Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

How is depression diagnosed?

A

ICD-11 criteria

(international classification of diseases)

Depression is;
“…concurrent presence of at least five out of a list of ten symptoms, which must occur most of the day,
nearly every day, for at least 2 weeks.

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2
Q

What questionnaire can be used to aid a diagnosis of depression?

A

Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9

9 questions

Max score - 27 (severely depressed)

Min score - 0

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3
Q

Issues and Side effects of SSRI’s

A

Issues:

Bleeding risk (PPI?)

Interactions (SJW/Tramadol - Serotonin Syndrome)

Hypersensitivity

Side effects:

Minor sedation

Dizziness

Anxiety

Anti-muscurinic (diarrhoea/constipation)

GI

Sexual Dysfunction

Hyponatraemia (elderly - PPI causes hyponatraemia aswell)

Suicidal Ideation

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4
Q

Medication options for Depression

A
  • Consider previously successful drugs
    first. *

1st Line – SSRI
2nd Line – Alternative SSRI
3rd Line - Mirtazapine (stimulates appetite) or SNRI or
Trazodone/Tricyclic
(both very sedative)

Tricyclic are a worry due to potential for overdose and cardiac arrythmias (cause irreversible cardiac damage and management for trycyclic overdose is purely supportive)

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5
Q

2 common questionaires to assess anxiety:

A

GAD-7 (General Anxiety Disorder-7)

Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS)

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6
Q

Annual Health Check for adults and children aged ___ or above with learning disabilities.

A

14

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7
Q

When starting an anti-psychotic a Patient’s B.P, pulse rate, HbA1c level, serum cholesterol level and lipid profile should all be checked at ____ weeks, then at ____ and then annually thereafter.

Patient’s weight should be checked weekly for the first ____ weeks, then at ____ weeks, then at one year and then annually thereafter.

Waist circumference should be measured _____.

A

12

one year

6

12

annually

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8
Q

What is metabolic syndrome? Which class of medications are likely to cause this?

A
  • Essential hypertension
  • Truncal Obesity
  • Insulin resistance
  • Low glucose tolerance
  • Dyslipidaemia/Hypercholesterolaemia

*2nd generation antipsychotics*

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9
Q

______ is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency and is characterised by _____, _____ and ____.

A

Pellagra is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency and is characterised by Dementia, Dermatitis and Diarrhoea. (3Ds)

Other features include hair loss, sunlight sensitivity and glossitis (“beefy tongue”). If left untreated, this can lead to Death. Alcoholism and Crohn’s disease are both risk factors for Pellagra due to malnutrition/malabsorption.

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10
Q

The first-line pharmacological therapy for moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease is _____, which can cause ______.

A

Memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist)

Constipation

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11
Q

If nutritional intake is resumed too rapidly after a period of relatively low caloric intake, the patient is at high risk of _____. Rapidly increasing insulin levels lead to shifts of ____, _____ and from extracellular to intracellular spaces. This is potentially fatal if refeeding is too rapid.

A

refeeding syndrome

remember PIMP

Potassium Insulin Magnesium and Phosphate

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12
Q

Symptoms of refeeding syndrome may include ____ , ____ and ____. Blood tests initially show hypophosphataemia and it is treated with phosphate supplementation.

A

oedema

confusion

tachycardia

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13
Q

Because of the resulting malnutrition, those with Anorexia Nervosa are predisposed to cardiac arrhythmias.

An ECG should always be performed in those admitted to hospital with Anorexia Nervosa, in outpatient treatment or in those with symptoms such as dizziness, fainting or light-headedness.

In the body’s attempts to reduce energy expenditure with minimal calorie intake, _____ and _____ are commonly seen, as well as a ______ . This increases the risk of a fatal arrhythmia such as Ventricular Fibrillation.

A

bradycardia and hypotension

prolonged QT interval

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14
Q

Paranoid schizophrenia, as with any psychotic disorder, is treated first-line with atypical antipsychotics such as _____ .

A

Risperidone or Olanzapine (dopamine receptor antagonists)

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15
Q

NICE recommends ____ for children and young people whose schizophrenia has not responded to adequate doses of at least two different antipsychotics used sequentially for 6-8 weeks.

