Psychiatry Clerkship Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

For intellectual disability (formerly known as mental retardation), patients must exhibit what two deficits?

A
  1. Deficits in cognitive ability

2. Deficits in social adaptive function (ability to do daily activities)

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2
Q

Intellectual disability is more prevalent in which gender?

A

Boys

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3
Q

What’s the IQ and level of function of a patient with mild mental retardation?

A

IQ: 50-70
Reaches sixth grade level of education, can work and live independently, needs help in difficult or stressful situations.

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4
Q

What’s the IQ and level of function of a patient with moderate mental retardation?

A

IQ: 30-50
Reaches second grade level of education, may work with supervision and support, needs help in mildly stressful situations.

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5
Q

What’s the IQ and level of function of a patient with severe mental retardation?

A

IQ: 20-40

Little or no speech, very limited abilities to manage self-care.

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6
Q

What’s the IQ and level of function of a patient with profound mental retardation?

A

IQ: Below 20

Needs continuous care and supervision.

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7
Q

How do you treat intellectual disability (formerly known as mental retardation)? (name 4)

A
  1. Genetic counseling (if applicable)
  2. Treat underlying condition (if applicable)
  3. Special education to improve level of function
  4. Behavioral therapy to help reduce negative behaviors
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8
Q

What are the autism spectrum disorders?

A

Autism, Rett’s syndrome, and Asperger’s disorder

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9
Q

Autism spectrum disorders are characterized by problems in what 3 areas? At what age do you these problems tend to present?

A

Social interactions, behavior, and language problems that impair daily functioning.

These deficits include lack of social connection, poor eye contact, and problems with language, relationships, and understanding others. Other features include stereotyped or repetitive movements, inflexibility, and unusual interest in sensory aspects of the environment.

Children younger than age 3

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10
Q

How do you treat autism disorder? When would you begin pharmacological treatment?

A

The goal of treating autism disorder is to improve the patient’s ability to develop relationships, attend school, and achieve independent living. Patients with autism spectrum disorders may benefit from behavioral modification programs that seek to improve language and ability to connect with others. If the patient is aggressive, use antipsychotic medications such as risperidone.

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11
Q

2 y/o boy
Not speaking much
Not demonstrating much attachment to parents
Aggressive towards other children

A

Autism spectrum disorder

Autism spectrum disorder is seen more frequently in boys and usually starts by the age of 3. Children with autism tend to have problems with language and aggression, lack separation anxiety, and are withdrawn. Deafness should be ruled out if parents report that a child does not respond when his or her name is called.

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12
Q

What is ADHD and how does it present?

A

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a disorder characterized by inattention, short attention span, OR hyperactivity that is severe enough to interfere with daily functioning in school, home, or work. The symptoms must be present for more than 6 months and usually appear before the age of 7. The symptoms may persist into adulthood.

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13
Q

How do you diagnose ADHD?

A

Symptoms (inattention, short attention span, or hyperactivity) must be present in at least 2 areas, such as home and school (the doctor’s office counts as a context as well). At home, children interrupt others, fidget in chairs, and run or climb excessively; are unable to engage in leisure activities; and talk excessively. At school, they are unable to pay attention, make careless mistakes in schoolwork, do not follow through with instructions, have difficulties organizing tasks, and are easily distracted.

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14
Q

What is first line treatment for ADHD? What are the side effects of these medications?

A

Methylphenidate and dextroamphetamine

Side effects: insomnia, decreased appetite, GI disturbances, increased anxiety, and headache.

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15
Q

ADHD medications target the activity of which 2 neurotransmitter pathways to improve attention?

A

Noradrenergic (norepinephrine) and dopamine pathways

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16
Q

What is second line treatment for ADHD? (name 3 drugs)

A

Atomoxetine. This is a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor with fewer side effects and less risk of abuse. The alpha-2 agonists clonidine and guanfacine can also been used, because they enhance cognition and attention in the prefrontal cortex.

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17
Q

ADHD medications like methylphenidate and dextroamphetamine can cause side effects. What are these side effects and what medication can be used that has fewer side effects and less abuse potential?

A

Side effects: insomnia, decreased appetite, GI disturbances, increased anxiety, and headache

Atomoxetine can be chosen over the first-line ADHD treatments given its milder side effect profile and decreased abuse potential.

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18
Q

Often argue with others.
Lose temper.
Easily annoyed by others.
Blame others for their mistakes.
Tends to have problems with authority figures.
Behaviors manifest during interactions with others that do not include siblings.

A

Oppositional defiant disorder

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19
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder is typically noted by what age? What gender is it more often seen in?

A

Usually noted by age 8.

Seen more in boys than girls before puberty, but equal incidence after puberty.

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20
Q

How do you treat oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Teach parents appropriate child management skills and how to lessen the oppositional behavior.

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21
Q

Childhood/adolescent.
Persistent behavior where rules are broken. These include aggression to others such as bullying, cruelty to animals, fighting, or using weapons. Destroying property such as vandalism or setting fires. Stealing items from others or lying to obtain goods from others. Violating rules (e.g. truancy, running away from home, breaking curfew)

A

Conduct disorder

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22
Q

Conduct disorder is seen more frequently in what gender? By what age is this diagnosis given?

A

Seen more frequently in boys and children whose parents have antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependence.

Diagnosis is given ONLY to those under the age of 18 years.

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23
Q

How do you treat conduct disorder?

A

Behavioral intervention using reward for prosocial and nonaggressive behavior. If aggressive, antipsychotic medications may be used.

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24
Q

Chronic, severe, persistent irritability with temper outbursts and angry, irritable, or sad mood between the outbursts. These occur almost every day, are noticeable by others, and are out of proportion to the situation. The outbursts are inconsistent with developmental issues. Symptoms occur year-round; there is no period lasting > or = 3 months without all symptoms. The symptoms are severe enough to interfere with home, school, or peers.

A

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD)

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25
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is seen more frequently in what gender and age? At what age can this be diagnosed? What disorder are these patients at risk of developing? What disorder are they likely to not develop?

A

Seen more frequently in boys age 6-10 years. This should NOT be diagnosed before the age of 6 or after the age of 18. Children with DMDD usually do not develop bipolar disorder in adulthood but they are more likely to develop depression or anxiety.

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26
Q
10 y/o boy
Behavior problems at home and school.
Frequently angry towards others.
Loses temper during class.
Parents report that at home, he refuses to comply with house rules and often stays up later than he is supposed to.
Frequently talks back to parents.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Conduct disorder
b. Tourette disorder
c. Adjustment disorder
d. Oppositional defiant disorder
e. Learning disorder, not otherwise specified

A

Oppositional defiant disorder

Children with oppositional defiant disorder usually have problems with authority figures such as parents and teachers. Unlike children with conduct disorder, they DO NOT break rules of society and do not commit crimes.

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27
Q

9 y/o boy
Problems at home and school.
Teacher describes temper tantrums that result in physical aggression towards peers.
Occurring almost daily since age 8, worsened in past 4 months resulting in disciplinary suspension.
Parents report same problems at home with siblings.
General mood is irritable and angry with slight improvement during summer months when not in school.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Intermittent explosive disorder
b. Adjustment disorder with disturbances of conduct
c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
d. Bipolar disorder
e. Oppositional defiant disorder

A

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

Children with intermittent explosive disorder are not aggressive on such a continuous basis; they have extended periods of good behavior. There is no mention of a stressor, ruling out diagnosis of adjustment disorder. There is no evidence of mood swings, ruling out diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Children with oppositional defiant disorder mostly have problems with authority figures, not their peers.

DMDD is characterized as chronic, severe, persistent irritability with temper outbursts and angry, irritable, or sad mood between the outbursts. These occur almost every day, are noticeable by others, and are out of proportion to the situation. The outbursts are inconsistent with developmental issues. Symptoms occur year-round; there is no period lasting > or = 3 months without all symptoms. The symptoms are severe enough to interfere with home, school, or peers.

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28
Q
Tourette disorder.
Symptoms?
Duration of symptoms?
Symptoms begin by what age?
Diagnosed before what age?
Seen more often in which gender?
A

Multiple tics, lasting more than one year, and seen before the age of 18.

Motor tics: most commonly involve the muscles of the face and neck, such as head shaking and blinking.
Vocal tics: grunting, coughing, and throat clearing.

The disorder is seen more frequently in boys than in girls and will begin by the age of 7.

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29
Q

Tourette disorder is more commonly seen in which gender? What age do symptoms typically begin by?

A

More frequently seen in boys than girls and will typically begin by the age of 7

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30
Q

How do you treat Tourette disorder?

A

Treatment includes:

1) Dopamine antagonists, such as the antipsychotic medications haloperidol, pimozide, and risperidone
2) Alpha-2 agonist, such as clonidine, can also be used

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31
Q

SIG-E-CAPS?

A
Sleep changes
Interest loss
Guilt (worthlessness)
Energy (lack)
Cognition/Concentration loss
Appetite change
Psychomotor agitation or retardation
Suicidal ideation
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32
Q

First line treatment of MDD?

A

SSRIs such as fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram, or escitalopram. SSRIs are chosen due to their effectiveness and relatively mild side effects. They are less toxic in overdose than other antidepressants.

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33
Q

When treating MDD with an SSRI, how long should you wait to see if there is an effect before switching to another SSRI? When should you increase the dose?

A

If there is no effect after 6-8 weeks, switch to another SSRI.
If some improvement is noted by 6-8 weeks but not a full response, increase the dose of SSRI.

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34
Q

What is second line treatment of MDD?

A

SNRIs such as venlafaxine, duloxetine, or desvenlafaxine.

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35
Q

Hypertension and sweating. Are these side effects of SSRIs or SNRIs?

A

SNRIs

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36
Q

SSRIs are first-line treatment for MDD. However, what can you give to a patient with depression with neuropathic pain? How about a patient with depression who is fearful of weight gain or sexual side effects or is trying to quit smoking?

A

Duloxetine is approved for both depression and neuropathy.

Bupropion has fewer sexual side effects and less weight gain than SSRIs. It is also approved for smoking cessation.

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37
Q
45 y/o woman
Depressed mood
Lack of pleasure
Sleep problems
Decreased appetite and weight
Decreased energy
Problems with concentration
Symptoms started when she was fired from her job 4 weeks ago. Since then, she has been unable to function.

What is the most indicated treatment at this time?

a. Alprazolam
b. Paroxetine
c. Bupropion
d. Venlafaxine
e. Trazodone
f. Electroconvulsive therapy

A

Paroxetine

She has a diagnosis of major depression and the first-line treatment is the use of an SSRI medication because of a better side-effect profile compared to the other therapies. All others, except alprazolam and electroconvulsive therapy, would be useful but usually are not based on side effect profile. Alprazolam is simply a benzodiazepine and acts as an anxiolytic, not an antidepressant. Electroconvulsive therapy might be useful if initial therapy did not work or the depression was far more severe and was associated with psychotic features.

The choices on the USMLE Step 2 may include an SSRI and another antidepressant medication. Pick the cleanest, which is the SSRI.

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38
Q
55 y/o male
Depressed mood for over 2 months
Lack of energy
Decreased appetite
Inability to concentrate
Poor sleep
Poor sleep and focus are impairing work.

Which of the following is most indicated at this time?

a. Imipramine
b. Venlafaxine
c. Bupropion
d. Zolpidem
e. Mirtazapine

A

Mirtazapine

Although any antidepressant can be used, mirtazapine is preferable in this patient for both its antidepressant and sedative effects. Imipramine would have too many side effects and is not a first-line agent. Venlafaxine might be considered if the patient had depression alone; since insomnia is a major concern, mirtazapine is the better option. Bupropion tends to cause problems with sleep, so is not indicated. Zolpidem would help this patient sleep but would not treat his depression.

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39
Q

What medication class is Imipramine (Tofranil) in?

A

TCA

Imipramine AKA Tofranil AKA Melipramine

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40
Q

What are manic symptoms?

A

Manic symptoms include DIGFAST:
Distractibility - poor focus, multitasking
Insomnia - decreased need for sleep
Grandiosity - inflated self-esteem
Flight of ideas - complaints of racing thoughts
Activities - increased goal-directed activities
Speech - pressured or more talkative
Thoughtlessness - “risk-taking” behaviors (sexual, financial, travel, driving)

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41
Q

When assessing a patient for bipolar disorder, what should you keep in mind?

A

Screen for drug use, such as cocaine or amphetamine use.

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42
Q

What’s the difference between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode?

A

Severity of symptoms, level of functioning, and duration.

Manic episode: symptoms are more severe, lasts more than 1 week unless hospitalized, marked impairment in social or occupational functioning or hospitalization necessary, may have psychotic features. Psychotic features makes it a manic episode automatically.

Hypomanic episodes last more than 4 days but typically less than a week, do not severely affect functioning but have an observable change in functioning from the patient’s baseline, and are not severe enough to warrant hospitalization. No psychotic features.

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43
Q

What’s the difference between bipolar disorder type 1 and type 2?

A

Bipolar disorder type 1 is mania and depression. Bipolar disorder type 2 is hypomania and depression.

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44
Q

21 y/o college student taken to university clinic after she was found to be acting bizarrely in class.
Talking fast.
Reported that she hasn’t slept for 4 days.
Appears to be giggling and not paying attention in class.
Roommate reports that she had been drinking alcohol excessively over the past few days and had many sexual contacts with unknown men.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Alcohol-induced mood disorder
b. Bipolar disorder type I
c. Bipolar disorder type II
d. Major depression with psychosis
e. Cyclothymia

A

Bipolar disorder type 1

This patient is exhibiting mania, as shown by her pressure speech, decreased sleep, increased libido, and inappropriate behavior. The symptoms are severe enough that her level of functioning is affected. Bipolar disorder occurs more frequently in young individuals.

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45
Q

Treatment of bipolar disorder depends on if the patient is acutely manic or not. How do you treat if the patient is acutely manic? (3) How do you treat bipolar depression? (4)

A

1st line treatment for acute mania: lithium, valproic acid, and atypical antipsychotics. If acute mania, consider use of atypical antipsychotics due to shorter onset of action.

If bipolar depression, treat with lithium, quetiapine, lurasidone, or lamotrigine. Lurasidone is approved for bipolar depression and is the only medication in pregnancy category B indicated for the disorder.

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46
Q

If kidneys are compromised, with bipolar medication should you avoid?

A

Lithium

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47
Q

True or False: Lithium is the correct answer to most bipolar questions.

A

True

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48
Q

What drug class is lurasidone (latuda)?

A

Atypical antipsychotic

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49
Q

What is the only bipolar medication that is safe for pregnancy?

A

Lurasidone (latuda)

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50
Q

33 y/o man taken to ED by police
Family informed doctor that he has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and was recently started on lithium.
While in the ER, he became combative and punched a nurse.

What is the next step in the management of this patient? a. Obtain lithium level

b. Admit to psychiatric unit
c. Refer to psychiatry
d. Add valproic acid
e. Olanzapine

A

Olanzapine

The patient is exhibiting mania and you do not need to verify the lithium level given that his symptoms are acute. He apparently has been noncompliant with medications and obtaining a level is not the correct answer. He needs to be medicated, and antipsychotics are considered first-line treatment for bipolar patients, especially if acutely and severely manic. Admitting an agitated patient to the psychiatric unit is not as important as administering adequate treatment. “Refer to psychiatry” is never the correct answer on Step 2 CK.

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51
Q

What is persistent depressive disorder (formerly known as dysthymia)?

A
Chronic depressed mood > or = 2 years (1 year in children/adolescents)
No symptom-free period for > 2 months
Presence of at least 2 of the following:
Poor appetite or overeating
Insomnia or hypersomnia
Low energy or fatigue
Low self-esteem
Poor concentration or difficulty making decisions
Feelings of hopelessness
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52
Q

How do you treat persistent depressive disorder?

A

Antidepressant medications and psychotherapy

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53
Q

What is cyclothymic disorder? How long do symptoms have to be present to be diagnosed?

A

Cyclothymia is characterized by the presence of hypomanic episodes and mild depression. Symptoms must be present for more than 2 years.

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54
Q

How do you treat cyclothymic disorder?

A

Lithium, valproic acid, or antipsychotic medication, and psychotherapy

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55
Q

What is major depressive disorder with atypical features?

A

Atypical depression is characterized by:

  • reverse vegetative changes (increased sleep, increased weight, and increased appetite)
  • interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social or occupational impairment.
  • mood tends to be worse in the evening
  • patient may complain of extremities feeling “heavy”
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56
Q

How do you treat major depressive disorder with atypical features?

A

SSRIs (fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, citalopram, or escitalopram) or MAOIs (phenelzine, isocarboxazid, or tranylcypromine)

MAOIs are typically the correct answer on USMLE for the treatment of atypical depression.

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57
Q

What is major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern (formerly seasonal affective disorder)?

A

Characterized by seasonal changes in mood during fall and winter. Symptoms include weight gain, increased sleep, and lethargy.

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58
Q

How do you treat major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern?

A

Phototherapy and bupropion or SSRIs.

In phototherapy, patients should be 12-18 inches from a source of 10,000 lux of white fluorescent light without UV wavelengths for 30 minutes each morning. The patient’s eyes should be kept open, but it is not necessary to stare at the light.

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59
Q
What are symptoms of postpartum blues (aka "baby blues")?
Prevalence?
Time of onset?
Mother's feelings towards the baby?
Treatment?
A

Symptoms: mild depression, mood lability, tearfulness
Prevalence: 40-80%
Onset: 1-3 days after birth up to 2 weeks
Mother’s feelings toward baby: no negative feelings
Treatment: supportive, usually self-limited (reassurance and monitoring)

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60
Q
What are symptoms of depressive disorder with peripartum onset?
Prevalence?
Time of onset?
Mother's feelings towards the baby?
Treatment?
A

Symptoms: depressed mood, weight changes, sleep disturbances, and excessive anxiety
Prevalence: 8-15%
Onset: within 1-3 months after birth
Mother’s feelings toward baby: may have negative feelings toward baby
Treatment: antidepressant medications and psychotherapy

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61
Q
What are symptoms of bipolar disorder with peripartum onset and brief psychotic disorder with peripartum onset?
Prevalence?
Time of onset?
Mother's feelings towards the baby?
Treatment?
A

Symptoms: depression, mania, hallucinations, delusions, and thoughts of harm
Prevalence: 0.1% - 0.2%
Onset: during pregnancy up to 4 weeks after birth
Mother’s feelings toward baby: may have thoughts of harming baby
Treatment: Hospitalization! Do not leave the mother alone with the infant due to risk of infanticide. Treat with antipsychotic medication, lithium, and possibly antidepressants.

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62
Q
Death of loved one.
Sadness.
Worrying about the deceased.
Irritability.
Sleep disturbance.
Poor concentration.
Tearfulness
A

Normal bereavement/grief

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63
Q

How long does normal bereavement/grief typically last?

A

6 months to 1 year, but can go longer

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64
Q

How do you treat normal bereavement/grief?

A

Supportive psychotherapy. Pharmacotherapy is the WRONG ANSWER.

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65
Q

True or False:
A patient is suffering from normal bereavement/grief after losing a loved one. You can use pharmacotherapy, such as antidepressants, temporarily to help the patient through the difficult months.

A

FALSE. Pharmacotherapy is the wrong answer when it comes to normal bereavement/grief.

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66
Q

65 y/o man
Hopeless and helpless since wife died 3 months ago.
Daughter is worried about his isolative behavior.
Lack of appetite.
Expresses feelings of worthlessness.
Has lost over 30 pounds since.
Not interested in getting better and believes he should have died with his wife.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Bereavement
b. Persistent depressive disorder
c. Major depressive disorder
d. Adjustment disorder
e. Bipolar disorder

A

Major depressive disorder

Although it has been less than 6 months since his wife died, his symptoms are severe enough to warrant a diagnosis of major depression. He has no interest in things, has lost weight, feels hopeless and helpless, and believes he should have died as well. He needs to be treated with antidepressants, and you must ensure that he is not suicidal since he is at high risk.

Remember SIG-E-CAPS when determining if presentation is MDD. Normal bereavement includes sadness, worrying about the deceased, irritability, sleep disturbance, poor concentration, and tearfulness. This patient has feelings of worthlessness, signs of anhedonia, and is expressing suicidal ideation.

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67
Q

Name 3 tricyclic antidepressants

A

Amitriptyline
Nortriptyline
Imipramine

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68
Q

Name 3 monoamine oxidase inhibitors

A

Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Tranylcypromine

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69
Q

Name 6 serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors

A
Fluoxetine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Citalopram
Escitalopram
Fluvoxamine
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70
Q

Name 3 serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

A

Venlafaxine
Duloxetine
Desvenlafaxine

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71
Q

Name 3 atypical antidepressant medications

A

Bupropion
Mirtazapine
Trazodone

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72
Q

What are the adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants? (8)

A
Hypo/hypertension
Dry mouth
Constipation
Confusion
Arrhythmias
Sexual side effects
Weight gain
GI disturbances
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73
Q

What is the main adverse effect of monoamine oxidase inhibitors? What foods should you avoid? Give some examples of safe and unsafe foods.

A

Tyramine rich food causes hypertensive crisis
Safe foods: white wine and processed cheese
Unsafe foods: red wine, aged cheese, chocolate

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74
Q

What are the adverse effects of serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors? (4)

A

Headaches
Weight changes
Sexual side effects
GI disturbances

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75
Q

What are the adverse effects of serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors? (5)

A
Hypertension
Blurry vision
Weight changes
Sexual side effects
GI disturbances
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76
Q

What is the classic side effect of bupropion?

A

Increased seizure risk

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77
Q

What is the classic side effect of trazodone?

A

Priapism

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78
Q

What is the classic side effect of mirtazapine?

A

Weight gain and sedation

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79
Q

What are the side effects of lithium? (7)

What happens with lithium toxicity? (4)

A
Tremors
Weight gain
GI disturbances
Nephrotoxic
Teratogenic
Leukocytosis
Diabetes insipidus
Severe toxicity gives confusion, ataxia, lethargy, and abnormal reflexes.
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80
Q

What are the side effects of valproic acid? (6)

What happens with valproic acid toxicity? (3)

A
Tremors
Weight gain
GI disturbances
Alopecia
Teratogenic
Hepatotoxic
Must monitor levels; toxicity causes hyponatremia, coma, or death.
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81
Q

What is the main side effect to look out for with lamotrigine?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

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82
Q

What are the side effects of electroconvulsive therapy? (2)

A

Headaches

Transient memory loss

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83
Q

What is the single most effective treatment for depression?

a. Electroconvulsive therapy
b. Fluoxetine
c. Venlafaxine
d. Imipramine
e. Phenelzine

A

Electroconvulsive therapy

Although ECT is usually used for suicidal patients or those who do not respond to treatment, it is considered the best treatment for depression. All others are equally efficacious, but the SSRIs are used more frequently due to side-effect profiles.

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84
Q

What is serotonin syndrome? What causes it?

A

Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening disorder occurring as a result of therapeutic drug use of SSRIs, often with inadvertent interactions between drugs, overdose, or recreational use of drugs that are serotonergic in origin.

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85
Q

What are common symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

  • cognitive effects (4)
  • autonomic effects (6)
  • somatic effects (2)
A

Cognitive effects: agitation, confusion, hallucinations, hypomania
Autonomic effects: sweating, hyperthermia, tachycardia, nausea, diarrhea, shivering
Somatic effects: tremors, myoclonus

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86
Q

How do you treat serotonin syndrome? (3)

A
  1. Stop SSRI medication
  2. Symptomatic treatment of fever, diarrhea, hypertension
  3. Cyproheptadine (serotonin antagonist)
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87
Q

What is the serotonin antagonist that’s used for treating serotonin syndrome?

A

Cyproheptadine

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88
Q

What are the symptoms and duration of symptoms for brief psychotic disorder?

A

Symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior

Duration: more than 1 day but less than 1 month

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89
Q

What are the symptoms and duration of symptoms for schizophreniform disorder?

A

Symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms (flat affect, poor grooming, social withdrawal)

Duration: more than 1 month but less than 6 months

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90
Q

What are the symptoms and duration of symptoms for schizophrenia?

A

Symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms (flat affect, poor grooming, social withdrawal). Severely affects level of function.

Duration: more than 6 months

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91
Q

How do you treat brief psychotic disorder? How about schizophreniform? Schizophrenia?

A

Antipsychotic medications

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92
Q

The ONLY thing that distinguishes brief psychosis, schizophreniform, and schizophrenia is the duration of symptoms. However, if no time is mentioned, what is typically the correct answer for “the most likely diagnosis”?

A

Schizophrenia

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93
Q

Is schizophrenia more commonly seen in men or women?

A

There is equal incidence in men and women but it affects men earlier due to earlier age of onset.

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94
Q

What should be ruled out when working up schizophrenia?

A

Cocaine or amphetamine use

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95
Q

How do you treat an acutely psychotic patient? (6)

A
  1. hospitalize
  2. ensure patient safety
  3. use atypical antipsychotic as first-line agent (E.g. risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, ziprasidone, aripiprazole, paliperidone, asenapine, iloperidone, or lurasidone)
  4. In any emergency situation where intramuscular medication is needed, consider the use of short-acting medications such as olanzapine or ziprasidone; haloperidol is still used, but has more side effects, so if given the choice, pick the atypical antipsychotic.
  5. If noncompliant with medication, consider a long-acting antipsychotic medication such as risperidone or paliperidone as first-line treatment. Haloperidol and fluphenazine are still used but have more side effects.
  6. Clozapine is only used when patients do not respond to an adequate trial of typical or atypical antipsychotics; never used as a first-line treatment
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96
Q

Name 7 atypical antipsychotic medications

A
  1. Olanzapine
  2. Clozapine
  3. Quetiapine
  4. Risperidone
  5. Ziprasidone
  6. Lurasidone
  7. Aripiprazole
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97
Q

Atypical antipsychotics share similar side effect profiles. However, what are the specific adverse effects of olanzapine? (2)
Who should you avoid giving this to? (2)

A

Greater incidence of diabetes and weight gain

Avoid in diabetic and obese patients

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98
Q

Atypical antipsychotics share similar side effect profiles. However, what are the specific adverse effects of risperidone? (2)

A

1) breast formation and galactorrhea
2) Greater incidence of movement disorders, especially at higher doses. Extrapyramidal symptoms include acute dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia.

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99
Q

Atypical antipsychotics share similar side effect profiles. Quetiapine has a lower incidence of what adverse effect? (1) Who can you consider giving this to?

A

Lower incidence of movement disorders

Appropriate for use in patients with existing movement disorders

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100
Q

Atypical antipsychotics share similar side effect profiles. However, what is the specific adverse effect of ziprasidone? (1) Who should you avoid giving this to? (1)

A

Increased risk of QT prolongation.

Avoid in patients with conduction defects.

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101
Q

Atypical antipsychotics share similar side effect profiles. However, what is the specific adverse effect of clozapine? (2) What needs to be monitored on a regular basis? When should you use this drug?

A

1) High risk of agranulocytosis.
Need to monitor CBC on a regular basis.
2) Myocarditis (same rate as agranulocytosis)

Clozapine is only used when patients do not respond to an adequate trial of typical or atypical antipsychotics; never used as a first-line treatment due to side-effect profile

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102
Q

What is unique about aripiprazole as an atypical antipsychotic medication?

A

It is a partial dopamine agonist, approved as adjunct treatment for major depressive disorder

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103
Q

What is unique about lurasidone as an atypical antipsychotic medication?

A

It is the only antipsychotic in pregnancy category B. It is safer for use in pregnant patients.

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104
Q

What is the pro tip for remembering side effects for atypical antipsychotic medications?

A
  • pines (olanzapine, quetiapine, asenapine, clozapine) have increased risk of weight gain, metabolic syndrome, and diabetes.
  • dones (risperidone, lurasidone, ziprasidone, iloperidone) have increased risk of movement disorders and cardiac conduction problems.
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105
Q
22 y/o woman
Recently diagnosed with schizophrenia
30 lbs overweight
Suffers from type 2 diabetes
She is concerned about medications and asks for your advice

Which of the following would be most indicated in this patient?

a. Aripiprazole
b. Olanzapine
c. Quetiapine
d. Clozapine
e. Risperidone

A

Aripiprazole and ziprasidone are the LEAST LIKELY to cause weight gain, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome.

Olanzapine and clozapine have the HIGHEST RISK of metabolic abnormalities.

Quetiapine and risperidone have medium risk.

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106
Q

Which 2 atypical antipsychotic medications are least likely to cause weight gain, diabetes and metabolic syndrome?

A

Aripiprazole and ziprasidone

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107
Q

Acute dystonia is an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. What are the symptoms of acute dystonia? (4) Onset of symptoms? Treatment? (3)

A

Symptoms: muscle spasms, torticollis, laryngeal spasms, occulogyric crisis

Onset: hours to days

Treatment: benztropine, trihexyphenidyl, diphenhydramine

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108
Q

Akathisia is an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. What are the symptoms of akathisia? Onset of symptoms? Treatment? (4)

A

Symptoms: generalized restlessness, pacing, rocking, inability to relax

Onset: weeks

Treatment: reduce dose, beta blockers, switch to atypical antipsychotic, benzodiazepine

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109
Q

Tardive dyskinesia is an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. What are the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia? Onset of symptoms? Treatment? (1)

A

Symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements of head, limb, and trunk. Perioral movements are the most common.

Onset: rare before 6 months

Treatment: switch to atypical antipsychotic. Clozapine has least risk.

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110
Q

Which antipsychotic medication has the lowest risk for tardive dyskinesia?

A

Clozapine

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111
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Onset of symptoms? Treatment?

A

Symptoms: muscular rigidity, fever, autonomic changes, agitation, and obtundation

Onset: not time limited

Treatment: dantrolene or bromocriptine

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112
Q

23 y/o man diagnosed with schizophrenia and started on haloperidol.
Within a few hours, he develops muscle stiffness, and his eyes roll upward and he cannot move them down.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Tardive dyskinesia
b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
c. Akathisia
d. Serotonin syndrome
e. Acute dystonia

A

Acute dystonia

Acute dystonia develops within hours of the use of medications. This side effect is typical for haloperidol. The treatment of choice is benztropine or diphenhydramine, which can be given with the haloperidol or after should side effects occur.

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113
Q

What is delusional disorder?

A

Characterized by prominence of non-bizarre delusions for more than one month and no impairment in level of functioning (e.g. the patient may believe the country is about to be invaded, but he or she still obeys the law, goes to work, and pays bills). Hallucinations, if present, are not prominent and are related to the delusional theme.

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114
Q

How do you treat delusional disorder? (2)

A
  1. Atypical antipsychotic (first-line therapy)

2. Psychotherapy to help promote reality testing

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115
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

Experience of intense anxiety along with feelings of dread and doom. Accompanied by at least 4 symptoms of autonomic hyperactivity such as diaphoresis, trembling, chest pain, fear of dying, chills, palpitations, shortness of breath, nausea, dizziness, dissociative symptoms, and paresthesias. These sensations typically last LESS THAN 30 MINUTES and may be accompanied by agoraphobia, defined as fear of places where escape is felt to be difficult.

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116
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

Fear of places where escape is felt to be difficult

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117
Q

Is panic disorder typically seen in men or women?

A

Women

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118
Q

True or False: panic disorder can occur at any time and usually has no specific stressor

A

True

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119
Q

What should you rule out when working up panic disorder? (3)

A

Must rule out thyroid disease, hypoglycemia, and cardiac disease

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120
Q

How do you treat panic disorder?

A

1) SSRIs (typically fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline) are indicated for this disorder
2) Along with SSRIs, patients may benefit from benzodiazepines (such as alprazolam, clonazepam, or lorazepam). You can begin with both SSRIs and benzodiazepines, then taper and discontinue the benzodiazepine given the potential for abuse.
3) Behavioral and individual therapy are also helpful IN CONJUNCTION with medication (not as a sole treatment).

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121
Q

Which is considered to be first-line treatment for panic disorder?

a. Alprazolam
b. Buspirone
c. Sertraline
d. Imipramine
e. Fluvoxamine

A

Sertraline

SSRIs are considered to be 1st line treatment for panic disorder. If the question is panic attack, then alprazolam is the correct answer; if a single panic attack is the diagnosis, a benzodiazepine is the treatment.

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122
Q

How do you determine between panic attack vs. panic disorder? How do you choose treatment?

A

When determining most likely diagnosis in cases involving panic symptoms, distinguish between direct presentation and patient history. If the patient is presenting with autonomic hyperactivity, then panic attack is the most likely diagnosis and benzodiazepines are the correct treatment. If the patient is telling the doctor a story about the panic attacks, the diagnosis is most likely panic disorder and the treatment of choice is an SSRI.

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123
Q

What is a phobia?

A

A phobia is the fear of an object or situation and a need to avoid it.

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124
Q

Specific phobia vs social phobia?

A

Specific phobia = fear of an object, such as animals, heights or cars

Social fobia = fear of a situation, such as public restrooms, eating in public, or public speaking. These involve situations where something potentially embarrassing may happen.

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125
Q

How do you diagnose phobias?

A

The diagnosis is usually made by obtaining a good history where patients indicate anxiety symptoms in specific situations or when in contact with feared objects.

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126
Q

How do you treat phobias?

A

Behavioral modification techniques such as systemic desensitization, in which the patient while relaxed is exposed, often only in imagination, to progressively more frightening aspects of the feared objects.
Patients are also taught relaxation techniques such as breathing or guided imagery.

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127
Q

True or False: beta blockers can be used for phobias.

A

False.

Beta blockers such as atenolol or propranolol are used for performance anxiety such as stage fright. They are given 30-60 minutes before the performance. They are not indicated for treatment of phobias.

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128
Q

40 y/o man
Referred to psychiatrist by PCP because he is “too shy”.
Problems going to parties.
Feels anxious about getting close to others.
Stays hom in fear that others would laugh at him.
When confronted by others, he develops severe anxiety as well as hyperventilation and increased sweating.

Which is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Panic disorder
b. Social anxiety
c. Generalized anxiety disorder
d. Specific phobia
e. Acute stress disorder

A

Social anxiety

Social anxiety is characterized by fear of embarrassment in social situations. These patients have problems going out in fear that others will laugh at them.

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129
Q

What is obsessive compulsive disorder?

A

This is a disorder where patients typically experience either obsessions alone or, most commonly, a combination of obsessions and compulsions typically affecting the individual’s level of functioning.

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130
Q

What is the difference between obsessions and compulsions?

A

Obsessions are thoughts that are intrusive, senseless, and distressing to the patient, thus increasing anxiety. These include fear of contamination.

Compulsions are rituals, such as counting and checking, that are performed to neutralize obsessive thoughts. These are time consuming and tend to lower anxiety.

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131
Q

What age does OCD typically present? Gender incidence?

A

OCD is seen more frequently in young patients.

There is equal incidence in men and women.

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132
Q

True or False: OCD can coexist with Tourette disorder

A

True

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133
Q

How do you treat obsessive compulsive disorder? (2)

A
  1. SSRIs are the treatment of choice. Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram, or fluvoxamine are most commonly used as 1st line agents.
  2. Behavioral therapy of exposure and response prevention.
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134
Q

If all the answer choices offered as pharmacotherapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder are TCAs, which do you choose?

A

Clomipramine

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135
Q

What is hoarding disorder?

A

Individuals with hoarding disorder have problems discarding their possessions, leading to persistent accumulations of possessions such that the home is overwhelmed by clutter. The hoarding affects the individual’s level of functioning and impairs his/ her ability to maintain a safe environment.

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136
Q

How do you treat hoarding disorder?

A

1) SSRIs

2) Patients benefit from behavioral modification techniques or psychotherapy (like CBT)

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137
Q

What is body dysmorphic disorder?

A

Individuals with body dysmorphic disorder believe that some body part is abnormal, defective, or misshapen, although others do not see these perceived defects. These beliefs significantly impair in the patient’s level of functioning. Patients spend excessive time checking the mirror and seeking reassurance.

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138
Q

How do you treat body dysmorphic disorder?

A

SSRIs combined with individual psychotherapy are the treatment of choice.

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139
Q

What do PTSD and acute stress disorder have in common? What’s different about them?

A
  • exposed to a stressor to which they react with fear and helplessness
  • continually relive the event and avoid anything that reminds them of the event
  • stressors are usually overwhelming and involve such events as war, rape, hurricanes, or earthquakes
  • symptoms adversely affect the patient’s level of functioning.
  • other symptoms include increased startle response, hypervigilance, sleep disturbances, anger outbursts, and concentration difficulties.

PTSD is when symptoms last for more than 1 month.
Acute stress disorder is 2 days to 1 month in duration and occurs within 1 month of the traumatic event.

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140
Q

When investigating PTSD/acute stress disorder, what are the main things you are looking out for? (3)

A

1) determining the time period when the traumatic events occurred in relationship to the symptoms
2 + 3) depression and substance abuse must be ruled out, because both worsen the diagnosis.

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141
Q

What are the 2 types of schizoaffective disorder?

A

1) depressive type

2) bipolar type

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142
Q

Psychotic features and a mood disorder, either bipolar or depression, but does not strictly meet diagnostic criteria for either alone.

A

Schizoaffective

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143
Q

What is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) and what is it good for treating?

A

Borderline personality disorder

DBT combines standard cognitive behavioral techniques for emotion regulation and reality-testing with concepts of distress tolerance, acceptance, and mindful awareness largely derived from Buddhist meditative practice. DBT is the first therapy that has been experimentally demonstrated to be generally effective in treating borderline personality disorder. The first randomized clinical trial of DBT showed reduced rates of suicidal gestures, psychiatric hospitalizations, and treatment drop-outs when compared to treatment as usual. A meta-analysis found that DBT reached moderate effects in individuals with borderline personality disorder.

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144
Q

Name 4 typical first generation antipsychotics

A

1) Haloperidol
2) Chlorpromazine
3) Perphenazine
4) Fluphenazine

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145
Q

Which antipsychotic is associated the side effect of breast formation and sometimes milk discharge?

A

Risperidone (as it increases prolactin secondarily by blocking dopamine)

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146
Q

True or False: NEVER give haloperidol through IV

A

True. It can cause death from torsades.

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147
Q

How does clozapine compare to other antipsychotics in efficacy?

A

It has been demonstrated by head to head trials to be more effective than other antipsychotics. However, due to its serious side effects, it is only used after failed adequate trials of other antipsychotics.

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148
Q

How can you tell the difference between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome has clonus and neuroleptic malignant syndrome doesn’t. Either can have fever and either can be acute.

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149
Q

What two drugs are first-line treatment for PTSD?

A

Paroxetine or sertraline

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150
Q

What drug can be used to reduce the incidence of nightmares in PTSD?

A

Prazosin (alpha 1 blocker)

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151
Q

Aside from medications, what can be done to help PTSD patients? (3)

A

1) Relaxation techniques
2) Hypnosis
3) Psychotherapy to develop coping techniques and acceptance of the event

152
Q

What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

A

Excessive anxiety and worry ABOUT MOST THINGS, lasting MORE than 6 months. The anxiety is typically out of proportion to the event and is accompanied 3 or more of the following symptoms: fatigue, concentration difficulties, sleeping problems, muscle tension, and restlessness. Patients typically complain of feeling anxious for as long as they can remember.

153
Q

Is generalized anxiety disorder more common in men or women?

A

Women

154
Q

Treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

SSRIs such as fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, or citalopram. Venlafaxine and buspirone are also effective.
Psychotherapy and behavioral therapy are beneficial as well, but are not considered first-line agents in most patients.

155
Q

35 y/o woman
Palpitations, dizziness, and increased sweating for at least 8 months.
Visited numerous physicians and none have been helpful.
Husband is concerned because she cannot relax and worries about everything.
She worries about her parents’ health even though they are healthy. She worries about her finances, although her husband assures her they are financially secure.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Generalized anxiety disorder
b. Phobias
c. Panic disorder
d. Adjustment disorder
e. Social anxiety

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

The main feature of GAD is the chronic worrying about things that do not merit concern. It is also accompanied by other symptoms of anxiety, as well as sleep and concentration problems.

156
Q

What are adverse effects of benzodiazepines? (5)

A
Sedation
Confusion
Memory deficits
Respiratory depression
Increased addiction potential
157
Q

What are adverse effects of buspirone? (3)

A

Headaches
Nausea
Dizziness

158
Q

What class of medication is chlordiazepoxide?

A

Benzodiazepines

159
Q

Which benzodiazepine is frequently used in emergency situations because it can be given intramuscularly?

A

Lorazepam (ativan)

160
Q

Which benzodiazepine may be used if addiction is a concern given its longer half-life?

A

Clonazepam (klonopin)

161
Q

Which benzodiazepines (3) may be used in treatment of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Chlordiazepoxide
Oxazepam
Lorazepam

162
Q

Which benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice in patients with liver problems?

A

Oxazepam
Lorazepam

(remember “O”ld “L”iver)

163
Q

Which benzodiazepine is frequently used in panic attack and panic disorder?

A

Alprazolam (xanax)

164
Q

Which benzodiazepines are approved as hypnotics?

A

Flurazepam, temazepam, triazolam

but benzodiazepines are rarely used as hypnotics

165
Q

What can cause seizures in benzodiazepine-dependent patients?

A

Flumazenil (benzodiazepine antagonist)

It causes acute withdrawal, which can be tremor or seizures similar to delirium tremens (alcohol withdrawal).

166
Q

When is flumazenil used?

A

With acute benzodiazepine overdose AND you are certain that there is no chronic dependence.

When used in benzodiazepine-dependent patients, it causes acute withdrawal, which can be tremor or seizures similar to delirium tremens (alcohol withdrawal).

167
Q

What is substance use disorder?

A

Maladaptive pattern of use of substances that leads to engaging in hazardous situations, legal problems, inability to fulfill obligations, and continued use despite adverse consequences and cravings.

168
Q

Signs of alcohol intoxication?

A

Talkative, sullen (gloomy/sulky), gregarious (sociable), moody, disinhibited

169
Q

Treatment of alcohol intoxication?

A

Mechanical ventilation if severe

170
Q

Signs of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Tremors, hallucinations, seizures, delirium tremens

171
Q

Treatment of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepines, thiamine, multivitamins, folic acid

172
Q

Signs of amphetamine and cocaine or bath salts intoxication?

A

Euphoria, hyper vigilance, autonomic hyperactivity, weight loss, pupillary dilation, perceptual disturbances

173
Q

Treatment of amphetamine, cocaine, and bath salt intoxication

A

Antipsychotics and/or benzodiazepines and/or antihypertensives

174
Q

Signs of amphetamine, cocaine, and bath salt withdrawal?

A

Anxiety, tremulousness, headache, increased appetite, depression, risk of suicide

175
Q

Treatment of amphetamine, cocaine, and bath salt withdrawal?

A

Bupropion (norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor)
and/or
Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

176
Q

Signs of cannabis (synthetic forms: K2 and spice) intoxication?

A

Impaired motor coordination, slowed sense of time, social withdrawal, increased appetite, conjunctival injection

177
Q

Treatment for cannabis intoxication?

A

Consider use of antipsychotics if patient is psychotic

178
Q

Signs and symptoms of cannabis withdrawal?

A

Irritability, anger, anxiety, sleep problems, restlessness, appetite problems

179
Q

Treatment with cannabis withdrawal?

A

Symptomatic management

180
Q

Signs of hallucinogen intoxication?

A

Ideas of reference, perceptual disturbances, possible increase in psychosis, impaired judgment, tremors, incoordination, dissociative symptoms

181
Q

Treatment for hallucinogen intoxication?

A

Antipsychotics and/or benzodiazepines and/or talking down

182
Q

Signs of hallucinogen withdrawal? Treatment?

A

None, none

183
Q

Signs of inhalant intoxication?

A

Belligerence, apathy, aggression, impaired judgment, stupor, or coma

184
Q

Treatment of inhalant intoxication?

A

Antipsychotics

185
Q

Signs of inhalant withdrawal? Treatment?

A

None, none

186
Q

Signs of opiate intoxication?

A

Apathy, dysphoria, pupillary constriction, drowsiness, slurred speech, coma, or death

187
Q

Treatment for opiate intoxication?

A

Naloxone

188
Q

Signs and symptoms of opiate withdrawal?

A

Fevers, chills, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, muscle spasms, diarrhea

189
Q

Treatment for opiate withdrawal?

A

Clonidine, methadone, or buprenorphine

190
Q

What is PCP? What are signs of phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication?

A

PCP is a dissociative anesthetic that can cause hallucinations, dissociative feelings, agitation, confusion, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, and NYSTAGMUS (horizontal, vertical, or rotatory). In many cases, intoxication can lead to psychotic and violent behavior, diminished pain perception, and subsequent physical injuries. The drug’s onset of action is rapid and the duration of action is generally less than 8 hours. High doses can cause severe hypertension, seizures, and life-threatening hyperthermia.

191
Q

Treatment for phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication?

A

Antipsychotics and/or benzodiazepines and/or talking down

192
Q

Signs of phencyclidine (PCP) withdrawal? Treatment?

A

None, none

193
Q

Signs of anabolic steroid intoxication?

A

Irritability, aggression, mania, psychosis

194
Q

Treatment of anabolic steroid intoxication?

A

Antipsychotics

195
Q

Signs of anabolic steroid withdrawal?

A

Depression, headaches, anxiety, increased concern over body’s physical state

196
Q

Treatment for anabolic steroid withdrawal?

A

SSRIs

197
Q

What is the CAGE test?

A

This is the test to give someone who is an alcoholic. Tow positive responses to the four questions is considered positive and indicate that further assessment is warranted.

C: Have you ever tried to cut down on your drinking?
A: Have you ever gotten annoyed by others who have criticized your drinking?
G: Have you ever felt guilty about your drinking?
E: Have you ever used alcohol as an eye-opener? (drinking first thing in the morning)

198
Q

What is detoxification vs rehabilitation?

A

Detoxification: 5-10 days, mostly in hospital settings to assure safe detoxification

Rehabilitation: usually 28 days or more, with focus on relapse prevention techniques

199
Q

Name 3 pharmacologic treatments for helping alcoholics abstain.

A

1) Disulfiram (acetaldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor)
2) Naltrexone (opioid receptor antagonist)
3) Acamprosate

200
Q

65 y/o engineer taken to ER after MVA.
Suffered fracture of the femur and some cuts and bruises.
Admitted to the medicine floor and started on oxycodone.
The day after admission, he appears confused and has observable tremors in both extremities.
He becomes concerned about “bugs on the walls” in his room and asks for your help.

What is the most likely explanation for his symptoms?

a. brain concussion
b. alcohol withdrawal
c. oxycodone intoxication
d. brief psychotic disorder
e. schizophrenia

A

Alcohol withdrawal

Most withdrawal questions are asked in a hospital setting on the next day after admission. The patient presents with uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal, characterized by visual hallucinations and tremors.

201
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

> or = 1 somatic symptom(s) causing distress and functional impairment.
Excessive thoughts or behaviors related to somatic symptoms. Unwarranted, persistent thoughts about seriousness of symptoms. Persistent anxiety about health or symptoms. Excessive time and energy devoted to symptoms. Greater than or equal to 6 months duration.

202
Q

What age and gender does somatic symptom disorder typically affect?

A

Most commonly young women

203
Q

How do you treat somatic symptom disorder?

A
  • Regularly scheduled visits with the same provider
  • Limit unnecessary workup & specialist referrals
  • Legitimize symptoms but make functional improvement the goal
  • Focus on stress reduction and improving coping strategies
  • Mental health referral if patient will accept
204
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder (formerly hypochondriasis)?

A

Patients believe that they have some specific disease despite constant assurance

205
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Typically affects voluntary motor or sensory functions that are indicative of a medical condition but are usually caused by psychological factors. Can be associated with “la belle indifference”, where the patient is unconcerned about his or her impairment.

206
Q

35 y/o married woman
3 children
Taken to doctor’s office after daily complaints of dizziness, nausea, and headache for the past 6 months.
She is intensely bothered by her symptoms to the point that she now stays home and avoids both going to work and caring for her children.
She has been tried on numerous medications but none have proven to be beneficial. A neurologic exam finds some abnormalities.

Which of the following would be most indicated in this patient?

a. Lorazepam
b. Sertraline
c. Individual psychotherapy
d. Lithium
e. Risperidone

A

Individual psychotherapy

This patient has somatic symptom disorder, which is treated with individual psychotherapy given that psychological issues are the cause of her symptoms. She should have one primary caretaker and not be sent to specialists. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, treats anxiety disorder. SSRIs such as sertraline treat fibromyalgia and depression. Lithium treats bipolar disorder. Risperidone is for psychosis.

207
Q

What is factitious disorder?

A

An individual FAKES an illness in order to get attention and emotional support in the patient role. This can either be a psychological or physical illness. Psychological symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, depression, and bizarre behavior. Physical symptoms include abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, or hematomas. At times these individuals may inflict life-threatening injuries on themselves in order to get attention. This behavior may be compulsive at times. When a caretaker fakes signs and symptoms in another person (usually a child) in order to assume the sick role, the diagnosis is fictitious disorder imposed on others. When signs and symptoms are faked on oneself, the diagnosis is factitious disorder imposed on self.

208
Q

Factitious disorder cannot be diagnosed without first confirming what?

A

First confirm that a legitimate medical illness is not present

209
Q

How do you treat factitious disorder?

A

No specific therapy has been proven to be effective in these patients. When a child is involved in factitious disorder imposed on others, child protective services should be contacted to ensure the child’s safety.

210
Q

What is malingering?

A

Malingering is characterized by the conscious production of signs and symptoms for an obvious gain, such as avoiding work, evading criminal prosecution, or achieving financial gain. Malingering is not a mental illness.

211
Q

True or False: Malingering is a mental illness.

A

False.. Malingering is not a mental illness.

212
Q

Malingering is more frequently seen in what 2 populations of people?

A

Prisoners and military personnel

213
Q

How is malingering typically diagnosed? How do you treat?

A

It is typically diagnosed when there is discrepancy between the patient’s complaints and the actual physical or laboratory findings. If medical evaluation reveals malingering, then confront the patient with the outcome.

214
Q

A lack of cooperation from patients is characteristic of?

A

Malingering

215
Q

What is adjustment disorder?

A

A maladaptive reaction to an identifiable stressor, such as loss of job, divorce, or failure in school. The symptoms usually occur within 3 months of the stressor and must remit within 6 months of removal of the stressor. The symptoms include anxiety, depression, or disturbances of conduct. They are severe enough to cause impairment in functioning.

216
Q

How do you treat adjustment disorder?

A

Psychotherapy is the treatment of choice. Both individual and group therapy have been used effectively.

217
Q

Paranoid personality disorder?

A

Suspicious, mistrustful, secretive, isolated, and questioning of the loyalty of family and friends

218
Q

Schizoid personality disorder?

A

Choice of solitary activities, lack of close friends, emotional coldness, no desire for or enjoyment of close relationships.

219
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder?

A

Ideas of reference, magical thinking, odd thinking, eccentric behavior, increased social anxiety, brief psychotic episodes

220
Q

Histrionic personality disorder?

A

Must be the center of attention, inappropriate sexual behavior, self-dramatizination, uses physical appearance to draw attention to self

221
Q

Antisocial personality disorder?

A

Failure to conform to social rules, deceitful, lack of remorse, impulsive, aggressive towards others, irresponsible, must be over the age of 18, must have history of conduct disorder

222
Q

Borderline personality disorder?

A

Unstable relationships, impulsive, recurrent suicidal behaviors, chronic feelings of emptiness, inappropriate anger, dissociative symptoms when severely stressed, brief psychotic episodes

223
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder?

A

Grandiose sense of self, belief that they are special, lack empathy, sense of entitlement, requires excessive admiration

224
Q

Avoidant personality disorder?

A

Unwilling to get involved with people, views self as socially inept, reluctant to take risks, feelings of inadequacy

225
Q

Dependent personality disorder?

A

Difficulty making day-to-day decisions, unable to assume responsibility, unable to express disagreement, fear of being alone, seeks relationship as source of care

226
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder?

A

Preoccupied with details, rigid, orderly, perfectionistic, excessively devoted to work, inflexible

227
Q

How do you treat personalty disorders?

A

Psychotherapy. Medications if mood or anxiety symptoms are present.

228
Q

Which of the personality disorders have been associated with positive psychotic symptoms? When do they occur?

A

Borderline and schizotypal personality disorders may have short-lived psychotic episodes that are brief and usually occur after stressful situations.

229
Q

15 y/o girl.
Found vomiting in bathroom.
Mother reports that girl vomits daily after meals.
Sometimes observed exercising excessively.
Numerous calluses on her hands as well as cavities.
Low BMI.

What is her most likely diagnosis?

a. bulimia nervosa
b. anorexia nervosa
c. eating disorder not otherwise specified
d. obesity
e. atypical depression

A

Anorexia nervosa

The main focus of this question is the reduced BMI. This is indicative of the weight loss seen in anorexia nervosa. She obviously purges and as a result has calluses and cavities. Amenorrhea, significant weight loss, and abnormal preoccupation with body image are the key to the diagnosis of anorexia.

230
Q

How is anorexia characterized?

A

Failure to maintain a normal body weight, fear of and preoccupation with gaining weight, and body image disturbance. There is an unrealistic self-evaluation as overweight. These patients tend to deny their emaciated condition. They show great concern with appearance and frequently examine and weight themselves. They typically lose weight by maintaining strict caloric control, excessive exercise, purging, and fasting, with laxative and diuretic abuse.

231
Q

Anorexia is typically seen in what gender and age?

A

Teenage girls between age 14 and 18

232
Q

What is the main difference between anorexia and bulimia?

A

Severe weight loss in anorexia.

Most people with bulimia are of NORMAL WEIGHT but do have a history of obesity.

233
Q

What is the most common cause of death in anorexics?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias from potassium deficiency

234
Q

How do you treat anorexia?

A

1) hospitalization to prevent dehydration, starvation, electrolyte imbalances, and death
2) psychotherapy
3) behavioral therapy
4) SSRIs have been used to promote weight gain

235
Q

How is bulimia characterized?

A

Frequent binge eating.
Lack of control of overeating episodes.
Accompanied by compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain in the form of purging, miss of laxative and diuretics, fasting, and excessive exercise.
The patient’s self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.

236
Q

Bulimia is seen more frequently in what gender and age?

A

More frequently seen in women and occurs later in adolescence than anorexia nervosa.

237
Q

How do you treat bulimia?

A

1) does not require hospitalization unless severe electrolyte abnormality is present
2) psychotherapy
3) SSRIs

238
Q

What is binge eating disorder?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating that occur at least 3 times per week for more than 3 months.
Patients are overweight and they usually lack a sense of control over their eating habits. The binge eating episodes are associated with eating faster than usual, eating until feeling uncomfortably full, eating large amounts of food in the absence of hunger, eating alone, and feeling disgusted with oneself after the eating episode.

239
Q

What is the treatment for binge eating disorder?

A

Topiramate has been proven efficacious for binge eating disorder. SSRIs may have limited benefits.

Psychotherapy is indicated, including cognitive behavioral therapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, and dialectic behavioral therapy.

240
Q

True or False: first-line treatment of binge eating disorder is SSRIs

A

False. Topiramate is first line treatment.

241
Q

What is eating disorder not otherwise specified?

A

A designation of eating disorder not otherwise specified is used when patients do not meet criteria for either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa. Examples include:
criteria for anorexia present in girls but menstruation is normal. Anorexic patient with normal weight. Use of compensatory behavior after eating normal amounts of food.

242
Q

What criteria are key to diagnoses of anorexia? (3)

A
  1. Amenorrhea
  2. Significant weight loss
  3. Abnormal preoccupation with body image
243
Q

What is narcolepsy? 4 specific features?

A

Disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and abnormalities of REM sleep.
Specific features:
1) sleep attacks (episodes of irresistible sleepiness and feeling refreshed upon waking)
2) cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone. Considered pathognomonic and may be precipitated by loud noise or emotions)
3) hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations (hallucinations that occur as the patient is going to sleep and waking up)
4) sleep paralysis (patient is awake but unable to move; this typically occurs upon waking)

244
Q

What age does narcolepsy typically begin?

A

Young adulthood

245
Q

How do you diagnose narcolepsy?

A

Sleep studies and careful history

246
Q

How do you treat narcolepsy?

A

No therapy has been found to be curative. The patient is managed with forced naps during the day and modafinil is used to maintain alertness. Therapy can also include methylphenidate and dextroamphetamine. Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) may be given at bedtime to induce symptoms of narcolepsy and contain them at night.

247
Q

Hypnogogic vs hypnopompic?

A

Hypnogogic: before sleep
Hypnopompic: upon waking

248
Q

How do you treat sleep apnea? (4)

A

1) continuous positive airway pressure (bipap cpap)
2) weight loss
3) corrective surgery
4) avoidance of sedatives and alcohol

249
Q

Treatment for insomnia? (2)

A

1) Sleep hygiene techniques (first-line)

2) Zolpidem, eszopiclone, or zaleplon

250
Q

Sleep hygiene techniques?

A

1) going to bed and waking up at the same time
2) avoiding caffeine
3) avoiding daytime naps
4) using bed only for sleeping and not for reading, watching TV, or eating

251
Q

What is impotence? How do you treat it?

A

Impotence is persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of the sexual act.

Treatment: rule out medical causes or medication, psychotherapy, couples sexual therapy

252
Q

What is premature ejaculation? How do you treat it?

A

Ejaculation before penetration or just after penetration, usually due to anxiety

Treatment: psychotherapy, behavioral modification techniques (stop and go, squeeze), SSRI medication

253
Q

What is genitopelvic pain disorder (formerly dyspareunia)? How do you treat it?

A

Pain associated with sexual intercourse, not diagnosed if due to medical condition. Treat with psychotherapy.

254
Q

What is penetration disorder (formerly vaginismus)? How do you treat it?

A

Involuntary constriction of the outer third of the vagina preventing penile insertion.

Treat with psychotherapy and dilator therapy

255
Q

What are paraphilic disorders (formerly paraphilias?)

A

Paraphilias are a group of disorders that are recurrent, sexual arousing, and seen more frequently in men. They focus on humiliation, non consenting partners, or use of nonliving objects. Must occur for more than 6 months and cause distress as well as adversely affect level of functioning. Do not diagnose if done in experimentation.

256
Q

How do you treat paraphilias?

A

1) Individual psychotherapy
2) Behavioral modification techniques such as aversive conditioning
3) Antiandrogens or SSRIs to reduce sex drive

257
Q

What is gender dysphoria (formerly gender identity disorder)?

A

This is a disorder characterized by the persistent discomfort and sense of inappropriateness regarding the patient’s assigned sex.

258
Q

How do you treat gender dysphoria?

A

Sexual reassignment surgery if approved. Individual psychotherapy. Hormone therapy.

259
Q

How does gender dysphoria manifest?

A

Manifests by wearing the opposite gender’s clothes, using toys assigned to the opposite sex, play with opposite-sex children when young, and feeling unhappy about the person’s own sexual assignment. Patients will take hormones when older to deepen voice, if female, or soften voice, if male. Women may bind their breasts and men may hide their penis and testicles. This is seen more frequently in young men.

260
Q

Risk factors of suicide?

A
Men
Older adults
Social isolation
Presence of psychiatric illness/drug abuse
Perceived hopelessness
Previous attempts
261
Q

Homicide risk factors? (9)

A

1) young male
2) unemployed
3) impoverished
4) access to firearms (greatest risk factor)
5) substance abuse
6) antisocial personality disorder
7) history of violence or criminality
8) history of childhood abuse
9) impulsivity

262
Q

True or False: Although postpartum psychosis is rare in comparison with postpartum blues and postpartum depression, it is a medical emergency and requires hospitalization of the mother.

A

True.

There is an increased risk of both suicide and infanticide in patients with postpartum psychosis. They must be hospitalized to ensure safety and antipsychotic medication should be started. Treatment of any underlying pre-existing disorders is necessary as well.

263
Q

What should a primary care physician consider when a patient often presents with headaches or other physical complaints (e.g. fatigue, insomnia, nonspecific aches and pains)?

A

Patients with depression often present to a primary care physician with headaches or other physical complaints (e.g. fatigue, insomnia, nonspecific aches and pains). The physician should consider depression on the differential diagnosis and specifically inquire about depressive symptoms (e.g. depressed mood, anhedonia, etc). If the patient is suffering from depression, physical symptoms will likely improve with adequate treatment.

264
Q

How do you diagnose bipolar 1 disorder? Bipolar 2 disorder?

A

Bipolar 1 disorder is diagnosed by one or more manic episodes. Depressive episodes are common but not required for diagnosis.

Bipolar 2 disorder is diagnosed by one or more hypomanic episodes with one or more major depressive episodes.

For bipolar 1 disorder, depressive episodes aren’t required for diagnosis. For bipolar 2 disorder, one or more major depressive episode is required for diagnosis.

265
Q

30 y/o morbidly obese man.
“Feeling down” after being passed over for a promotion.
Feels discouraged most of the time and remembers that he first felt this way in high school.
Can only remember a few times since high school when he did not feel sad (a month or two at a time).
Works as a computer programmer.
Sleeps about 12 hours a day.
Never asked a woman out because, “I just know she will reject me because I’m fat”.
Describes feeling hopeless and copes by overeating.
Enjoys playing video games with coworkers and friends.
No other PMH or substance use. No SI.
Family history of MDD in mother and older brother.

A. adjustment disorder
B. avoidant personality disorder
C. bipolar 2 disorder
D. cyclothymic disorder
E. major depressive disorder
F. normal human behavior
G. persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)
A

Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

Patient’s chronic depression since adolescence, accompanied by overeating, hypersomnia, and low self-esteem, is consistent with persistent depressive disorder. Diagnosis requires persistent depressive symptoms for > or = 2 years and that the individual has never been without depressive symptoms for >2 months at a time. In DSM-5, persistent depressive disorder also encompasses patients who may have met the full criteria for a major depressive illness at some point during the illness; they are specified accordingly (e.g. with intermittent depressive episodes or persistent major depressive episodes).

266
Q

SAD PERSONS mnemonic for suicidality?

A
Sex (male)
Age (older)
Depression
Previous attempt
Etoh (or other substance) use
Rational thought loss (psychosis)
Social support (lack)
Organized plan
No spouse or significant other
Sickness or injury
267
Q

How do you manage a patient who has high suicide risk?

A

For patients with high imminent risk (ideation, intent, and plan):
Ensure safety by hospitalizing immediately (involuntary if necessary). Remove personal belongings and objects in the room that may present self-harm risk. Constant observation and security may be required to hold against will.

For patients with high non-imminent risk (ideation, intent, but no plan to act in the near future):
Ensure close follow-up
Treat modifiable risk factors (underlying depression, psychosis, substance abuse, pain). Recruit family or friends to support the patient. Reduce access to potential means (secure firearms, medications)

268
Q

72 y/o man.
Chronic pain. Unknown PMH.
Diminished energy and anxiety for 3 months.
Appears very sad and moves slowly.
Felt terrible since his wife died unexpectedly from brain aneurysm 4 months ago. Filled with guilt because he did not get her to the hospital sooner.
Since her death, he has had disturbed sleep, unable to enjoy his favorite activities, and drinks a bottle of wine nightly to fall asleep. He stays isolated because he does not feel like socializing anymore. He feels hopeless and wants to end his life, believing that he cannot carry on without his wife. He contemplated hanging himself and recently drove by a hardware store with thoughts of buying a rope, but ultimately did not. The patient is advised to enter a psychiatric hospital but he refuses and promises that he will try anything outpatient. What is the most appropriate next step?

A

Admit him to a psychiatric unit involuntarily.

269
Q

26 y/o graduate student.
Chronic headaches that he describes as “debilitating.
Experiences headaches at night. Difficulty falling asleep. No fevers or vomiting. Patient has had similar headaches throughout the past year. Full workup last year included brain CT and ophthalmological evaluation all came back negative. Physical examination normal. Despite reassurance from multiple physicians, the patient continues to be excessively worried and thinks he may have a brain tumor or aneurysm. He has an upcoming deadline for his dissertation and is concerned that his insomnia is affecting his productivity. He is unable to focus on his studies due to persistent worrisome thoughts. What do you do?

A

Initiate a discussion about current emotional stressors.

Somatic symptom disorder involves excessive and disproportionate preoccupation with somatic symptoms, resulting in high health care utilization and functional impairment. Because symptoms often worsen during periods of stress, patients should be asked about their current emotional stressors and counseled regarding stress reduction.

270
Q

PCP is a hallucinogenic drug that characteristically causes what physical exam finding?

A

Nystagmus

271
Q

72 y/o woman with breast cancer.
Undergone surgery and completed chemotherapy over the last 7 months and now in remission. Isn’t eating much. Isn’t any happier despite the good news. Sleeps only 2-3 hours at a time and cries frequently. Doesn’t enjoy visits from her family or activities that she used to enjoy. Feelings of hopelessness. Low energy. Difficulty concentrating. 10lb weight loss. No suicidal ideation. MOCA 25/30. What do you do next?

A

Prescribe an SSRI and/or psychotherapy

Medically ill patients who develop comorbid depression can benefit from treatment with antidepressant medications and psychotherapy to improve their quality of life.

272
Q

15 y/o boy brought to the ED after being found unconscious on his bedroom floor. Boy was drowsy and experienced dizziness and headache. The father didn’t find any drugs or drug-related paraphernalia, although the boy does have history of coming home drunk and smelling of alcohol on several occasions. When evaluated, symptoms have resolved. No PMH. Physical examination shows a mild rash around the patient’s mouth, which the father says is not new. Pupils are slightly dilated. Routine blood and urine toxicology screens are negative and blood alcohol level is 0. Liver function tests are slightly elevated. ECG is normal.

Abuse of what substance is the most likely cause of the patient’s condition?

A

Inhalant abuse.

Commonly abused inhalants include glue, toluene, nitrous oxide, amyl nitrite, and spray paints. Inhalants may be abused by sniffing, huffing (inhaled from a saturated cloth), or bagging (Bag over mouth or nose) to concentrate the inhaled substance.

Signs of acute intoxication may include brief transient euphoria and loss of consciousness and varies depending on the specific chemicals inhaled. The inhalants act as CNS depressants and may cause death.

Dermatitis (glue sniffer’s rash) due to chemical exposure can be seen around the mouth or nostrils. Inhalants are rapidly eliminated and are not included in most routine hospital toxicology screens. LFTs may be elevated with repeat use. Boys age 14-17 are at highest risk for inhalant abuse, which may go unnoticed because common household products are used and no drug paraphernalia is found.

273
Q

Drug of abuse.
Dermatitis around nose or mouth
Normal urine toxicology screens. Normal blood and blood alcohol levels.
LFTs can be slightly elevated.
Seen most commonly in boys 14-17 years old.

A

Inhalant abuse

274
Q

28 y/o woman brought to the ED after generalized tonic-clonic seizure.
Patient appears confused and is unable to answer any questions.
Sister reports that the patient has never had a seizure before and does not use alcohol or drugs.
Sister reports that the patient has been taking a medication for the past 6 months, prescribed by her primary care provider, to help with anxiety, sadness, and trouble sleeping. No family hx of seizure disorder. Sister reports that she did not take any medications since yesterday, as they were on their way to a concert in another state.

Which medication was the patient most likely taking?

a. alprazolam
b. bupropion
c. clomipramine
d. lamotrigine
e. paroxetine
f. quetiapine
g. venlafaxine

A

Alprazolam

The patient had a first seizure after missing doses of her medication for one day. Of the medications listed, alprazolam (xanax), a short-acting benzodiazepine, is the most likely to result in seizures following abrupt discontinuation. Symptoms of withdrawal from benzodiazpepines with short half-lives can appear as early as 24 hours after cessation and can include seizures, tremors, anxiety, perceptual disturbances, and psychosis.

Although benzos are often used in the tx of anxiety and depression, their use can be problematic due to their potential to result in tolerance, dependence, and abuse. Benzodiazepines with shorter half-lives, such as alprazolam, have greater risk for severe withdrawal reactions.

275
Q

Which benzodiazepines have greater risk for withdrawal reactions?

A

The ones with shorter half-lives such as alprazolam (xanax)

276
Q

What is alcoholic hallucinosis?

A

This is a type of alcohol withdrawal that is characterized by an alert sensorium, predominantly visual hallucinations (although auditory and tactile hallucinations also occur) and relatively stable vital signs. It develops 12-24 hours after the last drink and usually resolves within 24-28 hours.

277
Q

What is the hallmark of delirium tremens? (2)

A

Disorientation and global confusion

278
Q

What is the difference between somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder (formerly hypochondriasis)?

A

Somatic symptom disorder is diagnosed when significant somatic symptoms are present. In contrast, patients with illness anxiety disorder fear having a specific illness but have minimal or no physical symptoms; they are primarily concerned with the idea that they have an illness.

279
Q

33 y/o businessman w/o PMH.
Recent fatigue and weight loss over past 3 months.
Unable to sleep much. Anhedonia. Difficulty concentrating. Physical exam and TSH normal. Diagnosed with MDD and prescribed fluoxetine at a therapeutic dose. Two weeks later, he reports that he is sleeping and eating a little better but is still depressed. The patient is very discouraged about his lack of improvement and says, “I don’t feel like the medication is doing anything.”

a. add antipsychotic
b. add bupropion
c. add lithium
d. continue fluoxetine for an additional 2-4 weeks
e. discontinue fluoxetine and start a different antidepressant
f. increase dose of fluoxetine

A

Continue fluoxetine for an additional 2-4 weeks.

Antidepressants take time to work. An adequate antidepressant trial is 4-6 weeks at a therapeutic dosage. The patient should be educated that 2 weeks is considered an inadequate trial and be encouraged to remain on the medication for at least 2-4 more weeks. It would be premature to add an augmenting agent. Discontinuing fluoxetine and switching to a different antidepressant would risk losing the partial response. Inadequate antidepressant dose or duration is a common reason for perceived lack of response, and physicians must ensure that patients receive an adequate trial before recommending alternate treatments.

The patient is at a therapeutic dose of fluoxetine and has shown some signs of early improvement (in sleep and appetite). He should be encouraged to continue fluoxetine at the same dose. If the patient remains significantly depressed after a 4 to 6 week trial, increasing the dose is an option provided there are no tolerability issues.

280
Q

What drug is indicated in schizophrenic and schizoaffective patients with recent suicidality?

A

Clozapine

281
Q

What drug is indicated in treatment-resistant schizophrenia and treatment-resistant schizoaffective disorder? (patients who have failed > or = 2 antipsychotic trials)

A

Clozapine

282
Q

Antipsychotic medications cause dopamine blocked and because dopamine is a prolactin-inhibiting factor, the blockade of dopamine in which pathway can lead to hyperprolactinemia? What side effects does this cause? (4)

A

Tuberoinfundibular pathway

  1. gynecomastia
  2. galactorrhea
  3. menstrual dysfunction
  4. decreased libido
283
Q

35 y/o man having seizures from alcohol withdrawal

AST 212
ALT 224

What drug to give?

a. chlordiazepoxide
b. disulfiram
c. flumazenil
d. lorazepam
e. phenobarbital
f. phenytoin
g. propranolol

A

Lorazepam

While lorazepam and chlordiazepoxide are both benzodiazepines that are used for alcohol withdrawal, this patient has suspected liver disease so oxazepam or lorazepam (“o”ld “l”iver) should be used.

284
Q

28 y/o woman
increasing episodes of anxiety.
Anxiety, trembling, sweating, chest tightness, shortness of breath whenever she has to give a presentation.
Patient has had symptoms like this since her teens but it’s getting worse.
Nervous in staff meetings.
Afraid of making a fool of herself.
Visibly anxious throughout interview and avoids eye contact with the physician.

A

Social anxiety disorder (social phobia)

Physical symptoms similar to panic attacks which are triggered by feared social situations. Persistent anxiety and poor eye contact are also characteristic of the disorder. Social anxiety disorder is characterized by fear of one or more social situations and anxiety about acting in a way that will be humiliating or embarrassing.

285
Q

What is normal pupil size?

A

2-4 mm diameter

286
Q

22 y/o woman brought to ED after passing out at a party.
Party had alcohol and marijuana available.
Friends report use of cocaine and marijuana in the past.
Bottles of alprazolam and hydrocodone found in her bag.
Patient has no PMH and there is no evidence of trauma.
On exam, she is stuporous. 97F/110over60/54/6.
Pupils are 2mm are reactive.
Heart and lung exam is normal and bowel sounds are present.
Neuro exam: responds to painful stimuli and decreased DTRs bilaterally.
Administration of glucose, thiamine, and naloxone has no effect. What did she most likely ingest?

a. alcohol and benzodiazepines
b. alcohol and cocaine
c. alcohol and marijuana
d. alcohol and opiates
e. benzodiazepines only

A

Alcohol and benzodiazepines

Most patients with isolated benzodiazepine overdose are arousable and have normal vital signs, so E is wrong. Signs such as bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and hyporeflexia are seen so co-ingestion of another sedative-hypnotic (most common being alcohol) should be suspected.

Opioid overdose can also result in altered consciousness and respiratory depression. However, this patient’s failure to respond to the opioid antagonist naloxone, normal pupils, and presence of normal bowel sounds makes opioid intoxication less likely.

287
Q

How do you diagnose schizoaffective disorder?

A

Major depressive or manic episode concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia.
Lifetime history of delusions or hallucinations for > or = 2 weeks in the absence of major depressive or manic episode.
Mood symptoms are present for the majority of the illness.
Not due to substances or another medical condition.

Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by a significant mood episode (depressive or manic) with concurrent psychotic symptoms in addition to psychosis without mood symptoms for at least two weeks.

Differentiating schizoaffective disorder from bipolar disorder, major depression with psychotic features, and schizophrenia requires determining the temporal relationship of psychotic symptoms to mood symptoms. In bipolar disorder and major depression with psychotic features, psychotic symptoms occur exclusively during manic or depressive episodes. When the patient’s mood is stable, there are no psychotic symptoms. In schizophrenia, if mood symptoms occur, they are present for a small portion of the illness.

288
Q

Expressing unacceptable feelings through impulsive actions

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Acting out. Immature.

289
Q

Behaving as if an aspect of reality does not exist

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Denial. Immature.

290
Q

Transferring feelings to a more acceptable or safer object

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Displacement. Immature.

291
Q

Using intellect to avoid uncomfortable feelings

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Intellectualization. Immature.

292
Q

Avoiding conflict by expressing hostility covertly

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Passive aggression. Immature.

293
Q

Attributing one’s own feelings to others

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Projection. Immature.

294
Q

Justifying behavior to avoid difficult truths

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Rationalization. Immature.

295
Q

Responding in a (extreme) manner opposite to one’s actual feelings

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Reaction formation. Immature.

296
Q

Reverting to earlier developmental stage

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Regression. Immature.

297
Q

Seeing others as all bad or all good

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Splitting. Immature.

298
Q

Channeling impulses into socially acceptable behaviors

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Sublimation. Mature.

299
Q

Putting unwanted feelings aside to cope with reality

Which psychological defense mechanism? Mature or immature?

A

Suppression. Mature.

300
Q

What are psychological defense mechanisms? Immature vs mature?

A

Psychological defense mechanisms are unconscious means of responding and adapting to different situations while preserving self-image. These mechanisms serve to decrease anxiety associated with shame and vulnerability and ensure a feeling of safety in the face of disappointments. Immature defense mechanisms are more commonly used in children and adolescents but can also be seen in adult psychopathology (e.g. in personality disorders) or in adults in times of stress. Immature defense mechanisms provide short-term relief but often result in long-term complications. Mature defense mechanisms are most often used by well-adjusted individuals and allow for a “healthy” and more constructive approach to reality.

301
Q

What is tyramine? What is its significance in psychiatric care?

A

Tyramine is a sympathomimetic monoamine that can facilitate the release of other sympathomimetic monoamines, such as adrenaline. Tyramine may be present in aged cheeses, aged or cured meats, aged or fermented soy products, overripe fruits, and some alcoholic beverages. Tyramine metabolism is inhibited in the presence of MAOIs, which causes an increased sympathomimetic effect that can result in severe hypertensive crisis. This commonly presents first as headache but can lead to intracranial bleeding, stroke, and death.

302
Q

Which SSRI has the longest half life?

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

So, you almost never see discontinuation syndrome with fluoxetine.

303
Q

Which SSRI has the highest rate of QTc prolongation?

A

Citalopram (Celexa)

304
Q

Which SSRI is most associated with discontinuation syndrome?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

305
Q

Why are GI side effects so common with SSRIs?

A

80-85% of serotonin receptors are in the GI tract

306
Q

How long is an “adequate” SSRI trial?

A

Usually at least 6-8 weeks at dose expected to be effective

307
Q

Are SSRI starting doses typically higher or lower in children and elderly patients?

A

Lower

308
Q

True or False: When giving SSRIs, start low and go slow.

A

True

309
Q

True or False: SSRIs are generally best when combined with therapy

A

True. On exams, always choose the SSRI that is paired with a therapy over a SSRI that’s alone.

310
Q

What is the most common side effect of all psychiatric medications? (except for stimulants)

A

GI distress.

30-40% of patients will experience GI distress from psychiatric medications. The GI distress goes away in 3-5 days in the majority of these patients (80%)
By 3 weeks, 98% of patients have resolution of GI symptoms.

311
Q

True or False: you can sometimes have an improvement in sexual function with SSRIs

A

True. Lack of sleep, anxiety, depression, etc can all cause decreased sexual function. Sometimes SSRI can increase sexual function, even though a common side effect of SSRIs is sexual dysfunction.

312
Q

When should a primary care physician consult psychiatry for SSRIs? (4)

A
  1. failed 2 adequate trials of SSRI
  2. high severity
  3. many medications
  4. co-morbid psychiatric disorders
313
Q

How do you choose your first SSRI? (4)

A
  1. cost
  2. clinical experience
  3. family hx of response or side effects to SSRIs
  4. adherence of patient (think about half-life)
314
Q

Electric shock feelings/zaps in their head or extremities.

A

Discontinuation syndrome.

Happens with SSRI withdrawal

315
Q

Which SSRI has the shortest half life? how about longest?

A

Shortest: Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
Longest: Fluoxetine (Prozac)

You can remember this because the v in the fluvoxamine looks like a down arrow. Both start with “flu”.

316
Q

What is the only eating disorder that has been shown to be helped by SSRI treatment?

A

Bulimia nervosa

317
Q

True or False: SSRIs can cause an increased risk of suicidal thoughts for patients age 12-18.

A

True, there is a real risk but the absolute risk is low. About 1 in 100. It should be discussed with patients but the data is controversial about whether or not suicidal action is increased by SSRIs. Above 25 years old, SSRIs are protective of suicide (because you’re treating depression… which causes suicidal thoughts).

Standard of care is to treat with SSRI with psychotherapy. Suicide is one of the S’s in SIGECAPS. It’s a serious risk for depression.

318
Q

True or False: most suicide completion is impulsive

A

True

319
Q

Which ADHD symptom improves when the patient gets older?

A

Hyperactivity

ADHD lasts your whole life but the hyperactivity typically gets better.

320
Q

True or False: ADHD is highly genetically bound

A

True

321
Q

Most common side effect of stimulants?

A

Decreased appetite

322
Q

17 y/o girl brought into the office by her mother.
Mother concerned about daughter’s weight loss and mood changes. Girl has lost 10 lb in the past 2 months and has been uncharacteristically irritable.
Daughter not sleeping enough.
Patient denies not having any problems and feels “fine” and just has a lot of energy.
Daughter, “isn’t it healthy to be thin and fit? I don’t understand what my mother is worried about”.
Patient is 5’2’’ 105 lb. Physical examination shows a thin girl with erythema of the turbinates and nasal septum and mild facial acne.

A. anorexia nervosa
B. avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
C. bipolar 2 disorder
D. bulimia nervosa
E. cocaine use disorder
F. marijuana use disorder
G. MDMA (ecstasy) use disorder
A

Cocaine use disorder

Cocaine is a stimulant that produces increased energy and decreases appetite and need for sleep. Individuals who abuse cocaine often present with mood changes (e.g. euphoria, irritability) and weight loss secondary to decreased appetite. The diagnostic hallmark in this scenario is erythema of the turbinates and nasal septum, which is a common finding in individuals who snort cocaine. In severe cases, perforation of the nasal septum can occur. In addition to mood disturbance, other psychiatric complications of cocaine use include anxiety, panic attacks, grandiosity, and psychosis (delusions and hallucinations).

323
Q

Diagnostic physical exam hallmark of cocaine use?

A

Erythema of the nasal turbinates and septum. In severe cases, perforation of the nasal septum can occur.

324
Q

Neuroimaging finding in schizophrenia?

A

Enlargement of the lateral cerebral ventricles

325
Q

Bloating, fatigue, headaches, and breast tenderness.
Mood swings, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, decreased libido and irritability. No recent change in sleep pattern or interest in activities, or feelings of hopelessness or guilt. No medications and physical exam is normal.
Episodes have been occurring for years. What to do?

A. cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. fluoxetine
C. gluten-free diet
D. luteal-phase-only fluoxetine
E. menstrual diary
F. valproate
G. vitamin B6
A

Menstrual diary

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) includes physical manifestations of PMS including bloating, fatigue, headaches, and breast tenderness. Psychological symptoms may include mood swings, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, decreased libido, and irritability. Symptoms usually begin a week prior to menses and resolve within a few days after menses starts. Patients are symptom free in the follicular phase.

326
Q

What is premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

A

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe variant of PMS, with prominent irritability, hopelessness, depressed mood, self-critical thoughts, anger, and greater psychosocial impairment.

327
Q

How do you treat mild PMS? How do you treat moderate to severe PMS/PMDD?

A

Mild PMS: exercise and stress reduction

Moderate to severe PMS/PMDD (premenstrual dysphoric disorder): SSRIs (e.g. fluoxetine) are first-line treatment

328
Q

How do you assess if symptoms are from PMS/PMDD?

A

Menstrual diary can determine the relationship of symptoms to the menstrual cycle phases.

329
Q
19 y/o female
Avoiding social interactions
Hypersensitive to rejection
Feelings of inadequacy 
Shy
Intense fear of embarrassment or rejection

What personality disorder?

A

Avoidant

330
Q

43 y/o man
Long history of schizophrenia.
Hospitalized after attacking neighbor with a shovel.
Hears voices coming from radio.
Listens to walls for messages from secret agents.
Patient does not believe he has an illness.
Family reports that he responded well in the past to risperidone and olanzapine.
He usually stabilizes quickly but then relapses when he stops taking medications.
Frequent relapses and hospitalizations.

What is the most appropriate thing to do?

a. augment olanzapine with social skills training and family therapy
b. augment risperidone with lithium
c. long-term hospitalization
d. prescribe clozapine
e. prescribe quetiapine
f. prescribe risperidone long-acting injectable antipsychotic

A

Risperidone long-acting injectable antipsychotic

Frequent relapses and repetitive hospitalizations due to medication non adherence should be managed with long-acting injectable antipsychotics. LAI antipsychotics eliminate the need to take oral medication daily and are administered every 2-4 weeks intramuscularly.

331
Q

Which antipsychotics are available in long-active injectable form?

A

Both first-generation (haloperidol, fluphenazine) and second-generation antipsychotics (risperidone, paliperidone, olanzapine, aripiprazole) are available in LAI formulations.

332
Q

24 y/o woman brought to ED for depression and SI.
Roommate became alarmed when patient did not get up for work as usual and reported feeling so depressed that she wants to die. No current SI, but describes being depressed, exhausted, and unable to concentrate. She appears distracted and speaks slowly. The roommate reports that they just partied for 3 nights where there was “alcohol and other stuff”. Afterwards, the patient slept for 18 hours, had difficulty getting out of bed, and missed work.

A

Cocaine withdrawal

Patient’s acute onset of depression with pronounced fatigue following a period of increased energy is suggestive of cocaine withdrawal. Individuals often use cocaine in binges, taking the drug repeatedly over a short period to maintain their high. Following abrupt cessation, a crash typically occurs. This initial period can include severe depression with SI and psychomotor slowing with milder symptoms that resolve within 2 weeks.

333
Q

Name the 4 types of extrapyramidal symptoms

A

Acute dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia

334
Q

Patient started on antipsychotic and is experiencing gradual-onset tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, and mask-like facies. What do you do?

A

Add benztropine (anti-cholinergic) or amantadine (dopaminergic medication, weak NMDA receptor antagonist)

335
Q

True or False: minimizing conflict and stress in the home decreases the risk of relapse in patients with schizophrenia.

A

True.

Family psychosocial interventions are indicated for patients with a recent psychotic episode who have significant ongoing contact with family members.

336
Q

True or False: Gender dysphoria that begins in early childhood is more likely to persist than if beginning during puberty.

A

False.

Gender dysphoria in early childhood does not always persist; when experienced through adolescence, and especially into puberty, gender dysphoria is more likely to be enduring.

337
Q

Treatment for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?

A

Clozapine

338
Q

Aggression
Accelerated male pattern baldness
Gynecomastia

A

Anabolic (androgenic) steroid use

Anabolic steroids (e.g. testosterone, trenbolone, boldenone, stanozolol, nandrolone) are popular among young people and athletes looking to improve their physical appearance and performance.

Anabolic steroid side effects include impaired endogenous testicular function and decreased testicular size and sperm count.

339
Q

Dream enactment. If awakened, patients become fully alert and recall their dreams.

A

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder.

REM sleep behavior disorder involves dream enactment that occurs during REM sleep if muscle atone is absent. If awakened, patients become fully alert and recall their dreams. In older patients, these behaviors may be a sign of neurodegeneration. If frequent and recurrent, it may be a prodromal sign of neurodegeneration in patients with parkinson disease or dementia with lewy bodies.

340
Q

Excessively dependent
Submissive behaviors
Indecisiveness
Fear of being left alone

A

Dependent personality disorder

341
Q

Dependent personality disorder and avoidant personality disorder are both characterized by feelings of inadequacy, fear of rejection, and need for reassurance. What’s a clear difference between the two disorders?

A

Individuals with avoidant personality disorder typically avoid relationships, whereas patients with dependent personality disorder have a pattern of seeking and clinging to relationships.

342
Q

Contraindications to bupropion? (4)

A

1) seizure disorders
2) bulimia nervosa
3) anorexia nervosa
4) use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in the past 2 weeks

Individuals with eating disorders are at increased risk as they frequently develop electrolyte abnormalities that can precipitate seizures.

343
Q
Myalgias
Arthralgias
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhea
Abdominal cramps
Rhinorrhea
Lacrimation
Sweating
Restless
Irritable
Elevated HR and BP
Pupillary dilation
Piloerection
Yawning
A

Opiate withdrawal

344
Q

What is the mechanism of action for second-generation antipsychotics?

A

Serotonin and dopamine antagonists

345
Q

True or False: Bipolar disorder is a highly recurrent illness that requires long-term and often life-long maintenance pharmacotherapy to decrease the risk of recurrent mood episodes.

A

True.

Patients often struggle with the idea of taking medication for their entire life. A strong therapeutic alliance, psychoeducation, and adjunctive psychotherapy can help the patient accept the chronic nature of the illness and enhance adherence.

346
Q

Occasional forgetfulness
Word-finding difficulty
Doesn’t impact activities of daily living

A

Normal age-related cognitive changes

347
Q

True or False: normal age-related changes should not impair daily functioning (e.g. self-care, finances, medication management) etc.

A

True.

This helps distinguish normal aging from mild neurocognitive disorder

348
Q

52 y/o man with schizophrenia brought to the ED by group home staff.
He was started on a new antipsychotic for auditory hallucinations a month ago, and the dose was gradually increased. The voices disappeared after 2 weeks but the patient has since become increasingly agitated. Dose escalations do not appear to be calming him. Staff reports that he has been leaving the group home in the mornings and walking all day in the neighborhood. He becomes aggressive if he is asked to remain in the group home. In the ED, the patient is restless but shows no localized abnormal movements. He attempts to walk around the department and into other patient’s rooms. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. decrease the antipsychotic dose and administer propranolol
B. discontinue the antipsychotic and administer haloperidol
C. discontinue the antipsychotic and administer lorazepam
D. increase the antipsychotic dose and administer lorazepam
E. maintain the antipsychotic dose and administer benztropine

A

A. decrease the antipsychotic dose and administer propranolol

The patient is experiencing akathisia, a type of extrapyramidal symptom associated with antipsychotic medications. Patients describe a subjective sense of inner restlessness that may manifest as pacing and an inability to sit still. Although more common with high-potency first-generation antipsychotic use, akathisia also occurs with use of some second-generation antipsychotics. In severe cases, the patient may become extremely distressed, resulting in increased agitation and overall global worsening.

Clinicians must be able to differentiate akathisia from worsening psychotic agitation, as akathisia is dose dependent; an increase in the antipsychotic dosage would make akathisia worse.

349
Q

Antidepressant with mild stimulant effects, approved for smoking cessation, helps with weight loss, and does not cause sexual side effects.

A

Bupropion.

Particularly helpful for depressed patients with low energy, impaired concentration, hypersomnia, and weight gain.

350
Q
Delusions
Tactile hallucinations (bugs crawling under the skin)
Aggressive behavior
Severe insomnia
Physical findings of poor dentition and skin sores
Weight loss
Psychotic symptoms
Excoriations due to skin picking
A

Chronic methamphetamine abuse

351
Q

True or False: some chronic methamphetamine users can develop persistent psychosis that may be difficult to distinguish from primary psychiatric disorders.

A

True

Visual and tactile hallucinations tend to be more common in substance-induced psychotic disorders while auditory tend to be more common in schizophrenia.

352
Q

What is the most effective treatment for hoarding disorder?

A

Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Although SSRIs are often tried based on their efficacy in treating OCD, their efficacy in treating hoarding behavior without OCD is limited.

353
Q

46 y/o man
Physician notes that his mood seems low.
Patient reports being “stressed out” for the past 2 months due to work.
He has been unable to exercise or eat healthily recently.
He feels irritable and tense at work and has noticed some neck and shoulder paint.
The patient notes difficulty falling asleep and feels tired during the day.
Although he hates his job, he has no choice but to stay. He continues to get his work done and enjoys social activities, including playing golf on weekends.
The patient drinks 2-3 cans of beer on weekends and smokes MJ twice a month.

a. acute stress disorder
b. adjustment disorder with depressed mood
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. insomnia disorder
e. major depressive disorder
f. no diagnosis - normal stress response
g. substance-induced mood disorder

A

F. no diagnosis - normal stress response.

He does not meet full criteria for any disorder. Most importantly, he exhibits no impairment of social and occupational functioning, which is a DSM-5 requirement for the diagnosis of all psychiatric disorders.

354
Q

Chronic low-grade depression that lasts for years

A

Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

355
Q

How do you treat persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)?

A

Antidepressants and/or therapy

356
Q

Abdominal pain
New-onset neuropsychiatric symptoms including neuropathies, anxiety, mood changes, and psychosis. Symptoms can be episodic and last days to weeks.

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

This is a hereditary disorder involving alterations in heme biosynthesis and is characterized by intermittent neurovisceral symptoms.

Urinary porphobilinogen is elevated in acute porphyria.

357
Q
Conjunctival injection
Dry mouth
Tachycardia
Increased appetite
Slowed reaction time
Incoordination
Impaired short-term memory
Slurred speech
Poor concentration
Possible social withdrawal, anxiety, and paranoia. Perceptual disturbances such as AVH may also occur.
A

Cannabis intoxication

358
Q

Chronic, fluctuating mood disturbances since adolescence. Periods vary in length from days to weeks and have no clear relationship to situations in the patient’s life.

A

Cyclothymic disorder

359
Q

True or False: diagnosis of panic disorder REQUIRES that at least some of the episodes not be triggered or expected (e.g. at home watching TV, relaxing with friends)

A

True

360
Q

Unexpected anxiety attacks accompanied by chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, dizziness.
Persistent worry about future attacks.

A

Panic disorder

361
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome vs serotonin syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome is characterized by neuromuscular irritability (tremor, hyperreflexia, myoclonus) rather than the rigidity in neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

362
Q
Delirium
High fever
Autonomic instability
Severe rigidity
Elevated creatinine kinase
Leukocytosis
A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

363
Q

Treatment for MAOI hypertensive crisis?

A

Phentolamine (reversible nonselective a-adrenergic antagonist.. primary action is vasodilation due to a1 blockade)

364
Q

How do you treat catatonia?

A

Benzodiazepine or ECT

365
Q

What drug class is Doxepin in?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

366
Q

47 y/o woman brought to ED by husband.
Confusion during past 2 days.
Generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 4 minutes on arrival to ED.
PMH of bipolar disorder treated with medications, but husband is unsure of names. He knows that she sometimes takes ibuprofen for mild arthritis pain caused by exercise.
No hx seizure disorder.
On physical exam, she is tremulous and somnolent.
Bilateral nystagmus.
ECG shows 2nd degree AV block.

A

Lithium toxicity

NSAIDs increase lithium levels.

367
Q

2 y/o adopted girl presents with developmental delay.
Not yet walking and not yet talking.
Born at term to a 41-year-old woman.
No information about pregnancy and delivery.
Patient is 40th percentile length and 80th percentile for weight.
Exam shows epicentral folds, prominent tongue, small low-set ears, and short extremities.

A

Down syndrome

Physical exam findings, developmental delay, 41 y/o mother (increased risk after age 35)

368
Q

One week ago: 52 y/o man with schizophrenia presents for follow-up exam. Physician notices the patient has tongue occasionally protruded. When asked, the patient is unaware of this movement, but is able to voluntarily prevent it. The patient has been taking risperidone for 5 years. The physician decides to stop the risperidone due to the tongue movements.
Now: examination shows worsening tongue movements and writhing choreoathetoid movements in the upper extremities. What’s going on?

a) atrophy of the caudate nucleus
b) increased acetylcholine
c) increased sensitivity of the dopamine receptors
d) loss of volume in the basal ganglia
e) vascular changes in the small vessels

A

Increased sensitivity of the dopamine receptors

Chronic treatment with antipsychotics up regulates the dopamine receptors. Sudden discontinuation may cause exaggerated tardive dyskinesia due to increased dopamine sensitivity.

369
Q

What are polysomnography findings for narcolepsy?

A

Decreased REM latency (decreased time between falling asleep and entering REM. This means that narcoleptics enter REM stage sleep very quickly. A typical person takes about 90 minutes to enter REM while a narcoleptic takes about 10)
Increased REM density (increased frequency of eye movements during REM sleep)

370
Q

Treatment for performance anxiety? What if the patient has asthma?

A

Propranolol. If the patient has asthma, beta blockers are contraindicated. Use a benzodiazepine like lorazepam instead.

371
Q

What serum lab finding is found in patients with binge-eating and self-induced vomiting?

A

Increased amylase.

Amylase is an enzyme active in the digestion of carbohydrates and is a useful marker of purging behavior. Hyperamylasemia is common in patients who purse (both bulimia and anorexia with purging) due to increased salivary production. Pancreatic amylase elevation is not seen. Amylase fractionation can be useful in determining the source of amylase. An increase in amylase, particularly originating from the parotid glands, is suggestive of purging behavior.

372
Q

Top 2 risk factors for delirium?

A

1) prior episode of delirium

2) medications

373
Q

True or False: an episode of delirium has been correlated with an increase in 1-year all-cause mortality by 50% (for the following year).

A

True

374
Q

True or False: delirium precautions are more effective at treating delirium than any medications

A

True

375
Q

If an individual does not tolerate a trial of dextroamphetamine/amphetamine for treatment of ADHD, the next step of treatment is a trial of which medication?

A

Methylphenidate (extended release)

Try atomoxetine if you have failed 2 different stimulants. E.g. tried methylphenidate and then dextroamphetamine or vice versa.

376
Q

Patient on ziprasidone for 4 weeks and hasn’t had any effects. What do you ask the patient?

A

Ask about caloric intake. Ziprasidone needs 500+ calories daily in order to work.

377
Q

68 y/o man
On bipolar disorder treatment.
PMH: CHF, HTN treated with thiazide diuretic
Dry mucous membranes, bloodshot eyes, upper extremity tremor, diarrhea, trouble walking.

What medication is likely causing these side effects?

a) haloperidol
b) lithium
c) ziprasidone
d) valproic acid
e) paroxetine

A

Lithium

Patient is showing classic signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity. Excessive urination caused by renal tubular thickening during lithium treatment results in dehydration (dry mucous membranes, bloodshot eyes). Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremor, and ataxia are common for lithium toxicity.

Thiazide diuretics can cause lithium toxicity.