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Fluid Volume > Nclex Hint > Flashcards

Nclex Hint Flashcards

1
Q

Sodium:

A

135-145 mEq/L

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2
Q

Potassium:

A

3.5-5.5 mEq/L

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3
Q

Calcium:

A

8.5-10.9 mg/L

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4
Q

Chloride:

A

95-105 mEq/L

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5
Q

Magnesium:

A

1.5-2.5 mEq/L

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6
Q

Phosphorus:

A

2.5-4.5 mg/dL

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7
Q

RBC:

A

4.5-5.0 million

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8
Q

WBC:

A

5,000-10,000

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9
Q

Platelet.:

A

200,000-400,000

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10
Q

Hgb:

A

12-16 gms women; 14-18 gms men

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11
Q

HC03:

A

24-26 mEq/L

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12
Q

C02:

A

35-45 mEq/L

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13
Q

Pa02:

A

80%-100%

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14
Q

Sa02:

A

> 95%

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15
Q

Glucose:

A

70-110 mg/dL

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16
Q

Specific gravity:

A

1.010-1.030

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17
Q

BUN:

A

7-22 mg/dL

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18
Q

Serum creatinine:

A

0.6-1.35 mg/dL (< 2 in older adults)

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19
Q

LDH:

A

100-190 U/L

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20
Q

CPK:

A

21-232 U/L

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21
Q

Uric acid:

A

3.5-7.5 mg/dL

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22
Q

Triglyceride:

A

40-50 mg/dL

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23
Q

Total cholesterol:

A

130-200 mg/dL

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24
Q

Bilirubin:

A

< 1.0 mg/dL

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25
Q

Protein:

A

6.2-8.1 g/dL

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26
Q

Albumin:

A

3.4-5.0 g/dL

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27
Q

Digoxin:

A

0.5-2.0 ng/ml

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28
Q

Lithium:

A

0.8-1.5 mEq/L

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29
Q

Dilantin:

A

10-20 mcg/dL

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30
Q

Theophylline:

A

10-20 mcg/dL

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31
Q

Heart rate:

A

80-100

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32
Q

Respiratory rate:

A

12-20

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33
Q

Blood pressure:

A

110-120 (systolic); 60-90 (diastolic)

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34
Q

Temperature:

A

98.6°F

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35
Q

FHR:

A

120-160 BPM

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36
Q

FHR Variability:

A

6-10 BPM.

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37
Q

Contractions: normal frequency

A

2-5 minutes apart

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38
Q

Contractions normal duration

A

< 90 sec.

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39
Q

Contractions intensity

A

< 100 mm/hg.

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40
Q

Amniotic fluid:

A

500-1200 ml (nitrozine urine-litmus paper green/amniotic fluid-litmus paper blue)

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41
Q

APGAR meaning

A

A = appearanceP = pulses, G = grimace, A = activity, R = reflexes

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42
Q

APGAR scoring done at

A

1 and 5 minutes

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43
Q

APGAR scoring:

A

0 for absent, 1 for decreased, and 2 for strongly positive

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44
Q

AVA:

A

The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein (Arteries carry deoxygenated blood. The vein carries oxygenated blood.)

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45
Q

FAB 9—Folic acid = B9

A

B stands for brain (decreases the incidence of neural tube defects); the client should begin taking B9 three months prior to becoming pregnant.

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46
Q

Decelerations are _______________findings on the fetal monitoring strip.

A

abnormal

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47
Q

Decelerations are classified as

A

Early, Variable and Late

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48
Q

Early decelerations

A

Begin prior to the peak of the contraction and end by the end of the contraction. They are caused by head compression. There is no need for intervention if the variability is within normal range (that is, there is a rapid return to the baseline fetal hear

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49
Q

Variable decelerations

A

noted as V-shaped on the monitoring strip. Variable decels can occur anytime during monitoring of the fetus. They are caused by cord compression. The intervention is to change the mother’s position; if pitocin is infusing, stop infusion, alert physician

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50
Q

Late decelerations

A

Occur after the peak of the contraction and mirror the contraction in length and intensity. These are caused by uteroplacental insuffiency. The intervention is to change the mother’s position; if pitocin is infusing, stop the infusion; apply oxygen;, and

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51
Q

TORCHS syndrome in the neonate

A

A combination of diseases including toxoplasmosis, rubella (German measles), cytomegalovirus, herpes, and syphyllia. Pregnant nurses should not be assigned to care for the client with toxoplasmosis or cytomegalovirus.

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52
Q

STOP-This is the treatment for maternal hypotension after an epidural anesthesia:

A
  1. Stop pitocin if infusing. 2. Turn the client on the left side. 3. Administer oxygen. 4. If hypovolemia is present, push IV fluids.
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53
Q

Coumadin (sodium warfarin) PT:

A

10-12 sec. (control).

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54
Q

The antidote for Coumadin is

A

vitamin K.

55
Q

Heparin/Lovenox/Dalteparin PTT:

A

30-45 sec. (control).