A

Clozapine (shown to be the most efficacious anti-psychotic and so used as last resort)

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16
Q

There are a number of conditions that can mimic schizophrenia:

A

1. Substance induced psychotic disorder (commonly drugs of abuse, but can be iatrogenic e.g. steroids)

2. Organic psychosis caused by infection, brain injury and CNS diseases such as Wilson’s disease

3. Metabolic disorder such as hyperthyroidism and hyperparathyroidism

4. Dementia and depression can also co-occur with psychosis

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17
Q

Description of dementia, which presents with progressive impairment of ____ , _____ and ____.

A

IMPairment:

Intellect

Memory

Personality

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18
Q

What is the key distinguishing feature between Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?

A

BMI

with most guidelines using a BMI of 17.5 as a diagnostic feature of anorexia nervosa.

Most individuals with bulimia nervosa are in the normal weight range (BMI: 18.5 - 30).

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19
Q

Calluses on the back of the hand as a result of repetitive tooth induction from induced vomiting can be a feature of both bullimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa and is called ____ sign.

A

Russell’s

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20
Q

Common symptoms of opiate intoxication include:

A

Drowsiness

Confusion

Decreased respiratory rate

Decreased heart rate

Constricted pupils

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21
Q

Clozapine needs careful blood monitoring with:

A

Baseline:

FBC

CRP

Troponin-T level

(CRP and Troponin-T to be checked weekly for first six weeks).

Weekly FBC for

  • first 18 weeks
  • then fortnightly up to one year of treatment
  • then four-weekly thereafter.
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22
Q

What is the most notable side effect to be aware of in patients taking anti-psychotics?

Which medication can be used as an alternative if this happens?

Antipsychotic medications commonly also produce ____ symptoms as side effects.

A

Hyperprolactinaemia

Aripiprazole (also a useful alternative if patient is putting on weight with other antipsychotics)

extrapyramidal

Antipsychotics can cause hyperprolactinaemia. Prolactin production can be stimulated by dopamine receptor antagonists such as Risperidone and many other antipsychotic medications. Hyperprolactinaemia in men can present with gynaecomastia, galactorrhoea, reduced libido and erectile dysfunction. Hyperprolactinaemia in women can present with galactorrhoea and menstrual dysfunction.

Treatment with the responsible antipsychotic should be stopped and alternative medications or adjuncts considered. Aripiprazole is one of the antipsychotics that does not raise prolactin as much as others, so is often a good alternative or adjunct.

The extrapyramidal symptoms include acute dyskinesias and dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, akinesia, akathisia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

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23
Q

If a patient is voluntarily in hospital and needs to be sectioned under the mental health act a section ____ can be issued by the doctor. This permits detainment for ____ hours for further assessment.

A

5(2)

72 hours

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24
Q

Sectioning under the Mental Health Act (MHA) is used for those over ____ years of age who will not be admitted voluntarily.

A

16 years

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25
Q

Common causes of delirium can be remembered using the mnemonic ______ :

A

DELIRIUMS

D - Drugs and Alcohol (Anti-cholinergics, opiates, anti-convulsants, recreational)

E - Eyes, ears and emotional (reduced input)

L - Low Output state (MI, ARDS, PE, CHF, COPD)

I - Infection

R - Retention (of urine or stool)

I - Ictal

U - Under-hydration/Under-nutrition

M - Metabolic (Electrolyte imbalance, thyroid, wernickes

(S) - Subdural, Sleep deprivation

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26
Q

_____ is not disturbed in the early stages of dementia (in comparison with delirium which can cause cognitive decline in the context of fluctuating or altered ____ )

A

Consciousness X2

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27
Q

Patients with anorexia nervosa exhibit which bichemical abnormality?

A

Hypercholesterolaemia

The pathophysiology is unclear, however it is thought to be due to alterations in the metabolic pathway.

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28
Q

Tricyclic anti-depressants are a ____ line medication for depression. They are strongly associated with anti-cholinergic activity. Consequently, the common side effects include:

A

Second

Urinary retention

Drowsiness

Blurred vision

Constipation

Dry mouth

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29
Q

_____ is a rare but potentially fatal adverse effect of Clozapine.

A

Agranulocytosis

Agranulocytosis occurs in about 1% of patients taking clozapine. Neutropenia is seen in about 3%

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30
Q

____ is the antidepressant of choice in breastfeeding mothers.

A

Sertaline

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31
Q

_____ otherwise known as erotomania, is a delusional disorder in which the patient has a specific, fixed, false belief that someone else is in love with them.

