Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 screening tools for autism spectrum disorder? (ASD)

A

ADOS (Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule) - gold standard

ASQ-E2 ( Ages & Stages Questionnaires®: Social-Emotional, Second Edition)

M-Chart

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2
Q

About ___ % of children with Type 1 diabetes present in DKA.

Classical symptoms include ____, ____, and weight loss (usually a result of dehydration).

Other less typical presenting symptoms include _____ and recurrent _____.

A

25-50%

Polyuria
Polydipsia (excessive thirst)
Weight loss

Secondary enuresis (previously dry at night) 
Recurrent infection
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3
Q

Episodes of severe hypoglycaemia where there is an impairment of consciousness. seizures or coma can be treated with _____?

A

IV dextrose (10%)

and

IM Glucagon

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4
Q

Other causes of hypoglycaemia to think about include:

A

Hypothyroidism

Glycogen storage disorders

Fatty acid oxidation defects

Liver cirrhosis

Alcohol

Growth Hormone Deficiency

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5
Q

Long term complications of Hyperglycaemia (poorly controlled diabetes) include:

A

Macrovascular:

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

Stroke

Hypertension

Peripheral Ischaemia (poor healing - ulcers - diabetic foot)

Microvascular:

Peripheral Neuropathy

Retinopathy

Nephropathy (particularly glomerulosclerosis)

Infection related complications:

Pneumonia

UTI’s

Skin and soft tissue infections (particulalry in the feet)

Fungal infections (Candidiasis)

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6
Q

Name the different classes of insulin regimes, their duration of action, and examples of each.

A

Rapid-acting: 4hrs

  • Novorapid
  • FIASP (starts working within 2 mins)
  • Humalog
  • Apidra

*FAHN*

Short-acting : 8hrs

  • Humulin-S
  • Insuman RAPID

HI

Intermediate-acting: 16hrs

  • Insuman BASAL
  • Insulatard
  • Humulin - I

HII

Long Acting: 24+ hrs

  • Levemir (24hrs)
  • Toujeo (36hrs)
  • Tresiba (>42 hrs)

LTT

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7
Q

Delayed puberty is classed as no pubertal development by the age of ___ in boys and ___ in girls.

A

15

14

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8
Q

What are the causes of delayed puberty?

A

Constitutional delay:

The most common cause of delayed puberty is constitutional delay of growth and puberty, in which children are ‘late bloomers’ and enter normal puberty later than their peers. They will eventually reach full normal height and development. Constitutional delay is confirmed with a hand-wrist X-ray to confirm bone age, which is delayed in constitutional bone delay because the epiphyseal plates are late to fuse.

Low gonadotrophin secretion induces pituitary disorders:

  • Craniopharyngiomas
  • Kallmann syndrome
  • Panhypopituitarism
  • Isolated gonadotrophin deficiency)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Systemic disease (e.g. cystic fibrosis or Crohn’s).

High gonadotrophin secretion causes include:

  • Chromosomal disorders (Turner’s XO, Klinefelter’s XXY)
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Acquired hypogonadism (e.g. after chemotherapy)
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9
Q

Reasons for admission in bronchiolitis?

A

Aged under 3 months

Prematurity / Down Syndrome / Cystic Fibrosis

50-75% less of their normal milk intake

Clinical Dehydration

Resp Rate > 70

Oxygen sats < 92%

Signs of respiratory distress

Apnoeas

Parents not confident about managing at home or difficulty accessing medical help from home

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10
Q

Signs of respiratory distress in the infant?

A

Raised respiratory rate

Use of accessory muscles of breathing, such as the sternocleidomastoid, abdominal and intercostal muscles

Intercostal and subcostal recessions

Nasal flaring

Head bobbing

Tracheal tugging

Cyanosis (due to low oxygen saturation)

Abnormal airway noises:

  • Wheezing is a whistling sound caused by narrowed airways, typically heard during expiration
  • Grunting is caused by exhaling with the glottis partially closed to increase positive end-expiratory pressure
  • Stridor is a high pitched inspiratory noise caused by obstruction of the upper airway, for example in croup
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11
Q

Bronchiolitis is caused by which microorganism?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

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12
Q

Management of Bronchiolits?

