Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 5 > Psychiatry > Flashcards

Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What are the SEs of antipsychotics?

A

Metabolic - weight loss and diabetes
EPS - akathisia, dyskinesia, dystonia
Cardio - long QT interval (especially in clozapine)
Hormonal - increase plasma prolactin as they are dopamine antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Key side effect of clozapine

A

Long QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is treatment resistant schizophrenia?

A

Schizo does not respond to 2 different antipsychotics after trialing for 6-8 weeks each.
At least one drug should be non-clozapine second generation anti-psychotic.
Clozapine is treatment choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are Schneider’s first rank symptoms?

A

1) Auditory hallucinations
2) Thought disorders:
- –Thought interruption
- –Thought insertion
- –Thought withdrawal
3) Thought broadcasting
4) Somatic Hallucinations
5) Delusional perception (“I saw the green light and knew I was the king”)
6) Feelings or actions experienced as made or influenced by external agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the scoring systems for depression?

A

PHQ9

HAD scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment for mild depression

A

BioPsychoSocial
Watch and wait for 2 weeks, self-help, lifestyle advice (sleep hygiene)
Group CBT or computerised CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for moderate depression

A

BioPsychoSocial

Medication (review every 2 weeks for 3 months): SSRI first line (sertraline or citalopram)

High-intensity CBT:
Individual CBT (16-20 session over 3-4 months)
Interpersonal therapy (16-20 session over 3-4 months)
IPT > CBT if depression due to death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of SSRIs used in adults

A

Sertraline or Citalopram

Peroxitine - for really bad depression, Fluoxetine - for kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Steps for medication in depression

A

1st line: SSRI (sertraline, citalopram, paroxetine, fluoxetine), 2 trials before 2nd line
2nd line: SNRI (duloxetine, venlafaxine)
3rd line: Antipsychotic, Lithium or other antidepressant eg.mirtazepine
4th line: ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for severe depression

A

BioPsychoSocial

Medication → ECT if necessary (catatonia)

High-intensity CBT:
Individual CBT (16-20 session over 3-4 months)
Interpersonal therapy (16-20 session over 3-4 months)
IPT > CBT if depression due to death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What medication should be avoided with triptans?

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What anti-depressants are cautioned with warfarin or heparin?

A

NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and using mirtazapine instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drug should NOT be prescribed with SSRIs and why?

A

Aspirin as can cause a haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What else need to be prescribed with an SSRI?

A

Omeprazole or lansaprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A sick baby, with severe heart failure.

  • Absent femoral pulses.
  • Severe metabolic acidosis.

Suggestive of?

A

Duct dependant coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who are the “sickest of all neonates” and how do they present?

A

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

  • profound acidosis and cardiovascular collapse
  • weakness or absence of all peripheral pulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Features of abnormal grief

A

Delayed
Lasting >6mths
Very intense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some physical causes of depression?

A 
Cushing’s syndrome 
Hypothyroidism 
Addison’s disease 
Dementia 
Head injury
Stroke
MS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some of the biological symptoms of depression?

A

Sleep changes
Appetite changes
Weight changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some of the cognitive symptoms of depression?

A

Memory deficits

Concentration deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List three classes of anti-depressants and give an example of each

A

SSRI – sertraline, citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine
SNRI – duloxetine, venlafaxine
NaSSA – mirtazapine
TCA – imipramine, amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is psychosis in depression different from psychosis in schizophrenia?

A

Psychosis is mood congruent in psychotic depression

Psychosis tends not to be mood congruent in schizophrenia as patients have blunted affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do you NOT give patients with lewy body dementia with visual hallucinations?

A

antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between type I and type II bipolar?

A

Type I: mania + depression

Type II: hypomania + depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between psychosis and mania?

A

Mainly differentiated via mood - mania is associated with elevated mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should be excluded in hyper sexuality?

A

Mania, substance misuse, organic brain disorders eg frontal lobe syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Investigations for erectile dysfunction

A
  1. Full Hx (check for risk factors eg HTN, smoking, diabetes, Meds etc
  2. Check sex hormone and testosterone levels (may see low testosterone or hyperprolactinaemia)
  3. Check glucose
  4. Check LFTS/TFTS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some examples of paraphilias?

A
  • fetishism
  • paedophilia
  • masochism
  • sadism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Treatment for disorders of sexual identify

A
  • hormone replacement therapy

- gender reassignment surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does acamprosate do?