A

De Clerambault’s syndrome

The patient is usually a woman and the person they are fixated upon is usually of a higher social status, despite only a brief or non-existent acquaintance. This is not normally any unusual behaviour or hallucinations accompanying the delusion.

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32
Q

Re-feeding is permitted under the ____ as if a physical problem is a result of a mental disorder - Anorexia Nervosa

A

MHA

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33
Q

A diagnosis of PTSD requires that symptoms are present for longer than ____ . The shorter duration and strong dissociative symptoms this patient describes are more in keeping with a diagnosis of .

A

a month

acute stress reaction

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34
Q

_____ such as _____ are first-line in the pharmacological treatment of adults who present with an episode of acute mania.

A

Antipsychotics

Olanzapine

Antipsychotics with mood-stabilising properties are used and alternatives include Haloperidol, Risperidone or Quetiapine.

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35
Q

Hyperprolactinaemia is a side effect seen in some patients prescribed antipsychotics, as they act as _____, stimulating the production of prolactin If the patient complains of clinical features of hyperprolactinaemia and blood results support this, it is necessary to stop the responsible agent (in this case Risperidone) and change to an alternative antipsychotic. _____ is one antipsychotic with a much lower risk of inducing hyperprolactinaemia.

A

dopamine receptor antagonists

Aripiprazole

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36
Q

______ such as Donepezil, _____ and ____ are recommended by NICE guidelines as options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease.

Remember in Alzheimer’s there is a progressive loss of _____ neurons.

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Galantamine

Rivastigmine

Cholinergic

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37
Q

NICE specifically advises against prescribing opiates in withdrawal, favouring either ____ or ____ management.

A

lofexidine

symptomatic

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38
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by build up of ____ starting in the substantia nigra and then progressing often to include the majority of the cerebral cortex.

A

alpha-synuclein

alpha-synuclein aggregates to form “lewy bodies” and so the pathophysiology is very similar in lewy body dementia.

NB - To distinguish between and parkinsons LBD - Determine the time bewtween dementia and movement symptoms. If they are within 12 months of eachother it is more likely a diagnosis of LBD.

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39
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is caused by an accumulation of ____ , and the ____ is also implicated.

Down Syndrome is caused by Trisomy 21, and the ____ is found on chromosome 21. The extra copy of APP leads to early onset beta-amyloid plaques.

A

Amyloid plaques

Tau protein

Amyloid precursor protein

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40
Q

_____ is used in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome; a complication of anti-psychotic use which presents with ______ and ______ .

A

Dantrolene (muscle relanxant)

Pyrexia

Rhabdomyolysis

Dantrolen mechanism of action: Depresses excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor 1, and decreasing intracellular calcium concentration. Ryanodine receptors mediate the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, an essential step in muscle contraction.

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41
Q

Clinical features of lithium toxicity

A

Coarse tremor

CNS disturbance including seizures, impaired co-ordination, dysarthria

Arrhythmias

Visual disturbance

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42
Q

____ is a rapid onset of confusion precipitated by alcohol withdrawal. It usually develops at around ____ after ceasing alcohol intake, and can last for several days.

A

Delirium tremens

72 hours

Clinical features

Symptoms usually peak on day 4-5. Symptoms include confusion, hallucinations (particularly visual hallucinations and tactile hallucinations (such as formication - the sensation of crawling insects on or under the skin), sweating, hypertension and (rarely) seizures.

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43
Q

Step 1 for all known presentations of Generalised Anxiety Disorder is to provide _____ and ______.

A

Psychoeducation and active monitoring

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44
Q

______ or ____ can be used as pharmacological support in the detoxification from opiates

A

Methadone

Buprenorphine

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45
Q

______ is a first generation H1 antagonist that also has ____ activity. It is able to cross the blood brain barrier and can lead to anti-depressant/anxiety effects.

In the elderly however, there is a high risk of inducing ____ or other anti-cholinergic actions such as ____ and ____ .

A

Chlorphenamine

anticholinergic

dry mouth

urinary retention

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46
Q

Unlike anorexia nervosa, sufferers of bulimia nervosa may have a normal _____.

A

BMI.

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47
Q

What is the classic triad of clinical features associated with normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

gait disturbance

urinary incontinence

dementia

Wet, Wobbly & Weird”.

This is typical of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus, which is caused by an abnormal increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles. The sulci are absent because they are compressed by the ventricles which allows for the pressure to be normal despite the CSF increase.

