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Fluid Volume > Psychiatric Meds > Flashcards

Psychiatric Meds Flashcards

1
Q

Atypical antipsychotics

A

Clozaril, Risperidal, Seroquel, Zyprexa, Abilify, Geodon, Invega, Latuda, Saphris, Fanapt

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2
Q

Anti-Manic & Mood Stabilizing Drugs

A

Lithium, Depakote, Lamictal, Tegretol, Trileptal

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3
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants

A

Anfranil, Elavil, Norpramin, Pamelor, Sinequan, Tofranil,Vivactil

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4
Q

SSRIs

A

Prozac, Paxil, Celexa, Zoloft, Luvox, Lexapro, St. John’s Wort

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5
Q

MAOIs

A

Marplan, Nardil, Parnate, EMSAM-Patch

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6
Q

SNRI

A

Effexor, Pristiq, Cymbalta

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7
Q

Benzodiazepines/ Anxiolytics

A

Ativan, Klonopin, Librium, Tranxene, Valium, Xanax

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8
Q

other compounds

A

Wellbutrin

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9
Q

Typical Antipsychotics

A

Haldol, Mellaril, Prolixin, Stelazine, Thorazine, Moban, Loxitane, Serentil, Trilafon,

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10
Q

EPS Side Effect Treatment Agents

A

Artane, Benadryl, Cogentin, Symmetrel

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11
Q

Non-Benzodiazepine- Anxiolytics

A

Buspar, Inderal, Kava-Kava, Vistaril

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12
Q

Hypnotics & Herbals

A

Ambien, Desyrel, Lunesta, Melatonin, Restoril, Valerian, Sonata, Rozerem

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13
Q

Substance Abuse Related Drugs

A

Antabuse, Campral, Catapress, Methadone, Suboxone, Topamax

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14
Q

CNS Stimulants- ADHD Treatment

A

Adderall, Focalin, Ritalin, Strattera, Vyvanse

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15
Q

Nursing Interventions for Atypical Antipsychotics

A

Blood Pressure Checks, BMI measurements, blood glucose, lipids, monitor for hyperglycemia, assess for sedation or hypotension

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16
Q

Atypical Antipsychotics Side Effects

A

risk of metabolic syndrome, increased weight, blood glucose, triglycerides, hypotension, sedation, dizziness

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17
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants Side Effects

A

dizziness, drowsiness, diarrhea, dry mouth, urinary retention, and orthostatic hypotension serious adverse reactions are paralytic ileus, acute renal failure, hypertension, and hypertensive crisis, depending on the specific product.

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18
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants Nursing Interventions

A

Blood Pressure, pulse, Monitor laboratory studies, weight increase, appetite increase, mental status, mood, sensorium, affect, suicidal tendencies,Urinary retention, constipation

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19
Q

Which medication is indicated for Parkinson’s dementia (mild to moderate)

A

Rivastigime

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20
Q

Which medication is FDA indicated for Parkinson’s disease psychosis?

A

Pimavanserin (Nuplazid)

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21
Q

What is the MOST effective treatment for Parkinson’s?

A

Levodopa/Carbidopa (Sinemet)

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22
Q

What is an unpleasant side effect of amantadine (Symmetrel)?

A

Confusion/memory problems

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23
Q

What two neurotransmitters are regulated in Parkinson’s disease with anitcholinergics?

A

Dopamine and Acetylcholine

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24
Q

Which medication can be used in all stages of Alzeheimer’s

A

Donepezil (Aricept)

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25
Q

Should galantamine (Razadyne) be used with renal impairment?

A

Should be used with caution in those with renal and hepatic impairment.

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26
Q

What is the MOA of memantine (Namenda)

A

NMDA glutamate receptor

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27
Q

What is the Aricept/Namenda combination medication

A

Namzaric

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28
Q

Are there any FDA approved medications for dementia related behavioral distrubances?

A

No, everything is off-label.

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29
Q

What test is required prior to starting Nuedexta?

A

ECG

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30
Q

Which medication is FDA approved for anorexia nervosa

A

No FDA medication approved; can use SSRIs and antipsychotics off label for the treatment of comorbid depression/anxiety/mood

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31
Q

Which medication is FDA approved for bulimia

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac) 60-80mg daily

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32
Q

Which medication is FDA approved for binge eating disorder?

A

Lisadexamfetamine (Vyvanse).

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33
Q

Can you use Vyvanse in those with hyperthyroidism?

