Psychiatry - Mental disorders Flashcards

1
Q

PSY - 4.1
The following are characteristics of delirium tremens, except for:

A) high risk for suicide
B) fluctuating confusion
C) signs of autonomic hyperactivity
D) tactile hallucinations

A

ANSWER
A) high risk for suicide
EXPLANATION
Explanation: The symptoms of delirium tremens (signs of autonomic hyperactivity like hypertension, fever, tachycardia; global confusion, disorientation, perceptual disorders as a result of withdrawal from alcohol) make the person unable to make suicidal plans.

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2
Q

PSY - 4.2
The person has clear consciousness. He can hear voices that are talking about him and threatening him. For the person, the voices seem to be reality and they are a very disturbing experience, which makes him feel intensely anxious. What do you think the diagnosis is?

A) delirium tremens
B) alcoholic hallucinosis
C) dementia
D) panic disorder
E) obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

ANSWER
B) alcoholic hallucinosis
EXPLANATION
Explanation: Auditory hallucinations especially threatening voices and hearing dialogues that result in severe anxiety in the person without an altered level of consciousness are all characteristics of alcoholic hallucinosis.

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3
Q

PSY - 4.3
The following are typical sympoms of delirium tremens, except for:

A) tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures at onset
B) auditory hallucinations without an altered level of consciousness and disorientation
C) shaking, sweating
D) confusion
E) disorientation

A

ANSWER
B) auditory hallucinations without an altered level of consciousness and disorientation
EXPLANATION
Explanation: Both consciousness and attention are altered in delirium tremens (global confusion) and disorientation is also present as the most characteristic symptoms.

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4
Q

PSY - 4.4
Among the following, what are the interpersonal relationships of persons with alcohol problems characterised by the most?

A) a high number of reliable friends
B) simplicity of making friends
C) deep and close associations with certain persons
D) simple formation of social relations, but these are not durable
E) generosity, helpfulness, reliability

A

ANSWER
D) simple formation of social relations, but these are not durable
EXPLANATION
Explanation: Persons with alcohol problems tend to make superficial friendships easily but they show as little endurance in social relations as in any other fields of life.

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5
Q

PSY - 4.5
Delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal are to be treated with the following:

1) benzodiazepines
2) vitamin B complex (or thiamine)
3) potassium and magnesium preparations
4) disulfiram

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Explanation: In the treatment of delirium tremens benzodiazepines play a crucial role in alleviating both the autonomic symptoms and psychomotor restlessness and preventing seizures. The replacement of potassium and magnesium as well as B vitamins is also essential since their concentrations in the blood are typically low in delirium tremens.

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6
Q

PSY - 4.6
What is/are the most characteristic symptom(s) of delirium tremens?

1) tremor
2) sweating
3) confusion
4) perceptual disorders

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Delirium tremens is usually caused by withdrawal from alcohol. Its characteristic symptoms are global confusion, disorientation, perceptual disorders (hallucinations), tremor, sweating and other signs of autonomic hyperactivity.

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7
Q

PSY - 4.7
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is characterised by the following:

1) sudden onset
2) nystagmus and ophtalmoplegia
3) confusion along with somnolence
4) lesions of the mammillary bodies

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Wernicke’s encephalopathy (Wernicke’s disease) is a consequence of long-term alcohol abuse. It is associated with periaqueductal gray haemorrhages at the level of lamina quadrigemina (superior colliculus). Thiamine deficiency appears to be the most important etiological factor. Its onset is usually sudden and its most common symptoms are vertical nystagmus, opthalmoplegia, ataxia and confusion.

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8
Q

PSY - 4.8
The diagnostic criterion/criteria for alcohol dependence is/are the following:

1) tolerance (need for increased amounts of alcohol to achieve desired effect)
2) characteristic withdrawal syndrome for alcohol when attempting to stop use
3) a great deal of time spent in activities necessary to obtain or to use alcohol and important social, occupational or recreational activities given up or reduced because of drinking
4) craving

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Tolerance and withdrawal syndrome are the symptoms of physical dependence, whereas the dominance of activities necessary to obtain or to use alcohol and craving are the manifestation of psychological dependence.

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9
Q

PSY - 4.9
The diagnostic criterion/criteria for alcohol abuse is/are the following:

1) failure to fulfill major role obligations at work, school or home
2) alcohol use in situations in which it is physically hazardous
3) alcohol-related legal problems
4) continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In alcohol abuse there is a continued maladaptive pattern of drinking despite social, occupational, legal, etc. problems caused by effects of alcohol and the criteria for alcohol dependence (tolerance, withdrawal syndrome, psychological dependence) are never met.

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10
Q

PSY - 4.10
The following statement(s) is/are true for the neurobiolgy of alcohol use:

1) Alcohol affects several neurotransmitter systems.
2) Chronic alcohol use does not affect the operation of the reward system in the brainstem.
3) The endogenous opioid system plays a role in the appearance of euphoria following alcohol consumption.
4) Alcohol does not influence the operation of cortical areas (e.g. prefrontal cortex).

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

EXPLANATION
Chroninc alcohol use affects several neurotransmitter systems (glutamate, dopamine, endogenous opiates) resulting in affecting the physiological operation of brainstem pathways of reward, prefronatlcortex and hippocampus.

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11
Q

PSY - 4.14
Which test(s) is/are to be performed to find the correct diagnosis?
A 16-year-old girl has arrived at the outpatient ward with her mother. In the past few months she has lost 15 kilos. She goes running every day. She has insomnia.

1) urine drug test
2) calculating body mass index
3) concentrations of thyroid hormones (blood test)
4) polysomnography

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The concentrations of thyroid hormones need to be determined to exlude hyperthyreosis. Amphetamine is detectable in urine, therefore the urine drug test is also necessary. Anorexia nervosa is based on BMI, so that is to be calculated, as well. However, none of the above mentioned tests is diagnostic in itself.

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12
Q

PSY - 4.15
What do you think his most likely diagnosis was?

An 18-year-old man arrived at the hospital on Sunday morning. He was accompanied by his friends. His symptoms were sweating, tachycardia, dilated pupils, psychomotor agitation. His behaviour was hostile, full of anger and he felt furious.
A) alcohol intoxication
B) heroin intoxication
C) acute psychotic state of schizophrenia
D) cocaine intoxication
E) none of the above

A

ANSWER
D) cocaine intoxication
EXPLANATION
The person’s symptoms were characteristic signs of cocaine or other psychostimulant intoxication

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13
Q

PSY - 4.17
Among the following which is not a characteristic symptom of heroin overdose?

A) dilated pupils
B) hypotension
C) hyporeflexia
D) coma
E) respiratory depression

A

ANSWER
A) dilated pupils
EXPLANATION
A heroin overdose may result in extremely small pupils, sometimes as small as head of a pin (“pinpoint pupils”).

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14
Q

PSY - 4.18
Among the following substances which may cause physical dependence?

A) benzodiazepines
B) opiates
C) alcohol
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

A

ANSWER
D) all of the above
EXPLANATION
All of the above mentioned substance are capable of causing physical dependence as a result of chronic use.

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15
Q

PSY - 4.19
The following statements are true except for:

A) Besides “classical drugs” there are a lot of synthetic, so-called designer drugs that have been used recently.
B) Standard urine drug tests are incapable of detecting designer drugs.
C) Synthetic amphetamines, sytnthetic opioids and synthetic cannabionids are all designer drugs.
D) Pathomechanism and possible adverse effects of designer drugs are clearly known.
E) There is an inappropriate legal regulation regarding the use of designer drugs.

A

ANSWER
D) Pathomechanism and possible adverse effects of designer drugs are clearly known.
EXPLANATION
In most of the cases, neither the pathomechanism, nor the effects and adverse effects of designer drugs are known.

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16
Q

PSY - 4.20
The following play(s) a role in the long-term treatment of substance-related mental disorders:

1) self-help groups (Narcotics Anonymous)
2) rehabilitation centres and therapeutic communities
3) social skills training and improving coping skills
4) family interventions and community-based interventions

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The long-term treatment of substance abuse and dependence is to be complex and individually tailored involving as many of the above mentioned psychosocial interventions as possible since all of them may have a role in the therapy

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17
Q

PSY - 4.22
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

1) Heroin was temporarily used to treat morphinism.
2) Cocaine used to play a role in the treatment of several diseases at the beginning of the 20th century.
3) Cannabis and its derivatives may have a role in the treatment of glaucoma, cancer-related pain and chemotherapy-induced nausea.
4) Some amphetamine derivatives are used in the therapy for ADHD.

