Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 5 > Gynaecology > Flashcards

Gynaecology Flashcards

1
Q

Migraine with aura excludes what contraceptive?

A

COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Mx for stress incontinence?

A

Pelvic floor exercises for 3mths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Mx for urge incontinence?

A

Bladder retraining for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • Previous ectopics
  • STI
  • Delayed conception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the contraindications to oestrogen based contraception?

A
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Migraine with aura
  • Thromboembolism
  • Age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some features of PCOS?

A

Oligomenorrhoea
Hirsutism
Excess weight
Acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long is the normal uterus?

A

9cm in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In who is a endometrial biopsy indicated?

A

Indicated for women > 45 with menstrual symptoms (HMB and PCB) after confirming that the women is NOT pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Up until what week do the gonads remain sexually indifferent?

A

7th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What reaction helps virilise the external genitalia in males?

A

Conversion of testosterone to DHT

by alpha-reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two types of cells in testes? What hormones do they make and why?

A

Sertoli cells - make AMH - suppress development of mullerian ducts

Leydig cells - make testosterone - promote development of wolffian ducts to make epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the structure of a primordial follice?

A

Ooycyte surrounded by single layer of granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

By how many weeks are the max no. of primordial follices reached?

A

20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Roughly how many follicles remain by birth?

A

1-2 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what stage are the oocytes arrested and until when?

A

Prophase of first meiotic division until atresia or preceding ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What allows the development of mullerian structures in females?

A

Absence of AMH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The proximal 2/3 of the vagina develop from the

A

paired mullerian ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What produces the uterus, cervix and upper vagina

A

fusion of paired mullerian ducts

  • unfused caudal segments form the fallopian tubes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The paramesonephric duct later forms what?

A

Mullerian system = precursor of female genital development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are bartholin’s glands?

A

Two pea sized compound alveolar glands located slightly posterior and to the left and right of the opening of the vagina - contribute to lubrication during intercourse - can get cysts on them causing their enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Carunculae myrtiformes

A

remaining tags of the hymen after rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the vagina lined by?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Before puberty and after menopause, the vagina has no …. and why?

A

Glycogen, due to lack of stimulation by oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What breaks down glycogen in the vagina?

A

Doderlein’s bacillus - breaks down glycogen to form lactic acid, to make low pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The cardinal ligaments and uterosacral ligaments form

A

the parametrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The cornu of the uterus is the

A

site of insertion of the fallopian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In 20% of women, the uterus is tilted

A

backwards - retroversion and retroflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the three layers of the uterus?

A

Peritoneum, myometrium, endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The endometrial layer of the uterus is covered by what

A

Single layer of columnar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the epithelium of the cervix

A

Endocervix is columnar and ciliated in upper two thirds

Transitions to squamous epithelium at squamocolumnar junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At birth what is the size of the cervix compared to the uterus

A

Twice length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the four parts of fallopian tubes and how long are they?

A 
10cm long
Four parts
- Fimbriae
- Infundibulum
- Ampulla
- Isthmus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two types of cells in the fallopian tubes?

A

Ciliated cells - produce a constant current of fluid in direction of the uterus

Secretory cells - contribute to the volume of the tubal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When the corpus luteum undergoes atresia what does it become?

A

Corpora albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is the muscle of the bladder arranged?

A

Involuntary muscle
Inner layer -> longitundinal
Middle layer -> circular
Outer -> longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the bladder lined by? What is its average capacity?

A

Transitional epithelium

400mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the trigone?

A

The internal meatus of the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?

A

Levator ani, comprised of:

  • Pubococcygeus
  • Iliococcygeus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What lung manifestation is common for malignancies?

A

PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is often removed in ovarian cancer?

A

The omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the relapse rates for ovarian cancer? What is the 5 year survival rate? What is a big problem of treatment?

A

70% within 3 years
- Chemo resistance is a big problem

5 year survival rate = 46%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In what 3 settings can chemo be given?

A

Adjuvant - often given to treat micrometastatic disease we can’t see and reduce chance of cancer coming back
Neo-adjuvant
Palliative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does bevacizumab target?

A

VEGF, targets angiogenesis as a treatment for cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What role do BRCA1 and BRCA2 play in the cell?

A

Repair damaged DNA via homogolous recombination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What could cause a rising creatinine in gynae malignancy?

A

Ureteric obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are you worried about if a patient develops a fever after chemotherapy?

A

Neutropenic sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the treatment for neutropenic sepsis?

A 
Admit
IV Antibiotics (if not allergic) - don't wait until bloods come back, start immediately
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common gynaecological cancer?

A

Endometrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is high grade serous epithelial ovarian carcinoma characterised by?

A

Psammoma bodies -> concentric rings of calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pseudomyxoma peritoneii characterises what ovarian tumour?

A

= mucin in the peritoneal cavity

characterises mucinous carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

30% of high-grade pelvic serous cancers have

A

BRCA mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Endometriod ovarian cancer is often found alongside what other cancer?

A

Endometriod endometrial Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Endometriosis-associated ovarian cancers are usually what types of epithelial ovarian cancers?

A

Endometriod

Clear cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What may be a precursor to high grade pelvic serous carcinoma (ovarian Ca)?

A

STIC = serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (fallopian tube precursor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Lynch syndrome and what is it associated with?

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, MLH-1, MLH-2 mutations
Associated with:
- endometrial ca
- ovarian ca
- stomach, small intestine, biliary tract etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What % of hereditary cancers does BRCA account for?

A

90%
BRCA 1 = 80%
BRCA 2 = 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Differential diagnoses for pelvic mass

A
  • Ovarian tumour (epithelial or non-epithelial)
  • Tubo-ovarian abscess
  • Endometrioma
  • Fibroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the presentation of ovarian Ca?

A

Often vague and non-specific, can be abdominal fullness/bloating, early satiety, abdo or pelvic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In what conditions is CA125 raised?

A

80% of epithelial ovarian cancers

  • pregnancy
  • endometriosis
  • alcoholic liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In ovarian cancer what is the RMI (risk of malignant index) calculated from and what are the rough ranges for high/low risk?

A
  • Menopausal status
  • USS features
  • Ca125 level

> 250 high risk
<25 low risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What staging is used for ovarian cancer?