A

No, contraindicated in hyperthyroidism and glaucoma

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34
Q

What two medications are used for alcohol abstinence

A

acomprosate (Campral) and disulfiram (Antabuse)

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35
Q

How long should a client be abstinent of alcohol before starting disulfiram (antabuse)?

A

at least 12 hours from last drink

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36
Q

Should a person with ESRD be prescribed acomprosate (Campral)

A

No, this medication is contraindicated in renal impairment

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37
Q

What two medications are used for etoh dependence?

A

Nalmefene (Selincro) and Naltrexone (Vivitrol)

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38
Q

What two class of medications are used for etoh withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepines and alpha 2 agonist

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39
Q

What can happen when methadone (Dolophine) is mixed with other CNS depressants?

A

Death

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40
Q

What medical issues are contraindicated with methadone (Dolophine) use?

A

Respiratory depression, acute or severe bronchial asthma, gastrointestinal obstruction including a paralytic ileus

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41
Q

What is the MOA of buprenorphine (Suboxone)?

A

Suboxone is an opioid partial agonist that binds to opiate receptors, preventing exogenous opioids from binding.

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42
Q

How long must a client be clean before starting naltrexone (Vivitrol)?

A

The client must be opioid free for 7-10 days before starting treatment and must be confirmed by drug screens

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43
Q

What are all the forms of NRT?

A

Gum, Patch, Nasal Spray, and Inhaler.

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44
Q

What part of the brain is thought to be involved with ADHD?

A

Prefrontal Cortex

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45
Q

Which neurotransmitters are involved with ADHD?

A

Dopamine and norepinephrine

46
Q

What measure tools are used in diagnosing ADHD?

A

Connors and Vanderbilt

47
Q

What are the types of ADHD?

A

Combined, predominately inattentive, and predominately hyperactive-impulsive

48
Q

Symptoms of impulsivity appear to involve which area of the brain?

A

Orbitofrontal cortex

49
Q

What is the mechanism of actions of stimulants?

A

Increasing norepinephrine and dopamine by blocking reuptake

50
Q

What part of family medical history is extremely important before prescribing stimulants?

A

Cardiac disease history

51
Q

What medical condition is contraindicated with stimulant use?

A

Glaucoma

52
Q

What can delay peak action of stimulants for 2-3 hours?

A

Taking the stimulant dose with food

53
Q

What test and vitals are important to monitor with stimulants

A

ECG, BP, height, weight

54
Q

What medical conditions are amphetamine used in caution with?

A

Hepatic and cardiac impairments

55
Q

Which medication condition is contraindicated with use of Vyvanse?

A

Hyperthyroidism

56
Q

What labs should be monitored periodically with Vyvanse?

A

CBC, platelets, and LFTs

57
Q

People that lose their appetite for dinner may benefit from which two stimulant options?

A

Metadate CD and Ritalin LA

58
Q

What is a rare side effect of methylphenidates?

A

Priapism

59
Q

Which SNRI is FDA approved for ADHD ages 6 and older?

A

Straterra

60
Q

How long can it take for Strattera to be effective?

A

2-3 months

61
Q

What is the MOA of clonidine?

A

Alpha 2 agonist but also norepinephrine receptor agonist

62
Q

Which enzyme metabolizes guanfacine?

A

CYP450 3A4

63
Q

Which antipsychotic is FDA indicated for Autism related irritability ages 5-16?

A

Risperdal

64
Q

What is designed to provide guidelines in prescribing high risk medications in the elderly?

A

Beers criteria

65
Q

How does a practitioner decide on medications in pregnancy?

A

Risk vs benefit discussion

66
Q

What is recommended to supplement with Lamictal if taken when pregnant?

A

Extra folic acid

67
Q

What is lithium levels so important to monitor frequently in pregnancy?

A

Due to fluid shifts

68
Q

What the “D”s in the D approach in deprescribing?

A

Diagnosis, dangerous, dosages, duplicate, deficient, desire, and duration

69
Q

Which SSRI is FDA indicated for bulimia nervosa?

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)

70
Q

Which two SSRIs are FDA approved for treating children with MDD?

A

i. Escitalopram (Lexapro) 12 and up, ii. Fluoxetine (Prozac) 8 and up

71
Q

Which SSRI is not FDA approved for MDD or depression?

A

Fluvoxamine (Luvox) (OCD)

72
Q

Which SSRI should be dosed at night due to sedation?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil), long 1/2 life life

73
Q

Which SSRIs are FDA indicated for PMDD? There are 3 of them.