48
Q

_____ is the preferred SSRI in postpartum depression because of the low milk/plasma ratio. ____ is avoided due to its long half-life.

A

Paroxetine

Fluoxetine avoided

*remember sertraline is used in pregnancy*

49
Q

Criteria for learning disability

A

Begins in childhood and continues into adulthood

Lower IQ < 70 (impaired cognitive functioning)

Reduced ability to cope independently (impaired social functioning)

50
Q

The patient in this question is intentionally faking signs and symptoms (i.e. adding blood to urine and complaining of pain) in order to gain attention and play “the patient role”. This is consistent with _____.

A

Munchausen’s syndrome

51
Q

_____ is a relatively rapidly progressive dementia affecting ____ people. Patients have marked personality change and MRI shows significant atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes.

A

Frontotemporal dementia

Younger

Often familial (30-50%)

Pathological aggregates of Tau or TDP-43

Considerable overlap with parkinsonian syndromes corticobasal degeneration and progressive supranculear palsy and also ALS.

52
Q

What are the 4 steps of assessing mental capacity?

A

The patient must:

Understand information given to them

Retain that information long enough to be able to make the decision

Weigh up the information available to make the decision

Communicating it back

53
Q

What are the three core features of lewy body dementia?

A

Fluctuating cognition

Parkinsonism

Visual hallucinations

54
Q

What is the first line pharmacological therapy of mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors

Donepezil

Galantamine

Rivastigmine

55
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment of autoimmune encephalitis?

A

1st line: Steroids and IV immunoglobulins

2nd line: Immunotherapy

56
Q

In malnutrition patients are at risk of which cardiac arrythmia?

A

Long QT syndrome - Ventricular Fibrillation

*patients may also have hypotension and bradycardia in an attempt to reduce energy expenditure when on a low caloric intake*

57
Q

Drug interactions predisposing to lithium toxicity include medications such as:

A

NSAIDs

Furosemide

Thiazide Diuretics

ACE inhibitors

some antidepressants.

58
Q

When taken as an overdose, the metabolism of paracetamol results in a buildup of a toxic substance called _____.

A

NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone-imine).

NAPQI is inactivated by glutathione. In an overdose, glutathione stores are rapidly depleted, and NAPQI is left un-metabolised. It can cause liver and kidney damage.

59
Q

Management of Paracetamol overdose:

A

If ingestion less than 1 hour ago + dose >150mg/kg: Activated charcoal

If ingestion <4 hours ago: Wait until 4 hours to take a level and treat with N-acetylcysteine based on level using** nomogram**

If ingestion 4-15 hours ago: Take immediate level and treat based on level

If staggered overdose or ingestion >15 hours ago: Start N-acetylcysteine immediately

Obtain following bloods:

FBC

Urea and Electrolytes

INR

Venous gas

Consider need for transfer to liver unit if blood tests are worsening

60
Q

Antidepressants should be taken for at least ____ months after patients recover.

A

6 months

NB - not from when patient started medication but from when symptoms improved.m

61
Q

_____ , more commonly known as ‘Ritalin’, is a stimulant prescription drug usually used in the treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder.

Name three other drugs that can also be used to treat ADHD.

A

Methylphenidate

If used as an illicit substance it can present with insomnia, restlessness, increased temperature, increased blood pressure and increased heart rate, all likely to be caused by the illicit use of Methylphenidate.

Dexamphetamine or lysdexamphetamine

Atomoxetine

Guanfacine

62
Q

You should always check a patient’s ECG before starting _____ . Contra-indications include prolonged QT, second or third degree heart block in an unpaced patient and sinus bradycardia <50 bpm

A

Anti-cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil/rivastigmine)

63
Q

____ refers to the belief that a patient is dead, non-existent or ‘rotting’

A

Cotard delusion

64
Q

Lewy body dementia is classically associated with the triad of ____, _____, and _____. The hallucinations are often of small, non-threatening people and animals (_____ hallucinations). It shares the same pathophysiology as Parkinson’s disease, but dementia is the predominant feature.

A

REM sleep disorder

A history of falls (secondary to motor problems)

Visual Hallucinations

Lilliputian hallucinations

Alice in Wonderland Syndrome (AWS), also known as Todd’s syndrome or Lilliputian hallucinations, is a condition in which visual perception is altered. This altered state can cause objects to appear smaller, bigger, closer, or farther away than they really are - tiny human, animal or fantasy figures perceived during wakefulness in the absence of corresponding stimuli from the outside world.