A 
FIGO
1 - within ovary
2- outside ovary but within pelvis
3- outside ovary but within abdomen
4- mets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the main management of ovarian cancer?

A

Surgery + platinum based chemo eg carboplatin + paclitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the most common type of malignant germ cell ovarian tumour?

A

Dysgerminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mature teratoma is also often called a

A

dermoid cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the most common type of benign germ cell ovarian tumour?

A

Mature teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What ovarian tumour secretes alpha-fetoprotein?

A

Germ cell tumour: endodermal sinus yolk sac tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the most common chemo regimen for germ cell tumours?

A

BEP

  • Bleomysin
  • Etoposide
  • CisPlatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the Mx of germ cell ovarian tumours?

A

Surgery + Chemo

  • fertility sparing treatments may be preferred as patients likely to be younger
  • post-op chemo depends on staging: often includes BEP: bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How may sertoli-leydig cells present?

A

They may produce androgens so can present with

  • Virilisation
  • Amenorrhoea
  • Deep voice

They can also produce renin leading to HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What can granulosa cell tumours produce which can be helpful in follow-up surveillance?

A

Inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which type of sex cord stromal tumour requires long-term follow up?

A

Granulosa cell as they often recurr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for sex cord stromal tumours?

A

SURGERY

- chemo is not effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What ovarian tumours usually present with endocrine effects?

A

Sex cord stromal due to hormone production eg

  • Granulosa -> oestrogen
  • Sertoli-Leydig -> androgens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the two types of ascites?

A

Transudate: <30g/L protein
Exudate: >30g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are some causes of exudative ascites?

A

1) Malignant infiltration of peritoneum
2) Pancreatitis
3) Abdominal TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are some causes of transudative ascites?

A

1) Cardiac failure
2) Hypoalbuminaemia
3) Hepatic cirrhosis
4) Myxoedema
5) Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a Krukenberg tumour?

A

Ovarian metastases (bilateral) from breast/gastric/colonic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Meig’s syndrome

A

TRIAD: Ovarian fibroma causing ascites + pleural effusions

- most are benign + resolve with tumour resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What cell type are most cervical cancers?

A

Squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the most common histological subtype of ovarian carcinoma?

A

Cystadenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

On transvaginal USS when should endometrial biopsy be attempted?

A

If >4mm thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Risk factors for endometrial cancer

A
  • Anovulatory cycles that cause unopposed oestrogen exposure
  • High BMI/Obese
  • Nulliparity
  • T2DM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Why may breast cancer patients be at increased risk of endometrial cancer?

A

If treated with tamoxifen -> anti-oestrogenic in breast, but stimulatory effect in endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are some causes of post-menopausal bleeding?

A
  1. Assume ENDOMETRIAL CANCER unless otherwise ruled out
  2. Other cancer eg vaginal, vulvulal, cervical or ovarian
  3. Atrophic vaginitis
  4. Unscheduled bleeding on HRT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

At what site do malignancy and premalignancies develop in the cervix?

A

Transformation zone - ie the area between the original SCJ and the new SCJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

If CIN 2 or higher is seen on cervical smear, what do you do?

A

Urgent colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

If a low grade neoplasia is seen on colposcopy what do you do?

A

Repeat colposcopy + cytology in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

If a high grade neoplasia is seen on colposcopy what do you do?

A

See and treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What stains are used in colposcopy and what do they show?

A

Acetic acid - cells of increased turnover stain white

Iodine - stains brown for intracytoplasmic glycogen stores - neoplastic cells LACK these so they do NOT stain brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the risks of loop diathermy eg LLETZ?

A

Midtrimester miscarriage

Preterm delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the risks of cone biopsy?

A

Cervical stenosis

Cervical incompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is given prophylactically to chemo patients at risk of neutropenic sepsis?

A

GCSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

If hypercalcaemia is noted in a cancer patient, what medication review should you do?

A

Stop thiazides and Ca supplements

- Consider starting bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
  • Bone and joint pain
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Nausea
  • Transient flu like symptoms

Rarely

  • osteonecrosis of jaw
  • acute renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the standard operation for stage 1B tumours in cervical cancer?

A

Wertheim’s hysterectomy = radical hysterectomy + pelvic node disssection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is Wertheim’s hysterectomy?

A

Radical hysterectomy + pelvic node dissection (obturator, external, internal iliac nodes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

If a patient has early stage cervical cancer and wants to have children in the future, what treatment can be given?

A 
Fertility sparing treatment
Radical trachelectomy (removal of cervix and upper vagina) and pelvic node dissection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the risks/SEs of wertheim’s hysterectomy / radical trachelectomy procedure?

A
  1. Bladder incontinence (common in post-op period)
  2. Sexual dysfunction (due to vaginal shortening)
  3. Lymphoedema (due to pelvic node removal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What procedure should be done regarding the lymph nodes in vulvulal cancer?

A

Spread via inguinofemoral lymph nodes so

full inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy for all tumours >1mm depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What cells synthesise and release FSH and LH in the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Basophil cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What causes the periovulatory LH surge?

A

High levels of oestrogen in late follicular phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What does the COCP do to oestrogen levels and what impact does this have on LH?

A

Maintains oestrogen levels within the negative feedback range - prevents LH surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What effect does progesterone have on LH and FSH levels?

A

Low progesterone stimulates LH and FSH release from basophil cells in anterior pituitary
High progesterone prevents LH and FSH release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the four “general” phases of menstrual cycle?

A

Menstruation
Follicular phase
Ovulation
Luteal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the three phases the ovary goes through in the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular
Ovulation
Luteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

If LH and FSH are absent, what happens to follicular development?

A

Will fail at the preantral phase and follicular atresia occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Why should women wanting to get pregnant avoid taking aspirin or ibuprofen?

A

These are prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors. Prostaglandins help influence the breakdown of the follicular wall and subsequent ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Why is haemostasis different to usual in the endometrium?

A

It does NOT involve clot formation and fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How does the process of aromatisation work within the follicles and what does it require?

A

Thecal cells convert cholesterol to androgens under the influence of LH

Granulosa cells under the influence of FSH convert these androgens (from thecal cells) into oestrogens via the process of aromatisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does rasburicase do and why is it given with chemotherapy?