A

i. Fluoxetine (Prozac), ii. Paroxetine (Paxil), and iii. Sertraline (Zoloft)

74
Q

Which enzyme does Duloxetine (Cymbalta) inhibit? And can you remember from week one what other substance inhibits this exact enzyme.

A

CYP450 1A2 and the substance is cigarettes (nicotine)

75
Q

Which SNRI is indicated for MDD and neuropathic pain?

A

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

76
Q

What OTC medication can reduce clearance of Venlafaxine (Effexor)?

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet HB)

77
Q

What vital signs should be assessed before initation of Levomilnacipran (Fetzima)?

A

i. Heart rate and ii. blood pressure

78
Q

Which SNRI is not FDA indicated for mental illness disorders?

A

Milnacipran (Savella)

79
Q

Which antidepressant is contraindicated with epilepsy or eating disorders?

A

Buproprion (Wellbutrin)

80
Q

Which class of antidepressants are known for a three ring structure?

A

TCA’s

81
Q

What is the biggest concern with prescribing TCA’s to a suicidal client?

A

Overdose, this should be not given to a suicidal client if you can avoid, but if necessary, no more than a weeks supply should be considered; only takes 7x normal dose for OD; bicarbonate is needed to reverse

82
Q

What ingredient in food should be avoided in those taking a MAOI?

A

Tyramine

83
Q

Which OTC class of medications should be avoided with MAOIs?

A

Cold medicines

84
Q

Which pain medication can increase risk for seizures in those taking antidepressants?

A

Tramadol (Ultram)

85
Q

Which populations require a lower recommended starting dose of antidepressants?

A

i. Elderly and ii. children

86
Q

What is the black box warning for antidepressants?

A

May increase risk of suicidality, especially in young adults

87
Q

What are symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

i. Shivering, ii. Hyper-reflexia/ myoclonus iii. Increased temperatures, iv. Vital sign instability, v. Encephalopathy/altered LOC, vi. Restlessness, vii. Sweating

88
Q

How many days must the client wait after discontinuation of a MAOI before starting a SSRI?

A

14 days

89
Q

What labs are necessary prior to starting Carbamazepine (Tegretol)?

A

i. CBC, ii. LFTs, iii. kidney and iv. thyroid function.

90
Q

If taking Lamotrigine (Lamictal) what is the most deadly side effect? And how many days can a patient miss before starting back at initial dosing?

A

i. Stevens Johnson Syndrome. ii. 5 days or more must restart at initial dosing.

91
Q

What is the therapeutic range for lithium?

A

0.6-1.2mEq/L

92
Q

What are symptoms of severe lithium toxicity?

A

i. Hyperthermia, ii. hypotension, iii. seizures, iv. renal failure, v. coma, vi. death

93
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Valproate (Depakote)?

A

50-125ug/mL

94
Q

Which neurotransmitter is directly related to Alzheimer’s and impaired memory?

A

Acetylcholine

95
Q

Which amino acid has excitatory properties, and an increase presents as bipolar affective disorder?

A

Glutamate

96
Q

Which neurotransmitter reduces arousal, aggression, and anxiety?

A

GABA

97
Q

Which neurotransmitter is related to extrapyramidal side effects and prolactin dysregulation?

A

Dopamine

98
Q

Which neurotransmitter is related to depression and anxiety and is found in the brain as well as the GI system?

A

Serotonin

99
Q

What is the outermost layer of the cerebrum?

A

Cerebral Cortex

100
Q

What is the largest part of the brain?

A

Cerebrum

101
Q

What is the newest identified lobe of the brain?

A

Insula

102
Q

Wrinkled ball of tissue that helps coordinate movement?

A

Cerebellum

103
Q

Name the three parts of the brainstem

A

i. Midbrain, ii. medulla oblongata, and iii. pons

104
Q

Thinking, planning, organizing, problems solving, and short-term memory are in which lobe?

A

Frontal

105
Q

Temperature, taste, touch, and movement are process in which lobe of the brain?

A

Parietal

106
Q

Which brain lobe process primarily vision and has been linked to visual hallucinations?

A

Occipital

107
Q

Which lobe of the brain processes memories, integrating them with sensations of taste, sound, sight, and touch?

A

Temporal

108
Q

Which lobe of the brain is associated with conscious desires and decodes bodily states?

A

Insula

109
Q

Which lobe of the brain is associated with conscious desires and decodes bodily states?

A

Insula

110
Q

What structure processes all incoming information except for smell?

A

Thalamus “Hal”.

111
Q

What structure processes all incoming information except for smell?

A

Thalamus “Hal”.

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