A

Supportive management. This involves:

  • Ensuring adequate intake. This could be orally, via NG tube or IV fluids depending on the severity. It is important to avoid overfeeding as a full stomach will restrict breathing. Start with small frequent feeds and gradually increase them as tolerated.
  • Saline nasal drops and nasal suctioning can help clear nasal secretions, particularly prior to feeding
  • Supplementary oxygen if the oxygen saturations remain below 92%
  • Ventilatory support if required such as
  1. High flow humidified oxygen (Airvo or Optiflow - Increase postive end-expiratory pressure PEEP to prevent air way collapsing).
  2. CPAP
  3. Intubation

There is little evidence for treatments such as nebulised saline, bronchodilators, steroids and antibiotics.

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13
Q

______ is a monoclonal antibody that targets the respiratory syncytial virus. An injection is given ____ as prevention against bronchiolitis caused by RSV. It is given to high risk babies, such as ____ and those with ____.

A

Palivizumab

Monthly

Ex-Premature

Congenital Heart Disease.

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14
Q

Management of ADHD?

A

Conservative:

  • Parental and child education
  • Diet and Exercise (food diary can be helpful to keep track of certain foods that trigger symptoms such as food colourings etc).

Medication: (CNS stimulants)

  • Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
  • Dexamfetamine
  • Atomoxetine
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15
Q

Slapped Cheek Syndrome or “fifth disease” “Erythema infectiosum” is a self-resolving condition that is caused by which microorganism?

A

Parvovirus B19

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16
Q

Hand dominance normally develops by ___ years and children with a preference before 18 months may indicate _____ or _____

A

2 yrs

18 months

Cerebral palsy or Spastic hemiplegia

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17
Q

Major complicaiton of slapped cheek syndrome or parvovirus B19 infection?

A

Aplastic Anaemia

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18
Q

_____ is the most common cardiac defect in infants of diabetic mothers. This applies to mothers with type 1 and 2 diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes.

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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19
Q

The 2nd most common cardiac defect associated with people with trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome is an ______ , which will have a ____ murmur.

A

Atrio-ventricular septal defect (AVSD)

Pan-systolic

*Pan systolic due to the ventricular septal defect (VSD).

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20
Q

HSP presents with purpura or petechiae on the lower limbs and ____ pain, _____ , and ____ (haematuria +/- proteinuria), due to immunoglobulin deposition in the gut, joints and kidneys respectively.

A

Abdominal

Arthralgia

Nephritis

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21
Q

The most common congenital heart defect in a patient with Turner’s syndrome is ___

5% of babies with Turner syndrome are born with _____.

Frequent bouts of ____ are also more common in children with Turner’s syndrome

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

coarctation of the aorta

otitis media (i.e glue ear if recurrent)

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22
Q

Tet spells can be managed with analgesia and supplemental oxygen. A last line medication is a ____ agent (e.g. ____ ).

A

Vasoconstrictive

Phenylephrine

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23
Q

Duodenal atresia is diagnosed with a characteristic finding of a ‘____’ on abdominal x-ray

A

double bubble

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24
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma typically presented with the ____ (____) periosteal reaction which is visible on x-ray. MRI typically shows a large mass with evidence of necrosis and on histology small ____ cells are visible with clear cytoplasms on haematoxylin and eosin staining.

A

lamellated

onion skinning

blue round

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25
Q

An episode of a generalised tonic-clonic seizure after head trauma with rapid recovery and no post-ictal confusion is consistent with a ___ seizure. This is caused by overactivity of the ___ nerve, causing vasodilation and a collapse from a temporary reduction in cerebral perfusion.

A

reflex anoxic

vagus

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26
Q

____ is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and typically presents with ____ in the ages ___.

A

Minimal change disease

Facial swelling

1-8 yrs old

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27
Q

_____ is diagnosed by a MCUG (micturating cystourethrogram) scan. MCUG is a diagnostic test to visualise the radioactive dye refluxing up into the ureters and/or kidneys.

Scarring of the kidneys is investigated using a ____ test.

A

Vesicouretric reflux

DMSA (radionuclide scan)

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28
Q

_____ is a common disease in children characterised by an initial high fever followed by a maculopapular rash. It is caused by human herpes virus 6. _____ occur in up to 15% of children with the disease.