A

Decrease production and urinary excretion of uric acid, by converting it to allantoin. Helps prevent tumour lysis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What two hormones are secreted by granulosa cells and what impact do they have on FSH release?

A

Inhibin - downregulates FSH release and enhances androgen synthesis
Activin (nb: also released by pituitary cells)- upregulates FSH binding on follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

By the end of the follicular phase, the dominant follicle will be of what diameter?

A

20mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What causes progesterone levels to rise in the ovulation phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

LH-induced luteinisation of granulosa cells in the dominant follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What causes the resumption of meiosis in the ovum?

A

LH surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What cellular mediators influence the physical ovulation?

A

Prostaglandins
Proteolytic enzymes
LH
FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What makes up the corpus luteum?

A

Remaining granulosa and thecal cells after release of the oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How long does the luteal phase last?

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What cellular change occurs at the beginning of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

Single layer of columnar cells become pseudostratified epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the three layers of the uterus immediately before menstruation occurs?

A

Stratum compactum
Stratum spongiosum
Basalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are some cellular mediators involved in menstruation?

A

Prostaglandins, endothelins, platelet activating factor, prostacyclin, nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is amenorrhoea?

A

Absence of menstruation for more than 6 months in the absence of pregnancy in a woman of fertile age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is oligomenorrhoea?

A

Irregular periods at intervals of more than 35 days, with only 4-9 periods per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is Premature ovarian failure?

A

Cessation of periods <40yrs of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Define Primary Amenorrhoea

A

when a girl fails to menstruate by 16 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Define secondary amenorrhoea

A

Absence of menstruation for > 6 months in a normal female of reproductive age that is not due to pregnancy, lactation or menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is PCOS associated with?

A

T2DM

Cardiovascular events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What drug can be given to women with PCOS who are having fertility issues?

A

Clomiphene -> SERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What criteria is used for PCOS?

A

Rotterdam consensus criteria

  1. Oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea
  2. Polycystic ovaries
  3. Clinical or biochemical androgenism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Management of PCOS

A
  1. COCP
  2. Cyclic progesterone
  3. Clomiphene
  4. Lifestyle advice + weight loss advice
  5. Ovarian drilling
  6. Tx of androgenism: COCP, co-cyprindiol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What does a “pearl necklace” sign indicate on TVUSS?

A

PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What endocrine condition should be potentially checked for in PCOS?

A 
Diabetes
OGTT @ diagnosis for
–	BMI >25
–	Non-Caucasian ethnicity
–	Any BMI + >40yo, FHx, DM, GDM (gestational diabetes) hx
Annual OGTT for
–	IFG (fasting 6.1-6.9mmol/L)
–	IGT (OGTT 7.8-11.1mmol/L)

NB: also check for CVD health ie cholesterol, BP etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What endocrine condition can be associated with premature ovarian failure?

A

Addison’s disease

- steroid cell autoAbs can cross react with thecal and granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What hormone marks premature ovarian failure?

A

High FSH, 2 results >30 taken 4-6wks apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What three things are needed to diagnose premature ovarian failure?

A
  1. Raised FSH >30 on two occasions 4-6wks apart
  2. Menopausal symptoms
  3. <40YO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of asherman’s syndrome?

A

Amenorrhoea
Cyclical abdo pain
Subfertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Mutations in p53 are associated with which type of endometrial cancer?

A

Type 2 (SC ie uterine papillary Serous carcinoma or Clear cell carcinoma)

137
Q

Mutations in PTEN or PI3KCA are associated with which type of endometrial cancer?

A

Type 1 (SEM ie secretory, endometroid or mucinous)

138
Q

What is intermenstrual bleeding associated with?

A

Cervical and endometrial polyps

Endometriosis

139
Q

What is post-menopausal bleeding?

A

Bleeding more than 1 yr after cessation of periods

140
Q

How do we define HMB?

A

previously >80ml blood lost per period

- now: based on patient perception about what is unusually heavy for them

141
Q

What are the indications for GnRH agonists?

A

Act on pituitary to stop production of oestrogen and cause amenorrhoea

  • ->used only in SHORT term eg
  • shrinking fibroids preoperatively
  • suppressing endometrium to enhance visualisation on hysteroscopy
142
Q

How can recent pregnancy or miscarriage result in PV bleeding?

A

Retained placental tissue

143
Q

What are benign leiomyomata?

A

Fibroids = benign tumours of smooth muscle tissue

144
Q

What can happen with respect to fibroids in pregnancy?

A

They grow rapidly during pregnancy due to the increased hormone exposure. They can outgrow blood supply and infarct or they can also cause obstruction during delivery.

145
Q

How do dermoid cysts tend to present?

A

15% present acutely with torsion

146
Q

“clue cells” on microscopy suggest what condition?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

- usually presents with a watery, grey, fish smelling discharge

147
Q

Strawberry cervix suggests what condition?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

148
Q

What does a high vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for?

A

Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea

149
Q

How common is organism identification in pelvic inflammatory disease? What are the most common organisms identified?

A

50% of cases organisms are identified, most commonly Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

150
Q

What is the first line treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone 1g i.m. STAT. Ciprofloxacin can be used as an alternative, only if all sites of exposure are cultured and found to be sensitive.

151
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat Chlamydia in a pregnant woman?

A

Azithromycin 1g STAT followed by 500mg OD for 2days

Erythromycin 500mg QDS for 7 days is an acceptable second line therapy as per BASHH Guidelines 2017 for Chlamydia management

152
Q

What advice should be given to patients who have CIN?

A

Stop smoking -> it lowers local immune responses + allows HPV infection to persist and cause cellular changes

153
Q

How often should a woman be followed up after a diagnosis of CIN?

154
Q

What is the commonest cause of lost threads of a coil?

A

Movement of the IUD into cervical canal or a uterine cavity. If they cannot be located on speculum examination then do TVUSS if still not then AXR.

155
Q

If a IUD translocates into the abdominal cavity what should you do?

A

Laparoscopy and removal.

Small risk of adhesions and therefore bowel obstruction if left in

156
Q

What is the appropriate management of a symptomatic Bartholin’s cyst? What is a complicated presentation of Bartholin’s cyst and how should it be managed?

