, cues in the environment (e.g. knives, guns, etc.)
will often lead a frustrated person to behave aggressively; neither frustration nor cues
alone can trigger the aggressive behaviour.

Question 210

What is Generalised arousal theory of aggression?

Answer 210

arousal (e.g. physiological) from one source

may energise some other response. This is called transferred excitation

Question 211

What s Festinger’s deindividuation theory of aggression?

Answer 211

people in-group context act
uncharacteristically more aggressive as a sense of identity and belongingness and
diffusion of responsibility occurs in groups. Similarly, uniforms can reduce individuality,
promoting expression of aggression

Question 212

How do Media influences impact on aggressive behaviour?

Answer 212

1. High arousal
2. Disinhibition – ‘this is happening everywhere; it is not uncommon.’
3. Imitation: e.g. copycat crimes and suicides – Shannon Matthews incident in UK (2008) is
   speculated to be akin to a channel 4 drama episode (Shameless).
4. Desensitisation: due to repeated showing
5. Priming- enhancing automatic associations of certain stimuli with a crime

Question 213

What is Prosocial Behaviour?

Answer 213

Any action that is intended to help others

Question 214

What is Altruism?

Answer 214

Altruism is often considered to be a motivation behind people’s prosocial acts. Altruism refers to the wish
to help others with no expectation of reward.

Question 215

What is bystander intervention?

Answer 215

When alone, individuals will typically intervene if another person is in need of help

Question 216

What is bystander apathy (Genovese effect)?

Answer 216

intervention becomes less likely to an extent
that no single person will intervene from a crowd or group of observers when someone is in need
of help

Question 217

What is Pluralistic ignorance?

Answer 217

members of a crowd looking at each other for signs of
distress but remaining calm themselves, leading to misappraisal of the situation being safe
leading to lack of intervention.

Question 218

The first aspect of self-concept to develop is the

Answer 218

Bodily self

Question 219

What is Social loafing?

Answer 219

The presence of others reduces task performance

Ringelmann demonstrated it in the 1880s by observing tug-of-war teams. He demonstrated that the more people there were in a team, the less the effort made by each person in the team.

Question 220

What is the Domino effect?

Answer 220

The psychological equivalent of the butterfly effect in chaos theory. According to this notion, large changes within a system or structure often depends on the initial conditions in which a small change can result in a large catastrophe.

e.g. A patient feels unhappy with respect to one aspect of his life. Soon he observes that this unhappiness affects several other aspects of his life as well, resulting in a depressed state of mind.

Question 221

What is most likely to influence individuals to conform to the views of the group?

Answer 221

Ambiguous tasks tend to lead to more conformity as people may feel less certain of their own ideas.

Question 222

In Milgram’s obedience experiments, the factors that increased obedience were?

Answer 222

Administering by proxy
Relieving the subject from responsibility of actions
Subject achieving an agentic state
Authority figure providing instructions

Question 223

Factors that increase Dissonance?

Answer 223

A. Low pressure to comply; B. Wide perceived choice of options C. Awareness of responsibility for consequences D. Unpleasant consequences for others.

Question 224

Factors that decrease Dissonance?

Answer 224

Dissonance is lowered if the behaviour is altered; cognitions are dismissed, and new cognitions are added.

Question 225

The attributional bias seen in persecutory delusions are

Answer 225

External attribution for negative events

Question 226

What is hostile aggression?

Answer 226

Hostile (also called angry or affective) aggression is motivated by the need to express negative feelings, such as anger

Question 227

What can reduce groupthink?

Answer 227

Open debate

Question 228

What is Diffusion of responsibility?

Answer 228

Diffusion of responsibility: people feel that the responsibility is not theirs, and someone else will do something.

Question 229

What are the social classes in the UK?

Answer 229

Class 1: Professional, managerial and
landowners
Class 2: Intermediate
Class 3: Skilled, manual, clerical
Class 4: semi-skilled
Class 5: unskilled
Class 6: unemployed

Question 230

Which mental health disorders are over represented by higher social class groups?

Answer 230

Anorexia
BPAD
Suicide
Alcoholism

Question 231

What is the Jarmin index?

Answer 231

A scoring system developed by the
British general practitioner Brian Jarman for the level of social deprivation in a community, using census data on percentages of old people living alone, single-parent families, children younger than 5 years of age, unskilled and unemployed persons, ethnic minorities,
overcrowded dwellings, changes of address in previous year, etc

Question 232

Who described the sick role and what is it?

Answer 232

Parsons

1. The sick person is freed or exempted from carrying out normal social roles
2. People who are ‘sick’ are not directly responsible for their disease.
3. It is necessary that a sick person tries to get well.
4. A sick person must seek competent help and cooperate with medical care to get well.

Question 233

What’s the difference between disease vs. illness vs sickness?

Answer 233

Disease: refers to actual pathology (e.g. a process that results in illness)
Illness refers to personal experience (a set of symptoms suffered by a patient)
Sickness refers to social consequences (e.g. absence from work)

Question 234

What’s the difference between disease vs. illness vs sickness?

Answer 234

Disease: refers to actual pathology (e.g. a process that results in illness)
Illness refers to personal experience (a set of symptoms suffered by a patient)
Sickness refers to social consequences (e.g. absence from work)

Question 235

What’s the difference between impairment vs. disability vs handicap?

Answer 235

Impairment: interference with structural or psychological functions (that is, parts of the
whole person e.g. loss of an arm’s function due to fracture).
Disability is interference with activities of the whole person in relation to the immediate
environment (simply ‘activities of daily living’ e.g. not able to cook for oneself due to the
fracture)
Handicap is the social disadvantage resulting from disability (e.g. loss of work and inability
to meet friends due to restricted driving secondary to fracture)

Question 236

components of the Health Beliefs Model

Answer 236

(1) Patient’s beliefs about the severity of their condition,
(2) Patient’s beliefs about their susceptibility of acquiring the disease or complications of
the disease,
(3) Patient’s beliefs about cost of treatment adherence (including costs in inconvenience,
effort, time, and money),
(4) Patient’s beliefs about benefits of treatment adherence, and
(5) Patient’s beliefs regarding the environmental and social cues to action that may assist in
their treatment adherence.

Question 237

The Transtheoretical Model (TTM) is based on which processes of change that are applicable to
how individuals can be motivated to change their illness-related behaviours?

Answer 237

(1) Consciousness raising – helping the patient gather information about self and the
problem
(2) Choosing – increasing awareness of healthy alternatives,
(3) Catharsis – emotional expression of the problem behaviour and the process of change
(4) Conditional stimuli – includes stimulus control and counterconditioning,
a. Stimulus control: Avoidance of stimuli associated with the problem behaviour
and the operant extinction cueing effect of the stimulus on behaviour.
b. Counterconditioning: Training an alternative, healthier response to the cue
stimuli.
(5) Contingency control: Positive reinforcement from others and self-appraisal and
improving self-efficacy by self-reinforcement.

Question 238

What are the 10 commitments recommended for developments to promote professionalism in
medical practice?

Answer 238

1. Professional competence
2. Honesty with patients
3. Patient confidentiality
4. Maintaining appropriate relations with patients
5. Improving quality of care
6. Improving access to care
7. Just distribution of finite resources
8. Scientific knowledge
9. Maintaining trust by managing conflicts of interest
10. Professional responsibilities (including maximising patient care, self-regulation,
    remediation, disciplining)

Question 239

What is LIBERTARIAN resource allocation?

Answer 239

Resources distributed according to market principles (patient is a consumer; if they have
the willingness to pay, the resources will be made available to them)

Question 240

What is UTILITARIAN resource allocation?

Answer 240

Resources distributed according to the principle of maximum benefit for all.

Question 241

What is EGALITARIAN resource allocation?

Answer 241

Resources distributed according to the need (estimated by the provider).

Question 242

What is RESTORATIVE resource allocation?

Answer 242

Resources should be distributed with a positive discrimination towards the disadvantaged

Question 243

Lidz studied family systems and described what?

Answer 243

Two ‘schizophrenogenic’ family patterns

Marital schism: family is in a state of disequilibrium due to repeated threats of parental separation. Parents downgrade roles of each other and may even attempt to collude with children and exclude partners.

Marital skew: family is at an equilibrium that is skewed and achieved at an expense of the distorted parental relationship. One parent may be dominant and other
submissive, making the marriage ‘a stable fit’

Question 244

Who coined the concept of schizophrenogenic-mother and what does it mean?

Answer 244

Freida Fromm-Reichmann

These mothers were described as ‘rejecting, impervious to the feelings of others, rigid in moralism
concerning sex and had a significant fear of intimacy’.

Question 245

What are the Five measures considered for expressed emotion?

Answer 245

1. Critical comments
2. Positive remarks
3. Emotional over involvement
4. Hostility
5. Emotional warmth

Question 246

How can Expressed emotions be measured?

Answer 246

Camberwell Family Interview

Question 247

What’s the worldwide proportion of high EE in carers of patients with schizophrenia?

Answer 247

52%.

Question 248

What’s the relationship between high EE and schizophrenia relapse?

Answer 248

A meta-analysis of EE data reveals that for patients living in situations rated as showing high expressed emotion, the relapse rate is 50%, whereas in the ‘low
expressed emotion group’ the rate is 21%

Question 249

The impact of social and family life events on mental health can be measured in which two ways?

Answer 249

a. Ranking various events according to the degree of association with mental difficulties in a sample and use this list to study other populations. This is the method followed by Holmes & Rahe (1967) Social Readjustment Rating Scale where 43 life events in the last2 years are rated using arbitrary ‘stress’ units. The death of spouse generates 100 units of stress while divorce tops the rest of the list of stressors list with 73 units.
b. Brown and Harris popularized a different method whereby life events are graded according to the inherent meaning of the events to the individual concerned – i.e. contextual rating of the social adversity. Accordingly the effect and impact of a life event is understood in light of one’s current social context and self-perspective. LEDS – Life events and Difficulties schedule was devised by Brown and Harris.

Question 250

What is Social Causation Theory for developing mental illnesses?

Answer 250

mental illnesses are caused by social

deprivation.

Question 251

What has been discovered about the economic status of schizophrenia patients?
Which theory explains this?

Answer 251

an excess of social class V was noted in patients but social class distribution of fathers of the patients was the same as the general population suggesting that
schizophrenia results in a downward drift of economic status rather than poverty being a cause for schizophrenia.

This Social Drift or Social Selection Theory suggested by Faris & Dunham

Question 252

What did Rutter reveal to be the six inter-related risk factors in the family environment that correlated significantly with childhood mental disturbances?

Answer 252

1. Severe marital discord
2. Low social class
3. Large family size
4. Maternal mental health disorder
5. Paternal criminality
6. Foster placement.

Question 253

Which American study linked poverty to psychopathology?

Answer 253

The Great Smokey Mountains study looked at groups of white American and American Indian children grouped into ‘poor’, ‘never-poor’ and ‘expoor’ (ex-poor were those whose income increased annually at later times due to a casino being built on American Indian land). The results showed that before the casino opened poor and ex-poor children had more psychiatric issues, but the levels in the ex-poor fell to the same as never-poor after the casino that produced good income for the ex-poor families
opened.

Question 254

What is primary and secondary deviancy?

Answer 254

Primary deviance is any general aberration from expected normality before the person showing such
an aberration is identified as a ‘deviant.

Secondary deviance refers to the actions carried out by a person identified as a ‘deviant’ by institutions such as the society or the justice system.

Question 255

What is Social construction theory regarding mental illnesses?

Answer 255

the reality of mental illness is socially constructed and complicated by cognitive interests of social groups – doctors, lawmakers, politicians.

Question 256

What is Social labelling or societal reaction theory regarding mental illnesses?

Answer 256

According to Scheff, the social routine is made of numerous, uncategorisable residual rules. These are unspoken and taken for granted often.

Residual deviance occurs when these rules are broken, but often these are not noticed unless certain specific circumstances arise. Thus in certain circumstances rule breaking is accepted, ignored or normalised, but labelled deviant on other occasions

Thus societal-labelling may occur in one-off crises situations or as a gradual shift from acceptance to labelling, depending on contingencies i.e. the effect of such deviances on others concerned. This might explain the fact that numerous voice hearers live in the community without a diagnosis of schizophrenia and the results from community surveys always showing higher prevalence compared to clinical samples for almost all mental illnesses.

Once labelled as mentally ill, the labelled person takes up the role of being a mentally
ill individual in the society.

Question 257

Which 4 types of suicide did Durkheim describe?

Answer 257

Altruistic suicide - Individual is overly attached to social norms and dies for the sake of the society (i.e. for others in the society) e.g. self-molestation among Buddhist monks in Tibet

Egoistic suicide - Excessive individualism, but low social integration. No cohesive group attachment

Fatalistic suicide - Society’s control on the individual is very strong such that it interferes with moral values and personal goals

Anomic suicide - Individual feels that he has no guidance or regulations from the societal
system; feels disillusioned

Question 258

Brown and Harris 4 ‘vulnerability factors’ associated with onset of depression in women?

Answer 258

1. Absence of a close confiding relationship;
2. Loss of mother before age of 11
3. Lack of employment outside home;
4. Having 3 or more children under 15 living at home.

Question 259

Brown et al’s predisposing factors for depression?

Answer 259

a. Sexual abuse
b. Parental indifference
c. Parental loss
d. Physical abuse

Question 260

Brown et al’s Precipitating factors for depression?

Answer 260

a. Acute severe life event
b. Chronic stress more than 4 weeks
c. Lack of social support

Question 261

Brown et al’s Maintaining factors for depression?

Answer 261

a. Further negative life events
b. Persistent poor quality social support
c. Poor coping style:
i. Self-blame and helplessness
ii. Denial of problems
iii. Inability to solve problems
iv. Blaming others or external forces
d. Inability to obtain adequate social support:
i. Fear of intimacy
ii. Denial of need for intimacy
iii. Enmeshed intimate relationship
e. Low educational level

Question 262

Brown et al’s Relieving factors for depression?

Answer 262

a. Positive life events such as
i. Fresh or potential fresh start: new role, positive change
ii. Removal from source of stress: e.g. separation from violent husband
iii. Anchoring: role change and increased security
iv. Difficulty neutralisation: ending a difficulty
v. Goal attainment.
b. Improved quality and consistency of support

Question 263

What’s the social defeat hypothesis of Schizophrenia?

Answer 263

long-term experiences of social disadvantage lead to sensitization of the… dopamine system and (or) to
increased baseline activity of this system, thereby, to an increased risk for schizophrenia.

Question 264

Neighbourhood effect hypothesis of Schizophrenia?

Answer 264

In neighborhoods with ethnic minorities (non-white) that were at an increased risk, the risk reduced when the population of minorities increased. Similarly,
natives had an increased risk in neighborhoods where minorities were larger in number, supporting the notion of social adversity in increasing the risk of schizophrenia.

Question 265

in which country has research shown no increase in psychosis among urban areas?

Answer 265

Australia

Question 266

Social factors in smoking

Answer 266

•Low school achievement
•Young among peer cohort
•Poorer relationships with
their family
•Low household income

Question 267

Social factors in Alcohol use

Answer 267

•Disruption of family
structure
•Social networks that use
alcohol
•Recent immigration
•Small-area deprivation

Question 268

Social factors in use of illicit substances

Answer 268

•Peer drug use
•Single parenting
•Homelessness
•Poor educational
attainment
•Neighborhood
disadvantage
•Unemployment

Question 269

What is Goffman’s ‘total institution’?

Answer 269

one ‘whose character is symbolized by the barrier

to social intercourse with the outside’.

Question 270

What are the steps of personal institutionalising described by Goffman?

Answer 270

•BETRAYAL FUNNEL: People we trust most – family and friends – conspire against us when we are unwell, reporting our actions to doctors and mental health
professionals who run the decision-making process.
•ROLE STRIPPING: The institutionalisation process begins with a series of assaults on the recruit’s self. The process of stripping inmates of their identity involves such initiation rituals as trading personal clothes and belongings for hospital issue
•MORTIFICATION: Procedures that consist of a series of assaults on the inmate’s self-image. At the end of mortification one becomes a ‘full member’ of
the institution. Private, personal activities go on public display; he must request permission for even the most minor activities that were purely volitional on the
“outside,” such as smoking, shaving, or going to the toilet. This is termed as civil death.
•PREVILEGE SYSTEM: The patient is then inserted into the lowest rung of an allembracing privilege system. This system is based on the house rules. The privileges are usually reductions in the institution’s control over the patient’s life. Freedom is a token of reward.

Question 271

Who described institutional neurosis and what is it?

Answer 271

Russell Barton (1976) described 'institutional neurosis', characterised by apathy, lack of
initiative, loss of interest and submissiveness.

Question 272

Who coined the term malignant alienation and what is it?

Answer 272

Morgan (1979) coined the term malignant alienation to describe a process characterised by a progressive deterioration in the relationship between carers (staff in a ward) and a patient, including loss of sympathy and support from members of staff, who tended to construe these patients’ behaviour as provocative, unreasonable, or overdependent.

Question 273

What are the different types of stigma according to Goffman?

Answer 273

Enacted stigma -> refers to a patient’s actual experience of discrimination
Felt stigma -> refers to a patient’s fear of experiencing a discriminated act; it is more prevalent and more disabling than enacted stigma.
Public stigma -> is the reaction that the general population has to people with mental illness.
Self-stigma -> is the prejudice which people with mental illness hold against themselves; this
internalized stigma develops from the prolonged societal response.
Courtesy stigma-> refers to the stigmatization unaffected person experiences due to his or her relationship with a person who bears a stigma e.g. parents of children with psychiatric conditions.

Question 274

Which 4 major recurring themes did Hayward & Bright describe as behind the stigma against
mental illness?

Answer 274

1. Dangerousness
2. Attribution of responsibility
3. Poor prognosis
4. Disruption of social interaction

Question 275

What is Piblokto?

Answer 275

seen in Arctic Eskimo communities. It is characterised by a dissociative episode with excitement often followed by seizures and coma lasting up to 12 hours. Patients may be withdrawn before the attack and usually has amnesia for the episode; they may tear off clothing, shout obscenities, eat faeces, and jump naked into ice cold water.

Question 276

What’s the code of ethical recommendations used currently to guide clinical research worldwide?

Answer 276

Helsinki declaration

Question 277

What is deontological theory and how does it differ from consequentialism?

Answer 277

. A deontological theory looks at inputs rather than outcomes.

Question 278

The four prima facie ethical principles were promulgated by?

Answer 278

Beauchamp and Childress.

Question 279

The Myth of Mental Illness’ was written by?

Answer 279

Thomas Szasz

Question 280

What is antipsychiatry?

Answer 280

Antipsychiatry refers to a confederation of psychiatrists, psychologists, nurses, social and welfare workers, lay people and patients who oppose the traditional mental health practice and treatment. Three major pioneers are 1. R.D. Laing, 2. Thomas Szasz and 3. Foucault.

R.D.Laing wrote ‘The Divided Self’ (1959), Sanity, Madness and the Family (1964).
Thomas Szasz wrote ‘The Myth of Mental Illness’ 1961) and ‘The Manufacture of Madness’ (1971).
Foucault wrote Madness and Civilization (1965).

Question 281

Which is an extreme anxiety symptom where a person thinks that his penis is shrinking into his abdomen, and he may die as a result?

Answer 281

Koro
Malaysia, SE Asia
Refers to an episode of sudden and intense anxiety that the penis (or, in women, the vulva and nipples) will recede into the body and possibly cause death.

Question 282

Which ethical principles are widely implemented in medical practice?

Answer 282

Respect for autonomy, beneficence and justice

Question 283

What is the number of women that have been reported being amputated in the genital area?

Answer 283

100-200 million

Question 284

What’s the biopsychosocial model?

Who was it proposed by?

Answer 284

The biopsychosocial model is a systems theory-based explanation of disease models.
It is based on the fact that each system is at the same time a component of higher system
The hierarchy and continuum of natural systems were discussed to explain biopsychosocial model
It is not similar to the biomedical model.
It was proposed by George Engel

Question 285

Which study is related to deliberately infected individuals with hepatitis?

Answer 285

Willowbrook study
These studies were designed to gain an understanding of the natural history of infectious hepatitis and subsequently to test the effects of gamma globulin in preventing or ameliorating the disease. The subjects, all children, were deliberately infected with the hepatitis virus

Question 286

Who is regarded as ‘Father of Sociology’?

Answer 286

Emil Durkheim

Question 287

Torts are wrongs for which a person is liable in which branch of law?

Answer 287

Civil law

Question 288

According to Nuremburg code formulated after the Second World War, human experimentation can be carried out only if which conditions are satisfied?

Answer 288

1.voluntary consent is given 2.Research is intended for common good of the society 3.avoidance of unnecessary pain and suffering is guaranteed for the subjects 4.subject has liberty to withdraw at any point 5.qualified researchers undertake research 6.scientist must terminate a study if more harm is being caused than expected to the subjects

Question 289

A Japanese man is afraid of going out with his friends as he is embarrassed about his bad body odour. Despite repeated reassurances that he does not smell badly, he insists on being left alone. The most likely diagnosis is?

Answer 289

Taijin refers to a fear of losing good will of others due to imagined shortcomings of oneself. Social anxiety, tremulousness, self-consciousness and a sense of physical defect or deformity are seen; these can develop into anthropophobia (fear of people) - a severe form of social phobia.
There are different subclasses

Question 290

Insanity sometimes is the sane response to an insane society. This was proposed by

Answer 290

R.D. Laing

Question 291

Which syndrome refers to the fear of cold seen in Chinese men?

Answer 291

Pa-Leng

Question 292

Which type of life event predicts the onset of pure depressive illness?

Answer 292

Humiliation

Question 293

What are the top two stressful life events acc. to The Holmes-Rahe scale?

Answer 293

The Holmes-Rahe scale rates 43 life events by units. After the death of one’s spouse (100 units worth), divorce tops the rest of the stressors list and generates about 73 units.

Question 294

In which of the following disorder an overrepresentation of higher social class is seen in brothers and children of the patients?

Answer 294

Bipolar disorder

Question 295

The term refrigerator mother is associated with which of the following mental illness?

Answer 295

Mothers with autistic children were blamed to be ‘refrigerator mothers’ who ‘defrosted just enough to produce a baby’ but remained emotionally cold, inflexible and lacking warmth in the parental relationship. This theory has been widely discussed and refuted as no proof exists to support this claim.

Question 296

A West African student presents with lethargy, insomnia, palpitation and anxiety. What is the culture-bound syndrome?

Answer 296

The ‘brain fag’ syndrome, which was first reported from West Africa in 1960 among students, has been shown to occur very widely in African students in western educational systems south of the Sahara. S

Question 297

Which ethical principles are associated with Charaka?

Answer 297

Friendship
Sympathy towards the sick (Caring attitude)
Interest in cases according to one’s capabilities and
No attachment to the patient after his recovery.

Question 298

Reintegrating events using a variety of components

Answer 298

Recollection

Question 299

Feeling of familiarity that accompanies return of stored material to consciousness

Answer 299

Recognition

Question 300

This type of reinforcement is the least resistant to extinction

Answer 300

Continuous reinforcement

Question 301

This type of reinforcement is the most resistant to extinction

Answer 301

Variable ratio reinforcement

Question 302

This type of reinforcement takes the longest to establish

Answer 302

Intermittent Reinforcement

Question 303

This type of reinforcement leads to highest rate of responding –

Answer 303

Fixed ratio reinforcement

Question 304

Learning takes place through repeated temporal association of two events. The learning organism is passive, respondent but not instrumental

Answer 304

Classical conditioning

Question 305

Although new learning occurs slowly, in some situations solution to a problem comes in an instant, with a sudden grasp of a concept

Answer 305

Insight learning

Question 306

Reinforcement may be necessary for a performance of learned response but not necessary for the learning itself to occur

Answer 306

Latent learning

Question 307

An objective personality test that includes hypochondriasis as a personality factor

Answer 307

Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory

Question 308

A projective personality test with pictures of ambiguous persons and scenes to make up a story

Answer 308

Thematic apperception test

Question 309

What are illness behaviours and who derived the term?

Answer 309

David Mechanic, a pioneer in the study of social influence on illnesses, summarised the complex causes that predispose to illness behaviors, “including biological predispositions, the nature of symptomatology, learned patterns of response, attributional predispositions, situational influences, and the organization and incentives characteristic of the health care system and the availability of secondary benefits”

Question 310

What are the ways that culture contributes to psychopathology?

Answer 310

pathogenetic, pathoplastic, pathoelaborating, pathofacilitating, pathodiscriminating, and pathoreactive effects (Tseng)

Question 311

What are the components of Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of (Successful) Intelligence?

Answer 311

Analytical Abilities – Comparison, Evaluation
Creative Abilities – Discovery
Practical Abilities – Applying knowledge

Question 312

What is Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of (Successful) Intelligence?

Answer 312

Intelligent behaviour arises from a balance between analytical, creative and practical abilities,

Question 313

Which test best tests abstract thinking?

Answer 313

The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is used to assess abstract thinking and how well concepts are formed. The patient is required to sort objects by colour or material, copy block patterns with coloured cubes. The tests are mainly used to diagnose neurological problems.

Question 314

What is Virtue ethics (aka eudaimonism)?

Answer 314

Describe the character of a moral agent as a driving force for ethical behaviour. It focusses on the individual and their wellbeing. It holds that the proper goal of human life is eudaimonia (aka the good life).

Question 315

What is social capital?

Answer 315

‘features of social life - networks, norms, and trust - that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives’

Question 316

What are the three types of temperament of children according to Thomas and Chess and what are the proportions of each?

Answer 316

Easy child (40%). These obtained high scores on regularity (degree to which they fall into a schedule), approachability, adaptability, mild intensity of reactivity, and predominance of positive mood.
Difficult child (10%). These children were the polar opposite of easy children.
Slow to warm up child (15%). These children are somewhere in the middle. They often have moderately negative reactions to new things but warm to the idea eventually.

Question 317

Which is an international statement regarding the rights of patients?

Answer 317

Declaration of Lisbon

Question 318

What is the Declaration of Geneva?

Answer 318

Introduced following the crimes which had just been committed in Nazi Germany, the Declaration of Geneva was intended as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath.

Question 319

Which area of the brain is generally affected in patients with issues related to procedural memory?

Answer 319

cerebellum

Question 320

What is Jost’s Law of forgetting?

Answer 320

if 2 memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older will decay more slowly than the younger

Question 321

Who is credited with the introduction of trait theory?

What are the three levels?

Answer 321

Allport

cardinal, central and secondary

Question 322

What are the tests for Attention?

Answer 322

Digit span

Trails A Test

Question 323

What are the tests for Language?

Answer 323

Boston Naming Test

Verbal Fluency

Question 324

What are the tests for Memory?

Answer 324

Wechsler Memory Scale

Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test

Question 325

What is a test for Visuospatial skills?

Answer 325

Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure

Question 326

What are the tests for Executive function?

Answer 326

Wisconsin Card Sort Test
Stroop test
Trials B Test

Question 327

What are the tests for Intelligence?

Answer 327

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test
National Adult Reading Test (Pre mormid)
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Question 328

What are the tests for Intelligence?

Answer 328

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test
National Adult Reading Test (Pre-mormid)
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Question 329

What are the projective Personality Tests?

Answer 329

Rorschach Inkblot
Thematic Apperception Test
Draw-A-Person test
Sentence completion tests

Question 330

What are the objective Personality Tests?

Answer 330

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)
NEO Personality Inventory
Esyenck personality test (EPQ)

Question 331

What are Thurstone’s seven independent factors (primary abilities) that intelligence arises from?

Answer 331

Word fluency
Verbal comprehension
Spatial visualization
Number facility
Associative memory
Reasoning
Perceptual speed

Question 332

What is Eidetic memory?

Answer 332

aka photographic memory - is the ability to recall an image in near perfect detail. Contrary to popular belief most people with autism do not have a photographic memory.

Question 333

What’s Declaration of Helsinki?

Answer 333

This is a statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

Question 334

What’s the Declaration of Helsinki?

Answer 334

This is a statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

Question 335

What’s the Declaration of Tokyo?

Answer 335

This states that doctors should refuse to participate in, condone, or give permission for torture, degradation, or cruel treatment of prisoners or detainees.

Question 336

What’s the Declaration of Malta?

Answer 336

This offers guidelince to doctors treating people who are on hunger strike.

Question 337

What’s the Declaration of Malta?

Answer 337

This offers guidelines to doctors treating people who are on hunger strike.

Question 338

What % heritability is seen with human IQ?

Answer 338

Studies estimate a heritability of 40-50% for human IQ.

Question 339

What happens to the heritability of IQ with age?

Answer 339

Heritability of IQ varies with age: While the heritability is around 30% in children, it increases to 80% among adults.

Question 340

Is heritability of IQ affected by demographics?

Answer 340

Scarr et al. observed greater genetic effects on
intelligence in middle-class white groups than in lower-class African American groups

Question 341

What are Freud’s psychosocial stages of development?

name, age and characteristics

Answer 341

ORAL (0 to 1 ½ years)
Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc.) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage.

ANAL (1 ½ to 3 years) Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterized by OCD like pattern – also ambivalence and sadomasochistic
tendencies are associated.

PHALLIC/OEDIPAL (3 to 5yrs)
Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex – wish to have a libidinal relationship with opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls). Superego develops from introjection of parental values.

LATENCY (5 to puberty approx.11yrs)
Socialization, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends

GENITAL (puberty onwards)
Biological maturation occurs; genital sexuality is born.

Question 342

What are Freud’s psychosocial stages of development?

name, age and characteristics

Answer 342

ORAL (0 to 1 ½ years)
Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc.) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage.

ANAL (1 ½ to 3 years) Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterized by OCD like pattern – also ambivalence and sadomasochistic
tendencies are associated.

PHALLIC/OEDIPAL (3 to 5yrs)
Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex – wish to have a libidinal relationship with opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls). Superego develops from introjection of parental values.

LATENCY (5 to puberty approx.11yrs)
Socialization, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends
Superego is formed

GENITAL (puberty onwards)
Biological maturation occurs; genital sexuality is born.

Question 343

What are the stages of attachment according to Bowlby?

Answer 343

1. Pre-attachment phase (birth to 8 or 12 weeks), babies orient to their mothers
2. Indiscriminate attachment (attachment in making - 8 to 12 weeks to 6 months): Allows strangers to handle, infants become attached to one or more persons in the environment
3. Clear-cut attachment (6 through 24 months): Preferential attachment, separation anxiety,
   object permanence, stranger anxiety. At the later part, weakened stranger anxiety; other attachment figures may also present.
4. After 25 months, the mother figure is seen as independent.

Question 344

What are the stages of attachment according to Bowlby?

Answer 344

1. Pre-attachment phase (birth to 8 or 12 weeks), babies orient to their mothers
2. Indiscriminate attachment (attachment in making - 8 to 12 weeks to 6 months): Allows strangers to handle, infants become attached to one or more persons in the environment
3. Clear-cut attachment (6 through 24 months): Preferential attachment, separation anxiety (occurs after stranger anxiety),
   object permanence, stranger anxiety. At the later part, weakened stranger anxiety; other attachment figures may also present.
4. After 25 months, the mother figure is seen as independent.

Question 345

Who constructed a strange situation experiment?

What’s the procedure?

Answer 345

Mary Ainsworth
Situation 1 Both mother and infant enter the room
Situation 2 A stranger joins them
Situation 3 Mother leaves now; infant left with stranger
Situation 4 Mother returns; stranger leaves
Situation 5 Infant left alone; mother leaves now
Situation 6 Stranger comes back and tries to comfort the child
Situation 7 Mother comes back and comforts, stranger leaves.

Question 346

Who constructed a strange situation experiment?
What’s the procedure?
What ages were the children?

Answer 346

Mary Ainsworth
Situation 1 Both mother and infant enter the room
Situation 2 A stranger joins them
Situation 3 Mother leaves now; infant left with stranger
Situation 4 Mother returns; stranger leaves
Situation 5 Infant left alone; mother leaves now
Situation 6 Stranger comes back and tries to comfort the child
Situation 7 Mother comes back and comforts, stranger leaves.
1 year and 18 months

Question 347

Who devised a semi-structured adult attachment interview with 15 items?
What were the attachment types?

Answer 347

Main

Secure autonomous: Those who had secure attachment provide spontaneous and coherent answers with the ability to talk freely about negative experiences in childhood - type B Ainsworth.

Dismissing of experiences: Those who had an avoidant (insecure) pattern often minimise their experiences, do not elaborate on them and do not use colourful metaphors during the discourse– type A
(avoidant)

Entangled: Those who had insecure but ambivalent (enmeshed) attachment use multiple emotionally laden responses and ramble excessively, – type C resistant.

Unresolved disorganised: Broken continuity and interrupted the logical flow of thoughts
is seen in those who had insecure disorganised attachment pattern– type D

Question 348

What stages of development did Mahler describe?

Answer 348

1. Normal autism (0 to 2 m): Child spends most time in
   sleep as if the intrauterine aloofness continues.
2. Symbiosis (2 to 5m): Inner and outer world studied
   via senses but perceives mother and self as one unit.
3. Separation – individuation phase: (DPRO)
   a) Differentiation sub-phase: (5 to 10m) slowly
   appreciates the difference between mother and self
   b) Practicing sub-phase: (10 to18m)
   A gradual increase in interest on the environment;
   practices exploration.
   c) Rapprochement sub-phase: (18 to 24m)
   Alternating drives to be autonomous and dependent; Able to explore alone but requires comfort and
   reassurance on return.
   d) Object constancy sub-phase: (2 to 5yrs)
   Understand that the mother will not be lost if
   temporarily away; hence able to function independently.

Question 349

What is deprivation vs privation acc. to Rutter?

Answer 349

In deprivation attachment is formed but lost temporarily. seen more often in boys.
In prolonged deprivation, separation anxiety sets in. Increased clingy behaviour, psychosomatic complaints, vacillation and aggression are seen in the child.

Privation refers to the non-formation of attachment; this is very rare and can lead to what Rutter termed as ‘affectionless psychopathy’ and developmental retardation. Attention seeking, lack of guilt, antisocial behaviour and indiscriminate attachment patterns are
noted. This is reversible but only to some extent

Question 350

What is Ethology is the systematic biological study of animal behaviour. Greek ethos - custom or habit.

Answer 350

Ethology is the systematic biological study of animal behaviour. Greek ethos - custom or habit.

Question 351

What is object relations theory and who was a major proponent?

Answer 351

object relations theory – the ego exists only in relation to other objects, which may be external or internal. ‘Object’ refers to both living persons and non-living concepts.
Melanie Klein was a major proponent

Question 352

Gender identity in a normally growing child develops around

Answer 352

2 years of age

Question 353

What is the most sensitive period for development of attachment behaviour in human beings?

Answer 353

According to Bowlby, attachment develops in the latter part of infancy, in the period from six to eighteen months.