A

Roseola infantum

Febrile Convulsions

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29
Q

Perianal/vulval itching in a child worse at night with no abnormalities on examination is characteristic of ____ . First line treatment is with oral ____ and hygiene measures for all members of the household.

A

Threadworm (type of parasitic worm)

Mebendazole

Mebendazole is in a class of medications called anthelmintics.

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30
Q

The underlying trigger for the inflammation of the synovial membrane in transient synovitis is a ____ .

A

Preceding viral infection.

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31
Q

Mesenteric adenitis often presents with a history of pain in the ____., usually following an ______ . It does not give a septic picture.

A

right iliac fossa (not similarity to appendicitis)

acute viral illness (usually upper respiratory tract infection)

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32
Q

_____ is a collection of fluid that collects due to pressure on the head during vaginal delivery.

A

Caput succedaneum

(C)aput (s)uccedaneum (c)rosses (s)uture lines. This will usually spontaneously resolve within days.

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33
Q

_____ is a condition caused by sustained and severely elevated levels of _____ bilirubin within the central nervous system.

A

Acute bilirubin encephalopathy

Unconjugated (lipid soluble and so in high doses can cross BBB and cause neurotoxicity)

Conjugated bilirubin is water soluble and thus cannot cross BBB and induce neurotoxicity.

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34
Q

Risk Factors for Sepsis in Paeds:

A
  • Age (<1 year)
  • Impaired immune function (e.g. diabetes, splenectomy, immunosuppressant medication, cancer treatment)
  • Recent surgery in the last six weeks
  • Breach of skin integrity (burns/cuts/skin infections)
  • An indwelling catheter or line.
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35
Q

A child with > 5 days of fever, conjunctivitis, truncal rash, adenopathy, oedema and desquamation of the hands most likely has a diagnosis of ____ .

This is treated with ____ and ______ within 10 days of symptom onset. It is important to start treatment promptly to optimise patient outcomes.

A

Kawasaki disease

High dose aspirin

Intravenous Immunoglobulin

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36
Q

Perthes disease is the idiopathic _____ . It typically presents in boys aged ____ years. There is atraumatic hip pain and a limp. Treatment depends on the degree of joint destruction, and ranges from symptom control and bracing to surgical correction.

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis

5-6

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37
Q

____ is a rare but dangerous condition that is similar to viral croup but the child has a high fever and has rapidly progressive airway obstruction with copious thick airway secretions.

It is caused by ______.

It will not respond to steroid and supportive treatment like croup. Treatment is thus with ____ . In some cases intubation may also be required.

A

Bacterial tracheitis

Staphylococcus aureus

IV antibiotics

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38
Q

Gold standard for a definitive diagnosis of coeliac disease is ____ .

A

Small bowel biopsy

(not Anti-TTG although helpful)

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39
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease presents with ___ on the hands and feet and ____ on the tongue, as well as a fever

A

blisters

ulcerations

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40
Q

____ is the most common finding at paediatric cardiac arrests. ____ is the second most common

A

Asystole

Pulseless electrical activity

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41
Q

Diagnosis of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is through clinical evaluation and a ____ appearance on chest x-ray.

A

‘ground glass’

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42
Q

Paroxysmal cough to the point of vomiting is a red flag suggestive of ____. It is caused by _____ infection, and is diagnosed with a pernasal swab.

A

Whooping cough

Bordetella pertussis

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43
Q

The three core signs of Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia are:

A
  • neutropaenia (recurrent infections)
  • anaemia (pallor, fatigue)
  • thrombocytopaenia (purpuric rash)
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44
Q

The diagnosis of measles is confirmed by checking for ____ either from a blood or ___ sample.

A

measles IgM antibodies

saliva

45
Q

____ is a poorly understood condition that results from ____ treatment of viral infections in children.

A

Reye’s syndrome

aspirin

46
Q

Reye’s syndrome presents with:

A
  • Hepatitis/Hepatomegaly - Abnormal LFTs
  • Vomiting
  • Encephalopathy (slurred speech, lethargy, coma and potentially death).

Can cause hepatomegaly and liver failure (liver swelling)

Primarily occurs in children (although can occur at any age) taking aspirin in response to a viral infection such as chickenpox (VZV)

47
Q

____ is not used in children, with the exception of treatment of Kawasaki disease.

A

Aspirin

48
Q

The ___ Guidelines are used to assess whether patients below the age of ___ are competent to consent to contraceptive medication.