A

Marsupialisation = drainage of cyst and suturing of inner wall of affected gland to the skin to reduce risk of recurrence

Can present as acute Bartholin’s abscess ->need to expedite the marsupialisation and provide broad spec Abx if pt is unwell

157
Q

When would you elect to remove a Bartholin’s cyst and what are the complications of this procedure?

A

Heavy blood loss => consider only in rare cases of Bartholin gland cancer

158
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy + focused biopsies

159
Q

How can endometriosis affect fertility?

A

Can cause subfertility due to pelvic adhesions and distortion which interferes with tubal function and egg capture

160
Q

Powder burn spots under the peritoneum or ovaries seen on laparoscopy are diagnostic of what?

A

Endometriosis

161
Q

What are possible options after endometrial surgery to manage pain and prolong benefits of surgery?

A 
COCP
Progesterone only pill
GnRH analogue injections
NSAIDs
TENS
162
Q

Describe what happens to the following hormones in the perimenopausal, early postmenopausal and late postmenopausal/elderly period

  • Inhibin B
  • GnRH
  • LH & FSH
  • Oestrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Testosterone
A
  • Inhibin B: declines in perimenopausal period (as less follicles) to rapid decrease in early postmenopause and undetectable in late menopause
  • GnRH: increase in pulsatility in perimenopause to progressive decline across early post-menopause.
  • LH & FSH: increased in perimenopause and early post, to progressive decline in late menopause
  • Oestrogen: slightly declines, then rapid decline in early postmenopause, to sustained very low levels in late postmenopause
  • Progesterone: moderate fall to variable levels in early postmenopause. Undetectable in late postmenopause.
  • Testosterone: progressive decline throughout, to circulating low levels in late menopause onwards
163
Q

What are some causes of premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

PRIMARY:

  • Chromosomal abnormalities eg turners or fragile X
  • Autoimmune disease eg hypothyroidism, addison’s, myasthenia gravis
  • Enzyme deficiencies eg 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

SECONDARY:

  • Chemo or radiotherapy
  • Infections eg TB, mumps, varicella, malaria
164
Q

What are some examples of GnRH agonists? What is problematic about their long term use?

A

Buserelin or goserelin

  • Cause hypooestrogenic state eventually
  • Problematic as desensitisation occurs so LH and FSH release will eventually dwindle -> can induce a temporary menopause
165
Q

When can you diagnose ovulatory/endometrial dysfunction?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion

166
Q

What are some examples of antifibrinolytic agents?

A

Tranexamic acid

Mefanemic acid

167
Q

A 16-year-old patient was admitted as an emergency with retention of urine. She never had any period. She experienced lower abdominal pain, which got worse from time to time. She was not taking any medication and her past history as well as family histories were unremarkable. General examination showed average normal weight and height with developed secondary sexual characters. Abdominal examination showed tenderness and distension below the umbilicus. Vaginal examination showed violet bulging membrane.

A

Imperforate hymen

168
Q

What does anterior vaginal wall prolapse result in and how does this manifest?

A

Cystocele ie prolapse bladder. Causes acute retention spells due to urethral kinking.

169
Q

What is an operation for stress incontinence of urine?

A

Mid-urethral tape sling insertion

170
Q

What is a biochemical pregnancy?

A

+ve pregnancy test before the woman’s period, then a -ve pregnancy test after. Means the fertilised embryo failed to implant.

171
Q

What type of contraception increases weight?

A

Depo-provera injection

172
Q

What state will the cervical os be in a complete miscarriage?

173
Q

What should NOT be offered for miscarriage?

A

Mifepristone

174
Q

What drug should be offered for medical management of miscarriage?

A

Vaginal misoprostol (can also give orally depending on patient preference)

175
Q

What should be offered to all Rhesus-negative women undergoing surgical management of miscarriage?

A

Anti-D prophylaxis

176
Q

How do you screen for antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Lupus anticoagulant and anti-cardolipin Abs

+ve = 2 + results at least 12 weeks apart

177
Q

What is recurrent miscarriage?

A

Loss of 3 or more pregnancies

178
Q

What are the causes of recurrent miscarriage?

A
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Cervical abnormalities
  • Foetal chromosomal abnormalities
  • Uterine malformations
  • Thrombophilia
179
Q

What are the investigations for recurrent miscarriage?

A

• Screen for antiphospholipid syndrome
o Lupus anticoagulant
o Anti-cardiolipin antibodies
o DIAGNOSTIC: 2 positive results at least 12 weeks apart
• Cytogenetic analysis
o Of products of conception in the last miscarriage
o Of both partners peripheral blood
• TVUSS to assess for uterine anomalies
• Screen for inherited thrombophilia (e.g. factor V leiden)

180
Q

How can we reduce miscarriage risk in anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

o Low-dose aspirin + LMWH in future pregnancy reduces risk of miscarriage by 54%

181
Q

What is a Heterotopic pregnancy?

A

Simultaneous development of two pregnancies, one WITHIN and one OUTSIDE of uterine cavity

182
Q

What is the acute presentation of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Rupture + massive intraperitoneal bleeding
- signs of acute abdomen (abdo rebound tenderness + guarding)
- signs of hypovolaemic shock
+ a POSITIVE pregnancy test

183
Q

Presence of moderate to significant free fluid in pouch of douglas on TVUSS is suggestive of…

A

ruptured ectopic pregnancy

184
Q

What happens to serum hCG in a normal pregnancy? How does this differ to an ectopic?

A

Normally it DOUBLES every 48HRs

- in ectopic the rise is often suboptimal

185
Q

What are the investigations of ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. ABCDE
  2. Abdopelvic examination
  3. TVUSS
  4. hCG (serial measurements if possible)
  5. Hb + Group + Save
186
Q

Why would you do a Hb/group and save in ectopic pregnancy?