A

Enhances GABA transmission to reduce craving for alcohol (given after detoxification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Uses of BDZs

A 
Sedative
Anxiolytic
Muscle relaxant 
Hypnotic 
AnticonvulsAnt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Risks of using BDZ

A

Short: drowsiness, reduction in concentration

Long term: cog impairment, anxiety and depression, sleep disruption and dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Signs of BDZ use

A

Calm and mild euphoria
Slurred speech
Ataxia
Stupor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Signs of BDZ overdose

A

Respiratory depression (give IV flumazenil)

  • low GCS
  • low BP
  • mydriasis
  • hyporeflexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Symptoms of withdrawal from BDZs

A
  • ANXIETY
  • insomnia
  • irritability
  • tachypnoea/cardia
  • ataxia
  • tremor, tinnitus, sweating
  • hyperreflexia, seizures,
  • palpitations, delusions, depressions
  • derealisation, depersonalisation
  • anterograde amnesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is naltrexone?

A

Antagonist of endorphins release from Etoh to reduce the high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is disulfiram?

A

Second line for chronic management of alcoholism - irreversible inhibitor of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase - gives a really bad hangover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some features of lithium toxicity?

A 
GI disturbance (diarrhoea and vomiting)
Sluggishness + muscle weakness 
Ataxia 
Mild/gross tremor 
Fits 
Renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some side-effects of anti-psychotics?

A 
Extra-pyramidal: dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia
Hyperprolactinaemia (galactorrhoea) 
Weight gain 
Sedation 
Dyslipidaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms?

A

Delusional perception
Passivity (they think someone else is controlling their actions)
Delusions of thought interference (insertion, withdrawal, broadcasting eg i think other people can hear what i’m thinking)
Auditory hallucinations (thought echo, 3rd person voices, running commentary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a schizoid personality disorder?

A

Lack of interest in social or intimate relationships, difficulty with expressing emotions, and preferring a solitary lifestyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Features of mania

A

Elevated mood/energy
Can get thought disorder (insertion, withdrawal broadcasting)
Delusions of grandeur
Flight of ideas
Cog symptoms: poor concentration and memory

In PACES: won’t be able to stop them talking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some features of lithium toxicity?

A 
GI disturbance (diarrhoea and vomiting)
Sluggishness 
Giddiness 
Ataxia 
Gross tremor 
Fits 
Renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the side effects of Amitriptyline?

A

Constipation
Dry eyes and mouth
Headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most common childhood ASD?

A

PDD-NOS - persuasive developmental disorder, not otherwise specified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is dysthymia?

A

Persistent sub-threshold depression for at least 2years (between 2-5 symptoms, no functional impairment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the subtypes of depression?

A
  • SAD
  • Atypical depression
  • Anxiety-induced insomnia
  • Agitated depression
  • Depressive stupor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are some risk factors for depression?

A

Biological:

  • Genetics
  • Neurochemical eg MA hypothesis
  • Endocrine eg cortisol
  • Illness eg cushings/hypothyroidism etc or indirect eg cancer
  • Medication

Psychosocial

  • Childhood experiences
  • Vulnerability
  • Life events
  • Substance abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is beck’s triad in depression?

A

Worthlessness
Hopelessness
Helplessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the different types of BPAD and what is the diagnosis criteria?

A

BPAD 1: depressive + manic episodes
BPAD 2: more depressive episodes + some episodes of hypomania

Mixed cycling: mix of >4 episodes per year (respond to valproate well)

Mania: >3 characteristics (ICD-10), lasting at least 7 days, impairs social/occupational functioning, may have psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

SEs of valproate

A

Hair loss
Weight gain
Nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the teratogenic manifestations of mood stabilisers?

A

Lithium - Ebsteins anomaly

Valproate + Carbamazepine - spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ddx for anorexia nervosa

A 
Medical causes of weight loss
Depression
Bulimia nervosa
Psychosis
Eating disorder not otherwise specified (EDNOS)
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the danger of food replacement in anorexia nervosa? What are the hallmarks of it?

A

Re-feeding syndrome - insulin release in response to food drives ions into cells leading to (low phosphate is the hallmark)

  • hypokalaemia
  • hypophosphataemia
  • low Mg
  • low thiamine
  • salt and water retention

Symptoms: fatigue, weakness, confusion, high blood pressure, seizures, arrhythmia, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the 5 different types of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Paranoid
  2. Catatonic
  3. Hebephrenic
  4. Simple
  5. Residual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Basic management of Schizophrenia

A

1st line: atypical antipsychotic for 6 weeks eg low dose aripriprazole, high dose olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone

2nd line: typical antipsychotic

3rd line: Clozapine (ie if treatment resistant

If non-compliant: once monthly depot injection

Psychological therapies:

  1. CBT
  2. fam therapy
  3. Concordance therapy

Social help: skill based, care based, fam etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

SEs of (atypical) antipsychotics

A

EPSEs:

  1. Dystonia
  2. Akathisia
  3. Parkinsonism
  4. Tardive dyskinesia

Other:
Prolactinaemia: amenorrhoea, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, galactorrhoea

  • weight gain (olanzapine&clozapine)
  • anti-cholinergic symptoms: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, tachycardia
  • sedation
  • dyslipidaemia
  • increased risk of diabetes (olanzapine)
  • arrythmias
  • seizures
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Investigations for schizophrenia

A

1) Hx and collateral Hx
2) Physical and OT assessment
3) urine MSU and toxicology screen
4) Bloods: FBC, TFTs, LFTs, Lipid, FG, CRP, U&Es
5) Consider HIV or syphilis screening
6) EEG? CT/MRI?
7) Social assessment
8) Screening of symptoms: Brief psychiatric rating scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Differentials for schizophrenia

A

1) Organic: substance misuse, delirium, dementia, epilepsy, steroids, tumours
2) Acute/transient psychotic episode
3) Mood disorder
4) Schizoaffective disorder
5) Persistent delusional disorder
6) Schizotypal disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the 3 phases of schizophrenia?

A
  1. ARM: at risk mental state (or prodrome)
    - reclusive, disinterest in activities
  2. Active
    - thought disorder, delusions, hallucinations, passivity phenomena
  3. Passive
    - negative symptoms: anhedonia, anergia, paucity of thought/speech, non-reactivity of mood, blunted affect, social withdrawal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are Schneiders first rank symptoms?

A 
	(1) Delusions (false and fixed beliefs)			
	(2) Passivity (delusions of control)
	(3) Thought disorder:
•	Thought insertion			
•	Thought withdrawal		
•	Thought broadcasting		
	(4) Auditory disorder: 
•	Thought echo			
•	3rd person voice			
•	Running commentary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is intoxication?

A

Transient state of emotional and behavioural change following drug use. Dependant on dose and time limited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is Harmful use?

A

Pattern of use likely to cause physical or psychological harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is drug dependency?

A

A cluster of physiological, behavioural and cognitive symptoms in which the use of substance takes on greater priority than other behaviours that once had greater value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What 3 drugs does physical withdrawal occur from?

A

1) Etoh
2) BDZ
3) Opiates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is withdrawal?

A

A transient state occuring while re-adjusting to lower levels of the drug in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a psychotic disorder?

A

Psychotic symptoms occurring during or immediately after use of a psychoactive substance, characterised by vivid hallucinations, abnormal effect, psychomotor disturbances, persecutory delusions and delusions of reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is amnesic disorder?

A

Memory and other cognitive impairments due to substance use eg Wernicke’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are residual and late onset psychotic disorders?

A

effects on behaviour, affect, personality or cognition lasting beyond the period during the which the direct effect of the psychoactive substance might be expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the different types of dementia?

A 
Most (75%) AD
Vascular
Lewy-body
Fronto-temporal
Mixed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are lewy bodies made from?

A

alpha-synuclein with ubiquitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What should you not do to manage a patient who is delirious?

A

Don’t sedate with BDZ or haloperidol

Don’t anti-cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Difficulty in recognising faces (seen in AD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are some signs of frontal lobe damage? (Organic psych)

A 
Poor judgement/planning
Change in personality/mood/actions eg disinhibited behaviour
Change in executive function
Broca's aphasia + telegraphic speech
Contralateral spastic hemiparesis 
Primitive reflexes reemerge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are some signs of temporal lobe damage? (Organic psych)

A

Auditory impairment/agnosia
Wernicke’s aphasia
Auditory, olfactory, gustatory hallucinations
Lability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are some signs of parietal lobe damage? (Organic psych)

A 
Contralateral sensory impairment 
Apraxias 
Agnosias 
Contralateral sensory neglect
Dyscalculia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are some signs of occipital lobe damage? (Organic psych)

A

Contralateral visual deficits
Visual blindness
Visual agnosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What condition affects the HTT gene?

A

Huntington’s - trinucleotide expansion disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Symptoms of Huntington’s disease

A

Movement: chorea, speech/swallowing, stumbling/clumsiness

Cognitive: organising tasks, flexibility, impulse control, learning new information

Psych: suicide risk, depression, irritability/mood swings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Subcortical dementia
Urinary incontinence
Unsteady gait

Treat with ventriculo-atrial shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Causes of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Meningitis
Head injury
Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are prion diseases?

A

Progressive spongiform encephalopathies -> normal prion protein change to abnormal, insoluble form: accumulation leads to spongiform and amyloid changes

Most common = sporadic CJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How may prion diseases present?