65
Q

In schizophrenia patients can coin some new words (‘collondors’ and ‘frepulating’). This is an example of a _____.

A

neologism

66
Q

_____ is the gold standard medication for bipolar disorder and acts as a mood stabiliser. ____ is a suitable second line alternative. Anti-psychotics and anti-convulsants may also be used in treatment resistant cases.

Additionally, NICE recommends that all patients with bipolar disorder have access to psychological therapies. These should be targeted towards bipolar disorder specifically, and should be _____ in nature. This can include CBT, interpersonal therapy or couples/family therapy.

A

Lithium

Valproate

high intensity

67
Q

In Parkinson’s disease all targeted receptors are _____.
• D1-like receptors (D1, D5) are _____.
• D2-like receptors (D2, D3, D4) are_____.

A

GPCRs

excitatory

inhibitory

68
Q
Postpartum psychosis (or puerperal psychosis) is a severe mental
illness. It starts suddenly in the \_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_, after having a baby.

Symptoms vary, and can change rapidly (within hours). They can include high mood (mania), depression, _____, hallucinations and delusions.

It is a _____ - you should seek help as quickly as possible

A

days, or weeks (usually develops within first two weeks)

confusion

psychiatric emergency

69
Q

Patients at most risk of puerperal psychosis:

A

Previous or FH of puerperal psychosis

Bipolar affective disorder

Schizophrenia

70
Q

Treatment of puerperal psychosis?

A

Preventative support during pregnancy in high risk mothers (FH/Bipolar/Schizophrenia)

Emergency referral to mother and baby inpatient mental health unit

Antipsychotics and/or mood stabilisers (consider breastfeeding safety when prescribing)

*Puerperal psychosis has a really good prognosis if treated early. Most mothers make full recovery which often takes at least 6-12 months*

71
Q

Puerperal psychosis affects ____ % of pregancies whereas postnatal depression affects ____ % of pregnancies.

Over ___ of new mothers will experience the ‘Baby Blues’. This
usually starts ____ after birth but usually settle in 10 days.

A

0.1 (1/1000 pregancies)

10-15%

half/50%

3 to 4 days

72
Q

_____ is a serotonin receptor partial agonist and is used effectively in the treatment of GAD.

A

Buspirone (short half life)

73
Q

The non-benzodiazepine “Z drugs” (____ , zaleplon and zolpidem) are not used as anxiolytics though they act on the benzodiazepine receptor.
They are commonly prescribed as hypnotics and have little to offer over benzodiazepines.

A

zopiclone

74
Q

Dopamine pathways implicated in Schizophrenia and psychosis.

_____ pathway: linked to positive symptoms - delusions,
hallucinations, disorganized speech / thinking and disorganised or
catatonic behaviour.

____ pathway: linked to negative symptoms - alogia (poverty of speech), affective flattening, avolition etc.

_____ pathway: controls motor movement (Binding to D2 receptor is reason for extrapyramidal symptoms in 1st generation antipsychotics such as haloperidol)

_____ pathway: controls prolactin secretion.

A

Mesolimbic

Mesocortical

Nigrostriatal

Tuberoinfundibular

75
Q

Advantages of aripiprazole as an anti-psychotic?

A

No QT prolongation

No hyperprolactinaemia

No weight gain

76
Q

General side effects of anti-psychotics:

A
  • Hyperprolactinaemia (osteoporosis risk and sexual dysfunction)
  • Extra-pyramidal symptoms (parkisonism/tardive dyskinesia/dystonia/Akathisia) - more likely in 1st/older generation psychotics.
  • Long QT syndrome
  • Metabolic syndrome/weight gain (clozapine the worst for this)
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (medical emergency)
  • Decreased seizure threshold

• Anticholinergic effects - constipation etc.

• Hyponatraemia (syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic
hormone - SIADH)

• Photosensitivity.

• Agranulocytosis and myocarditis (clozapine).

  • Postural hypotension (be wary in elderly - falls)
77
Q

Clinical features of lithium toxicity:

A

Coarse Tremor

CNS disturbances: Impaired co-ordination/Seizures/Dysarthria

Arrythmias

Visual disturbance

78
Q

Clinical features of lithium at a therapeutic dose - 0.6-1 (i.e not toxicity)

A

Fine tremor

Dry mouth

GI disturbance

Increased thirst

Increased urination

Drowsiness

Thyroid dysfunction

79
Q

Which 3 drug classes are particularly prone to causing lithium toxicity?

A

ACE inhibitors/ARBs

NSAIDs

Thiazide diuretics

80
Q

Serotonin syndrome is characterised by a triad of:

It commonly presents within the first couple of months of starting an SSRI or when there are drug interactions, particularly between ____ and ___.

A

Mental status changes

Autonomic hyperactivity

Neuromuscular abnormalities

  • tramadol*
  • sertraline*

Altered mental state

•Restlessness, agitation, anxiety, hypervigilance, confusion, delirium, coma

Neuromuscular hyperactivity

•Tremor, clonus (either inducible or sustained), hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, myoclonus, rigidity, respiratory failure

Autonomic hyperactivity

•Tachycardia, sweating, hypertension, diarrhoea, shivering, fever, flushing, mydriasis, hyperthermia

81
Q

In moderate cases of serotnin syndrome where the patient is agitated or anxious a _____ may be used.

_____ may be used in patients with more severe serotonin syndrome who have neuromuscular excitation and agitation if it is distressing.

A

Benzodiazepine (diazepam)

Cyproheptadine (serotonin receptor antagonist)

82
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a serious drug reaction that is characterised by four groups of symptoms:

A

Altered mental state

Fever

Rigidity

Autonomic dysfunction

Altered mental state

Drowsiness, stupor, coma, delirium, confusion, seizures

Fever

Temperature > 38.5°C

Muscle rigidity

Extrapyramidal side-effects, Parkinson-like symptoms, jaw contraction, lead-pipe rigidity, rhabdomyolysis, CK markedly raised, chorea, spinal contraction, abnormal flexion of the toes

Autonomic instability

Tachycardia, incontinence, diaphoresis, fluctuating blood pressure, high arterial pressure, tachypnoea

83
Q

Treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Withdraw anti-psychotics/dopaminergic drugs (depletion/blockage of dopamine is thought to contribute to NMS)

Supportive therapy (fluids etc)

Benzodiazepine (IV lorazepam)

Potentially dopamine agonists (Bromocriptine and amantadine)

Dantrolene (muscle relaxant)

Electroconvulsive therapy (in severe cases)

84
Q

What are the treatment options for an acute dystonic reaction? (i.e oculogyric crisis and torticollis)

A

Treatment would be with an anti-muscarinic drug. Acute dystonia usually responds well to this.

First-line is 10 mg of procyclidine IM (can give in oral form if appropriate). - nb also used to treat other extrapyrimidal symptoms in response to first generation anti-psychotics.

Second-line options include trihexyphenidyl or orphenadrine.

https: //www.stemlynsblog.org/torticollis/
https: //www.youtube.com/watch?v=nmm6nffq2Cs

85
Q

What are the 3 classical clinical features of ADHD?

A

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

Inattention

Impulsivity

Hyperactivity

86
Q

Damage to the _____ can cause OCD.

A

Caudate Nucleus

87
Q

Venlafaxine (____) can be used 2nd line in treating GAD.

Other 2nd or 3rd line options include:

A

SNRI

Pregabalin

TCAs (Clomipramine)

Propanalol

Benzodiazepines can only be used short term for PTSD and specific phobias

(Second line to SSRI’s - Fluoxetine Sertraline Citalopram Paroxetine etc. )

88
Q

Acute stress reaction can present with confusion, a dazed state and inability to process external stimuli. This can last _____ after the event.

A

24-48 hrs

89
Q

Which biochemical abnormality is a potential side effect of SSRI?

A

Hyponatraemia (secondary to SIADH)

90
Q

How is substance dependence defined?

____ or more of :

• Strong desire / compulsion to take the substance
• Impaired control of substance taking behaviour in terms of onset,
termination or levels of use
• Physiological withdrawal state when use is reduced or stopped
• Preoccupation with use, to exclusion of other pleasures or interests
• Tolerance to effects of the substance leading to increased use
• Persistence despite clear harm

A

Three

91
Q

Loss in the variation of substance abuse is called _____.