A

Degree of intra-abdo bleeding and RHESUS STATUS

187
Q

How do you manage a ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. Expectant (take serial hCG until undetectable), suitable if asymptomatic and no haemodynamic compromise
  2. Medical (if no FH, no IU pregnancy confirmed by USS, hCG<1500 and adnexal mass of <3.5mm, no sig pain)
    IM Methotrexate +
    - 2 serum hCG measurements day 4 and 7, then one a week until neg
    - no sex, minimise alcohol + vit D exposure during, no conception for at least 3mths
  3. Surgical (if adnexal mass >3.5mm, hCG>5000, sig pain, visible FH)
    - ideally laparoscopic: salpingotomy or saplingectomy (ideally) depending on fertility + previous gynae/obs Hx
    - may need anti-D prophylaxis if rhesus neg

FOLLOW-UP for Salpingotomy: 1 serum hCG at 1 weeks, then 1 serum hCG per week until negative result is obtained
FOLLOW-UP for Salpingectomy: urine pregnancy test at 3 weeks

188
Q

Diaphragmatic + shoulder tip pain in a woman with PV bleeding suggests?

A

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

189
Q

What is the cut off level above which a gestational sac should be seen in the uterus on transvaginal ultrasound?

A

bHG >1000IU

190
Q

In a non-urgent ectopic pregnancy presentation, what should be measured and over what time?

A

Serial hCG measurements over 48 hrs

  • if doubles every 48hrs then healthy progressing pregnancy
  • if does not substantially rise and uterus is empty + positive preg test -> ectopic
191
Q

What is protamine sulphate used for?

A

To reverse the effects of unfractioned heparin

192
Q

What are the “best” forms of contraception?

A

LARCs - long acting reversible forms of contraception

193
Q

How often does Nexplanon need to be replaced?

A

(=implant) 3 years

194
Q

How should MEC be used for contraception prescribing?

A 
The WHO medical eligibility criteria: 
4 levels:
1 - no restriction for use
2 - benefits outweight risks
3 - risks outweigh benefits
4 - absolute contraindication
195
Q

What should be advised to women taking liver-enzyme inducing drugs and needing contraception?

A 
If on hormonal contraception -> also use condoms
OR
Switch to non-affected method eg 
- cu-IUD
- LNG-IUS
- progesterone implant (nexplanon)
196
Q

What are some side effects of hormonal contraceptives?

A 
o	Unexpected bleeding  
o	Weight gain (IMPORTANT) 
o	Headaches  
o	Mood swings  
o	Loss of libido
197
Q

What should a lady do if she misses a pill or more in the last week of her 21 day on-pill?

A

Finish remaining pack of pills and then immediately take another pack back to back (ie don’t have withdrawal bleed)

198
Q

In what circumstances with the patch and the ring should a woman take extra-contraceptive precaution eg condoms or abstinence?

A
  • Patch is not applied for 48 hours

* Ring is not applied for more than 3 hours

199
Q

What are the cancer risks among COCP users?

A

12% reduced risk of any cancer
• Reduced risk of colorectal, endometrial and ovarian cancer
• Increased risk of breast cancer during use
• Increased risk of cervical cancer

200
Q

KEY contraindications for combined contraceptives?

A
  • Previous/current VTE or strong FHx
  • Migraine with aura -> increased risk of cerebral vasospasm + stroke
  • 35yo or older + smoker -> risk of arterial disease
  • any Hx of MI or stroke or VTE
201
Q

What are the SEs of progesterone only contraceptives?

A
  • Irregular bleeding
  • Persistent ovarian follicles (simple cysts)
  • Acne
202
Q

What should a woman do if she misses a progesterone only pill?

A

Take extra precaution for next 48hrs

203
Q

How is nexplanon inserted?

A

Subdermally 8 cm above the medial epicondyle usually in the non-dominant arm under local anaesthesia

204
Q

MOST COMMONLY used injectable worldwide is a depot injection of

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (ie progesterone implant)

205
Q

What investigation do women with strawberry cervix and frothy yellow discharge need? What is the likely cause?

A

Vulvovaginal swab + mcs. Trichomoniasis.

206
Q

What contraception is associated with increased risk of actinomycosis and PID?

A

Copper coil. It also has an increased risk of perforation.

207
Q

What contraceptive is associated with a decreased risk of PID and may cause irregular bleeding in the first 3mths?

208
Q

What contraceptive has side effects inducing weight gain, irregular bleeding and an increased risk of osteoporosis?

A

Medroxyprogesterone IM

209
Q

What contraceptive is known to be effective against PID and endometrial cancer?

A

Implant. Also can be used in breastfeeding mothers.

210
Q

What is a oestrogen-secreting tumour associated with abdominal bleeding seen commonly in women 40+?

A

Endometrial

211
Q

What is the diagnostic test for gonorrhoea? How do we treat it?

A

Endocervical swab. Tx: ciprofloxacin or ampicillin.

212
Q

What is the lx of choice in a afro-carribean woman with painful periods and urinary retention?

A

USS. Likely to be PCOS.

213
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment in patients with ovarian cancer except those with stage 1a?

A

Surgery + chemo

214
Q

What is the most common form of female sterilisation?

A

Filshie clips to occlude the fallopian tubes

215
Q

How long should contraception be used after female sterilisation?

A

If laparoscopic then until next menstruation

If hysteroscopic then 3 mths after

216
Q

What does hysteroscopic sterilisation involve?

A

Can be performed as outpatient without GA
- Microinserts (expanding springs) inserted into tubal ostia via a hysteroscope -> they induce fibrosis in cornual section of fallopian tube (takes 3mths)

217
Q

What is the most effective form of emergency contraception?

A

Cu-IUD

- can be put in place up to 5 days after unprotected sex or 5 days after predicted ovulation

218
Q

What are the two forms of oral emergency contraception?

A
  1. Levonorgestrel: effective 72hr after unprotected sex

2. Ulipristal acetate: effective up to 5 days after

219
Q

What does medical abortion involve?

A

Combination of

  • mifepristone (progesterone receptor modulator) - brings about increase in uterine contractility and sensitises the uterus to exogenous prostaglandins, max effect at 48hr
  • misoprostol (prostaglandin analogue) - brings about expulsion through dilated cervix with cramping, pain + bleeding

<9wks: done at home
9-21wks: done in clinical setting as more blood/bigger fetus. give woman 3hrly doses of misoprostol until expulsion occurs
21-24wks: clinical setting + feticide (as fetus might display signs of life) eg intracardiac injection of KCl or intrafoetal /intramniotic digoxin

220
Q

What are the surgical methods of abortion?