A

Fraser

16

49
Q

What is the most likely causative organism in croup?

A

Parainfluenza Virus

50
Q

An obese adolescent with a painful hip after a minor fall with a widened growth plate on X-ray most likely has a diagnosis of ____ .

The most significant risk factor is being overweight; 80% of affected adolescents are overweight

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).

51
Q

____ is a common cause of respiratory tract infections in a patient with cystic fibrosis. Other common pathogens include Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

52
Q

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip gives a subsequent leg length discrepancy. ____ test is used to indicate whether the shortening is femoral or tibial.

A

Galleazi’s

53
Q

The total maintenance fluid requirements for children over 24-hours are calculated as follows:

A
  • 100ml/kg for the first 10 kg
  • 50ml/kg for the second 10 kg
  • 20ml/kg for each kilogram over 20 kg.
54
Q

Features of innocent murmurs include:

_____ illnesses can accentuate innocent murmurs, and once the infection has resolved it is important to review the child to see if the murmur persists.

A
  • Localised with no radiation
  • May vary with posture
  • Soft systolic murmur with no diastolic component
  • No heaves or thrills
  • Asymptomatic
  • No added sounds

Febrile

55
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited by ___ . It presents with ____ and poor feeding in infancy, developmental delay in early childhood, and learning disabilities, ____, hyperphagia and obesity in older childhood. Parents commonly report children will eat anything and everything and be hungry all the time, to the extent that they have to lock everything in the house and the child will even eat bars of soap if left unsupervised.

A

genomic imprinting

hypotonia

short stature

56
Q

____ describes a patient that has to use their hands and arms to ‘walk’ up their own body in order to stand up from a supine position. This is classically seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) due to ____ weakness. All boys that are not walking by the age of 1 1/2 years should have ____ measured, to rule out DMD.

A

Gowers’ sign

proximal muscle

creatinine levels

57
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of Kawasaki disease include fever for >5 days, and 4/5 of the ‘CREAM’ features:

A

Conjunctivitis

Rash

Edema/Erythema of hands and feet

Adenopathy (cervical, commonly unilateral)

Mucosal involvement (strawberry tongue, oral fissures etc)

58
Q

The rash is a malar rash with eyelid involvement, characteristic of _____ . ~50% of patients are positive for auto-antibodies but they are myositis specific ones. Even with the the antibody profile, ESR is still most likely to be raised in an untreated patient.

A

Juvenile dermatomyositis (JDM)

59
Q

Ventricular septal defects (VSD) classically cause a ____ murmur loudest at the left lower sternal border; the louder the murmur the smaller the defect.

A

harsh pansystolic

60
Q

The classical triad of Nephrotic syndrome is:

A
  • Oedema (usually periorbital)
  • Proteinuria
  • Hypoalbuminaemia

Nephrotic syndrome can also cause hyperlipidaemia

61
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism presents with:

A
  • An enlarged tongue (macroglossia)
  • Constipation
  • Hypotonia
  • Jaundice
  • Poor feeding
  • Poor brain development
62
Q

Impetigo classically presents as a ___ rash with discrete patches that have a golden crusting. It is caused by ___ and _____. Impetigo is managed with ____ .

A

Pruritic

Staph and Strep bacteria

Topical Fusidic Acid

Oral flucloxacillin may also help.

It is highly infectious. Patients should not share towels and should not attend school or work until they have completed 48 hours of antibiotic treatment

63
Q

Duct dependent congenital heart disease is managed with prostaglandins such as ____

A

Alprostadil

64
Q

A teenager with learning difficulties and epilepsy, social anxiety, poor eye contact, echolalia (repeating your speech), mitral valve prolapse and prominent ears and jaw with a long thin face most likely has a diagnosis of _____ . The underlying genetic defect in fragile X syndrome is a ____ in the FMR1 (familial mental retardation 1) gene.

A

fragile X syndrome

trinucleotide repeat

Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disabilities.

65
Q

Fragile X syndrome presents with features including:

A

A long face

Extra large testicles

Jaw and ears

Social anxiety

Autistic spectrum features

66
Q

Patients with fragile X syndrome are at an increased risk of ____ and epilepsy

A

mitral valve prolapse

67
Q

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) is the most common ___ vessel vasculitis in children. It most commonly affects children aged ___

HSP is commonly preceded by a ___ infection.