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
A lot of illicit drugs and similar chemical structures are used as medicine

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18
Q

PSY - 4.23
Rapid cycling is a special form of bipolar disorder, this means that:

A) the patient has flight of ideas
B) the case isn’t characterized by anxiety.
C) 4 relapses during a period of 5 years
D) Disease episodes follow each other rapidly, the patient has at least 4 different episodes in one year.
E) considerable psychomotor agitation

A

ANSWER
D) Disease episodes follow each other rapidly, the patient has at least 4 different episodes in one year.
EXPLANATION
Explanation: The definition of rapid cycling is 4 episodes within one year

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19
Q

PSY - 4.24
In which condition do patients experience the most severe anxiety after awakening in the early morning hours?

A) post-stroke depression
B) major depression
C) pharmacogenic depression
D) abstinential depression

A

ANSWER
B) major depression
EXPLANATION
Major depression is characterized by diurnal rhythm dysbalance, patients have insomnia, wake very early and can’t get back to sleep. They also experience their condition’s vicious cycle and develop anxiety.

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20
Q

PSY - 4.25
Which is the most common delusion in depression?

A) delusion of theft
B) delusion of guilt and self-accusation
C) persecutory delusion
D) delusions of reference

A

ANSWER
B) delusion of guilt and self-accusation
EXPLANATION
Delusions are observed in some cases of depression. These delusions are holothymic, fitting into the themes of the depression. Common delusions include hypochondriacal delusions or delusions of guilt.

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21
Q

PSY - 4.26
The longitudinal disease course of affective psychoses is characterized by:

A) circularly returning disease episodes
B) slow progression
C) acute worsening of condition alternating with slow progression
D) single episode
E) dementia

A

ANSWER
A) circularly returning disease episodes
EXPLANATION
Affective psychoses are characterized by circularly returning episodes, symptoms usually resemble symptoms of the previous episode.

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22
Q

PSY - 4.28
The following statements are true for bipolar disorder, except:

A) it often runs in families
B) all manic episodes are followed by depression
C) equal distribution between sexes
D) usually begins before the age of 30 years
E) increased risk of substance abuse and suicide

A

ANSWER
B) all manic episodes are followed by depression
EXPLANATION
It is not a necessary criterion of bipolar affective disorder that all episodes have to be followed by an episode of opposite direction.

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23
Q

PSY - 4.29
41 year old male patient complains that he hasn’t accomplished anything in the last 8 years, he feels dissatisfied and unhappy. 12 years ago, when his girlfriend left him he felt depressed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A) Psychotic depression
B) Schizophrenia
C) Bipolar depression
D) Dysthymia
E) Cyclothymia

A

ANSWER
D) Dysthymia
EXPLANATION
The chronic dissatisfaction, unhappiness, low self-esteem makes dysthymia the most probable diagnosis. This might have been superposed by a major depressive episode 12 years ago.

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24
Q

PSY - 4.30
Symptoms of mania except for:

1) aggression
2) egodiastole
3) secondary incoherence
4) increased critical insight

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
Explanation: Mania is characterized by the decrease of critical insight, not the increase, the other 3 symptoms are very typical.

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25
Q

PSY - 4.31
Potential complications of untreated affective disorders:

1) suicide
2) pseudologia phantastica
3) alcohol dependence
4) vascular dementia
5) social dysfunction and isolation
6) bulimia
7) tardive dyskinesia

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
D) only the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
E) only the1st, 2nd, 3rd, 5th and 7th answers are correct
F) only the 2nd, 3rd, 6th and 7th answers are correct
G) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) only the1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Affective disorders are often accompanied by suicide, alcohol abuse and social dysfunction, especially when no treatment is received.

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26
Q

PSY - 4.32
What are the features of bipolar disorder type II.?

1) Patients of this disease type are not really bipolar.
2) Fulminant manic symptoms during the manic episodes.
3) Manic symptoms are caused by pharmacological treatment.
4) Episodes of hyperthymia only reach the level of hypomania, and usually don’t require hospitalization.

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
Bipolar disorder type II, is characterized by less severe hypomanic episodes, alternating with periods of severe depression.

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27
Q

PSY - 4.33
Somatic symptoms of depression:

1) insomnia
2) delusions of guilt and self-accusation
3) decreased appetite
4) concentration problems

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Explanation: insomnia and decreased appetite are typical somatic symptoms in depression, the other two symptoms also occur frequently but aren’t somatic.

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28
Q

PSY - 4.35
Which of the following symptoms are typical for the manic condition?

1) distractibility and increased self-esteem
2) holothymic perceptual disturbances and delusions of grandeur
3) increased activity and decreased need for sleep
4) a specific external factor before the appearance of symptoms

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
All of the above symptoms are typical for mania, but there doesn’t have to be necessarily an external eliciting factor.

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29
Q

PSY - 4.36
Which of the following medications can cause manic symptoms?

1) cocaine, speed (metamphetamin)
2) corticosteroids
3) high dose antidepressants
4) reserpine

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
high dose of antidepressants and psychostimulants can provoke manic symptoms. Reserpine and corticosteroids usually cause depression.

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30
Q

PSY - 4.37
Sleep pattern in major depression is characterized by the following changes:

1) frequent frightening dreams and awakenings
2) both falling asleep (sleep onset) and awakening happens earlier than usual
3) 4th phase sleep (delta-phase) is increased
4) decreased REM-latency

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Typical changes during sleep in MDD patients include early sleep onset, wakening, and decreased REM-latency

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31
Q

PSY - 4.38
Which disorders should be considered while establishing a differential diagnosis for affective disorders?

1) expansive intracranial process
2) thyroid gland dysfunction
3) phaeochromocytoma
4) adult ADHD (attention deficit and hyperactivity disorder)

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
All of these conditions might cause affective symptoms and resemble affective disorders, therefore all of them should be considered during the differential diagnostic process.

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32
Q

PSY - 4.39
Patients with severe depression are most probably:

1) reckless and careless
2) agitated and anxious
3) hostile and dismissive
4) sad, unhappy and anhedonic

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In severe depression patients are agitated, anxious, experience sadness and anhedonia.

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33
Q

PSY - 4.40
Characteristics of dysthymia:

1) chronic fatigue
2) social withdrawal
3) insomnia
4) hypersomnia

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
All of these symptoms, chronic fatigue, social withdrawal, insomnia and/or hypersomnia can be a symptom of dysthymia.

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34
Q

PSY - 4.41
A 22 year old university student suddenly demonstrates elevated mood at the end of an exam period, his appearance becomes markable and bold, his behavior is careless, he has no critical insight. He is active all the time, spends a lot of money, doesn’t feel tired for more than one week. He has no illness insight, he describes his condition as “superhappy”. Which are probable diagnoses:

1) personality disorder
2) narcomania
3) primitive reaction
4) manic or hypomanic episode

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
Explanation: the pressured psychomotor speed, the reckless behavior, the increased unnecessary spending, and the elevated mood are very typical for mania.

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35
Q

PSY - 4.42
Typical symptoms of depression:

1) decreased capability to concentrate
2) hypochondriasis
3) weight loss
4) perceptual disturbances

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
concentration problems, weight loss and hypochondriacal thoughts are very typical in depression, perceptual disturbances (i.e. hallucinations) are very uncommon.

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36
Q

PSY - 4.44
Who gave schizophrenia its name?

A) Emil Kraepelin
B) Eugen Bleuler
C) William Cullen
D) Kurt Schneider
E) Karl Kleist

A

ANSWER
B) Eugen Bleuler
EXPLANATION
E. Bleuler considered the presence of schisms between thought, emotion and behaviour the essence of the disorder. In 1911, he labelled it schizophrenia uniting the Greek roots szkidzein (to split) and frenosz (mind)

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37
Q

PSY - 4.45
The following are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia except for:

A) apathy
B) alogia
C) lack of motivation
D) delusional guilt, sin, worthlessness
E) social withdrawal

A

ANSWER
D) delusional guilt, sin, worthlessness
EXPLANATION
delusions belong to the group of positive symptoms, regardless of their content.

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38
Q

PSY - 4.47
The diagnosis of schizophrenia is primarily based on:

A) clinical observation and the analysis of symptoms
B) alterations in biological markers
C) the Rorschach test
D) Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale
E) the MAWI test (the Hungarian version of Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale)

A

ANSWER
A) clinical observation and the analysis of symptoms
EXPLANATION
The diagnosis is based on the thorough exploration of symptoms of perception, behaviour and motor activity. Projective and personality tests may indicate abnormalities present in schizophrenia, but the contribution to diagnosis is low. Up to date, there is no laboratory test for schizophrenia.

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39
Q

PSY - 4.49
The following are characteristic of the prodromal phase of schizophrenia except for:

A) it usually begins following puberty
B) presence of changes in perceptual experiences, behaviour, performance
C) progressively intensifying symptoms
D) lack of insight
E) it usually lasts for 2-5 years

A

ANSWER
D) lack of insight
EXPLANATION
in the prodromal phase of schizophrenia the person has some doubts that their “mild” psychotic experiences are real.

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40
Q

PSY - 4.50
The following may have a role in the etiology of schizophrenia:

1) dysfunction of dopaminergic systems
2) alteration in NMDA(N-methyl-D-aspartate)-transmission
3) abnormal brain development
4) alteration in GABAergic transmission in the cerebral cortex

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
all of the above mentioned factors have been proven to have a potential role in the etiology of schizophrenia, but none of them can be regarded as a clear etiological factor.

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41
Q

PSY - 4.51
The following diagnosis/diagnoses are to be exluded when diagnosing schizophrenia:

1) Inflammation in central nervous system like anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis
2) Illicit drug abuse
3) Psychotic depression
4) Schizoaffective psychosis
5) Tumor

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
schizophrenialike symptoms may be present in all of the above mentioned conditions, therefore all of them must be excluded before the diagnosis of schizophrenia

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42
Q

PSY - 4.52
The following is/are characteristic(s) of the course of schizophrenia:

1) it is always episodic
2) the acute phase is usually preceeded by a prodromal phase
3) there are neither delusions nor hallucinations in remissions
4) in remission behaviour is anot altered by delusions and/or hallucinations

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In the majority of cases, the symptoms of schizophrenia show a slow and gradual development (prodromal phase) followed by a chronic course. In the state called remission psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations) may still be present, but these do not alter the person’s behaviour (residual symptoms).

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43
Q

PSY - 4.53
Observing behaviour change one suspects psychosis when

1) the change is socially unreasonable
2) the behaviour is threatening personal safety and property
3) the change is inexplicable from the person’s aspect
4) the behaviour is different from what is culturally accepted

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
one may suspect psychosis when the change in behaviour is socially unreasonable and it is inexplicable from the person’s aspect

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44
Q

PSY - 4.55
The following is/are the characteristic(s) of delusional disorder:

1) elaborate and systematized delusions
2) other criteria for schizophrenia are not fulfilled
3) impaired insight and judgement regarding delusions
4) development is not to be linked to a ‘key experience’
5) psychodynamic factors do not play a role in the development of delusions

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In the development of delusional disorder both ‘key experiences’ and psychodynamic factors have a significant role.

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45
Q

PSY-4.56.1-4.56.5
In which type of psychosis are the following psychiatric symptoms prominent? Match the symptoms with the most probable diagnosis. Diagnoses:

A) mood-congruent delusion
B) primary incoherence
C) echopraxia
D) real visual hallucinations

PSY - 4.56.1 - Drug-induced psychosis
PSY - 4.56.2 - Disorganized type of schizophrenia
PSY - 4.56.3 - Catatonic type of schizphrenia
PSY - 4.56.4 - Mania
PSY - 4.56.5 - Major depression

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.56.1 - Drug-induced psychosis - D)
PSY - 4.56.2 - Disorganized type of schizophrenia - B)
PSY - 4.56.3 - Catatonic type of schizphrenia - C)
PSY - 4.56.4 - Mania - A)
PSY - 4.56.5 - Major depression - A)

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46
Q

PSY-4.57.1-4.57.4
Who invented the following classifications of the symptoms of schizophrenia? Match the dichotomies with a name.

A) Eugen Bleuler
B) Kurt Schneider
C) Timothy Crow
D) Karl Leonhard

PSY - 4.57.1 - positive and negative symptoms
PSY - 4.57.2 - fundamental and accessory symptoms
PSY - 4.57.3 - first-rank and second-rank symptoms
PSY - 4.57.4 - systematic and unsystematic schizophrenias

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.57.1 - positive and negative symptoms - C)

PSY - 4.57.2 - fundamental and accessory symptoms - A)

PSY - 4.57.3 - first-rank and second-rank symptoms - B)

PSY - 4.57.4 - systematic and unsystematic schizophrenias - D

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47
Q

PSY-4.58.1-4.58.5
Which group of symptoms do the following refer to? Match the symptoms with an appropriate group.

A) positive symptoms
B) negative symptoms
C) affective symptoms
D) symptoms affecting neurocognition

PSY - 4.58.5 - alogia
PSY - 4.58.4 - working memory disorder
PSY - 4.58.2 - ambivalence
PSY - 4.58.1 - auditory hallucinations
PSY - 4.58.3 - dysthymia

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.58.5 - alogia - B)
PSY - 4.58.4 - working memory disorder - D)
PSY - 4.58.2 - ambivalence - B)
PSY - 4.58.1 - auditory hallucinations - A)
PSY - 4.58.3 - dysthymia - C)

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48
Q

PSY-4.59.1-4.59.4
Principles of choosing an antipsychotic. Match a medication with an appropriate indication.

A) Long-acting haloperidol depot medication (injected IM)
B) Clozapine
C) Aripiprazole
D) Haloperidol injected IM (short-term treatment)

PSY - 4.59.1 - treatment-resistance; high suicide risk
PSY - 4.59.2 - chronic disease; numerous relapses as a result of medication non-compliance
PSY - 4.59.3 - metabolic syndrome; extrapyramidal neurological adverse effects and endocrine effects (increased secretion of prolactin) in past history
PSY - 4.59.4 - first admission: agitation, hostility

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.59.1 - treatment-resistance; high suicide risk - B)

PSY - 4.59.2 - chronic disease; numerous relapses as a result of medication non-compliance - A)

PSY - 4.59.3 - metabolic syndrome; extrapyramidal neurological adverse effects and endocrine effects (increased secretion of prolactin) in past history - C)

PSY - 4.59.4 - first admission: agitation, hostility - D

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49
Q

PSY - 4.65
What is likely to be the diagnosis?

The 24-year-old patient has been admitted to hospital for the second time. His sympoms appeared about 2 years ago. He has trouble focusing his attention, he feels anxious and low, and has suicidal ideation. He withdrew from his university studies due to learning difficulties. ’I always had to listen to music in order to be able to concentrate.’ he said. He has been seeing his friends rarely recently and he has given up sports, too. His father is an eccentric and reserved person, who has never been under psychiatric treatment. When being hospitalised for the first time, the patient was diagnosed with mixed anxiety-depressive disorder and he was prescribed tranquillisers and antidepressants. After a short period of taking this medication, he changed his pills for paleolithic diet on his mother’s advice. Current state of mind: auditory hallucinations, bizarre cenesthopathic symptoms, paranoid delusions, obsessive thoughts, anxiety, tension, suicidal ideation, lack of insight

.A) Mixed anxiety-depressive disorder
B) Recurrent depression
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
D) Schizophrenia
E) Schizoid personality disorder

A

ANSWER
D) Schizophrenia
EXPLANATION
Explanation: the number and the duration of prominent symptoms like auditory hallucinations, cenesthopathy and delusions meet the criteria for schizophrenia.

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50
Q

PSY - 4.66
What indicate(s) a high risk for suicide?

The 24-year-old patient has been admitted to hospital for the second time. His sympoms appeared about 2 years ago. He has trouble focusing his attention, he feels anxious and low, and has suicidal ideation. He withdrew from his university studies due to learning difficulties. ’I always had to listen to music in order to be able to concentrate.’ he said. He has been seeing his friends rarely recently and he has given up sports, too. His father is an eccentric and reserved person, who has never been under psychiatric treatment. When being hospitalised for the first time, the patient was diagnosed with mixed anxiety-depressive disorder and he was prescribed tranquillisers and antidepressants. After a short period of taking this medication, he changed his pills for paleolithic diet on his mother’s advice. Current state of mind: auditory hallucinations, bizarre cenesthopathic symptoms, paranoid delusions, obsessive thoughts, anxiety, tension, suicidal ideation, lack of insight.

1) male sex
2) depressive symptoms
3) young age
4) social dysfunction
5) high level of social functioning before the disease (he was a university student)

A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
all the factors mentioned above may raise the risk for suicide.

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51
Q

PSY - 4.68
In the differential diagnosis of anorexia nervosa you should exclude the followings, except:

A) Tumors
B) Depression
C) Addison’s disease
D) Cushing’s disease
E) Ulcerative colitis

A

ANSWER
D) Cushing’s disease
EXPLANATION
In Cushing’s disease obesity is present

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52
Q

PSY - 4.69
The symptoms of anorexia nervosa are, except:

A) Weight loss is 15% of the ideal weight
B) There is a body image distortion
C) There is a high suicidal risk at the beginning of the illness
D) It can start at the age of 14

A

ANSWER
C) There is a high suicidal risk at the beginning of the illness
EXPLANATION
Explanation: Suicidal risk is not hight at the beginning of the illness

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53
Q

PSY - 4.70
Anorexia nervosa can be comorbid with:

A) OCD
B) Depression
C) Social phobia
D) Lack of sexual interest
E) All of the above

A

ANSWER
E) All of the above

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54
Q

PSY - 4.72
The patient is publicly exposing his genitals to strange women or girls. The phenomenon is called:

A) Sadism
B) Exhibitionism
C) Pedophilia
D) Transvestism

A

ANSWER
B) Exhibitionism
EXPLANATION
In exhibitionism the violation of a strange woman’s privacy is involved.

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55
Q

PSY - 4.74
Which is the most common cause of the lack of sexual activity in marriage?

A) Old age
B) Marital conflict
C) Depression
D) Somatic illness

A

ANSWER
B) Marital conflict
EXPLANATION
The most common cause is marital conflict, lack of attunement and communication between partners

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56
Q

PSY - 4.75
The phase of human sexual response that occurs after desire is called:

A) Resolution phase
B) Orgasmic phase
C) Excitement phase
D) Ejaculatory phase

A

ANSWER
C) Excitement phase
EXPLANATION
The stages of normal male sexual response are desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution

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57
Q

PSY - 4.77
A patient who has a pervasive and unwarranted tendency to interpret other persons’ actions as deliberatly threatening, has:

A) Schizoid personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

A

ANSWER
B) Paranoid personality disorder
EXPLANATION
These patients are characterized by long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of persons in general.

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58
Q

PSY - 4.78
The patient who is superstitious or claims powers of clairvoyance and believes that he has special powers of thought suffers from

A) Bipolar affective disorder
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Schizophrenia

A

ANSWER
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
EXPLANATION
This disorder occurs in about 3 percent of the population

59
Q

PSY - 4.81
Diagnostic criteria for antisocial personality disorder:

A) Impulsivity
B) Failure to conform to social norms
C) Irritablity
D) Repeated lying
E) All of the above

A

ANSWER
E) All of the above

60
Q

PSY - 4.82
Which of the following subtype of personality disorders is more common in men?

A) Borderline
B) Antisocial
C) Dependent
D) Histrionic

A

ANSWER
B) Antisocial
EXPLANATION
The male/female sex ratio is 7:1

61
Q

PSY - 4.84
Somatization disorder is often comorbid with:

A) Paranoid personality disorder
B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder
E) Passive-agressive personality disorder

A

ANSWER
B) Histrionic personality disorder
EXPLANATION
Somatoform symptoms are common

62
Q

PSY - 4.86
What differentiates transient tic disorder from Tourette syndrome?

A) The onset of illness
B) In transient tic disorder there are only motor tics
C) In transient tic disorder there are only vocal tics
D) The duration of symptoms

A

ANSWER
D) The duration of symptoms
EXPLANATION
In transient tic disorder the duration of the symptomatlogy is less than 1 year

63
Q

PSY - 4.88
Which of the following is not a pervasive developmental disorder?

A) Autism
B) Rett syndrome
C) Münchausen syndrome
D) Asperger syndrome

A

ANSWER
C) Münchausen syndrome
EXPLANATION
Pervasive developmental disorders are disorders with deficits in social communication and behavioral skills.

64
Q

Typical in Prader-Willi syndrome:

A) Hyperphagia
B) Self-injury
C) ‘Coctail party psyche’
D) Average intellectual functioning

A

ANSWER
A) Hyperphagia
EXPLANATION
Due to hyperphagia obesity appears

65
Q

PSY - 4.90
The child is not willing to speak in the school, but at home speaks well. The disorder is:

A) Autism
B) Selective mutism
C) Mental retardation
D) None of the above

A

ANSWER
B) Selective mutism
EXPLANATION
Anxiety is at the background

66
Q

PSY - 4.91
The most common learning disability is:

A) Dyscalculia
B) Dysgraphia
C) Dyslexia
D) None of the above

A

ANSWER
C) Dyslexia
EXPLANATION
The specific developmental disturbances of the prevalence of dyslexia are the most common, 4 % of the population

67
Q

PSY - 4.92
Typical for Lesh-Nyhan syndrome:

A) Self-biting behavior
B) Consequence of HGPRT deficit
C) Mental retardation
D) Accumulation of uric acid
E) All of the above

A

ANSWER
E) All of the above

68
Q

PSY - 4.93
Concerning Tourette syndrome, which of the following statements is false?

A) It is characterized by motor and vocal tics
B) Its prevalence is around 5 per 10 000
C) It is usually associated with OCD
D) It does not cause distress

A

ANSWER
D) It does not cause distress

69
Q

PSY - 4.94
Which of the following is not a feature of Down syndrome?

A) High-arched palate
B) Short stature
C) Protuding tongue
D) Kayser-Fleischer ring
E) Simian crease

A

ANSWER
D) Kayser-Fleischer ring
EXPLANATION
Kayser-Fleischer rings are typical for Wilson’s disease.

70
Q

PSY - 4.95
Conduct disorder includes all of the following, except:

A) Cruelty to animals
B) Agression to humans
C) Destruction of property
D) Obeying rules

A

ANSWER
D) Obeying rules
EXPLANATION
In conduct disorder disregard of rules can be seen.

71
Q

PSY - 4.96
In moderate mental retardation the IQ is between:

A) 50-70
B) 30-50
C) <30

A

ANSWER
B) 30-50
EXPLANATION
In the case of moderate mental retardation, the IQ is between 30 and 50.

72
Q

PSY - 4.97
Similarly to Prader-Willi syndrome, a deletion on the 15th chromosome can be detected in:

A) Williams syndrome
B) Angelman syndrome
C) Di George syndrome
D) None of the above

A

ANSWER
B) Angelman syndrome
EXPLANATION
The deletion in Angelman syndrome has a maternal origin, while in Prader-Willi syndrome a paternal origin is present

73
Q

PSY - 4.98
These are the diagnostic criteria of dementia, EXCEPT:

A) memory loss
B) amentia, alexia, agoraphobia
C) behavioural change
D) impaired executive functions
E) aphasia, agnosia, apraxia

A

ANSWER
B) amentia, alexia, agoraphobia
EXPLANATION
Explanation: amentia, alexia, agoraphobia are not among diagnostic criteria of dementia

74
Q

PSY - 4.99
Definite diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease can be determined by:

A) CT
B) EEG
C) laboratory results
D) neurological examination
E) none of the above

A

ANSWER
E) none of the above
EXPLANATION
The definite diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease can be determined by histopathology, CT/MRI and SPECT/PET can help to exclude other disorders.

75
Q

PSY - 4.100
Which one is a reversible dementia of the following:

A) Pick’s disease
B) Post-stroke dementia
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease
E) Lewy body dementia

A

ANSWER
B) Post-stroke dementia
EXPLANATION
Post-stroke dementia is a vascular type of dementia, which is potentially reversible.

76
Q

PSY - 4.101
These are true in the differentiation of depressive pseudodementia and dementia, EXCEPT:

A) dismissive behaviour in pseudodementia (“don’t know” answers)
B) undue fluctuation of performance in pseudodementia
C) in dementia in spite of memory impairment complaints of memory problems are often lacking
D) personality change is typical for pseudodementia
E) in pseudodementia a family history of affective disorders is frequent

A

ANSWER
D) personality change is typical for pseudodementia
EXPLANATION
Personality change is typical for dementia, especially for Alzheimer’s disease. In pseudodementia depressive symptoms are typical.

77
Q

PSY - 4.103
Which of the following is helpful to differentiate vascular dementia and Alzheimer’s disease?

1) MMSE (“Mini Mental State Exam”)
2) Wechsler IQ Test
3) Dementia Index in IQ tests
4) Hachinski Ischaemic Score

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
In the differentiation between vascular dementia and Alzheimer’s disease the Hachinski Ischaemic Scale is helpful.

78
Q

PSY-4.104.1-4.104.5
Match the supposed pathology of Alzheimer’s disease with the method of examination!

A) MRI
B) SPECT
C) FDG-PET
D) histopathology

PSY - 4.104.1 - temporo-parietal hypoperfusion
PSY - 4.104.2 - β-amyloid deposition (senile plaque)
PSY - 4.104.3 - neurofibrillary tangle
PSY - 4.104.4 - temporo-parietal hypometabolism
PSY - 4.104.5 - hippocampal atrophy

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.104.1 - temporo-parietal hypoperfusion - B)

PSY - 4.104.2 - β-amyloid deposition (senile plaque) - D)

PSY - 4.104.3 - neurofibrillary tangle - D)

PSY - 4.104.4 - temporo-parietal hypometabolism - C)

PSY - 4.104.5 - hippocampal atrophy - A

79
Q

PSY-4.105.1-4.105.5
Match the features with the diagnoses!

A) Alzheimer type of dementia
B) Vascular dementia
C) Parkinson’s disease

PSY - 4.105.1 - temporo-parietal atrophy
PSY - 4.105.2 - multiplex lacunar infarct
PSY - 4.105.3 - hippocampal atrophy
PSY - 4.105.4 - decreased dopamine function
PSY - 4.105.5 - stroke

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.105.1 - temporo-parietal atrophy - A)
PSY - 4.105.2 - multiplex lacunar infarct - B)
PSY - 4.105.3 - hippocampal atrophy - A)
PSY - 4.105.4 - decreased dopamine function - C)
PSY - 4.105.5 - stroke - B)

80
Q

PSY - 4.106
What is the supposed diagnosis according to the symptoms?

A 67-year-old woman got lost in a familiar neighbourhood; she was no longer able to do her housework without help. It was difficult for her to express herself and to calculate. The symptoms got slowly worse. She had no history of previous disorders; there were no detectable internal and neurological pathological signs.
A) Vascular dementia
B) Delirium
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Depression

A

ANSWER
C) Alzheimer’s disease

81
Q

PSY - 4.107
Towards the diagnosis which examination is required?

A 67-year-old woman got lost in a familiar neighbourhood; she was no longer able to do her housework without help. It was difficult for her to express herself and to calculate. The symptoms got slowly worse. She had no history of previous disorders; there were no detectable internal and neurological pathological signs.
1) MMSE
2) Laboratory tests
3) CT/MRI
4) abdominal ultrasound

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Disorientation, aphasia, dyscalculia, deteriorating executive dysfunctions, no other medical disorders in the anamnesis, gradual deterioration of the symptoms refer to Alzheimer’s disease. MMSE, laboratory tests, CT/MRI are required to set up the diagnosis.

82
Q

PSY - 4.108
What is the supposed diagnosis according to the symptoms?

A 60-year-old man had hypertension, a month ago he had paraesthesia on the right side of his body for a short period, had trouble to find words, memory impairment also developed. Since then there have been periods without symptoms, then episodes with disorientation, and wandering occurred. His state is fluctuating, at nights agitation can arise.
A) Depression with cognitive impairment
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
D) Vascular dementia

A

ANSWER
D) Vascular dementia

83
Q

PSY - 4.111
These are organic and symptomatic mental disorders, EXCEPT:

A) delirium
B) dementia
C) amnestic syndrome
D) paranoia
E) organic hallucinosis

A

ANSWER
D) paranoia
EXPLANATION
Paranoia is a paranoid disorder, not an organic and symptomatic mental disorder.

84
Q

PSY - 4.113
What is the first thing to be done in a case of delirium?

A) to calm the patient
B) quick and careful examination to find the underlining disorder
C) the patient has to be sent to the psychiatry acutely
D) the patient has to be isolated from the other patients

A

ANSWER
B) quick and careful examination to find the underlining disorder
EXPLANATION
In a case of a delirium quick and careful examination has to be done first to find the underlining disorder and then to start its treatment

85
Q

PSY - 4.114
Which of the following is necessary to do in delirium to clarify the etiopathogenesis?

A) to measure the blood pressure, perform an ECG
B) to check the serum glucose
C) medical and neurological examinations
D) careful laboratory analysis
E) all of the above

A

ANSWER
E) all of the above
EXPLANATION
In delirium medical and neurological examinations, measurement of vital signs, ECG, careful laboratory analysis including serum glucose are necessary to clarify the etiopathogenesis.

86
Q

PSY - 4.115
Which vitamin deficiency is the fundamental factor in the etiopathogenesis of Korsakov-syndrome?

A) vitamin B6
B) folic acid
C) nicotinic acid
D) vitamin B1
E) vitamin B12

A

ANSWER
D) vitamin B1
EXPLANATION
In the etiopathogenesis of Korsakov-syndrome vitamin B1 deficiency is fundamental.

87
Q

PSY - 4.116
Which of the following are typical of organic mental disorders?

1) there is a causal relation between the psychopathology and the organic disorders
2) the somatic pathology is preceding the psychopathology
3) the course of the somatic disorder and the mental illness are parallel
4) delirium and dementia can evolve not only on the basis of somatic etiology

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
There is a causal connection between the psychopathology and organic disorders, the somatic pathology is prior to the psychopathology and the course of somatic disorder and mental illness are parallel. Delirium and dementia can evolve only on the basis of somatic etiology

88
Q

PSY - 4.119
The most frequent reason of delirium:

1) central nervous system disorder
2) alcohol and medical drug intoxication or withdrawal
3) cardiovascular disorders
4) metabolic disorders

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The frequent reasons of delirium include alcohol and medical drug intoxication or withdrawal, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypoxia, hypo-, or hyperglycaemia, electrolyte imbalance, renal or hepatic failure, anaemia, vitamin deficiency, endocrinopathy), cardiovascular disorders (e.g. cardiac failure, myocardial infarct, arrhythmia, shock), central nervous system disorders (e.g. trauma, epileptic seizure, infection, tumour, cerebrovascular disorder).

89
Q

PSY-4.120.1-4.120.5
Match the features with the diagnoses!

A) organic amnestic syndrome
B) delirium
C) organic delusional (paranoid) disorder

PSY - 4.120.1 - clouding of consciousness
PSY - 4.120.2 - impaired long term memory
PSY - 4.120.3 - hallucinations
PSY - 4.120.4 - delusions
PSY - 4.120.5 - confabulation may be an additional symptom

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.120.1 - clouding of consciousness - B)
PSY - 4.120.2 - impaired long term memory - A)
PSY - 4.120.3 - hallucinations - B)
PSY - 4.120.4 - delusions - C)
PSY - 4.120.5 - confabulation may be an additional symptom - A)

90
Q

PSY-4.121.1-4.121.5
Match the features with the diagnoses!

A) organic delusional (paranoid) disorder
B) organic amnestic syndrome
C) Korsakov-syndrome

PSY - 4.121.2 - anterograde and retrograde amnesia

PSY - 4.121.5 - beside the elimination of the underlining disorder antipsychotic drug administration may be necessary

PSY - 4.121.4 - chronic alcohol intake is the etiopathogenetic reason

PSY - 4.121.3 - well-structured delusions

PSY - 4.121.1 - thiamine deficiency

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.121.2 - anterograde and retrograde amnesia- B)

PSY - 4.121.5 - beside the elimination of the underlining disorder antipsychotic drug administration may be necessary - A)

PSY - 4.121.4 - chronic alcohol intake is the etiopathogenetic reason - C)

PSY - 4.121.3 - well-structured delusions - A)

PSY - 4.121.1 - thiamine deficiency - C)

91
Q

PSY - 4.122
Which of the following is the least possible diagnosis?

A 60-year-old man was taken to the doctor by his relatives. He visited the family and they noticed that he heard voices, and saw people who were not there. His wife died 10 years ago, since then he had lived reservedly, now he could not take care of himself anymore.
A) delirium
B) schizophrenia
C) dementia
D) depression with psychotic symptoms
E) organic hallucinosis

A

ANSWER
B) schizophrenia
EXPLANATION
The late onset is not typical for schizophrenia

92
Q

PSY - 4.123
The reason of disorientation and confusion was most likely:

A 43-year-old woman was found in the garage, she was unconscious. The engine of the car was running; the door of the garage was closed. At the time of the medical examination the patient was disoriented, confused. The reason of disorientation and confusion was most likely:
A) lead intoxication
B) hypoxia
C) hypoglycaemia
D) petrol intoxication
E) none of the above

A

ANSWER
B) hypoxia
EXPLANATION
Hypoxia due to CO intoxication is the most likely reason of the symptoms.

93
Q

PSY - 4.124
What would you do if you were the physician, who examined the person at first?

A middle-aged man was diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. The pharmacotherapy does not seem to improve the gait disturbance. His mood is decreased. He says that he lost his desire to live, would like “to be rid of everything”, if it were up to him he would sleep all day.

A) send the patient to a psychiatry ward because of the high risk of suicide
B) calm the patient down by saying, that Parkinson’s disease could be treated with medical drugs
C) discuss his worries with the patient empathically, and ask him about his suicidal thoughts and intentions
D) send the patient to a neurologist or psychiatrist to complain about his sorrow
E) recommend the patient to come frequently and alert the relative of the suicide risk

A

ANSWER
C) discuss his worries with the patient empathically, and ask him about his suicidal thoughts and intentions
EXPLANATION
The mood could be decreased in Parkinson’s disease, and the physician should explore the patient carefully to find the depressive symptoms and assess the suicide risk.

94
Q

PSY - 4.125
Anxiety as a symptom can occur in all of the disorders below with the exception of:

A) hypoglycaemi
B) decreased thyroid function
C) pheochromocytoma
D) porphyria
E) hypocalcaemia

A

ANSWER
B) decreased thyroid function
EXPLANATION
Characteristic features of the decreased thyroid function can be apathy and the slowing down of the patient, but not anxiety.

95
Q

PSY - 4.126
Which of the following statements are not characteristic agoraphobia?

A) the affected person has an intensive and irrational feeling of fear when he/she has to leave his/her home
B) the affected person is fully aware of the senseless nature of his/her fear
C) the administration of an antidepressant can alleviate it effectively
D) the target of the behavioural therapy is the phobia itself, thus it has no focus on the underlying psychodynamics
E) phobic anxiety disorder rarely occurs after it has been treated at least once.

A

ANSWER
E) phobic anxiety disorder rarely occurs after it has been treated at least once.
EXPLANATION
In an emotionally burdened life situation anxiety can recur even in case of a treated agoraphobia.

96
Q

PSY - 4.128
Which of the following is not characteristic of specific phobia?

A) it is a disease that has a short course and it does not become chronic even without any treatment
B) the presence of an exaggerated, irrational, constant, recurring fear of well-defined, specific objects or situations.
C) a specific situation can evoke the occurrence of an immediate, intensive bout of anxiety
D) the majority of social phobia cases occur in childhood or in adolescence
E) psychotherapies (e.g. cognitive behavioural therapy, relaxation) have a primary role in its treatment

A

ANSWER
A) it is a disease that has a short course and it does not become chronic even without any treatment
EXPLANATION
The majority of phobias have a chronic course without treatment.

97
Q

PSY - 4.129
The diagnosis of mixed anxiety depressive disorder is established, if:

A) the patient with depression has marked anxiety
B) both depressive and anxiety symptoms are present, but the severity of neither of them meets the diagnostic criteria
C) the anxiety disorder is accompanied by depressive symptoms
D) the depressive symptoms rapidly improve with antidepressant therapy

A

ANSWER
B) both depressive and anxiety symptoms are present, but the severity of neither of them meets the diagnostic criteria
EXPLANATION
The above mentioned diagnosis is given if both depressive and anxiety symptoms are present, but the severity of neither of them meets the diagnostic criteria of any other illness

98
Q

PSY - 4.130
Generalised anxiety disorder is often accompanied by the following diseases, with the exception of:

A) panic disorder
B) phobias
C) depression
D) (pathological) substance abuse
E) bipolar disorder, manic type

A

ANSWER
E) bipolar disorder, manic type
EXPLANATION
Generalised anxiety is very often accompanied by panic disorder, phobias, depression, or substance abuse (e.g. alcohol abuse).

99
Q

PSY - 4.131
Regarding the treatment of specific phobias, improvement can be expected from the following behavioural therapy techniques, with the exception of:

A) exposition to stimulus
B) paradox intention method
C) flooding
D) imaginary, “in vitro” desensitisation
E) “in vivo” desensitisation

A

ANSWER
B) paradox intention method
EXPLANATION
The paradox intention method is a suggested method for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive symptoms

100
Q

PSY - 4.133
Which can be administered permanently in generalised anxiety disorder?

1) antipsychotics
2) buspirone
3) barbiturate
4) antidepressants

A) only the 1st 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Buspirone (which is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic drug, with far less probability of addiction) and antidepressants can be administered in the long term treatment of GAD.

101
Q

PSY - 4.134
Which of the following groups does panic syndrome belong to?

1) personality disorders
2) affective disorders
3) vegetative disorders
4) anxiety disorders

A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the 4 answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only answer 4 is correct
EXPLANATION
Panic syndrome is a subtype of anxiety disorders (the main feature of it being the strong anxiety occurring during the attacks

102
Q

PSY - 4.135
Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of panic disorder?

1) antidepressants
2) antipsychotics
3) anxiolytics
4) neuroleptics
5) cognitive psychotherapy
6) mood stabilizers

A) answers 1 and 2 are correct
B) answers 2, 4 and 6 are correct
C) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
D) answers 3, 4 and 6 are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
EXPLANATION
Antidepressants, anxiolytics and cognitive psychotherapy are used in the treatment of panic disorder.

103
Q

PSY - 4.136
They are symptoms of panic disorder:

1) vertigo
2) delusions
3) tachycardia
4) hallucinations
5) sweating
6) fear of death

A) answers 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B) answers 1, 3, 5 and 6 are correct
C) answers 2, 4 and 6 are correct
D) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
B) answers 1, 3, 5 and 6 are correct
EXPLANATION
The following symptoms are characteristic of panic disorder: vertigo, tachycardia, sweating and the attacks are also accompanied by fear of death.

104
Q

PSY-4.137.1-4.137.5
Match the characteristic symptoms with the diagnoses!

A) it is characterised by a feeling of anxiety which occurs during attacks
B) improvement can be expected primarily from behavioural therapy (exposition therapy)
C) it is characterized by a constant feeling of anxiety which is difficult to overcome
D) the person has a fear of getting into humiliating situations in the social environment

PSY - 4.137.1 - panic disorder

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.137.1 - panic disorder - A)

105
Q

PSY-4.138.1-4.138.5
Match the characteristic features with the diagnoses!

A) the person is afraid of having a serious disease
B) the person is afraid of infections
C) the person is afraid of being humiliated
D) the person is afraid of experiencing another anxiety attack
E) the constant anxiety affects several areas of the patients’ lives

PSY - 4.138.1 - generalised anxiety disorder
PSY - 4.138.2 - panic disorder
PSY - 4.138.3 - social anxiety
PSY - 4.138.4 - hypochondriasis
PSY - 4.138.5 - obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.138.1 - generalised anxiety disorder - E)
PSY - 4.138.2 - panic disorder - D)
PSY - 4.138.3 - social anxiety - C)
PSY - 4.138.4 - hypochondriasis - A)
PSY - 4.138.5 - obsessive-compulsive disorder - B)

106
Q

PSY - 4.140
Which is the most likely diagnosis based on the symptoms of the patient?

A 38-year-old female patient works in a bank; previously, she had no problems with having to work together with many of her colleagues in a single room and that they had lots of clients. However, she has not been able to go to work for 1 month, and she tries to avoid going to places where many people are present, or to places from where getting out is difficult. She does not use public transport either, she neither dares to drive a car and or go shopping without being accompanied by her husband.

A) post-traumatic stress disorder
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) social phobia
D) generalised anxiety disorder
E) agoraphobia

A

ANSWER
E) agoraphobia
EXPLANATION
In case of agoraphobia the person avoids to go to places from where he/she can hardly get out, or to places where, according to his/her opinion, he/she cannot get help when felling unwell. The behaviour of the social environment (in the above mentioned case: the patient is accompanied by her husband) can reinforce his/her fears and his/her illness.

107
Q

PSY - 4.141
Which of the following statements are false about obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A) It greatly inhibits the patient’s everyday life
B) Recurring, unpleasant thoughts or ideas which cause anxiety
C) The patient doesn’t realize that these thoughts are products of their own psyche instead of an external origin
D) The purpose of compulsive behaviour is to relieve the anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts

A

ANSWER
C) The patient doesn’t realize that these thoughts are products of their own psyche instead of an external origin
EXPLANATION
Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by recurring, unpleasant thoughts or ideas that cause anxiety, which the patient tries to relieve by compulsive behaviour. The symptoms greatly inhibit these patients’ everyday life. The patients realize that these thoughts are products of their own psyche, instead of having an external origin.

108
Q

PSY - 4.142
Which of the following play a role in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

1) According to the cognitive development theory the compulsive symptoms are active avoidance behaviour in response to anxiety
2) Serotonin plays an important part in its pathomechanism
3) According to the psychoanalytic theory, a strict superego and suppressed instincts cause anxiety
4) Genetic and environmental factors also play an important part

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
Genetic and environmental factors also play an important role in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive disorder; neurochemically serotonin has an important part. According to the psychoanalytic theory, a strict superego and suppressed instincts cause anxiety, while the cognitive development theory states that the compulsive symptoms are active avoidance behaviour in response to anxiety.

109
Q

PSY-4.144.1-4.144.4
Match the symptoms with the diagnoses!

A) anticipatory tension
B) ego-syntonic obsessive traits
C) ego-dystonic obsessive thoughts and behaviour
D) acute response to psychotrauma

PSY - 4.144.4 - acute stress disorder
PSY - 4.144.3 - obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
PSY - 4.144.1 - obsessive-compulsive disorder
PSY - 4.144.2 - panic disorder

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.144.4 - acute stress disorder - D)
PSY - 4.144.3 - obsessive-compulsive personality disorder - B)
PSY - 4.144.1 - obsessive-compulsive disorder - C)
PSY - 4.144.2 - panic disorder - A)

110
Q

PSY - 4.145
Which diagnosis is most likely according to the complaints?

A 27-year-old woman is constantly afraid of infections and contamination; she instantly takes off and cleans every piece of clothing she’s been wearing outside. Whenever she invites guests she is always occupied with what they touch and instantly cleans and disinfects those things when they leave. This inhibits her in her everyday tasks, she’s tense, and nervous because of her complaints and would like to be freed of them.
A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
B) generalized anxiety disorder
C) acute stress disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

ANSWER
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
EXPLANATION
The fear of infection is the obsessive thought, the cleaning and disinfecting is the compulsive behaviour the patient would like to be freed of.

111
Q

PSY - 4.147
Which of the following illness is characterized by an increased fear of getting ill?

A) hypochondria
B) phobia
C) conversion disorder
D) somatization (Briquet-) syndrome
E) aggravation

A

ANSWER
A) hypochondria
EXPLANATION
Hypochondriacs are convinced that they have a serious illness that doctors have overlooked

112
Q

PSY - 4.148
Which of the following symptoms are usually present in case of somatization?

1) painful menstruation
2) palpitation
3) anxiety
4) nausea

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
Painful menstruation, palpitation, anxiety and nausea can all be present in somatization.

113
Q

PSY - 4.149
Which of the following are true for conversion disorder?

1) the symptoms can raise the question of a somatic illness
2) expresses a psychological conflict
3) attracts attention and the sympathy of others
4) is intentional

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION
In conversion disorder the symptoms can resemble a somatic illness, are in definite connection with some outside event (psychotrauma), with their help the patient can escape from a conflict (Freudian primary illness-benefit) as well as evoke increased attention and sympathy of others (Freudian secondary illness-benefit)

114
Q

PSY - 4.150
Which of the following symptoms are present in conversion disorder?

1) primary and secondary illness benefits are present
2) the symptoms start suddenly and dramatically
3) the patient cannot control the symptoms intentionally
4) limb paralyses and sensory deficits don’t follow anatomical innervations

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
In conversion disorder the symptoms start suddenly, the patient can escape from conflicts with their help (Freudian primer illness benefit) and it evokes attention and sympathy of others (Freudian secondary illness benefit). The patient cannot control these symptoms. The fact, that limb paralyses and sensory deficits don’t follow anatomical innervations makes it unlikely that they are caused by somatic illnesses.

115
Q

PSY - 4.151
Which of the following are the disadvantages of somatization disorder?

1) excessive use of medication
2) secondary iatrogenic consequences of invasive diagnostic interventions
3) excessive claim on medical services
4) a frequent change of doctors

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
The disadvantages of somatization disorder (chronic neurosis) are: excessive use of medication, secondary iatrogenic consequences of invasive diagnostic interventions, excessive claim on medical services, and a frequent change of doctors.

116
Q

PSY - 4.152
Somatization disorder can be effectively treated by:

1) gradual decrease of unnecessary medication
2) regular check-ups at the doctor’s
3) remaining at one doctor
4) anxiolytic medication

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
EXPLANATION
The therapy of somatization disorder includes the gradual decrease of unnecessary medication, and regular, controlled check-ups by the same medical professional.

117
Q

PSY - 4.153
Which of the following is false for dissociative psychogenic amnesia?

A) Is a memory lapse that can be traced back to psychogenic reasons.
B) Cannot be explained by lesions of the central nervous system
C) Is the multiplication of personality
D) Is the inability to recall memories for the period of hours or days.
E) Usually starts and ends suddenly.

A

ANSWER
C) Is the multiplication of personality
EXPLANATION
Dissociative amnesia is a memory lapse that can be traced back to psychogenic reasons that cannot be explained by lesions of the central nervous system. It is the inability to recall memories for the period of hours or days and usually starts and ends suddenly.

118
Q

PSY-4.154.1-4.154.5
Match the diagnoses with the symptoms!

A) dissociative amnesia
B) dissociative fugue
C) dissociative identity disorder

PSY - 4.154.1 - Aimless wandering with a sudden onset over the period of amnesia that can last for days

PSY - 4.154.2 - The temporary inability to recall memories

PSY - 4.154.3 - The multiplication of personality

PSY - 4.154.4 - Organized foggy state

PSY - 4.154.5 - The memory lapse can be partial, only regarding emotionally significant experiences

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.154.1 - Aimless wandering with a sudden onset over the period of amnesia that can last for days- B)

PSY - 4.154.2 - The temporary inability to recall memories- A)

PSY - 4.154.3 - The multiplication of personality - C)

PSY - 4.154.4 - Organized foggy state - B)

PSY - 4.154.5 - The memory lapse can be partial, only regarding emotionally significant experiences - A

119
Q

PSY - 4.156
Which of the following illnesses should be considered when making the diagnosis above, EXPECT?

A 39-year-old woman has been suffering from pelvic pain for 10 years, which can sometimes be relieved with sedating analgesics. Multiple examinations, including explorative laparotomy have been carried out, yet doctors haven’t managed to find organic causes. The patient denies having low mood or other psychiatric problems, but feels anger towards doctors, who, she feels, cannot cure her.
1) simulating
2) organic psychiatric disorder
3) conversion disorder
4) schizophrenia

A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
D) only answer 4 is correct.
EXPLANATION
Since disorders of thought, perception, or bizarre behaviour etc. are not mentioned above, schizophrenia should not be considered when making a diagnosis.

120
Q

PSY - 4.157
Which of the following is not true for stress?

A) it also refers to the suffering of the person in danger (distress)
B) it can disrupt the homeostatic balance of an organism
C) it is also referred to aggressive impact
D) doesn’t include the response of the person in danger
E) phases of the general adaptation syndrome are: alarm reaction, phase of resistance, phase of exhaustion

A

ANSWER
D) doesn’t include the response of the person in danger
EXPLANATION
Stress refers to the suffering of the person in danger (distress), as well as to aggressive impact, and also incorporates the response of the person in danger.

121
Q

PSY - 4.159
Which of the following is not effective when treating PTSD:

A) cognitive-behavioural therapy
B) psychodynamic therapy
C) haloperidol
D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
E) propranolol

A

ANSWER
C) haloperidol
EXPLANATION
Antipsychotics are not indicated when treating PTSD.

122
Q

PSY - 4.160
Which of the following is true for adaptation disorder?

A) vast environmental disasters can cause it
B) doesn’t cease after the stressful stimulus has stopped
C) reaching a new level of adaptation doesn’t help it cease
D) everyday stressful stimuli can cause severe symptoms that hinder everyday life
E) doesn’t affect social integration

A

ANSWER
D) everyday stressful stimuli can cause severe symptoms that hinder everyday life
EXPLANATION
In adaptation disorder the patient experiences severe symptoms that hinder everyday life, affect social integration, which are caused by everyday stressful stimuli. They stop however, when the stressful stimulus has stopped, as well as after reaching a new level of adaptation.

123
Q

PSY - 4.162
Which of the following increase(s) vulnerability to PTSD?

1) genetic factors
2) lack of social protection
3) low intelligence
4) separation from parents in childhood

A) answers 1, 2, 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
Vulnerability to PTSD increases if social protection is lacking, in case of low intelligence, separation from parents in childhood, as well as genetic factors.

124
Q

PSY - 4.165
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman has survived a train accident 2 years ago, the train was derailed. Many were injured, there was chaos and despair. She’s relived the memory many times since, evoking a feeling of despair. She also has similar feelings when an external situation reminds her of it, then she sweats and starts to tremble. Since the accident she’s never travelled by train.

A) acute post-traumatic stress disorder
B) adaptation disorder
C) acute stress disorder
D) chronic post-traumatic stress disorder

A

ANSWER
D) chronic post-traumatic stress disorder
EXPLANATION
A prolonged pathological state after trauma indicates PTSD

125
Q

PSY - 4.166
The following criteria support the diagnosis:

A 32-year-old woman has survived a train accident 2 years ago, the train was derailed. Many were injured, there was chaos and despair. She’s relived the memory many times since, evoking a feeling of despair. She also has similar feelings when an external situation reminds her of it, then she sweats and starts to tremble. Since the accident she’s never travelled by train.

1) the person has experienced a situation which was potentially threatening to the safety of him/her or others
2) a prolonged pathological state
3) a recurring, compulsive, distressing recall of the stressful event
4) a situation similar to the traumatic event can cause a vegetative reaction
5) a natural response to trauma

A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B) all answers are correct.
C) answers 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D) answers 2, 3, and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 3, and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
EXPLANATION
When the person has experienced a situation, which was potentially threatening to the safety of him/her or others; and, a prolonged pathological state ensues with a recurring, compulsive, distressing recall of the stressful event, and any situation similar to the traumatic event can cause vegetative reaction, the diagnosis of PTSD can be established.

126
Q

PSY - 4.167
Which is the most likely diagnosis?

A 26-year-old woman doesn’t dare to go out to the streets without pepper spray even during daytime. She frequently remembers being sexually abused when she was a child. She cannot relax in an intimate situation with her partner. When he touches her, her every muscle tenses, she’s defensive and their sexual life is not balanced.

A) social phobia
B) acute stress reaction
C) adaptation disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
E) post-traumatic stress disorder

A

ANSWER
E) post-traumatic stress disorder
EXPLANATION
When the person has experienced a situation, which was potentially threatening to the safety of him/her or others; and, a prolonged pathological state ensues with a recurring, compulsive, distressing recall of the stressful event, and any situation similar to the traumatic event can cause vegetative reaction, the diagnosis of PTSD can be established.