A 
Loss of intellect and memory
Changes in personality
Loss of balance and coordination 
Slurred speech
Progressive loss of motility/cognitive function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are causes of amnesic syndrome?

A

Korsakoff syndrome: most common form
Hypoxia
Encephalitis
CO poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the symptoms of amnesic syndrome?

A

Procedural memory is intact -> remember how to do things but ANTEROGRADE memory is lost ie patients can’t retain new information
Some patients may CONFABULATE to fill in the memory gaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How may a patient with transient global amnesia present?

A

They remember their identity but may be bewildered as to where they are or have difficulty with anterograde memory - conciousness and cognition should be normal

  • usually lasts only 1-24 hours and may be caused by emotional/physical stress or may be due to transient ischaemia of memory structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How does executive dysfunction manifest?

A

1) Poor planning/decision making
2) Poor judgement
3) Poor reasoning/problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the 3 cardinal features of frontal lobe syndrome?

A

1) Executive dysfunction
2) Social behaviour and personality change
3) Apathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the two types of head injury?

A
  1. Open: penetration of skull causing direct damage to cerebrum
  2. Closed: no penetration = results from shearing forces/acceleration or deceleration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the triad of extrapyramidal symptoms?

A

1) Tremor (pill-rolling)
2) Rigidity (stiffness)
3) Bradykinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is bradyphrenia?

A

Slowness of thought

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What psych condition are 80% of parkinson’s cases associated with?

A

Dementia - but in PD the PD comes first, then dementia.
In LBD the dementia comes first then Parkinsonism symptoms.

Can treat with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

(NB: 40% of patients can also experience psychotic symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are some secondary causes of Parkinson’s?

A

1) Drug-induced eg antipsychotics
2) Repeated infarcts/ischaemia
3) Repeated head injury eg chronic traumatic encephalopathy
4) Parkinsons plus syndrome eg PSP, CBGD, MSA, DLB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What psychiatric symptoms/problems may be seen in multiple sclerosis patients?

A
  • Depression (50%)

- Cognitive impairment (60%) -> especially if late stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What psychiatric problems may epileptic patients face?

A

1) Depression/suicide risk (4x higher than general population)
2) Cognitive impairment/ psychotic symptoms/ learning disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Boy with conduct disorder is most likely to get what personality disorder when older?

A

Antisocial personality disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Guy presents with itching but no cause. In the past has presented with tingling and other symptoms. What type of disorder?

A

Somatisation disorder

98
Q

Deficiency of what vitamin is causing visual disturbances, ataxia and confusion?

A

Thiamine (B1)

99
Q

What drug is most likely to cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Haloperidol

100
Q

What do nihilistic delusions include?

A

Beliefs that the patient is dead/ has no future/ parts of body are dead or don’t exist

101
Q

What is Knight’s move thinking?

A

Derailment of thought

102
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

Group of disorders in which both schizophrenic (psychotic) and affective symptoms are present and develop at the same time (can be manic type or depressive type depending on which episodes are predominant)

NB: symptoms for either don’t justify a full diagnosis

DSM-V requires 2 episodes of psychosis, one has to occur for greater than 2wks without concurrent affective symptoms, and one with overlap of psychotic and affective symptoms

103
Q

What is the most important test for a patient on clozapine?

A

FBC

104
Q

A patient was recently started on antipsychotic and experiences stiffness, fever and tachycardia and seems a bit confused - what test would you do?

A

CK - could be neuroleptic malignant syndrome

105
Q

A 56-year-old woman presents to your GP practice complaining of pain. She has attended your clinic multiple this year with the same complaint, however all of her investigations are normal. She describes the pain as all over her body. It is worse on some days and better on others, although there doesn’t seem to be a pattern to it. The pain is also associated with fatigue and low mood.

The patient has a past medical history of anxiety, depression, migraines and hypothyroidism for which she takes phenelzine, levothyroxine and propranolol. She smokes 20 cigarettes a day and works as a business manager. You suspect fibromyalgia and consider prescribing a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).

Why shouldn’t you prescribe an SSRI in this patient?

A

Phenelzine is a MAOI - can’t prescribe SSRI with MAOI as increased risk of serotonin syndrome

106
Q

What are the preferred SSRIs?

A

Citalopram or fluoxetine (eps flux. in kids)

107
Q

What is the preferred SSRI after a MI?

A

Sertraline (improved safety data compared to the others)

108
Q

What drugs should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome; known pre-existing QT interval prolongation; or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval?

A

Citalopram or escitalopram (SSRIs)

109
Q

If a patient is on NSAIDs and needs an SSRI, what other drug should be given?

A

PPI

110
Q

Should an SSRI be given to a patient on warfarin / heparin?

A

Avoid, give something like mirtazapine instead

111
Q

What does prescribing SSRIs with a triptan increase the risk of?

A

Serotonin syndrome

112
Q

Should SSRIs be used in pregnancy?

A

Balance risks vs rewards
First trimester: small risk of CHDs
Third: persistent pulmonary HTN of newborn

Paroxetine has highest risk of congenital malformations, esp in first trimester

113
Q

What are discontinuation symptoms and what can they include?

A

Symptoms that occur after stopping an SSRI (NB: they should normally be tapered down over 4wk period apart from fluoxetine. Paroxetine has higher risk of discontinuation symptoms)

  • Mood changes
  • Restlessness, unsteadiness
  • Difficulty sleeping
  • Sweating
  • GI symptoms: pain, cramping, diarrhoea, vomiting
  • Paraesthesia
114
Q

What are the 3 types of cluster A personality disorders?

A

WEIRD
Paranoid - accusatory/distrustful
Schizoid - avoidant
Schizotypal - awkward

115
Q

What are the cluster B personality disorders?

A 
WILD
Antisocial
Borderline
Histrionic 
Narcissistic
116
Q

What are the cluster C personality disorders?

A

WORRIED
Avoidant
Dependant
Obsessive compulsive

117
Q

SEs of Lithium carbonate

A

AKI/NEPHROTOXICITY (can get diabetes insipidus also)

  • Teratogenic
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Tremor
  • Ataxia/muscle weakness/blurred vision
  • Tinnitus
  • GI: Nausea and diarrhoea
118
Q

What is the REPORT criteria used for?

A

ICD-10 criteria for personality disorders

119
Q

SEs of steroids / Prednisolone

A

Psychosis
Insomnia/sleep disturbance
Can precipitate manic/depressive episode in BPAD

120
Q

Why might hep C patients be prescribed an antidepressant?

A

If given Peg-IFN-alpha for treatment then high risk of depression (50% of pts)

121
Q

What do you need to warn a parkinson’s patient about if put on ropinirole?

A

Dopamine agonist that increases risk of disinhibition

122
Q

SEs of Lithium carbonate

A

AKI/NEPHROTOXICITY (can get diabetes insipidus also)

  • Teratogenic
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Tremor
123
Q

SEs of Clozapine

A 
Agranulocytosis
Seizures
Long QT syndrome
Sudden cardiac death
Metabolic syndrome (DM, weight gain, CVS problems)
124
Q

When is rapid tranquilisation required?

A

Non-pharm deescalation techniques have failed

  • Pt harm to themselves or others
  • Use to reduce psychological stress of pt
125
Q

What is a dissociation disorder?

A

Disorder of physical functions under voluntary control and loss of sensation

  • may include conversion disorder where an internal conflict is converted into physical (often neuro) symptoms
126
Q

What is a somatisation disorder?

A

disorders involving pain or autonomically controlled sensations - officially ‘multiple, recurrent and frequently changing physical symptoms of >2yrs’

127
Q

What hormone can be raised after a seizure?

A

Prolactin

128
Q

Management of chronic fatigue syndrome

A

Graded exercise +/- CBT

129
Q

Management of medically unexplained symptoms

A

1) Therapeutic assessment (Physical examination + MSE) but avoid over-investigation
2) Reattribution/reassure/avoid reinforcing beliefs regarding physical symptoms
3) Emotional support +/- fam support
4) Treat any co-morbidities (med/psych)
5) Consider CBT

130
Q

Two big tests in a pt on lithium, how often performed and why

A

Every 3mths need U&Es and TFTS -> risk of nephrotoxicity and hypothyroidism

131
Q

What is charles bonnet syndrome?

A

A form of psychosis where the patient has hallucinations with a clear conciousness: usually theres a background of visual impairment

132
Q

Core symptoms of GAD

A
  • restlessness/nervousness
  • poor concentration
  • sleep disturbance
  • muscle tension
  • being easily fatigued
  • irritability

need at least 3, present all the time, for at least 6mths

133
Q

What drug class should be avoided in GAD?

A

BDZ

134
Q

What always needs to be identified in agoraphobia (in terms of manifestation of symptoms)?

A

Is it WITH or WITHOUT a panic disorder

135
Q

What is the only anxiety disorder that affects genders equally?

A

Social phobia

136
Q

How can social phobia be differentiated from agoraphobia?

A

Agoraphobia - avoid crowds/public situations

Social phobia - tolerate anonymous crowds but may get anxious in small groups

137
Q

Investigations for GAD

A

GAD-7 scale (5 = mild, 10=mod, 15=severe)
HADS
Beck’s anxiety scale

138
Q

If a patient who recently stopped an antidepressant describes feeling ‘electric shocks’ and flu like what is wrong with them?