A

small

3-5

viral upper respiratory tract

68
Q

Common presentations of ____ include stealing, bullying, lying, fighting, fire-setting and cruelty to animals. Temper tantrums which are not age-appropriate can also be seen.

A

conduct disorder

69
Q

Hyper-inflated lungs and a fluid level in a newborn is the characteristic presentation of ____ , especially in ____ deliveries.

A

transient tachypnoea in the newborn

caesarean section

Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is a parenchymal lung disorder characterised by pulmonary oedema resulting from delayed resorption and clearance of foetal alveolar fluid

It is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in the term baby.

Treatment is with oxygen. TTN should resolve in a couple of days with resorption of lung fluid.

70
Q

____ micrograms of 1:1000 IM adrenaline is the correct dose for children under age 6.

____ micrograms of 1:1000 IM adrenaline is the correct dose for children 6-12

____ micrograms of 1:1000 IM adrenaline is the correct dose for children aged over 12 to adults.

A

150

300

500

71
Q

Which finding from the echocardiogram is most important in determining the severity of cyanosis in a newborn with TOF?

A

The degree to which the outflow from the right ventricle is reduced.

72
Q

Five stages of chronic kidney disease:

Stage 1 with normal or high GFR (GFR > ___ mL/min) + evidence of renal damage

Stage 2 Mild CKD (GFR = ___ mL/min)

Stage 3A Moderate CKD (GFR = ___ mL/min)

Stage 3B Moderate CKD (GFR = ___ mL/min)

Stage 4 Severe CKD (GFR = ___ mL/min) - pre-dialysis

Stage 5 End Stage CKD (GFR

A

Five stages of chronic kidney disease

Stage 1 with normal or high GFR (GFR > 90 mL/min) + evidence of renal damage

Stage 2 Mild CKD (GFR = 60-89 mL/min)

Stage 3A Moderate CKD (GFR = 45-59 mL/min)

Stage 3B Moderate CKD (GFR = 30-44 mL/min)

Stage 4 Severe CKD (GFR = 15-29 mL/min)

Stage 5 End Stage CKD (GFR <15 mL/min)

73
Q

The only drug of its class (SSRI) licensed for use in patients under 18 years of age is ____.

A

Fluoxetine

74
Q

A baby with a collapsing pulse, continuous machine-like murmur and apnoeic episodes with bradycardia most likely has a _____.

If symptomatic, this can be managed medically with a prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor (NSAID) like _____, causing vasoconstriction to close the duct.

A

Persistent ductus arteriosus

Indomethacin

75
Q

If coeliac disease is not properly managed with a gluten-free diet long-term, there is an increased risk of ____ and _____ cancers.

A

Lymphomas (such as EATL - enteropathy associated T-cell lymphoma)

Small bowel adenocarcinomas

76
Q

A ________ is used to diagnose Meckels’ diverticulum and will highlight ectopic gastric mucosa in a symptomatic patient. This is the commonest cause of per rectal bleeding in a child.

A

Technetium scan (radioactive metastable technetium-99)

77
Q

ASD is also common in trisomy 21 and causes an ____ murmur at the _____ . The first heart sound is normal but there is wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound.

A

ejection systolic

upper left sternal edge

78
Q

What are the characteristic skin changes seen in dermatomyositis?

A
  • Heliotrope rash: a purple rash on the eyelids
  • Gottron’s papules: red papules on the dorsal aspect of the finger joints.
  • Shawl rash: erythema across the upper back and shoulders
  • Nailfold erythema
79
Q

The diagnostic investigation for dermato myositis is ____. Which antibodies can help suspect a diagnosis?

A

A muscle biopsy

Anti-Jo-1 antibodies: polymyositis (but often present in dermatomyositis)

Anti-Mi-2 antibodies: dermatomyositis.

Anti-nuclear antibodies: dermatomyositis.

80
Q

5-15% of cases of poly/dermatomyositis are secondary to ____ and should be looked for, especially in dermatomyositis as the association is much stronger than for polymyositis.