A

Up to 14 wks: manual vacuum aspiration or electrical vacuum aspiration (give cervical dilator to assist eg 400mcg misoprostol sublingually 1hr before procedure)

After 14wks: dilation and evacuation +USS after to confirm
- need to really dilate cervix eg 20mm (can use osmotic dilators, misoprostol (vaginal or sublingual), mifepristone)

221
Q

What is subfertility?

A

Failure to conceive after 12mths of regular unprotected intercourse

222
Q

What are the SEs of surgical management of miscarriage?

A
  • Cervical Trauma
  • Bleeding
  • Infection
  • Retained products of conception
  • Repeat ERPC
  • Uterine perforation
223
Q

What is a potential SE of ovulation induction?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (esp caused with gonadotrophin therapy)

  • ascites
  • vomiting
  • diarrhoea
  • high haemocrit

NB: ovulation may also be induced with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole or anastrozole

224
Q

MOST IMPORTANT FACTOR affecting fertility is

A

female age

225
Q

What is antral follicle count?

A

Parameter of ovarian reserve
<4 = poor response
16+ = good response

226
Q

What investigations can be done to explore subfertility in a female?

A
  • Blood hormone levels: FSH, LH, Oestradiol, AMH, Testosterone, TFTs, Prolactin
  • Chlamydia screening
  • HIV, HBV, HCV screening
  • TVUSS (pathology? antral follicle count)
227
Q

What is the most successful biomarker of ovarian reserve?

A

Anti-mullerian hormone

228
Q

What two markers may be used by clinics to establish ovarian reserve?

A
  • AMH

- Antral follicle count

229
Q

How is a tubal assessment done in women?

A

Hysterosalpingography using an X-ray or USS

230
Q

What is the main male investigation for subfertility?

A

Semen fluid analysis
• Looks at: volume, sperm concentration, total sperm number, motility, morphology, vitality and pH
Refrain from ejaculation 2-4days before

231
Q

What options are there for managing subfertility?

A 
MEDICAL
1 Ovulation induction
2 Intrauterine insemination
3 Artificial insemination 
4 IVF
5 Donor egg + IVF

SURGERY
1 Operative laparoscopy to treat disease and restore anatomy
2 Myomectomy 
3 Tubal surgery 
4 Laparoscopic ovarian drilling
232
Q

What may insemination procedures be accompanied with?

A

SC injections of FSH for stimulation

233
Q

What is the most common cause of post-partum haemorrhage?

A

The 4 ‘T’s

  • Tone eg uterine atony
  • Tissue eg retained placenta
  • Trauma eg vaginal, cervical or uterine
  • Thrombin eg deranged clotting as a result of bleeding
234
Q

What management should be undertaken for fibroids?

A

If <3cm in size and not distorting the uterine cavity - Medical treatment
1st line: IUS
2nd Line: Tranxemic acid, COCP
3rd Line: GnRH agonists

Surgical treatment

  1. Myomectomy
  2. Hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
  3. Hysterectomy
  4. Uterine artery embolisation
235
Q

VERY RARELY, infants born to mothers with HPV may develop what condition?

A

Respiratory papillomatosis (papillomas grow in the resp tract)

236
Q

Treponema pallidum causes what condition? How is it spread?

A

Syphilis. Direct contact with secretions from infected lesions or via transplacental passage during pregnancy.

237
Q

What is the first manifestation of syphilis?

A

Chancre at the site of exposure: single, painless, indurated, exudative lesion leaking T pallidum

238
Q

Causes of secondary amenorrhoea

A

hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. Stress, excessive exercise)
polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
hyperprolactinaemia
premature ovarian failure
thyrotoxicosis*
Sheehan’s syndrome
Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions)

239
Q

How does secondary syphilis present?

A

Widespread erythematous rash including palms and soles. Condylomata lata.

240
Q

How may haematagenous spread of Gonorrhoea present?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection causing a purpuric non-blanching rash and/or arthralgia (usually monoarticular in a weight bearing joint)

241
Q

How is trichomoniasis managed?

A

Metronidazole

Simultaneous treatment to current and historic sexual partners

242
Q

What spread of infections can be associated with gonorrhoea?

A

Rectal (receptive anal sex), pharyngeal (oral sex), haematogneous, ophthalmic (genital secretions), neonatal infection (if endocervical infection at time of delivery)

243
Q

What is the management of gonorrhoea?

A

IM Ceftriaxone

244
Q

How is a dual infection with gonorrhoea and chlamydia managed?

A

3rd gen cephalosporin eg ceftriaxone AND azithromycin

245
Q

Neonates born to mothers with cervical chlamydia infection may develop what infection?

A

Conjunctivitis

246
Q

What STIs require simultaneous treatment?

A

Gonorrhoea. Chlamydia. Trichomoniasis.

247
Q

Management of chlamydia

A

Azithromycin or doxycycline

248
Q

In what condition should you test for ALL stis?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

249
Q

What are the most common causes of PID?

A

Chlamydia
Mycoplasma genitalium
Vaginal flora
[less common with gonorrhoea]

250
Q

How should you manage women with first-acquisition genital herpes in the 3rd trimester?

251
Q

What are the most common causes of genital warts?

A

Types 6 and 11 HPV

252
Q

In what type of incontinence do you have an incompetent urethral sphincter?

A

Stress - bladder neck falls through urogenital hiatus during increases in intraabdominal pressure

253
Q

Treponema pallidum causes what condition?

254
Q

What is the first manifestation of syphilis?

A

Chancre at the site of exposure: single, painless exudative lesion leaking T pallidum

255
Q

In what condition are condylomata lata seen?

A

Late stage syphilis. They are raised papules/plaques usually seen on anogenital area.

256
Q

How does secondary syphilis present?

A

Widespread erythematous rash including palms and soles. Condylomata lata.

257
Q

How may haematagenous spread of Gonorrhoea present?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection causing a purpuric non-blanching rash and/or arthralgia

258
Q

Complications of syphilis?

A
  • Meningitis
  • 8th nerve palsy leading to deafness or tinnitus
  • Ophthalmic involvement (uveitis)
Late Complications 
-	Gummatous lesions (granulomatous, locally destructive lesions typically affecting the skin and bone)  
-	Cardiovascular involvement (usually affecting ascending aorta, resulting in aortic valve incompetence) 
-	Neurological involvement  
	Meningo-vascular disease  
	Tabes dorsalis 
	Progressive dementing illness  
	General paresis
259
Q

What are some of the complications in pregnancy of syphilis?

A
  • FGR
  • Stillbirth
  • Foetal hydrops
  • Preterm birth
  • Congenital syphilis (rash on soles and feet, bone lesions)
  • Neonatal death
260
Q

In women, the urethral sphincter mechanism consists of

A

Internal sphincter: smooth muscle

External: striated muscle

261
Q

In what type of incontinence do you have an incompetent urethral sphincter?

262
Q

What is the NICE recommended staging system for prolapse?

263
Q

What are the common urodynamic diagnoses?

A
  1. Detrusor overactivity
  2. Detrusor overactivity incontinence
  3. Urodynamic stress incontinence
  4. Mixed incontinence
264
Q

What are the types of functional cyst and what size do they have to be diagnosed? What one is associated with ovulation and what one with pregnancy?

A

> 3cm.

Follicular cysts
Corpus luteal cysts - ovulation associated
Theca luteal - pregnancy associated

265
Q

What do “chocolate cysts” refer to?

A

Presence of altered blood within the ovary with endometriomas

266
Q

What has a characteristic “ground glass” appearance on USS?

A

Inflammatory ovarian cysts

267
Q

What is Meig syndrome and what causes it?

A

Pleural effusion, ascites and ovarian fibroma. Cause by ovarian fibroma and the pleural effusion usually resolves once it is removed.

268
Q

What are the SEs of antimuscarnics? What is a contraindication to their use?

A
  • Blurred vision
  • Dry mouth
  • Constipation

Don’t use in

  • open angle glaucoma
  • frail pts who are prone to falling
269
Q

LOSS of levator ani support allows what type of prolapse?

A

Anterior vagina

270
Q

Loss of perineal body support allows what type of prolapse?

271
Q

What is the best investigation for adenomyosis?

A

MRI (but actually technically it can only definitively be diagnosed following histopathological examination of a hysterectomy specimen)

272
Q

What is procidentia?

A

When the uterus prolapses wholly outside of the hymen

273
Q

What are the different stages of prolapse?

A

1: Prolapse does not reach hymen
2: reaches hymen
3: prolapses wholly outside of hymen

274
Q

What type of prolapse can occur post-hysterectomy and why?

A

If the uterosacral ligaments are not restored properly anatomically then vaginal vault prolapse can occur

275
Q

What is the best staging system for prolapse?

276
Q

What are the risk factors for dyspareunia?

A
  • FGM
  • Suspected PID
  • Endometriosis
  • Peri/postmenopausal
  • Depression and anxiety
  • History of sexual assault
277
Q

A 57yo lady presents in clinic with soreness and itching “down below”. She said the area has become increasingly fragile and feels like it has changed in shape. She has a Hx of hypothyroidism and pernicious anaemia. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Lichen Sclerosus - thought to be autoimmune hence link in Hx

NB: vulva appears white like PARCHMENT PAPER and loss of anatomy can occur

278
Q

What is the difficulty with using GnRH agonists to treat fibroids?

A
  • Induce menopausal like state - can get associated symptoms eg hot flushes
  • If used long term then induce osteoporosis so shouldn’t use for more than 6mths
279
Q

What is infibulation? What treatment should be offered?

A

Stitching/narrowing of vagina. De-infundibulation to reverse procedure.

280
Q

What is the best investigation for adenomyosis?

281
Q

What is the definitive treatment for adenomyosis?

A

Hysterectomy

282
Q

Rapid fibroid growth and AUB in postmenopausal women is associated with what?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

283
Q

Where is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube

second most common is isthmus

284
Q

What is the difference between the labia minora and majora?

A

Majora contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands

Minora contains no adipose tissue, no hair follicles

285
Q
  • Lower genital tract =

- Upper genital tract =

A

Lower = vulva + vagina

Upper = cervix, uterus, tubes and ovaries

286
Q

What should always be considered in a women presenting with recurrent thrush?

287
Q

When is a biopsy indicated for vulval conditions and what type of biopsy is done?

A 
Keyes punch biopsy 
If 
- pigmented change
- indurated or raised
- ulcerated lesions
288
Q

What is infibulation?

A

Stitching/narrowing of vagina

289
Q

What is the management of large, complex eg multi-loculated ovarian cysts?

A

Biopsy to exclude malignancy

290
Q

What aminoglycoside Abx should be avoided in pregnancy and why?

A

Gentamicin - can cause cochlear damage in fetus

291
Q

Where is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube

292
Q

What hormone helps predict a patients response to IVF therapy?

293
Q

What happens to the LH and FSH levels in

  • Pregnancy
  • Premature ovarian failure
  • PCOS
A

Pregnancy: low FSH/LH, high oestrodiol
Premature ovarian failure: raised FSH
PCOS: high LH, normal FSH

294
Q

What function should be checked every year in women who has premature ovarian failure?

A

Thyroid = women are at increased risk of autoimmune disorders

295
Q

What are the common routes of oestrogen therapy in UK?

A

Transvaginal
Transdermal
Oral

296
Q

What are the side effects of progesterone therapy?

A

Bloating, constipation, irritability

also: alopecia, breast abnormalities, depression, dizziness, fluid retention, insomnia, menstrual cycle irregularities, nausea, sexual dysfunction, skin reactions, weight changes

297
Q

What are the side effects of Bromocriptine therapy?

A

Postural hypotension

also: constipation; drowsiness; headache; nasal congestion; nausea

298
Q

What are some of the complications of VBAC?

A

72-75% chance of successful delivery - the rest involve emergency C section

If labour is induced it can result in increased risk of uterus rupture

299
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to trial of VBAC due to the greater risk of uterine rupture?

A

Classical incision

300
Q

What is the most reliable test for ovulation?

A

Day 21 progesterone

301
Q

What phase of the menstrual cycle can be variable and what is fixed (and for how long)?

A

Follicular phase can be variable

Luteal is fixed at 14 days

302
Q

The serum progesterone level will peak how many days after ovulation has occured?

A

7 days. In simple terms, measure serum progesterone 7 days prior to expected next period (for 28-day cycle: 28 - 7 = 21. For 35-day cycle: 35 - 7= 28).