Question 354

What are Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?

Answer 354

Erikson proposed psychosocial developmental stages

Trust vs. mistrust 0-1 year Hope
Autonomy vs. shame 1-3 years Will
Initiative vs. guilt 3-5 years Purpose
Industry vs. inferiority 5-12 years Competence
Identity vs. role confusion 12-19 years Fidelity
Intimacy vs. isolation 19-35 years Love
Generativity vs. stagnation 35-65 years Care
Integrity vs. despair 65 and onwards Wisdom

Question 355

What’s the difference in IQ between abandoned children reared in institutions vs. abandoned children placed in institutions?

Answer 355

RCT of abandoned children reared in institutions vs. abandoned children placed in institutions but then moved to foster care showed markedly poor cognitive outcome for children that were in institutions; but cognitive recovery occurred significantly for younger children placed in foster care.

Question 356

Stranger fear peaks at which age?

Answer 356

Infants develop a fear of strangers when they are around 6 months of age and it peaks at around 12-18 months of age. Fear of strangers declines after the age of three years.

Question 357

When does separation anxiety begin?

Answer 357

Separation anxiety starts at 1 year of age and child shows rapproachment (hugs when coming back) by 18 months.

Question 358

A child can use meaningful words without connecting words at which age?

Answer 358

18-30 months

Question 359

Speech development in children

Answer 359

Cooing- 2months; Babbling (gaga, dada)- 6 months (4 to10 months); One-word stage (mamma, doggie)- 1 year (10 to18 months); Two word stage (mummy go, daddy go)- 2 years (18 to 24 months); Basic adult grammatical sentence- 3 years; Adult speech- 5 years.

Question 360

According to the Social Learning Theory which factors play a role in the development of gender appropriate behaviours?

Answer 360

Reinforcement by role models
Differential treatment by adults
Imitative behaviours
Cognitive processes in children

Question 361

Speech development in children

Answer 361

2 months-cooing
6 months-babbling
9 months-repetitive babbling
12 months-speaks three words
18 months-speaks up to 40 words.
24 months-telegraphic speech,
grammatically pairs words and
vocabulary more than 240 words
36 months-early comprehension of
grammar and syntax
48 months-correct use of grammar
60 months-language akin to adult
speech

Cooing- 2months; Babbling (gaga, dada)- 6 months (4 to10 months); One-word stage (mamma, doggie)- 1 year (10 to18 months); Two word stage (mummy go, daddy go)- 2 years (18 to 24 months); Basic adult grammatical sentence- 3 years; Adult speech- 5 years.

Question 362

Which model divides the mind into unconscious, preconscious and conscious?

Answer 362

Freud’s topographic

Question 363

What percentage of patients eventually achieve level 3 post-conventional morality, described by Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

Answer 363

15%

Question 364

According to Bowlby, the strong innate tendency to attach to one adult female is called

Answer 364

monotropy

Question 365

What is Adaptation according to Piaget?

Answer 365

Adaptation is the process of fitting schemas to environmental information. Adaptation can occur
either as assimilation or accommodation.
In assimilation new information is incorporated into
existing schemas without restructuring the schemas.
In accommodation, the schemas are
restructured to ‘accommodate’ newly learnt information.

Question 366

Paiget’s sensorimotor stage

Answer 366

Sensorimotor stage: (SPIRO) (0-2 years)
-Symbolic thought: Language starts developing and thought starts to dominate actions.
-Representational Play: Mimics one object with another e.g. cup for a hat.
-Deferred Imitation: remembers an act and replays it later.
-Recognition of self: Primitive self recognition begins.
-Object permanence: Understanding that object that disappears from field of perception
has not ceased to exist; if searched well this object can be found or it will reappear. Hence
peek-a-boo games are understood and enjoyed. Initially this is limited as the hidden
objects are searched at where they were last seen (around 9 to 12 months); not at where
they were hidden. Around 18 months invisible displacements are inferred and object
permanence is completed

Exercising reflexes (0 to 1 m) to smoothen them; Primary
circular (1 to 4 m) reactions where reflexes extend to objects;
secondary circular ( 4 to 10 m) where goal direction seen; object
permanence starts by 9m; coordinated actions with added
element of curiosity forms tertiary circular ( 12 to 18 m)
reactions – here novelty is sought. Mental combinations occur;
thoughts dominate actions.

Question 367

What is Adaptation according to Piaget?

Answer 367

Adaptation is the process of fitting schemas to environmental information. Adaptation can occur
either as assimilation or accommodation.

In assimilation new information is incorporated into
existing schemas without restructuring the schemas.

In accommodation, the schemas are
restructured to ‘accommodate’ newly learnt information.

Question 368

Piaget’s sensorimotor stage

Which experiments are relevant?

Answer 368

Sensorimotor stage: (SPIRO) (0-2 years)
-Symbolic thought: Language starts developing and thought starts to dominate actions.
-Representational Play: Mimics one object with another e.g. cup for a hat.
-Deferred Imitation: remembers an act and replays it later.
-Recognition of self: Primitive self recognition begins.
-Object permanence: Understanding that object that disappears from field of perception has not ceased to exist; if searched well this object can be found or it will reappear. Hence peek-a-boo games are understood and enjoyed. Initially this is limited as the hidden
objects are searched at where they were last seen (around 9 to 12 months); not at where they were hidden. Around 18 months invisible displacements are inferred and object permanence is completed

Exercising reflexes (0 to 1 m) to smoothen them; Primary circular (1 to 4 m) reactions where reflexes extend to objects;
secondary circular ( 4 to 10 m) where goal direction seen;
object permanence starts by 9m;
coordinated actions with added element of curiosity forms tertiary circular (12 to 18 m) reactions – here novelty is sought. Mental combinations occur;
thoughts dominate actions.

Question 369

Piaget’s Preoperational stage

Which experiments are relevant?

Answer 369

Preoperational stage: (FAT PILES) (2-7 years)
-Functional attribution: Objects are referred to by their function rather than appearance.
-Artificialism: ‘Sky is blue because someone painted it’
& Animism: Inanimate objects are treated as living objects.
-Transductive reasoning: Cats have 4 legs, Dogs have 4 legs. So cats and dogs are the same (called Von Domarus law).
& Telegraphic speech: No functional propositions noted but verbs and nouns are used
-Phenomenalistic causality: In a similar logic to transductive reasoning, causality is inferred if two events occur with some temporal association e.g. lightning and rain come together; hence lightning brings rain.
-Imminent justice: See moral development
-Lack of seriation, conservation, and reversibility:
-Seriation is the ability to sort or categorise based on dimensional variations of items.
In centration only single dimension can be focussed at one time (akin to syncretic thought, see below). Conservation refers to the ability to perceive that a quantity (such as count, weight, volume etc) is unchanged if the same amount of a material is transformed into a different shape or structure. E.g. 1 litre of water remains the same 1 liter irrespective of whether it is present in a half full 2 litre bottle or two complete 500ml bottles. Concept of compensation refers to the fact that magnification in one
dimension and reduction in another dimension can nullify each other’s effect.
Reversibility refers to the ability of mentally calculating and understanding that
what is done can be undone without loss of material.
-Egocentrism: This does NOT refer to self-centredness or selfish attitude. It refers to the restricted ability of viewing the world from a single point of view at this developmental stage. This was demonstrated using the Mountains task where a child at this age group
could not say what a person would see from other side of the desk when only one side of a
toy mountain was visible from each view.
-Semiotic function: Signifiers are symbols and signs that represent or stand for something
else. For example, drawing a matchstick man. Thus signifiers represent a meaning, serving
semiotic function. This is vital for developing play activities.
-Syncretic thought: Links neighbouring objects and events on the basis of common instances e.g. red square with red sphere with blue sphere with blue cube etc.

Preconceptual stage 2 to 4 years; intuitive stage 4 to 7 years.

Question 370

Piaget’s concrete operational stage

Which experiments are relevant?

Answer 370

Ability to decentre, conserve, seriate and declining egocentrism noted.
Perspective taking starts to develop. But transitivity tasks still pose a challenge. E.g. ‘4>2, 2>1, which is the greatest of all?’ - is still difficult.
-Syllogistic reasoning

Conservation present

Pendulum experiment

Question 371

Piaget’s formal operational stage

Which experiments are relevant?

Answer 371

Here manipulation of ideas and propositions are seen – 1st order operations; soon, reasoning solely based on verbal argument construction develops
– 2nd order operations. Hypotheticodeductive reasoning develops in a proportion of children after
age 12.

Classification of objects according to rules

Question 372

At what ages do primary and secondary emotions develop?

Answer 372

The primary emotions of joy, sadness, anger, fearfulness, disgust, surprise are present within the first six months of life and develop over the next three years. However, self-conscious emotions like jealousy, shame, guilt and empathy arise later around three years.

Question 373

Kohlberg’s pre-conventional stage of moral development

Answer 373

Level 1 Pre-conventional morality (7-12 years to middle childhood): In this stage, the children decide right or wrong according to the consequences. If an action leads to punishment it must be bad and if it leads to reward it must be good.

i. Punishment and obedience orientation: Obedience to rules to avoid punishment
ii. Reward orientation/ Instrumental relativism: What brings rewards is right. ‘tit for tat’ approach seen.

Question 374

Kohlberg’s conventional stage of moral development

Answer 374

Level 2 Conventional morality (approximately 13-16 years): Here the children believe that social rules and the expectation of the others determine what acceptable or unacceptable behaviour is.
iii. Concordance orientation: What pleases others is right. What the majority thinks right is right. Also called Good boy/good girl orientation. Conforms to avoid
disapproval and meet expectations of others. Being good is important and having good motives and showing concern
iv. Social order or Authority orientation: Upholds laws and social rules to avoid the censure of the authorities and feelings of guilt about not doing one’s duty.
Maintaining social order is the goal.

Question 375

Kohlberg’s postconventional stage of moral development What % of people reach this stage?

Answer 375

Level 3 Postconventional morality (approximately 16-20 years)
Here what is right is based on an individual’s understanding of universal ethical principles. These are often abstract and ill-defined, but it might include the preservation of life at all costs and the importance of human dignity
v. Social contract or legalistic orientation: Actions guided by principles commonly agreed by one’s group on as essential to public welfare (relative values) and
democracy is upheld while individual’s life is given more respect than written codes of law.
vi. Universal Ethical orientation: Actions guided by self-chosen ethical principles.
Laws and social principles usually valid because they are based on these principles. Social rules can be broken if universal morality is not upheld.

15% reach this stage

Question 376

Piaget’s Moral Development Theory (ages 5-9)

Answer 376

Unilateral respect for the external law: seniors
make rules; they are sacred and should not be
broken, but get violated periodically for pleasure.

External responsibility holds for crime; severity of outcome or loss decides the degree of punishment warranted.

Moral realism: Strong penalty should be paid for any crime; can accept collective punishment to deliver justice (punishing the wrongdoer is more important than not hurting the innocent)

Imminent justice: Wold is just – a misfortune will punish the deserved for a misdeed.

Heteronomous morality: Subject to rules written by others.

Question 377

Piaget’s Moral Development Theory (ages >10)

Answer 377

Mutual respect for the self-invented law: could
be changed by consensus and for fairness.

Internal responsibility holds for crime; intent or motivation decides the degree of punishment warranted.

Moral relativism: Punishment should match
the crime; does not accept collective punishment.

No imminent justice.

Autonomous morality: Rules can be self-made

Question 378

Kohlberg’s pre-conventional stage of moral development

Answer 378

Level 1 Pre-conventional morality (7-12 years to middle childhood): In this stage, the children decide right or wrong according to the consequences. If an action leads to punishment it must be bad and if it leads to reward it must be good.

i. Punishment and obedience orientation: Obedience to rules to avoid punishment
ii. Reward orientation/ Instrumental relativism/self-interest orientation: What brings rewards is right. ‘tit for tat’ approach seen.

*?0-10 years - SPMM

AIMS TO AVOID PUNISHMENT

Question 379

Kohlberg’s conventional stage of moral development

Answer 379

Level 2 Conventional morality/Interpersonal accord (approximately 13-16 years): Here the children believe that social rules and the expectation of the others determine what acceptable or unacceptable behaviour is.
iii. Concordance orientation: What pleases others is right. What the majority thinks right is right. Also called Good boy/good girl orientation. Conforms to avoid
disapproval and meet expectations of others. Being good is important and having good motives and showing concern
iv. Social order or Authority orientation: Upholds laws and social rules to avoid the censure of the authorities and feelings of guilt about not doing one’s duty.
Maintaining social order is the goal.

AIMS TO GET APPROVAL

Question 380

Kohlberg’s postconventional stage of moral development What % of people reach this stage?

Answer 380

Level 3 Postconventional morality (approximately 16-20 years)
Here what is right is based on an individual’s understanding of universal ethical principles. These are often abstract and ill-defined, but it might include the preservation of life at all costs and the importance of human dignity
v. Social contract or legalistic orientation: Actions guided by principles commonly agreed by one’s group on as essential to public welfare (relative values) and
democracy is upheld while individual’s life is given more respect than written codes of law.
vi. Universal Ethical orientation: Actions guided by self-chosen ethical principles.
Laws and social principles usually valid because they are based on these principles. Social rules can be broken if universal morality is not upheld.

AIMS TO UPHOLD UNIVERSAL ETHICS

15% reach this stage

Question 381

Klein’s depressive position is related to the process of learning to cope with which conflict?

Answer 381

Ambivalence

Melanie Klein described two positions - paranoid-schizoid and depressed position. The paranoid-schizoid position is associated with the use of splitting and projection as a defence mechanism. This position concerns an inability to perceive a whole object and splits all objects into their good and bad parts. But in the depressive position, the infant tolerates the ambiguity or ambivalence and can realise that an individual can have both good and bad qualities.

Question 382

Which category of play starts around five years of age?

Answer 382

Rule- governed play

Question 383

When do different categories of play start?

Answer 383

Solitary play- the child plays on its own;
Parallel play-the child plays along with other children (2 years);
Co-operative play-This is usually evident by 3 years and the child interacts with other children in complimentary ways like sharing, turn taking, etc ;

Question 384

Kubler-Ross described stages of coping in those facing impending death. They are:

Answer 384

Anger
Bargaining
Acceptance
Depression

Question 385

Which term was used by Thomas and Chess to describe the reciprocal relationship between a baby’s temperament and its social environment?

Answer 385

Goodness of fit

Question 386

Precocious puberty is suspected in girls before the age of

Answer 386

8

Question 387

Who proposed that human beings are born with a ‘Language Acquisition device’ (LAD) that enables children gather information about the rules of language use?

Answer 387

Noam Chomsky: Children are born with an innate language acquisition device. Transformational grammar is important in understanding language development. All languages have a surface structure where syntax is accurate and actual words are used to construct language; and a deep structure where more semantic sense is made without similar syntactical rules. A single surface structure can have several deep structures. Children are born equipped with the ability to decipher the transformational grammar of deep to surface structure conversion. Hence years up to puberty are sensitive though not critical for language development. Social interaction view of language development: Adults such as mother act as LASS (language acquisition support system). This is essential as the function of language is social interaction.

Question 388

Features of ‘ex-institutional syndrome’

Answer 388

They were less likely to be selective in choosing their friends
They turned to peers less often for emotional support
These young people related better to adults than to their peers Incorrect
They were less likely to have a special friend

Question 389

What is Buss and Plomin’s proposed EAS model?

Answer 389

strongly biological model that views temperament as an inherited personality trait exhibited in early life and are evident in the first year of life. Temperament is assessed using the EAS-Temperament survey. Emotionality, Activity and Sociability are three major dimensions. The original theory also included impulsivity but it was excluded in later revulsions because of its poor heritability.

Question 390

Which fears are characteristic of infancy?

Answer 390

Fears characteristic of infancy include separation anxiety, fear of loud noises, fear of falling, fear of strange objects and strange people

Question 391

What is restricted language code?

Answer 391

Restricted language code is characterised by short, incomplete sentences, which focuses on the present

Question 392

What is the elaborated code?

Answer 392

The elaborated code is characterized by longer, complex sentences that are context-independent. It focuses on the past and future, employs ‘I’ commonly and allows for the expression of abstract thought

Question 393

What are the three components of Freud’s structural theory?

Answer 393

The id, ego, and superego.

Question 394

What is the Telegraphic period of language development?

Answer 394

This is called as two words / telegraphic speech stage. In telegraphic speech, meaningful words are used without connecting words such as propositions or conjunctions.

Question 395

When children are deprived of parental care from their mother or a mother substitute during infancy and in the first few years of life which condition can develop?

Answer 395

Anaclitic depression - refers to the complex of symptoms exhibited by young children who are deprived of their mother or a mother surrogate during the first few years of life.

Question 396

What age does:
Fear of imaginary creatures
Fear of animals 
Fear of the dark 
Fear of illness and death 
Fear of loud noises 
Fear of falling begin?

Answer 396

Fear of imaginary creatures – Age 5 and above, Fear of animals – Age 3, Fear of the dark – Age 4 to 5, Fear of illness and death – Teenage onwards, Fear of loud noises – Infancy, Fear of falling – Infancy

Question 397

What age does:
Fear of imaginary creatures
Fear of animals 
Fear of the dark
Fear of illness and death 
Fear of loud noises 
Fear of falling begin?

Answer 397

Fear of imaginary creatures – Age 5 and above, Fear of animals – Age 3, Fear of the dark – Age 4 to 5, Fear of illness and death – Teenage onwards, Fear of loud noises – Infancy, Fear of falling – Infancy

Question 398

What is polytropy?

What % of children display it?

Answer 398

Having more than one attachment figure

Question 399

What is polytropy?

What % of children display it?

Answer 399

Having more than one attachment figure

Around 18m, 87% infants have multiple attachments; 50% primarily attached to the mother, 18% to father and the rest to equally both

Question 400

What age does:
Fear of imaginary creatures
Fear of animals 
Fear of the dark
Fear of illness and death 
Fear of loud noises 
Fear of falling begin?

Answer 400

Fear of imaginary creatures – Age 5 and above (3-4 on psychmentor), Fear of animals – Age 3, Fear of the dark – Age 4 to 5, Fear of illness and death – Teenage onwards, Fear of loud noises – Infancy, Fear of falling – Infancy

Question 401

Precocious puberty begins before which age?

Answer 401

8

Question 402

What is the range during which puberty begins for boys and girls and the mean age of puberty in both?

Answer 402

Males 9-14 years 12 years

Females 8-14 years 11 years

Question 403

Precocious puberty begins before which age?

Answer 403

8 in girls

9 in boys

Question 404

What Tanner stage does the growth spurt happen in boys and girls?

Answer 404

stages 3 to 4 of puberty in most boys and is completed by stage 5 in more than 95% of them.

In girls, pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 2 and 3

Question 405

Which Tanner stage does menarche occur?

Answer 405

Stage 4

Question 406

Which Tanner stage does menarche occur?

How many years before menarche is telarche?

Answer 406

Stage 4

2 years

Question 407

When do most children develop the ability to label gender?
To recognise gender differences and use gendered pronouns?
Declare a gender identity of male or female?

Answer 407

By 18-24 months, children develop the ability to label gender.

Between 2-4 years, most children recognise gender differences, use gendered pronouns.

By age 5 to 6 years, most children declare a gender identity of male or female.

Question 408

For what % of pre-pubertal children does gender dysphoria persist into adolescence?

Answer 408

Only in a minority (15%)

Question 409

What are the parenting styles?

Answer 409

Authoritarian Parenting - strict rules and punishment if the rules are not adhered to -> children who are obedient and proficient, but they rank lower in happiness, social competence and self-esteem.

Authoritative Parenting - similar to authoritarian parents except they tend to be more responsive to their children. There are strict rules but explanations behind them are given -> children who are happy, capable and successful

Permissive Parenting
Uninvolved Parenting

Question 410

Which theory is associated with the concept of the ‘internal working model’?

Answer 410

Bowlby’s attachment theory - also proposed the idea of an internal working model. This is held to be the product of attachment experiences and represents a persons view of the external world.

Question 411

What is the Heinz dilemma and who used it to investigate child development?

Answer 411

Kohlberg to investigate moral development. It is as follows:-

‘A woman was near death from a special kind of cancer. There was one drug that the doctors thought might save her. It was a form of radium that a druggist (pharmacist) in the same town had recently discovered. The drug was expensive to make, but the druggist was charging ten times what the drug cost him to produce. He paid $200 for the radium and charged $2000 for a small dose of the drug. The sick woman’s husband, Heinz, went to everyone he knew to borrow the money, but he could only get together about $1,000 which is half of what it cost. He told the druggist that his wife was dying and asked him to sell it cheaper or let him pay later. But the druggist said: ‘No, I discovered the drug and I’m going to make money from it.’ So Heinz got desperate and broke into the man’s store to steal the drug for his wife.’

Should Heinz have broken into the store to steal the drug for his wife? Why or why not?

Question 412

According to Asch, what leads to the disintegration of w group?

Answer 412

Equality between members

Question 413

What’s true about adult personality over time?

Answer 413

Makes become more introverted