A

Discontinuation syndrome

139
Q

Ideal SSRI for panic disorder

A

Citalopram

140
Q

Ideal SSRI for OCD

A

Fluoxetine

141
Q

4 phases of CBT for OCD

A

Relabel, reattribute, refocus, revalue

142
Q

Symptoms of opiate intoxication

A
  • euphoria “warm feeling” - sedation and bradycardia
  • low dose ie non IV users: constipation, anorexia, decreased libido
    +/- overdose symptoms
143
Q

Presentation of opiate overdose

A
  • Miosis

- low RR

144
Q

Presentation of opiate withdrawal

A

May begin 6hrs after injection, peak 36-48hr, last 5-7 days
Rarely life-threatening:
- Craving, nausea, insomnia, agitation
- Flu like symptoms, feverish, abdo cramps, aches
- RUNS - diarrhoea, lacrimation, rhinorrhoea
- Mydriasis
- Goose-flesh: pilomotor unit erection, yawning

145
Q

What drug may be offered for a rapid opiate detox?

A

Lofexidine (alpha 2 agonist)

146
Q

What do you need to look out for after administering naloxone?

A

Signs of withdrawal

147
Q

What drugs can be given to a patient in opiate withdrawal?

A
  • Lofexidine or clonidine
  • Metoclopramide (anti-emetic)
  • Loperamide (anti-diarrhoea)
148
Q

Symptoms of cannabis withdrawal

A

Only very mild and can occur in long term users eg insomnia, anxiety, irritability

149
Q

Complications of cannabis use

A

Short term - anxiety, paranoia, panic attacks (can be associated with dangerous driving eg accidents due to slow reaction time)

150
Q

Chronic complications of cannabis use

A

Can potentially induce schizophrenia, dysthymia, anxiety/depressive illness, amotivational syndrome

151
Q

What are the four types of hallucinogens and what are they associated with?

A

LSD- affects DA + 5HT transmitter systems
Phencyclidine = angel dust, violent outbursts or ongoing psychosis
Ketamine = cortical anaesthetic effect, smaller doses = dissociation, larger doses = hallucinations and synaesthesia
Magic mushrooms = small doses cause euphoria, larger hallucinations

152
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hallucinogenics?

A

Hallucinations and altered perception
Depersonalisation and derealisation
Synaesthesia
Behavioural toxicity

153
Q

What abnormalities can be noted on an ECG in a patient on TCAs?

A
  • T wave flattening
  • QT prolongation
  • ST elevation/depression
  • AV block
154
Q

Stimulant drug classes

A
  • cocAine
  • crack cocaine
  • amphetamine
  • khat
  • ecstasy
155
Q

What is the key difference between mania and hypomania?

A

Degree of functional impairment (also diagnostically hypomania is for <4 days whereas mania is for 7 but this is not always the case)

156
Q

What is the difference between flight of ideas and knight’s move thinking?

A

Flight of ideas: pt speaks quickly and jumps between ideas, associated with mania - there are DISCERNIBLE links
Knights move thinking: seen in schizophrenia, NO links -> loosening of association, pt jumps from topics of conversation

157
Q

If a patient who recently stopped an antidepressant describes feeling ‘electric shocks’ what is wrong with them?

A

Discontinuation syndrome

158
Q

Whats the biggest thing to warn TCA users about?

A

Cheese effect or tyramine interaction - potentially lethal

159
Q

A patient on an antidepressant presents with a black tongue - what is the most likely cause?

A

TCA eg imipramine

160
Q

What is the triad of serotonin syndrome?

A

1) Altered mental state
2) Neuromuscular changes: hallmark feature is myoclonus
3) Autonomic dysfunction

161
Q

What complication is associated with MAOIs?

A

Hypertensive crisis (cheese effect)

162
Q

What are the different types of delusion disorder?

A 
Erotomaniac
Fregoli
Otholelli 
Folie e deux
Factitious disorder
163
Q

What are factors associated with suicide?

A
  • Male sex
  • Spring/summer season
  • Social class V
  • Recent event eg divorce
  • Age >40
164
Q

What should be performed before a patient is put on clozapine?

A

ECG - can cause QT prolongation and tachyarrhythmias

165
Q

What should be prescribed in a patient with acute psychosis with Hx of ischaemic heart disease or dementia?

A

Typical antipsychotic (avoid the atypical antipsychotics due to risk of cerebrovascular disease)

166
Q

At what time after given should the lithium dose be checked?

A

8-12hrs

167
Q

What needs regular assessment in patients on long term antipsychotics?