56
Q

The antidote for Heparin is

A

protamine sulfate.

57
Q

Therapeutic level: It is important to maintain a bleeding time that is slightly prolonged so that clotting will not occur; therefore, the bleeding time with mediication should be:

A

1 1/2-2 times the control.

58
Q

The control (for anticoagulants) is

A

the premedication bleeding time.

59
Q

Rule of nines for calculating TBSA for burns

A

Head = 9% ; Arms = 18% (9% each) ; Back = 18% ; Legs = 36% (18% each) ; Genitalia = 1%

60
Q

Arab American cultural attributes

A

Females avoid eye contact with males; touch is accepted if done by same-sex healthcare providers; most decisions are made by males; Muslims (Sunni) refuse organ donation; most Arabs do not eat pork; they avoid icy drinks when sick or hot/cold drinks toget

61
Q

Asian American cultural attributes

A

They avoid direct eye contact; feet are considered dirty (the feet should be touched last during assessment); males make most of the decisions; they usually refuse organ donation; they generally do not prefer cold drinks, believe in the “hot-cold” theory

62
Q

Native American cultural attributes

A

They sustain eye contact; blood and organ donation is generally refused; they might refuse circumcision; may prefer care from the tribal shaman rather than using western medicine.

63
Q

Mexican American cultural attributes

A

They might avoid direct eye contact with authorities; they might refuse organ donation; most are very emotional during bereavement; believe in the “hot-cold” theory of illness.

64
Q

Jehovah’s Witness

A

No blood products should be used

65
Q

Hindu

A

No beef or items containing gelatin

66
Q

Jewish

A

Special dietary restrictions, use of kosher foods

67
Q

Renal diet

A

High calorie, high carbohydrate, low protein, low potassium, low sodium, and fluid restricted to intake = output + 500 ml

68
Q

Gout diet

A

Low purine; omit poultry (“cold chicken”) medication for acute episodes: Colchicine; maintenance medication: Zyloprim

69
Q

Heart healthy diet

A

Low fat (less than 30% of calories should be from fat)

70
Q

ROME (respiratory opposite/metabolic equal) is a quick way of remembering that:

A

in respiratory acid/base disorders the pH is opposite to the other components. For example, in respiratory acidosis, the pH is below normal and the C02 is elevated, as is the HC03 (respiratory opposite). In metabolic disorders, the components of the lab

71
Q

pH down, C02 up, and HC03 up:

A

respiratory acidosis

72
Q

pH down, C02 down, and HC03 down:

A

metabolic acidosis

73
Q

pH up, C02 down, and HC03 down:

A

respiratory alkalosis

74
Q

pH up, C02 up, and HC03 up :

A

metabolic alkalosis

75
Q

Addison’s and Cushing’s are diseases of the __________________ system involving either overproduction or inadequate production of cortisol.

A

endocrine

76
Q

Treatment for the client with Addison’s:

A

increase sodium intake; medications include cortisone preparations.

77
Q

Treatment for the client with Cushing’s:

A

restrict sodium; observe for signs of infection.

78
Q

Treatment for spider bites/bleeding

A

RICE (rest, ice, compression, and elevate extremity)

79
Q

Treatment for sickle cell crises

A

HHOP (heat, hydration, oxygen, pain medications)

80
Q

Five Ps of fractures and compartment syndrome—These are symptoms of fractures and compartment syndrome:

A

Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Polar (cold)

81
Q

Hip fractures commonly:

A

hemorrhage

82
Q

Femur fractures are at risk for:

A

fat emboli

83
Q

Profile of gallbladder disease

A

Fair, fat, forty, five pregnancies, flatulent (actually gallbladder disease can occur in all ages and both sexes)

84
Q

Delegate sterile skills such as dressing changes to the:

A

RN or LPN.

85
Q

Where nonskilled care is required, you can delegate the stable client to the:

A

nursing assistant.

86
Q

Choose the most critical client to assign to the______such as the client who has recently returned from chest surgery.

A

RN

87
Q

Clients who are being discharged should have final assessments done by the:

A

RN

88
Q

The PN, like the RN, can monitor clients with

A

IV therapy, insert urinary catheters and feeding tubes, apply restraints, discontinue IVs, drains, and sutures.

89
Q

For room assignments, do not coassign the post-operative client with clients who have:

A

vomiting, diarrhea, open wounds, or chest tube drainage.

90
Q

Remember the ___________________ when answering questions choices that ask who would you see first.

A

A, B, Cs (airway, breathing, circulation)

91
Q

For hospital triage, care for the client with a ________________ or__________________ first.

A

life-threatening illness or injury

92
Q

For disaster triage, choose to triage first those clients who can:

A

be saved with the least use of resources.

93
Q

The ___ and the __________ institute seclusion protection.

A

RN, Physician

94
Q

The ____ or the _________ nurse can pronounces client dead.

A

MD, hospice

95
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibiting agents:

A

Benazepril (Lotensin),
lisinopril (Zestril),
captopril (Capoten),
enalapril (Vasotec),
fosinopril (Monopril),
moexipril (Univas),
quinapril (Acupril),
ramipril (Altace)

96
Q

Beta adrenergic blockers:

A

Acebutolol (Monitan, Rhotral, Sectral),
atenolol (Tenormin, Apo-Atenol, Nova-Atenol), esmolol (Brevibloc),
metaprolol (Alupent, Metaproterenol),
propanolol (Inderal)

97
Q

Anti-infective drugs:

A

Gentamicin (Garamycin, Alcomicin, Genoptic), kanamycin (Kantrex), neomycin (Mycifradin), streptomycin (Streptomycin), tobramycin (Tobrex, Nebcin), amikacin (Amikin)

98
Q

Benzodiazepine drugs:

A

Clonazepam (Klonopin),
diazepam (Valium),
chlordiazepox-ide (Librium),
lorazepam (Ativan),
flurazepam (Dalmane)

99
Q

Phenothiazine drugs:

A

Chlopromazine (Thorazine),
prochlorperazine (Compazine),
trifluoperazine (Stelazine),
promethazine (Phenergan),
hydroxyzine (Vistaril),
fluphenazine (Prolixin)

100
Q

Glucocorticoid drugs:

A

Prednisolone (Delta-Cortef, Prednisol, Prednisolone), prednisone (Apo-Prednisone, Deltasone, Meticorten, Orasone, Panasol-S), betametha-sone (Celestone, Selestoject, Betnesol), dexamethasone (Decadron, Deronil, Dexon, Mymethasone, Dalalone), cortisone (Co

101
Q

Antivirals:

A

Acyclovir (Zovirax),
ritonavir (Norvir),
saquinavir (Invirase, Fortovase), indinavir (Crixivan),
abacavir (Ziagen),
cidofovir (Vistide),
ganciclovir (Cytovene, Vitrasert)

102
Q

Cholesterol-lowering drugs:

A

Atorvastatin (Lipitor), fluvastatin (Lescol), lovastatin (Mevacor), pravastatin (Pravachol), simvas-tatin (Zocar), rosuvastatin (Crestor)

103
Q

Angiotensin receptor blocker drugs:

A

Valsartan (Diovan),
candesartan (Altacand),
losartan (Cozaar),
telmisartan (Micardis)

104
Q

Cox 2 enzyme blocker drugs:

A

Celecoxib (Celebrex), valdecoxib (Bextra)

105
Q

Histamine 2 antagonist drugs:

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet), famotidine (Pepcid), nizatidine (Axid), rantidine (Zantac)

106
Q

Proton pump inhibitors:

A

Esomeprazole (Nexium), lansoprazole (Prevacid), pantopra-zole (Protonix), rabeprazole (AciPhex)

107
Q

Anticoagulant drugs:

A

Heparin sodium (Hepalean), enoxaparin sodium (Lovenox), dalteparin sodium (Fragmin)

108
Q

Schedule I drugs

A

Research use only (example LSD)

109
Q

Schedule II drugs

A

Requires a written prescription (example Ritalin)

110
Q

Schedule III drugs

A

Requires a new prescription after six months or five refills (example codeine)

111
Q

Schedule IV drugs

A

Requires a new prescription after six months (example Darvon)

112
Q

Schedule V drugs

A

Dispensed as any other prescription or without prescription if state law allows (example antitussives)

113
Q

Antacids

A

Reduce hydrochloric acid in the stomach

114
Q

Antianemics

A

Increase red blood cell production

115
Q

Anticholenergics

A

Decrease oral secretions

116
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Prevent clot formation

117
Q

Anticonvulsants

A

Used for management of seizures/bipolar disorder

118
Q

Antidiarrheals

A

Decrease gastric motility and reduce water in bowel

119
Q

Antihistamines

A

Block the release of histamine

120
Q

Antihypertensives

A

Lower blood pressure and increase blood flow

121
Q

Anti-infectives

A

Used for the treatment of infections

122
Q

Bronchodilators

A

Dilate large air passages in asthma/lung disease

123
Q

Diuretics

A

Decrease water/sodium from the Loop of Henle

124
Q

Laxatives

A

Promote the passage of stool

125
Q

Miotics

A

Constrict the pupils

126
Q

Mydriatics

A

Dilate the pupils

127
Q

Narcotics/analgesics

A

Relieve moderate to severe pain

128
Q

tort

A

litigation in which one person asserts that an injury, which may be physical, emotional, or financial, occurred as a consequence of another’s actions or failure to act.

129
Q

negligence

A

harm that results because a person did not act reasonably

130
Q

malpractice

A

prefessional negligence

131
Q

Slander

A

character attacked and uttered in the presence of others

132
Q

assault

A

act in which there is a threat or attempt to do bodily harm

133
Q

battery

A

unauthorized physical contact

Fluid Volume (3 decks)

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