A

An underlying malignancy - This makes them paraneoplastic syndromes

The cancers that are most commonly associated with PM/DM include:

Lung

Oesophagus

Breast

Colon

Ovary

81
Q

Elevated serum enzymes in DermatoMyositis and PolyMyositis can be remembered by the mnemonic

DM and PM turn your muscles into CLAAA (clay):

A

Creatine kinase

Lactate dehydrogenase

Aldolase

ALT

AST

*Creatine kinase is always raised in inflammatory myopathic disorders like polymyositis and dermatomyositis. It is not unusual for it to be up to 50 times the upper limit of normal in active disease)

82
Q

____ is the 1st line treatment for both dermato and polymyositis.

A

Corticosteroids (ex. prednisolone)

83
Q

The excessive production of a single type of WBC in the bone marrow in leukemia can lead to suppression of the other cell lines known as _____. This causes:

A

Pancytopaenia

  1. Low RBCs (Anaemia)
  2. Low WBCs (Leukopenia)
  3. Low platelets (thrombocytopaenia)
84
Q

______ are giant B cells seen in patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma. They are typically multinucleated and contain inclusions.

A

Reed- Sternberg cells

85
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s disease is established histologically by taking a biopsy at least 1.5 cm above the pectinate line, to demonstrate acetylcholinesterase positive nerve excess and the absence of ganglion cells.

A
86
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality is a complication of bronchiolitis?

A

Hyponatraemia is commonly seen as a complication in bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

87
Q

1st line treatment of impetgio is ____

A

Topical fusidic acid

88
Q

The most common form of congenital heart defect in infants of diabetic mothers is _____.

A

transposition of the great vessels

89
Q

Precipitants of transient proteinuria (benign) in children include ____, strong ____ , pregnancy and heavy exercise.

A

Seizures

Infections

90
Q

Management of croup can be remembered with an acronym.

A

The management can be remembered with the acronym ODA:

Oxygen (humidified)

Dexamethasone PO 0.15g/kg or budesonide neb 2mg

Adrenaline nebulised (5ml 1:5000)

91
Q

Potter’s syndrome describes the typical physical appearance caused by pressure in utero due to ____ , classically due to _____

A

oligohydramnios

bilateral renal agenesis

92
Q

As a neonate, cystic fibrosis may present acutely with _____.

A

Meconium Ileus

This is due to viscous meconium (from thick mucus) that causes a delay in passing meconium and even gastrointestinal obstruction. Meconium ileus is diagnosed and treated with a gastrograffin enema. May also require surgical intervention.

93
Q

Wilm’s tumour is the most common abdominal tumour in children. It is also known as nephroblastoma and is most common in children under ___ . It presents with a palpable abdominal mass, distension and ___

A

5 (peak incidence 3-4) - remember bald patient screaming on ward and throwing ball.

haematuria

Wilm’s tumours typically do not cross the midline but in up to 5% of cases they may be bilateral.

94
Q

If a neonate has a ‘clunk’ on examination of the hips with the ____ test (dislocation on pushing perpendicular femur down into the bed) and ____ test (relocation on abduction of the hips) this is suggestive of ______ . This needs to be investigated further with a _____ .

A

Barlow

Ortolani

developmental dysphasia of the hip

hip ultrasound

95
Q

Aspirin should not be given to children under ___ years old because of its association with ____.

A

12

Reye’s syndrome

96
Q

Reye’s syndrome causes ___ and _____ which occurs in children under 12 who are given aspirin during the acute phase of a _____. Liver biopsies show microvesicular steatosis and venous collapse. Treatment is supportive, and often requires ITU admission. _____ can be used to lower ammonia levels.

A

Acute liver failure

Non-inflammatory hepatic encephalopathy

Viral infection

Lactulose

97
Q

An obstructive picture on asthma gives a FEV1/FVC of _____. A bronchodiltor reversibilty (BDR) test should increase this by at least ___ for a diagnosis of asthma. If there is no reversibilty then you can perfrom a ____ test.

A

< 70%

12%

FeNO

98
Q

All children with Asthma should be offered the _____ vaccine in winter. This can be given via ___ or ____ routes.

Children with asthma should have a review at least every _____. At this review the most important thing they need to have is an ____.

A

Influenza (may be certain scenarios where patient also needs pneumococcal vaccine)

IM

Nebulised (note that this version should be avoided in immunocompromised patients as it is a live attenuated vaccine)

12 months

asthma action plan

99
Q

Components of the APGAR score

There are 5 components to the APGAR score: _____, _____, _____, _____ and ____.

A

The Apgar score is a test given to newborns soon after birth. This test checks a baby’s heart rate, muscle tone, and other signs to see if extra medical care or emergency care is needed. Babies usually get the test twice: 1 minute after birth, and again 5 minutes after they’re born.

Appearance

Appearance relates to the colour of the child. A score of 2 is for a pink baby, 1 if the baby is blue peripherally but pink centrally, and 0 if the baby is blue all over.

Pulse

Pulse: a heart rate of >100 beats per minute scores 2, <100 scores 1, and a non-detectable heart rate scores 0.

Grimace

Grimace relates to the response to stimulation: crying on stimulation scores 2, a grimace scores 1, and no response scores 0.

Activity

Activity: Flexed limbs that resists extension score 2, some flexion scores 1, and a floppy baby scores 0.

Respiration

Respiration: a strong cry scores 2, a weak cry scores 1, and no respiratory effort scores 0.

100
Q

Scores for each component of the APGAR are added up to an overall score out of ____

A score of ____ is reassuring

A score of ____ requires stimulation

A score of ____ requires resuscitation

Newborns are assessed at ___,___ and ___ minutes.

A

10

>7 - reassuring

4-6 - requires stimulation

< 4 - resuscitation

1, 5​ and 10 minutes

101
Q

Patients are infectious up to ____ days before lesions appear and up until the last lesion dries (i.e crusts over) . The incubation period for chicken pox is up to ____

A

3 days

3 weeks

102
Q

One of the physically demonstrable symptoms of meningitis is ______ sign. Severe neck stiffness causes a patient’s hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed.

A

Brudzinski’s

103
Q

Why is 5 rescue breaths administered before chest compressions in paediatrics?

A

Respiratory causes of arrest more likely (i.e hypoxia) than cardiac as in adults.

104
Q

What is the metabolic abnormality associated with pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypocholoric metabolic alkalosis

105
Q

_____ is a commonly seen metabolic complication in bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

A

Hyponatraemia

106
Q

Whilst bronchiolitis obliterans (aka ____) is a relatively rare complication of bronchiolitis it is most commonly associated with _____ infection.

A

popcorn lung

adenovirus

Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO), also known as obliterative bronchiolitis, constrictive bronchiolitis and popcorn lung, is a disease that results in obstruction of the smallest airways of the lungs (bronchioles) due to inflammation

107
Q

The MHRA advises that codeine should be contrainidcated in ____ and also children who have undergone adeno/tonsillectomy surgery who have Obstructive Sleep Apnoea.

This is because a % of the child population (6% of caucasians) are rapid metabolisers of codeine due to an increased activity of the ____ enzyme.

A

Children under 12 years

CYP2D6

108
Q

Pharmacokinetics in children (ADME)

Absorption

Most paediatric drugs are oral • Developmental changes in gut pH, gastric emptying, intestinal drug -metabolising enzymes, can all affect drug absorption.

• In general absorption is ____ in the very young. For example higher gastric pH in children results in a slower absorption of phenytoin and thus requires a IV loading dose and higher oral maintenance doses.

Consider other routes – e.g. Topical or inhaled corticosteroids (this can be faster - i.e higher serum concentration reached)

Distribution

Children have ____ extracellular and total body water compartments.

The permeability of the BBB is also different and so is the level of ____ protein

Metabolism

Phase I • Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis or hydration •Predominantly catalysed by cytochrome P450 enzymes (e.g. CYP3A4, CYP1A2, CYP2D6)

Phase II • Conjugation to form polar compounds (so that they can be excreted) • Usually glucuronidation (e.g. by UGT2B7) or sulphation

Excretion

Renal clearance different in children.

Aminoglycosides (i.e Gentamicin) eliminated primarily by glomerular filtration.

  • Aminoglycosides are also nephrotoxic
  • Dosing Adjustments may be needed (i.e Longer dosing intervals and lower initial dose in infants (especially preterm) to avoid accumulation)
A

Slower

Larger body water %

Circulating plasma proteins (albumin)