A

narrowing of repetoire

92
Q

The stages of change in substance dependence was invented by ____ and ____

Pre-contemplation
Person feels there is no problem, though others recognise it
Contemplation
Person weighs up pros and cons and considers if change is necessary
Decision
Person decides to act (or not)
Action
Person chooses strategy for change and pursues it
Maintenance
Gains are maintained and consolidated
Relapse
Return to previous pattern, but relapse may help learning

A

Prochaska and DiClemente

93
Q

___ to ___% of psychiatric patients have concomittant drug or alcohol misuse.

A

22-44%

94
Q

Safe levels of alcohol:

  • Men and women now advised:
  • ____ units / day
  • ____ units / week
  • Harmful levels:
  • Women - > ___ units / day = > ___ units / week
  • Men - > ___ units / day = > ___ units / week
A
  • Safe levels:
  • Men and women now advised:
  • 2 - 3 units / day
  • 14 units / week
  • Harmful levels:
  • Women - > 6 units / day = > 35 units / week
  • Men - > 8 units / day = > 50 units / week
95
Q

Pathological jealousy, also known as morbid jealousy, ____ syndrome or delusional jealousy, is a psychological disorder in which a person is preoccupied with the thought that their spouse or sexual partner is being unfaithful without having any real proof, along with socially unacceptable or abnormal behaviour.

A

Othello

96
Q

Symptoms of dementia?

A

Remember the 4 a’s for cognitive decline:

Amnesia

Anosmia

Apraxia

Aphasia

Non-cognitive:

Behavioral and psychological

Functional/Activities of daily living:

Bills cooking shopping etc.

97
Q

The primary benzodiazepine used in alcohol withdrawal is ____.

A

Chlordiazepoxide

98
Q

Medical intervention in alcoholism relapse prevention includes.

  • _____ - reduces craving
  • _____ - induces flushing if alcohol taken
A

Acamprosate (Acts via GABA and NMDA receptors)

Disulfiram - induces severe flushing when patient drinks alcohol and patient begins to associate alcohol with feeling terribly sick.

99
Q

To work out units of alcohol per drink:

ml X ABV% / _____ = Units

A

1000

100
Q

Opioid substitution treatment (OST) includes:

• _____ - Full agonist, prolongs QTc interval (monitor ECG six-monthly). Cheap, large evidence base

• _____ (Subutex)
Partial agonist, less sedative, less risk of OD

  • Others
  • _____ (short-term stop-gap only)
A

Methadone

Buprenorphine (Subutex)

Dihydrocodiene

101
Q
Prolonged use of this drug can cause “\_\_\_\_\_ bladder” - haematuria, scarring and
severe pain (severe cases have necessitated removal of the bladder)
A

ketamine

102
Q

DSM-5 (American) and ICD-10 diagnostic requirements for dementia?

A

Requires impairment in 2 or more cognitive domains, sufficient to interfere
with functioning (social or occupational)

*cannot diagnose dementia without a decline in functioning*

Deficits which are too mild or circumscribed to fulfil this definition, are
called Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI).

Remember Dementia is a clinical syndrome and not a disease. Lots of different diseases etc can cause dementia.

103
Q

____ gene increases risk for Alzheimer’s disease and is also associated with an earlier age of disease onset.

A

APOE ε4

Having one or two APOE ε4 alleles increases the risk of developing Alzheimer’s. About 25 percent of people carry one copy of APOE ɛ4, and 2 to 3 percent carry two copies.

104
Q

Potentially reversible differential diagnosis in dementia?

A

• Structural brain lesion (subdural bleed)
• Thyroid disease
• B12 deficiency
• Untreated sleep apnea
• Depression or anxiety
• Alcoholism
• Meds: Benzos, opioids, anticholinergics (diphenhydramine, bladder
drugs, tricyclics), neuroleptics, dopaminergics, other sedatives

105
Q

____ approved to differentiate AD from FTD

A

FDG- PET

Amyloid-PET has just been approved

PET studies have little value in most cases and are expensive.

106
Q

Pharmalogical treatment in dementia?

A

No current treatment slows down neuronal loss in the brain

Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine,
galantamine)

Modest symptom improvement in AD
Sometimes marked improvements in PDD/DLB

Memantine (NMDA recpetor antagonist) Modest benefit in AD

107
Q

_____ is a rapidly progressive neurological condition caused by a mis-folded protein, known as a prion and is an important differential in patients presenting with dementia syndrome.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

It is rare, affecting only around 1 in a million people annually.

Clinical features

There are 2 distinct types, sporadic and variable.