303
Q

Risk factors for candidiasis

A

diabetes mellitus
drugs: antibiotics, steroids
pregnancy
immunosuppression: HIV

304
Q

How should candidiasis be treated in pregnancy?

A

Oral treatments are contraindicated

Pessaries eg clotrimazole or vaginal creams of itraconazole or fluconazole

305
Q

How should recurrent candidiasis be managed?

A

BASHH define recurrent vaginal candidiasis as 4 or more episodes per year

CHECK compliance with previous treatment
CONFIRM the diagnosis of candidiasis
high vaginal SWAB for MC&S

consider a blood glucose test to exclude diabetes
exclude differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus

consider the use of an INDUCTION-MAINTENANCE regime

induction: oral fluconazole every 3 days for 3 doses
maintenance: oral fluconazole weekly for 6 months

306
Q

Who should oxybutynin not be used in and what could be prescribed instead?

A

Frail - can increase predisposition to falls

Can use solferacin or tolterodine instead or consider using mirabegron instead

307
Q

When is duloxetine prescribed for incontinence and what is its mechanism of action?

A

Medical management of stress incontinence if surgical is declined

= serotonin and NA reuptake inhibitor
increased synaptic concentration of noradrenaline and serotonin within the pudendal nerve → increased stimulation of urethral striated muscles within the sphincter → enhanced contraction

308
Q

What is the most common type of cervical cancer?

A

80% squamous cell carcinoma

20% adenocarcinoma

309
Q

The most common ovarian cancer is

A

Serous carcinoma

310
Q

What should always be checked in a woman with thrush?

A

Diabetes Hx/FHx/diagnosis

311
Q

The most common site for lymphatic spread of ovarian cancer is the

A

Para aortic lymph nodes

312
Q

List some types of endometrial cancer

A 
Endometriod
Mucinous
Secretory 
Serous
Clear cell
313
Q

List some risk factors for endometrial cancer

A 
Obesity 
Nulliparity 
Early menarche and late menopause 
Unopposed oestrogen therapy 
Diabetes mellitus 
Tamoxifen 
PCOS 
HNPCC
314
Q

How is endometrial cancer treated?

A

Localised disease: total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
High risk patients may receive post-operative radiotherapy
Progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly patients who are unfit for surgery

315
Q

What is protective in endometrial cancer?

A

Smoking and COCP

316
Q

What are the three types of fibroid? Which type causes the heavy bleeding?

A

Submucosal - cause of heavy bleeding
Intramural
Subserosal

317
Q

What are some causes of subfertility?

A

Premature ovarian failure
Fibroids
Endometriosis
Polycystic ovarian syndrome

318
Q

Risk factors for fibroids

A 
Afrocarribean
FHx
Obesity
Nulliparity
Pregnancy
319
Q

What is female genital mutilation?

A

Any procedure involving partial or total removal of the external genitalia and/or injury to the female genital organs whether for cultural, religious or other non-therapeutic reasons

320
Q

What are the different types of FGM?

A

1: Clitorectomy
2: Clitorectomy +/- partial or total labia minora, +/- labia majora
3: infibulation (stitching to narrow the vagina)
4: any other non-medical procedures to the external genitalia (e.g. piercings, cauterisation)

321
Q

Side effects of FGM

A

Short-Term: severe pain, bleeding, infections, wound healing problems

Long-Term: urinary problems, menstrual problems, sexual problems (painful intercourse), psychological (PTSD)

Obstetric: difficult delivery, excessive bleeding, C-section, newborn death

322
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for PCOS?

A

Must have at least 2 of these 3 features: amenorrhoea/oligomenorrhoea, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (8 or more subcapsular follicular cysts < 10 mm in diameter)

323
Q

What is the definition of secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Absence of menstruation for > 6 months in the absence of pregnancy in a woman who has previously menstruated

324
Q

What can you warn pts of in PCOS in terms of future risks?

A

Subfertility
Diabetes mellitus
CVS disease risk

325
Q

What are some risks of HRT?

A

VTE
Stroke
CHD
Breast and ovarian cancer

326
Q

What are some contraindications for HRT?

A 
Pregnancy
Undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding 
Active thromboembolic disease 
Active breast or endometrial cancer 
Acute liver disease
327
Q

What is the most common gynae cancer in women and how does it present?

A

Endometrial with painless post menopausal or inter-menstrual bleeding

328
Q

Which cancers have screening programmes in the UK and at what ages are they given etc?

A 
Cervical:
25-50 smears every 3 years 
50-65 smears every 5 years
65+ only if one of last 3 tests was abnormal
If high risk eg HIV then every year

Breast:
Aged 50-73

329
Q

What are some risk factors for candidiasis?

A

Antibiotic use
Pregnancy
Uncontrolled diabetes
Impaired immunity

330
Q

What is the difference between a high vaginal swab and an endocervical swab?

A

Endocervical – chlamydia and gonorrhoea

High vaginal – anaerobes (e.g. BV)

331
Q

What is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

332
Q

What are some side-effects of the copper IUD?

A

Expulsion
Infection
Uterine perforation
Heavy, painful bleeding (especially when first inserted)

333
Q

What are some complications of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A 
Infertility 
Ectopic pregnancy 
Chronic pelvic pain 
Sepsis 
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
334
Q

What is cervical excitation a sign of?

A

PID or ectopic pregnancy (can help in excluding appendicitis)

335
Q

What are the key risks of PID?

A 
Infertility
Ectopic pregnancy
Adhesions 
Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome 
Bacteraemia secondary to GI obstruction
Abscess (Tubo-ovarian)
Chronic pelvic pain
Peritonitis
336
Q

What types of bleeding/pain do you need to ask about in a endometriosis history?

A
  • Pelvic pain, dyspareunia (deep), abdominal pain

- Dysmenorrhoea, cyclical PR bleeding/haematuria, possible bleeding from umbilicus

337
Q

What type of cancer is endometriosis strongly associated to?

A

Clear cell ovarian cancer

338
Q

Two complications of leiomyomas in pregnancy?

A

Red degeneration of fibroids

Post-partum torsion

339
Q

How may cervical cancer pts present?

A

Abnormal bleeding: PCB, IMB, PMB
Discharge
Pain

Year 5 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions