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PPS (SAQ Exam) > Psychology > Flashcards

Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Distinguish classical conditioning from operant conditioning (1pt)

A

Classical conditioning is learned by association to a stimulant such as taste aversion after chemo, whereas operant is learned by consequence. Operant has a higher response the more it is reinforced.

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2
Q

Provide two examples of each form of conditioning (4pts)

A

Classical: Taste Aversion after chemotherapy, on entering the doors to the hospital, the pt may feel nauseous. Or, when taking a dog for a walk, they are used to the leash and come to understand the leash is indicative of walkies.
Operant: If a patient is requiring a social interaction and visits the GP they receive the social interaction. This is inforced with more response and leads to learned incompetence. Or, if a dog is given a command with a treat, they associate being able to get a treat on return.

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3
Q

Define adherence (1pt)

A

The extend to which patients follow prescribed medical treatments, medications and recommendations. A common example is finishing a course of antibiotics.

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4
Q

Define compliance (1pt)

A

Is more clinical/ paternal medicine rather than patient focused, and refers to the passive action of following advice. This has negative connotations due to use of “non-compliant” to refer to patients.

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5
Q

Define concordance (1pt)

A

The process of collaborating with a patient and relevant medical teams to create an agreed recommendation that is practical, fits with the patient, encourages success and can be redefined.
ask, assess, advise, agree, and assist

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6
Q

List 5 ways adherence to a drug can be measured (5pts)

A

Patient Reports
Blister pack refill
Structured Interviews
Therapeutic Drug Interviews
Electronic devices/ apps/ monitoring

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7
Q

List 3 things a patient could be non-adherent towards (3pts)

A

Medication
Exercise Regime
Dietary Recommendations
Therapy
Appointments

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8
Q

Describe 5 consequences to non-adherence (5pts)

A

Financial Implications to Health Services
Therapeutic Dose reduced
Risk of resistance to Antibiotics
Toxicity if the patient is creative and tries to “catch up” doses
Loss of Health Gain.

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9
Q

List 3 determinants of non-adherence (3pts)

A

Complexity of Regime
Socioeconomic and Health Literacy
Stigma (change of identity with chronic illness and disability)

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10
Q

Describe the self-regulation model of adherence and provide examples to each of the three domains (5pts)

A

Identifies the patient’s beliefs about illness and treatment (I broke my foot, I am an idiot for being careless)
Identity
Cause
Timeline
Consequences
Cure
Coping Mechanism ( I can manage this on my own, until the pain is too much)
Appraisal (The pain is not subsiding and my range of movement is too restricted, I will seek Medical help)
Response (sought medical help)

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11
Q

Three phases of non-adherence with examples (5pt)

A

Imitation: reluctance to start as patient may have worries about side effects
Implementation: Difficulty finding the correct dose that works for the individual
Persistence: Life style changes, side effects and remembering to take medication may result in discontinuance.

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12
Q

Define patient satisfaction (1pt)/ What influences patient satisfaction?

A

Interpersonal skills of health professional, the technical quality of the hcp, the accessibility of the recommendation, the availability including waiting times, the cost (including time off work for appointments) and continuity of care.

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13
Q

List 5 consequences to patient dissatisfaction (5pts)

A

Poor Adherence
Changes Doctors/ Health team.
Using OTC drugs which have risk of toxicity and interactions
Utilising unorthodox and or alternative Tx
Poorer Health status

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14
Q

Define pain (1pt)

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with or resembling that associated with, actual or potential tissue damage.

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15
Q

Define nociceptive pain (1pt)

A

Pain resulting from injury to body tissue- often localised, described as sharp pain.

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16
Q

Define nociplastic pain (1pt)

A

Altered pain sensation without clear tissue damage or disease

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17
Q

Define neuropathic pain (1pt)

A

Injury in the CNS or peripheral body resulting in burning pain

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18
Q

Outline factors associated with chronic pain, using the biopsychosocial model: (5pts)

A

Biologically, the pain exists but may be dismissed and psychological when there is a real pain generating event occurring
The pain may be amplified by the psychological anxiety, changes and adapting to a life with pain
Socially, the pain may prevent “stress relieving” activities such as socialisation as it would improve the pain.
Dynamically, this pain may be worse on somedays rather than others, this does not mean the pain is not real, or the patient is not helping their pain
Pain has contributors and causes which may amplify pain felt during some occasions, this does not mean the patient is “faking their pain”.

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19
Q

Outline examples of the multi-disciplinary approach to the management of chronic pain (5pts)

A

Psychological support with CBT, ACT< Counselling
Biological Management with medication such as pain clinics
Expert advice with alternative ideas such as TENS, acupuncture
Physiotherapy including body alignment and strengthening.
Relaxation techniques

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20
Q

Discuss the ethics surrounding providing placebo painkillers to a patient experiencing pain (5pts)

A

Placebo has evidence of reducing reported pain and pain-evoked activity in the insula and ACC, and has a beneficial effect, which is considered beneficence.
Placebo requires the patient to be unaware of their participation (to an extent) which reduced their autonomy and choice to engage and is not informed consent.
Placebo can often go against the concept of justice as individuals are prohibited from engaging with an active substance
The doctor patient relationship is founded on trust, which can be damaged when receiving nondisclosed placebo but this can be avoided with open label placebo where patients with empathetic relationships with their clinician have greatest placebo-induced improvements.

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21
Q

Describe four psychological correlates associated with chronic pain (4pts)

A

Depression
Anxiety
Reduced Working Memory
Catastrophising.

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22
Q

Define central sensitization of pain (1pt)

A

Hyper responsiveness due to sensitisation to pain at the CNS, increasing “felt” pain.

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23
Q

Describe the gold standard treatments for chronic pain management (2pts)

A

Pharmacological and non pharmacological treatment designed in partnership with the patient to increase concordance. Felt pain and perceived pain must be addressed.
Analgesics, Antidepressants and Anticonvulsants alongside, CBT, exercise, lifestyle.

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24
Q

Define perception (1pt)

A

How the brain organizes, interprets, and consciously experiences sensory information.

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25
Q

Define sensation (1pt)

A

Sensing the existence of a stimulant

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26
Q

Distinguish perception and sensation (1pt)

A

Sensation is often the “what”- light, sharp, hot, whereas perception is the conscious experience and meaning applied to sensation: wet, painful, soft, safe

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27
Q

Define and describe the bottom-up theory of perception using examples (5pts)

A

This is the analysis of sensory stimuli without relying on prior knowledge or experience. This focuses on the elemental sensory input. Such as individual textures and light without relating to a precious experience. The brain then organises this into shape, size, material.

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28
Q

Define and describe the top-down theory of perception using examples (5pts)

A

Top town is the analysis of sensory stimuli utilising previous experiences and knowledge to guide perception. Ambiguous and incomplete stimuli can “make sense” as the brain infers missing details. For example, humans tend to see faces in non-anthropopathic objects.

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29
Q

List and explain psychological factors that influence perception (5pts)

A

Emotion- Depressed patients perceive information as more negative
Attention- In the absence of attention it is likely that patients will not perceive given information accurately.Pain is high when less distracted
Expectations about symptoms can lead to patients ignoring potentially serious illness ( my back always hurts)
Motivation- “there must be a cure” and search for a wonder drug rather than existing options
Age- reduced ability to ignore irrelevant information following medication instructions is more difficult.

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30
Q

Define “mind” (1pt)

A

A state of brain activity, the output of a working brain.

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31
Q

Describe the process of cerebral information processing (3pts)

A

Sequential Processing- step by step information processing
Parallel processing- simultaneous information processing and integration of stimuli
Hierarchal processing- cognitive functions are built upon simple functions to build hierarchal structure.

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32
Q

Define the critical period in biology

A

Crucial for learning, critical periods occur in early development and are marked with synaptic plasticity. This aids learning as constant stimulation of neurones strengthens connections- such as walking, talking etc.

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33
Q

List 5 types of psychological interventions and describe each of them (5pts)

A

CBT
Relaxation Techniques
Exposure Interventions: Counterconditioning and Gradual exposure
Cognitive restructuring
Socratic Questioning

Better answer:
Psychotherapy
Medication Management
Mindfulness
Behavioural Intervention
Supportive Counselling

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34
Q

Describe cognitive and behavioural psychological interventions and provide 2 examples of each intervention (5pts)

Adapt how I respond (behavioural), Adapt how I think (cognitive)

A

CBT- Socratic Questions, Cognitive restructuring
Exposure intervention- counter conditioning and gradual exposure.

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35
Q

Define Working Memory (1pt)

A

the system responsible for temporarily holding and manipulating information needed for cognitive tasks, such as reasoning, problem-solving, and decision-making.

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36
Q

Define Long-term Memory (1pt)

A

refers to the system responsible for the storage and retrieval of information over extended periods, ranging from minutes to years.

37
Q

Define Episodic Memory (1pt)

A

is a type of long-term memory that stores personal experiences and events in a chronological order, along with the associated contextual details,

38
Q

Define Semantic Memory (1pt)

A

a type of long-term memory that stores general knowledge, facts, concepts, and meanings without reference to the specific contexts in which they were learned or experienced.

39
Q

Define Declarative Memory (1pt)

A

e conscious, explicit memory system responsible for storing and retrieving factual information

40
Q

Define Procedural Memory (1pt)

A

implicit memory, is a type of long-term memory that stores knowledge of how to perform skilled actions, procedures, or tasks without conscious awareness or effort

41
Q

Define Prospective Memory (1pt)

A

ability to remember and execute intended actions or tasks at a future point in time, such as remembering to attend an appointment,

42
Q

Describe the three processes involving the conversion of short term to long term memory recall (5pt)

A

Encoding- transforming sensory information into a form that can be stored and retained in memory. Memory tricks can be used to support this such as the method of loci.
Storage - Long-term memory has a vast capacity and can hold a vast amount of information indefinitely
Retrieval - cue required, stimulus reconstructed

43
Q

Define consolidation (1pt)

A

Long term potentiation of information, strengthening of synapses. Ensures data is encoded for long term retrieval but can be corrupted by Interference.

44
Q

List two factors that assist memory consolidation (2pts)

A

Repetition and Context

45
Q

Distinguish anterograde amnesia from retrograde amnesia (2pts)

A

Anterograde amnesia= Inability to store new
Retrograde amnesia = Inability to recall information before trauma

46
Q

What is the primacy-recency effect? (1pt)

A

information in serial order, we remember more from the beginning and end

47
Q

Explain the importance of the primacy-recency effect in clinical practice, using an example (1pt)

A

When giving a report about a patient, information in the middle (often pMHx) will be lost.

48
Q

List 5 factors that may impact recall of memories (5pts)

A

Passage of time
Amnesia (injury etc)
Interference
Primacy regency
Stress (psychogenic memory loss)

49
Q

Distinguish proactive from retroactive interference of memory (2pts)

A

Proactive– new phone number replaces old number
Retroactive – old route home blocks new route home

50
Q

List 5 factors that induce forgetting (5pts)

A

Passage of time
Interference
Amnesia
Trauma
Primacy Regency

51
Q

Distinguish recognition from recall (2pts)

A

Sensuing a stimulus has been encountered vs being able to reconstruct the stimulus from long-term memory

52
Q

Define Loss and Bereavement (2pts)

A

Loss: Inevitable part of life, being deprived of a person or thing that had emotional significant
Bereavement: Losing someone through death; a normal life aspect with accompanying mourning

53
Q

Distinguish Grief from Mourning (2pts)

A

Grief: Emotional reaction with psychological and physical responses.
Mourning: Adaptation to loss involving cultural and social rituals.

54
Q

Describe 5 features of the acute grief response (5pts)

A

Shock, numbness, yearning, anger, disrupted sleep, illusions, and preoccupation. may last 6 weeks.

55
Q

Describe 5 features of long-term grief response (5pts)

A

Social withdrawal, sleep disturbance, restlessness, loneliness; may last 3-12+ months.

56
Q

Describe the 5-stages of grief (5pts)

A

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.

57
Q

Describe the dual-process model of grief, providing examples of each section (5pts)

A

Emphasizes oscillation between Loss-Oriented and Restoration-Oriented coping.
I am sad that they died, I am glad they are no longer suffering.
Loss: mourning and grieving.
Restoration: Planning for a future, rebuilding life.

58
Q

List five changes to health that can result from bereavement (5pts)

A

long-term, high-level, chronic stressor.
negative immune functionin
More likely to suffer mental and physical illness, higher rates of medication use, disability, hospitalization,and early mortality.

59
Q

Distinguish normal from complicated grief (2pts)

A

Grieving is a normal process; the majority (90-95%) recover within a reasonable time.
Complicated Grief: Experienced by 10-20%, characterized by persistent intrusive thoughts, active avoidance, interference with daily functioning, and a pervasive sense of meaninglessness.

60
Q

Describe three features of complicated grief (3pts)

A

Active avoidance, interference with daily functioning, and a pervasive sense of meaninglessness.

61
Q

List 5 risk factors of experiencing complicated grief (5pts)

A

Circumstances surrounding loss (sudden, violent causes).
Individual circumstances (previous coping problems, mental health history).
Lack of social support.
Quality of the lost relationship (very close, difficult).
Disenfranchised grief (Doka, 1989): A loss that cannot be openly acknowledged, publicly mourned or socially supported

62
Q

List 2 strengths of the health-belief model (2pts)

A

Identifies barrier to change
Critically focuses on threat, susceptibility, barriers and benefits

63
Q

List 2 weaknesses of the health-belief model (2pts)

A

requires the assumption EVERYONE cares about outcomes.
No emotions, habits, social motivations

64
Q

List 2 strengths of the theory of planned behaviour, and 2 weaknesses (4pts)

A

Attitudes, Subjective norms, perceived behavioural control
Accounts for Culture
BUT
Intentions DO NOT enact behaviour
Assumes behaviour is rational

65
Q

Distinguish physical activity from exercise (1pt)

A

skeletal musclesthat results in energy expenditure
Exercise: Typically planned, repetitive & structured activity requiring physical effort, carried out to sustain or improve health and fitness

66
Q

List 5 physiological benefits of physical activity (5pts)

A

Reduces: Dementia, Hip Fracture, CVS, T2 Diabetes, Colon Cancer, Breast Cancer

67
Q

List 5 psychological benefits of physical activity (5pts)

A

Reduces Depression
More academically alert
More Focused
Endorphine Release
Sense of accomplishment

68
Q

List 5 influential determinants of physical activity (5pts)

A

Higher socio-economic status
Male (barriers to women)
Ethnic Background
Health Status
Self Efficacy
Social Support

69
Q

List 5 barriers to physical activity (5pts)

A

Women, Ethnic Background, Age, Health status, Smoker status, motivation

70
Q

Compare physical activity interventions at the individual and community levels, describing one benefit and one downside to each intervention (5pts)

A

1-1 is tailored but labour intesive and expensive
Group: social and motivational but group demands differ, less choice
Community: wide impact, existing infrastructure BUT availability of facilities and good for areas with resources
Societal: widest impact BUT town planing, architecture, safety, resource access.

71
Q

Define ‘intelligence’ and suggest a method of measuring it (2pts)

A

refers to a general ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly, learn from experience, and adapt to new situations.
IQ tests

72
Q

Describe a biological factor that affects intelligence (2pts)

A

Genetics, Nutrition, Health, Infection, Structural Brain changes, Ageing

73
Q

List 5 environmental factors that impact intelligence (5pts)

A

Education, SES, Stress, Toxins (pollution, lead)

74
Q

List 5 social factors that influence intelligence (5pts)

A

Parenting styles, Neighbourhood risk, Socioeconomic disparities, Peers, Access to education

75
Q

List 3 uses of the intelligence quotient test (3pts)

A

diagnose and quantify learning disabilities, assess intellectual impairment following trauma or medical conditions, characterize specific learning difficulties, and evaluate developmental milestones in children.

76
Q

Define cognitive development (1pt)

A

development refers to changes in a child’s thinking with age or experience.

77
Q

Explain Piaget’s theory of cognitive development (1pt)

A

children as “little scientists” solving problems.
Cognitive development involves interaction between the individual and environment, leading to adaptation through equilibration.
Assimilation, Accommodation, Schema

78
Q

List and describe each of Piaget’s stages (5pts)

A

Assimilation: Modifying the environment to fit existing knowledge.
Accommodation: Modifying knowledge structures to fit new challenges.
Schemas: Internal representations of general classes of actions or situations.

79
Q

Explain Lorenz’s theory of attachment (1pt)

A

Imprinting in ducks and waders; critical period for attachment.

80
Q

Explain Bowlby’s theory of attachment (3pts)

A

Attachment theory; innate behavior for survival (e.g., crying, smiling).

81
Q

Explain Harlow’s theory of attachment (1pt)

A

Monkey experiments showing preference for cloth mothers over wire mothers; importance of comfort and security.

82
Q

Explain Ainsworth’s theory of attachment (1pt)

A

Strange Situation” classification; identified secure, insecure-avoidant, insecure-resistant, and later disorganized attachment types.

83
Q

Explain Kohlberg’s work on moral development, describing each stage (3pts)

A

Preconventional Morality: Stage 1: Obedience and punishment., Stage 2: Reward and fairness.
Conventional Morality: Stage 3: Seeking approval by being “good.”, Stage 4: Upholding laws and societal rules.
Postconventional Morality:, Stage 5: Values are relative and impartial., Stage 6: Ethical principles may override laws.

84
Q

Describe the development of language in children (4pts)

A

4-6 months: Babbling.
10-12 months: First words.
18 months: Knows about 10 words.
2 years: Two-word sentences.
3 years: Understandable by strangers, uses pronouns.
5 years: Fluent speech with grammar.

85
Q

List 5 psychological changes in cognitive skills with age (5pts)

A

Sensorimotor Stage (0-2 years): Differentiates self from objects, Recognizes self as an agent of action., Develops object permanence.
Preoperational Stage (2-7 years): Symbolic thinking., Egocentric and animistic thinking., Achieves conservation of numbers (around age 6).
Concrete Operational Stage (7-11 years):, Logical thinking about concrete objects and events., Understands conservation of mass, volume, and number., Classifies objects by multiple features.
Formal Operational Stage (12+ years):, Logical thinking about abstract propositions., Considers hypothetical, future, and ideological concepts.

86
Q

Describe Erikson’s theory of lifespan development from adulthood onwards, listing the three stages and explaining each of those stages (5pts)

A

Model highlights eight stages, each with a specific psychosocial crisis.
In later life, individuals face the crisis of Integrity vs. Despair:
Integrity: Reflecting on life with a sense of fulfillment and accomplishment.
Despair: Feeling regret and dissatisfaction with life’s trajectory.

87
Q

Describe Neugarten’s model of anticipated life course, providing examples of scenerios (3pts)

A

Life course is structured by predictable bio-social events (e.g., birth, education, marriage).
Predictable events (e.g., widowhood for older women) require less adjustment.
Unpredictable events (e.g., death of an adult child) demand more adjustment and can be destabilizing.

88
Q

Explain socioemotional selective theory, providing an example to demonstrate your understanding (3pts)

A

Socioemotional Selective Theory (SST):
Proposed by Laura Carstensen, SST suggests that as people age, their social goals and priorities shift.
Older adults become more selective in their social interactions, emphasizing emotionally meaningful relationships.
Time perspective plays a crucial role, with older adults focusing on activities and relationships that hold greater emotional significance in the present moment.

Elderly couple:
Prioritize spending time together and nurturing emotional connection.
Engage in activities that promote closeness and intimacy, such as shared hobbies and intimate conversations.
Less concerned with pursuing new social opportunities or long-term goals unrelated to emotional well-being.
Maintain a smaller social circle focused on relationships characterized by depth, intimacy, and emotional support.

PPS (SAQ Exam) (4 decks)

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