A
  • waist circumference and BMI

- if suspected DM then check fasting blood glucose levels

168
Q

What are the aetiological factors for schizophrenia?

A
  • Family history
  • Genetics
  • Cannabis use
  • Winter births
  • Perinatal trauma
  • Paternal age
169
Q

If a patient is depressed but is on an NSAID or aspirin, what drugs should be commenced?

A

SSRI + NSAID = bleeding risk so GIVE A PPI eg sertraline + lanosprozole

Or avoid SSRI

170
Q

What antidepressant should be prescribed in a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease?

A

Sertraline

171
Q

What pathway in the brain is affected in schizophrenic patients who may neglect themselves, struggle with planning, apathy and inattention?

A

Mesocortical

172
Q

What medication should be avoided with a prescription of SSRIs?

A

MAOIs eg rasagiline due to risk of serotonin syndrome

173
Q

What are the normal QTc time? What is the risk of prolongation?

A

<440m/s in men, <470ms in women

Risk of sudden cardiac death and torsades des pointes

174
Q

What is the protocol for managing a patient on lithium?

A

When starting take the levels 12hrs post dose
Then check weekly until stable level reached
Then check every 3mths
If change in dose - check weekly until levels are stable
Also check TFTS and renal function every 6mths

NB: pt should also be given information booklet, alert card and record book

175
Q

What is Munchausen’s syndrome?

A

Fictitious disorder

176
Q

What is zopiclone used for?

A

Sedative used to treat sleeping difficulties

177
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders?

A

Family history

178
Q

What SSRI is most likely to lead to QT prolongation and torsades de pointes?

A

Citalopram

179
Q

What is re-feeding syndrome?

A

Defined mainly by the low phosphate -> intracellular shift of already low ions due to insulin release upon refeeding

  • low phosphate
  • low Mg
  • low K
  • low nitrate
  • low thiamine
  • low salt and water retention
180
Q

What two factors can affect clozapine levels?

A

Smoking - quitting can cause a RISE in levels, starting or increasing amount can cause a DROP

Alcohol - stopping drinking can REDUCE the levels whereas alcohol binges can INCREASE the levels

181
Q

What are the warnings of using atypical antipsychotics in the elderly?

A

Increased stroke and VTE risk

182
Q

What antibodies are found in 90% of cases of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial Abs

183
Q

What is PBC? Which sex does it predominantly affect? What is seen on the bloods, USS and histology?

A

Autoimmune destruction of medium sized intrahepatic bile ducts and cholestasis + eventually HCC

184
Q

What is late syphilis characterised by?

A

Dominated by arthritis

185
Q

What abnormalities can be noted on an ECG in a patient on TCAs?

A
  • QT prolongation
  • ST elevation
  • AV block
186
Q

What is the shortest acting BDZ?

A

Lorazepam

187
Q

What is the mode of action of barbituates and benzodiazepines?

A

Both affect GABA transmission: enhance it at GABA-A receptor
Benzos: increased freq of opening
Barbituates: increased duration of opening

188
Q

What impairments is carbamazepine known to cause?

A

Renal and hepatic impairment
Blood dyscrasias
Bone marrow suppression

189
Q

What mood stabiliser is associated with eye defects eg cortical lens opacities and conjunctivitis?

A

Carbamazepine

190
Q

What is the MOA of TCAs?

A

Inhibit uptake of NA and 5HT

191
Q

A patient on an antidepressant presents with a black tongue - what is the most likely cause?

A

TCA

192
Q

What effect can TCAs have on the blood ie levels of different blood cells?

A

Leukopenia
Agranulocytosis
Eosinophilia
Thrombocytopenia

193
Q

Side effects of ECT

A

Headache
Confusion
Memory loss

194
Q

What are the main contraindications for ECT?

A

Cardiac disease
Respiratory disease
Raised ICP

195
Q

What is the drug of choice in an acutely psychotic pregnant women?

A

Olanzapine

196
Q

Whats the likely timeframe for post-natal depression?

A

2-6wks post partum

197
Q

What cardiac abnormalities can be seen on an ECG in anorexia?

A 
ST depression
T wave flattening 
T wave inversion
Prolonged QT interval 
QT slope enhancement
198
Q

What is wavy flexibility?

A

Can be seen in schizophrenia

Individual’s body results in feeling of plastic resistance then subsequent preservation of final posture

199
Q

What are some metabolic and additional causes of delirium?

A

Hepatic, renal, cardiac and respiratory failure

Deficiency of B12, Folate, Nicotinic acid, Thiamine (b1)

200
Q

Very common side effect of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Weight gain (also hyperprolactinaemia)

201
Q

Olazanapine has a higher risk of what two things compared to the other atypical antipsychotics?