127
Q

PSY - 4.170
Which of the following is true for insomnia?

A) comorbid disorders are not connected with insomnia
B) it is a syndrome with a 9-10% rate of becoming chronic
C) the occurrence of sleep disorders doesn’t increase with age
D) the comorbid illness can always be identified
E) everyday stress cannot cause it

A

ANSWER
B) it is a syndrome with a 9-10% rate of becoming chronic
EXPLANATION
Insomnia is a syndrome which becomes chronic in 9-10%, its occurrence increases with age. The usual cause is everyday stress. Comorbid illnesses can have a connection with insomnia, but they cannot always be identified.

128
Q

PSY - 4.171
Which of the following are the main types of insomnia?

1) subjectively non-restful sleep
2) disorders of maintaining asleep
3) early awakening and inability to go back to sleep
4) disorders of going to sleep

A) answers 1, 2, 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
The four types of insomnia are: disorders of going to sleep and disorders of staying asleep, early awakening and inability to go back to sleep, and subjectively non-restful sleep.

129
Q

PSY - 4.173
Which of the following are used in the treatment of the above the illness?

A 40-year-old woman goes to sleep effortlessly at 11 at night, however, she wakes up at 1-2 a.m. She can’t go back to sleep again for a long time, and even if she can, she wakes up again after a short while. She could fall asleep again after 6 in the morning, but she must get up early to go to work. In the mornings she feels not having slept at all, is exhausted, and fatigued. Otherwise she’s in good spirits and keen.

1) medication
2) lifestyle and sleep hygienic advice
3) therapies other than medication
4) assessing possible comorbid illnesses
5) we give medication for 4-6 months

A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
B) all answers are correct.
C) answers 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D) answers 2, 3, and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 3, and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
EXPLANATION
The basic treatment of insomnia consists of assessing possible comorbid illnesses, lifestyle and sleep hygienic advice, medication and other therapies.

130
Q

PSY - 4.176
Which of the following disorders, which are otherwise grouped within other categories, could be regarded as impulse-control disorders, because of their specific qualities?

1) bulimia
2) alcohol dependence
3) paraphilias
4) drug dependence

A) answers 1, 2, 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.

A

ANSWER
E) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
Alcohol and drug dependence, as well as bulimia and paraphilias can be regarded as impulse control disorders, because the basic characteristics of impulse control disorders (e.g. patients are unable to resist impulses and urges that are potentially harmful to themselves or others).are present.

131
Q

PSY-4.177.1-4.177.5
Match the symptoms with the diagnoses!

A) pathological gambling
B) trichotillomania
C) pyromania
D) kleptomania

PSY - 4.177.3 - the person commits arson intentionally for pleasure

PSY - 4.177.5 - unconditional belief in a “winning system”

PSY - 4.177.4 - an irresistible urge to steal worthless objects

PSY - 4.177.2 - the essence of the illness is the lack of ability to assess potential risk

PSY - 4.177.1 - patients are unable to resist pulling out their own hair

A

ANSWER
PSY - 4.177.3 - the person commits arson intentionally for pleasure - C)

PSY - 4.177.5 - unconditional belief in a “winning system” - A)

PSY - 4.177.4 - an irresistible urge to steal worthless objects - D)

PSY - 4.177.2 - the essence of the illness is the lack of ability to assess potential risk - A)

PSY - 4.177.1 - patients are unable to resist pulling out their own hair - B)

132
Q

PSY - 4.178
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-yearold man lives with his parents, has a job, but has no savings; in fact, he must ask the parents for 1.500.000 Forints although he apparently has no major expenses. His behaviour doesn’t seem to have changed, he goes to work punctually, his colleagues like him. He has a reasonably good salary, but still has debts, which he wants to keep secret; he has a “winning system” for winning the money back.

A) alcohol dependence
B) kleptomania
C) pathological gambling
D) drug dependence

A

ANSWER
C) pathological gambling
EXPLANATION
The debts, the unconditional belief in a “winning system” and the lack of alcohol or drug abuse point towards pathological gambling.

133
Q

PSY - 4.179
Which of the following provide suitable treatment for the diagnosis above?

A 28-yearold man lives with his parents, has a job, but has no savings; in fact, he must ask the parents for 1.500.000 Forints although he apparently has no major expenses. His behaviour doesn’t seem to have changed, he goes to work punctually, his colleagues like him. He has a reasonably good salary, but still has debts, which he wants to keep secret; he has a “winning system” for winning the money back.

1) SSRI
2) carbamazepine
3) naltrexone
4) bupropion
5) cognitive and behavioural therapy

A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
B) all answers are correct.
C) answers 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D) answers 2, 3, and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 3, and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
B) all answers are correct.
EXPLANATION
When treating pathological gambling SSRIs, bupropion, carbamazepine, naltrexone can decrease the impulse, along with cognitive and behavioural therapy.

134
Q

PSY - 4.180
Which statement(s) is/are true regarding suicide?

1) the rate of completed suicides decreases with age
2) women commit lethal suicides more often than men
3) suicides can be reliably predicted based on clinical characteristics
4) an empathetic conversation with a potential victim about his suicidal ideations might prevent the attemp

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
An empathetic conversation about the suicidal intent could prevent the attempt (that is why warning signs have to be taken seriously

135
Q

PSY - 4.182
Lifetime risk and prevalence of completed suicide is in:

1) major depression: 3.6-8.5%
2) schizophrenia: 5-10%
3) alcohol dependence: 3.4-6.7%
4) the average population: 14 / 100.000 people

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct

136
Q

PSY - 4.183
Suicide:

1) is the second most common cause of death by young male
2) occurs three times more often by males than by females in every age group
3) divorce, urban residence and unemployment mean increased risk for it
4) is the least frequent in the middle class

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
E) all of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
all of the above are true, suicide is the second most common cause of death by young males (Meehan et al. 1991), the prevalence of suicide has a V-shaped distribution being the lowest in the middle class (Charlton et al, 1993)

137
Q

PSY - 4.184
In case of suicidal behaviour the admission to a psychiatric ward is

1) only possible with the informed consent of the patient
2) not possible if the patient agrees to give up his suicidal intent in writing
3) not needed if the patient agrees to give up his suicidal intent in writing
4) necessary if direct threat of harm exists, even in the absence of the informed consent of the patient, but only in compliance with the appropriate rules and with proper documentation

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
Admission to a psychiatric ward is necessary if direct threat of harm exists, even in the absence of the informed consent of the patient and even if the patient gave up his suicidal intent in writing, but only in compliance with the appropriate rules and with proper documentation. It is of high priority that we try to explain the reason of admission to the patient and family, so that they can accept it.

138
Q

PSY - 4.185
How many times higher risk do earlier suicide attempts mean regarding a future attempt?

A) hundred
B) ten
C) two
D) one

A

ANSWER
A) hundred

139
Q

PSY - 4.186
Future suicide attempters visit doctors with some kind of symptoms during the weeks prior to the attempt, which is regarded as:

A) aggravation
B) presuicidal syndrome
C) cry for help
D) transference

A

ANSWER
C) cry for help

140
Q

PSY - 4.189
The massive wave of copycat suicides after a widely publicized suicide through social learning is known as:

A) Ringel effect
B) model effect
C) Werther effect
D) cry for help effect

A

ANSWER
C) Werther effect

141
Q

PSY - 4.192
The indicator(s) of suicidal risk is/are:

1) the 3 criteria of the presuicidal syndrome according to Ringel
2) the score of the item regarding suicidal behaviour in the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)
3) the score of the short version of the Hopelessness Scale by Beck
4) the WAIS score

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
Although suicidal behaviour cannot be predicted for sure, the risk assessment can be based on the identification of presuicidal syndrome and the score of the item regarding suicidal behaviour in the HAM-D, furthermore the score of the short version of the Hopelessness Scale by Beck is able to roughly quantify the risk. WAIS score is irrelevant from this point of view

142
Q

PSY - 4.197
Crisis intervention is

1) a short treatment (1-6 sessions)
2) the re-evaluation of the triggering causes
3) activating the reserves of the personality and developing the helping potentials
4) giving advices and urging to change in order to overcome the causes

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
urging and advising does not help in a crisis situation, the other statements are true

143
Q

PSY - 4.198
Which of the following does NOT apply for crisis intervention?

1) it aims cognitive re-evaluation
2) the therapist is non-directive
3) it might be conducted via telephone
4) it aims to totally reconstruct the personality

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
EXPLANATION
the therapist should rather be directive in this case, the intervention does not aim to totally reconstruct the personality, it focuses rather on the re-evaluation and activation of helping potentials. It might be conducted via phone, too.