  • Sporadic CJD is familial in around 10-15% of cases while the majority remain idiopathic.
  • Variant CJD is associated with ingesting contaminated beef products.

The prion causes huge cell death in the brain; progressing rapidly (weeks) from mild memory and mood changes to myoclonus, speech and language impairment, seizures and death.

On post mortem, brain tissue samples shows prominent and widespread vacuole development creating a spongiotic appearance. This is associated with also massive neuronal loss. The average life expectancy in CJD is only around 5 months and it is invariably fatal.

108
Q

A child with physically aggressive behaviour, destructive tendencies and problems with stealing has _____ .

A

Conduct disorder

About 50% of children with conduct disorder will meet the criteria for antisocial personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder (diagnosed over 18) and conduct disorder (diagnosed at under 18) share the main feature of a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, with destructive and aggressive behaviour to match this. Antisocial personality disorder is strongly associated with criminal behavior.

An estimated 10% of the general population has some form of personality disorder.

109
Q

Parkinson-plus syndromes

There are four main Parkinson-plus syndromes, which present as Parkinsonism (triad of ___, ____ and ____) with additional clinical features:

Progressive supranuclear palsy

Parkinsonism and _____ .

Multiple system atrophy

Parkinsonism and early autonomic clinical features such as: ____, ____, and _____.

Cortico-basal degeneration

Parkinsonism and involves _____ .

Lewy body dementia

Parkinsonism and fluctuations in _____ and _____ , often before Parkinsonian features occur.

A

resting tremor, hypertonia, and bradykinesia

PSP - vertical gaze palsy (can also have features of prominent frontal lobe dementia - disinhibition etc.

MSA- postural hypotension, incontinence, and impotence

CBD- spontaneous activity by an affected limb, or akinetic rigidity of that limb

LBD - cognitive impairment and visual hallucinations

110
Q

Which 3 drug classes can result in lithium toxicity?

A

ACE inhibitors

NSAID

Thiazide diuretics

111
Q

When do lithium levels need to be taken and what is the normal concentration range?

A

Lithium levels should be taken 12 hours post-dose hence why the drug is usually given in the evening (levels can be taken the next morning).

Levels should be checked 5-7 days after starting therapy or changing a dose and then checked weekly until the lithium levels have been stable for four weeks.

Once stabilised levels should be
checked every three months.

Target concentration is anywhere between 0.4 – 1.0 mmol/L.

The exact target within this range will vary and depend upon the indication for treatment, e.g.
 Acute mania target 0.6 - 1.0 mmol/L (lower in elderly)
 Prophylaxis of bipolar affective disorder 0.4 – 0.8 mmol/L

112
Q

What are the 3 major life threatening side effects to watch out for in clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis (neutropenia)

Myocarditis/Cardiomyopathy

Intestinal Obstruction

With clozapine monitoring blood results are categorised as red, amber and green:

 Red – White cell count < 3 x 109/L, neutrophils < 1.5 x 109/L
o Clozapine must be stopped and FBC monitored until back to normal

 Amber – White cell count 3 – 3.5 x 109/L, neutrophils 1.5 – 2.0 x 109/L
o Clozapine can be continued but FBC should be monitored weekly

 Green – White cell count > 3.5 x 109/L, neutrophils > 2.0 x 109/L
o Clozapine can be continued

Two red results on consecutive days means that clozapine must be stopped and not prescribed for the patient in future.
Clozapine should also be stopped if the patient’s platelets are < 50 x 109/L or eosinophils are >
3.0 x 109/L.

113
Q

Risperidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic and it is a ____ . Out of the second-generation agents, the highest prevalence of ____ is associated with risperidone.

A

dopamine antagonist

hyperprolactinaemia

114
Q

PTSD Mnemonic

A

TRAUMA

Trauma/Trigger

Relive it

Avoidance

Unable to function

More than 1 month

Arousal (increased - irritable/sleep disturbance/lack of concentration/increased vigilance)

115
Q

Core Features of Autism?

How would you investigate further?

A

ABC

Asocial

Behaviour

Communication

Invx further -

Developmental History

  • Fine Motor + Vision
  • Gross Motor
  • Hearing/Speech and Language
  • Social

ADOS (Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule)

Refer CAMHS or Community Paeds

116
Q

Symptoms of PTSD

A

TRAUMA

Traumatic Event

Reliving the experience

Avoidance

Upsetting beliefs/emotions

Month

Arousal