A

Dislipidaemia and obesity

202
Q

Adverse effects of clozapine?

A

agranulocytosis (1%), neutropaenia (3%)
reduced seizure threshold - can induce seizures in up to 3% of patients
constipation
myocarditis: a baseline ECG should be taken before starting treatment
hypersalivation

203
Q

What are some side effects of ECT?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias
Memory loss (short term)
Headache and nausea

204
Q

How may acute dystonia manifest itself?

A

Torticollis

Oculogyric crisis

205
Q

What antidepressant may be of advantage to use in older patients?

A

Mirtazepine - less poly pharmacy and other drug interactions. Also increased appetite and sedation which can be helpful in older patients

206
Q

What is the difference between acute stress disorder and PTSD?

A

Acute stress reaction/disorder is within 4 weeks of a traumatic event whereas ptsd is after 4 weeks

207
Q

What are the aetiological factors for schizophrenia?

A
  • Genetics
  • Cannabis use
  • Winter births
  • Perinatal trauma
  • Paternal age
208
Q

What is the most effective antipsychotic?

A

Clozapine

209
Q

Excess activity in what dopamine based pathway causes psychosis?

A

Mesolimbic

210
Q

What pathway in the brain is affected in schizophrenic patients who may neglect themselves, struggle with concentration and inattention?

A

Mesocortical

211
Q

What drug can you give for akathisia?

A

Short term benzodiapines

212
Q

What are the normal QTc time?

A

<440m/s in men, <470ms in women

213
Q

What is a hallmark of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Lead pipe rigidity

214
Q

What drug might you give to a patient in an acute manic episode?

A

Olanzapine (has mood stabilising properties as well as antipsychotic)

215
Q

What is the difference between delirium and psychosis?

A

Delirium: disorientated, cognition impaired, clouding of consciousness, transient changes, INATTENTION - test via asking them to count backwards, likely to be sick as well

Psychosis: orientated, fairly steady and constant changes in thought, not necessarily visual hallucinations

216
Q

What is korsakoff syndrome?

A

impairment of recent memory with preservation of immediate recall

217
Q

Defining features of temporal lobe damage?

A

Alexia
Agraphia
Sensory aphasia

218
Q

What lesions can cause hyperalgesia?

A

Thalamic

219
Q

Following a placement under section 2 of MHA how long do patients have to appeal?

A

14 days

220
Q

Immediate treatment of BDZ overdose?

A

IV flumezanil (GABAA antagonist)

221
Q

Metallic taste in mouth is linked to which psychiatric drug

A

Lithium

222
Q

What is the key difference between mania and hypomania?

A

Mania: can exhibit psychotic symptoms

223
Q

What are the first line management of acute stress reaction?

A

Trauma focused CBT

+/- BDZ

224
Q

Examples of SNRIs

A

Venlafaxine

Duloxetine

225
Q

What are the most potent side effects of mirtazapine?

A

Weight gain

Drowsiness

226
Q

What drug is an irreversible inhibitor of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and used in alcohol withdrawal?

A

Disulfiram

227
Q

Lithium exposure is associated with which cardiac congenital defect?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

228
Q

What are the 3 key components of atherosclerotic plaques?

A

Cells
ECM
Lipids

229
Q

What are the two negative key features of ischaemic heart disease?

A

Less nutrients

Less waste removal

230
Q

What are the three possible acute events of an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Rupture
Erosion
Haemorrhage

231
Q

What is a SE of TCAs that affects the waterworks?

A

Urinary retention - its a type of anticholinergic effect. Others may include:

  • Dry Mouth
  • Tachycardia
  • Mydriasis
232
Q

What drug may be given in functional enuparesis?

A

TCA eg imipramine

233
Q

Why is the risk of AD significantly higher in downs syndrome?

A

The gene for amyloid precursor protein is found on chromosome 21

234
Q

In a older patient with urinary incontinence, frequent falls, balance issues and possible memory problems, what should be considered?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

235
Q

When should activated charcoal be offered to overdose patients?

A

Within first hour of OD

236
Q

At what time should paracetamol and salicylate levels be checked post-overdose?

A

4 hours - they reach max plasma concentration

237
Q

How is one unit of alcohol defined?

A

Amount of ethanol the body can metabolise in 1 hr which equates to 8g pure ethanol or 10ml

238
Q

A lady feels insects running along her skin, what is the term used to describe this type of hallucination?

A

Formication - type of tactile hallucination

239
Q

Drugs for opiate withdrawal

A

Buprenorphine
Methadone
Lofexidine

240
Q

A patient describes their limbs as rotting and they feel they are already dead. What is this phenomena called?

A

Cotards

Year 5 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions