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PSYCH/SOC Flashcards

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1
Q

what does Gestalt psychology state

A

the mind processes the whole of a perception rather than the sum of its parts, but makes no value judgment about more or less than

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2
Q

what is the just noticeable difference

A

the amount of change required to register in one’s perception of a stimulus

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3
Q

what is Weber’s Law

A

the difference threshold divided by the initial stimulus is a constant for that person
- can be used for dosage increases (will always be proportional to initial dosage)

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4
Q

what is retinal disparity

A

since we have two eyes (binocular vision), we get slightly different views of objects in the world around us
- gives us some degree of depth

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5
Q

what is convergence

A

when you look at far away objects, your eye muscles are relaxed
when you look at close objects, your eye muscles contract and turn towards the object
gives us another metric of depth (how contracted or relaxed our eye muscles are)

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6
Q

what are some monocular cues (can be present even with monocular vision)

A

relative size, interposition, relative height, shading/contour, and motion parallax

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7
Q

what is relative size

A

the size of an object can tell us how close or far away it is

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8
Q

what is interposition

A

cue where if an object partially obscures another object, we are aware that that object is closer

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9
Q

what is relative height

A

we perceive objects that are higher to be farther away

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10
Q

what are some binocular visual cues

A

retinal disparity and convergence

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11
Q

what is motion parallax

A

objects that are closer appear to be moving faster than objects that are farther away

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12
Q

what is size constancy

A

we know that objects stay the same size as they move through space (appear bigger/smaller only because of distance)

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13
Q

what are the three types of visual constancy

A

size, shape, and color

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14
Q

what is escape learning vs avoidance learning

A

escape learning - current undesirable stimulus removed
avoidance learning - future undesirable stimulus prevented

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15
Q

Broca area is associated with language _________ and Wernicke area is associated with language ________

A

production ; comprehension

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16
Q

what’s the difference between operant conditioning and classical conditioning

A

operant conditioning pairs a behavior with a punishment or reward while classical conditioning pairs a behavior with an arbitrary stimulus

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17
Q

what are the three types of population pyramids

A

expanding, stationary, contracting

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18
Q

which type of population pyramid represents a declining population

A

contracting

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19
Q

what is social capital

A

the connections within one’s social network that can help one advance

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20
Q

what is cultural capital

A

the nonfinancial and nonsocial assets that confer advantage in society (like a degree from a prestigious institution)

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21
Q

In Mead’s theory of identity, when do the ‘me’ and ‘I’ develop

A

the ‘I’ develops in the preparatory and play stages and is fully developed when the children can understand themselves as individuals separate from others

the ‘me’ develops in the game stage (school-age) and is developed when children can see themselves from the perspective of a generalized other (formed through social interactions)

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22
Q

what happens in the preparatory stage of Mead’s theory

A

children imitate others and begin using symbols and language without any comprehension

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23
Q

what happens in the play stage of Mead’s theory

A

children begin role-taking (like playing doctor) and can understand themselves as individuals separate from others

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24
Q

what happens in the game stage of Mead’s theory

A

through social interactions, children become aware of their place/role in society and begin incorporating values and rules

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25
Q

__________ social mobility occurs within a single generation and _________ social mobility occurs over multiple generations

A

intragenerational ; intergenerational

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26
Q

what is group polarization

A

occurs when group members adopt a more extreme attitude or course of action after group discussion
- more likely to occur if group members have similar opinions before discussion

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27
Q

what is social mobility

A

the movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society

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28
Q

what is assimilation

A

the process of an individual or group learning a new set of cultural norms/behavior

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29
Q

what is conflict theory

A

the process by which competing groups vie for limited resources

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30
Q

what is the hierarchy of salience

A

theory that individuals will hold identities that are higher in their hierarchy, or more important, as more relevant in a particular situation

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31
Q

what are primary circular reactions

A

involve repetitive behavior centered on the child’s body that the child finds soothing
- sucking on thumb
- repeating syllables

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32
Q

what are secondary circular reactions

A

involve repetitive behavior which involves and affects the child’s environment
- banging fist on wall

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33
Q

what are social networks

A

observable patterns of social relationships among individuals or groups

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34
Q

what is a subliminal threshold

A

refers to stimuli below the threshold of conscious perception

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35
Q

what is fluid intelligence

A

the ability to solve new problems with creative methods

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36
Q

what is crystallized intelligence

A

a vast accumulated set of skills and knowledge

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37
Q

what is stage 1 of the demographic transition model

A

pre-industrial stage
- population is stable with both high birth and death rates
- death rates are high because of disease/poor sanitation and little medical care/food supplies

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38
Q

what is stage 2 of the demographic transition model

A

societal improvements in healthcare, sanitation, nutrition, and wages
- population growth with decreased death rates and stable birth rates

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39
Q

what is stage 3 of the demographic transition model

A

transition from an agricultural to an industrialized society
- population growth begins to level off as both birth and death rates fall

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40
Q

what is stage 4 of the demographic transition model

A

an industrialized society with a low birth and death rate
- stable population size allows for a growing share of the population to consist of people 65 or older

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41
Q

what is stage 5 of the demographic transition model

A

a newly theorized stage described as a continued drop in birth rates which fall below the death rate resulting in a population decline

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42
Q

the hippocampus is associated with

A

memory and learning

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43
Q

the amygdala is associated with

A

fear and emotion

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44
Q

the hypothalamus is associated with

A

controlling homeostatic and endocrine functions through the release of pituitary hormones

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45
Q

the medulla oblongata is associated with

A

regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure

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46
Q

what is deindividuation

A

a loss of self-awareness that may occur when people are in a group
- people may feel anonymous, lose their self-identity, and may engage in anti-normative behavior

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47
Q

what is social loafing

A

the tendency of individuals to put in less effort when in a group setting than individually

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48
Q

what is social facilitation

A

the phenomenon that people tend to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others because they know they are being watched
- performance is hindered on more difficult tasks or tasks you haven’t practiced

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49
Q

alcohol is a depressant or stimulant?

A

depressant

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50
Q

do stimulants result in increased or decreased reuptake of neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft?

A

decreased

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51
Q

what is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

syndrome caused by a thiamine deficiency, associated with alcohol consumption

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52
Q

alcohol leads to an increase in the ______ receptor which does what

A

GABA ; a chlorine channel that causes hyperpolarization of the membrane

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53
Q

what is self-efficacy

A

our belief in our ability to succeed

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54
Q

what are 2 reasons for conformity

A

Informative influence - look to group for guidance when you don’t know what to do

Normative influence - even if you know what’s right, you do what group does to avoid social rejection

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55
Q

How do you publically versus privately conform?

A

public - outwardly changing but you maintain core beliefs
private - change behaviors to align with group

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56
Q

what is conformation bias

A

tendency to search for and interpret information that supports one’s prior belief

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57
Q

conformity is _________ while obedience is ___________

A

matching one’s attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors to group or societal norms ; changing one’s behavior in response to a direct order from authority

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58
Q

what are the 2 types of conformity

A

Internalization - changing one’s behavior to fit with a group while also privately agreeing with the ideas of the group (stanford prison experiment)

Identification - outward acceptance of others’ ideas without personally taking on these ideas

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59
Q

what is compliance

A

a change in behavior based on a direct request
- situations where we do a behavior to get a reward or avoid a punishment
- person asking typically has no real authority

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60
Q

what is anomie

A

a lack of social norms or the breakdown of social bonds between an individual and his community ties
- can lead to feelings of alienation or a fragmentation of social identity

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61
Q

what is normative vs informational social influence

A

normative - we comply with social norms to gain respect/support of our peers (might internally believe something different)

informational - we conform because we feel others are more knowledgeable than us

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62
Q

what is the just-world hypothesis

A

the tendency to believe that the world is just and people get what they deserve

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63
Q

what is self-serving bias

A

the tendency to attribute our successes to internal factors and our failures to external factors

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64
Q

what is fundamental attribution error

A

tendency to overemphasize personal characteristics and underemphasize situational factors when judging the actions of others

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65
Q

what is the diffusion of responsibility theory

A

aspect of bystander effect
- as the number of bystander increases, the personal responsibility an individual feels decreases

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66
Q

T or F: risk taking is encouraged in groupthink

A

T

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67
Q

what are the 4 categories of socialization

A

primary - occurs during childhood when we initially learn social norms
secondary - process of learning appropriate behavior within smaller sections of larger society (learning how to behave at a sports game vs in church)
anticipatory - process by which a person prepares for future changes in occupations, living situation, etc (pre-med shadowing doctors)
resocialization - process by which one discards old behaviors in favor of new ones

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68
Q

what are the three components of attitude

A

ABC
affective, behavioral, cognitive

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69
Q

what is the affective component of attitude

A

refers to the way a person feels toward something and is the emotional component of attitude
- snakes scare me
- i love my family

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70
Q

what is the behavioral component of attitude

A

the way a person acts with respect to something
- avoiding snakes
- choosing to spend time with family

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71
Q

what is the cognitive component of attitude

A

the way an individual thinks about something (usually the justification for the other two components)

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72
Q

what is the functional attitudes theory

A

states that attitudes serve four functions: knowledge, ego expression, adaptation, and ego defennse

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73
Q

what is a stereotype threat

A

it occurs when a person is anxious about inadvertently confirming a negative stereotype about their social group

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74
Q

what is cultural relativism

A

the view that ethical and social standards reflect the cultural context from which they are derived

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75
Q

the larger the correlation coefficient, the more or less significant

A

the more

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76
Q

what is social reproduction

A

the process by which stratification systems reproduce themselves across generations

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77
Q

what is the elaboration likelihood model

A

a theory of attitude formation and attitude change that separates individuals based on how they process persuasive information
- one extreme is central route processing and the other is peripheral route processing

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78
Q

what is central route processing

A
  • high elaboration
  • thinking deeply, scrutinizing meaning and purpose, and drawing conclusions based on this analysis
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79
Q

what is peripheral route processing

A
  • low elaboration
  • focusing on superficial details such as appearance, catchphrases/slogans, and credibility
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80
Q

what is reaction formation

A

the minimization of uncomfortable thoughts or emotions by overemphasizing their opposite
- an insecure partner insists on his love and admiration of the other person despite their jealousy of them

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81
Q

what is projection

A

when someone attributes unacceptable thoughts or behaviors within themselves to another person

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82
Q

what is rationalization

A

creating a seemingly logical explanation for otherwise unacceptable behavior

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83
Q

what is emotional displacement

A

shifting the focus of emotion from a less to more acceptable target

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84
Q

what is a positive versus negative reinforcer

A

a positive reinforcer increases the frequency of the preceding behavior by introducing an appetitive stimulus
a negative reinforcer increases the frequency of the preceding behavior by removing an aversive stimulus

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85
Q

what is a positive versus negative punisher

A

a positive punisher decreases the frequency of the preceding behavior by introducing an aversive stimulus
a negative punisher decreases the frequency of the preceding by removing an appetitive stimulus

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86
Q

what is the Hawthorne effect?

A

the change in participants’ behavior when they know their behavior is being observed

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87
Q

what is structural functionalism

A

a large-scale sociological perspective suggesting that all aspects of society work together to maintain a dynamic equilibrium

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88
Q

what is symbolic interactionism

A

a micro-level sociology theory that suggests that people communicate using symbols like hand gestures

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89
Q

what is the dramaturgical perspective

A

theory that individuals behave as actors, behaving in front of others in ways that align with social norms

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90
Q

what is the psychoanalytic concept of regression

A

behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors

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91
Q

what is the psychoanalytic concept of sublimination

A

transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to acceptable ones
- taking up boxing in order to vent anger

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92
Q

what is an agonist versus antagonist

A

agonist - mimics or enhances something
antagonist - blocks/inhibits something

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93
Q

what are the major targets of dopamine

A

basal ganglia (motor function), mesolimbic pathway (pleasure, reward), and prefrontal cortex (motivation, emotion regulation)

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94
Q

parkinson disease is associated with the loss of __________ neurons in the ____________

A

dopaminergic ; substantia nigra (structure in the basal ganglia that inhibits excess movement)

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95
Q

many antipsychotic drugs are (neurotransmitter) (ant/agonists)

A

dopamine antagonists
- can have parkinson-like side effects

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96
Q

what is a cognitive schema

A

a knowledge structure that determines one’s expectations in different contexts, including social interactions

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97
Q

what is the primary function of the parietal lobe

A

the integration of sensory information
- location of somatosensory cortex (does not process hearing)

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98
Q

what is the primary function of the prefrontal cortex

A

executive functioning and decision making

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99
Q

what is the superego according to psychodynamic theory

A

the structure of personality which houses an individual’s conscience, developed via the internalization of parental and societal expectations and values
- demands that one performs to their highest standard

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100
Q

what is the ego according to psychodynamic theory

A

the reality-oriented structure of personality responsible for balancing the conflicting demands of the id (pleasure-seeking impulse) and superego
- when this balance is not met, anxiety is experienced

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101
Q

who postulated the psychodynamic theory

A

Freud

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102
Q

what are Weber’s characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy

A
  • requires specialization in a limited number of tasks rather than a variety
  • employment is based on technical qualifications
  • decisions are based on an organizational hierarchy instead of consensus among employees
  • performance evaluations are not based on individual criteria but on standardized expectations
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103
Q

what is cultural transmission

A

the transmission of values and practices from one generation to another

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104
Q

what is cultural diffusion

A

the mutual exchange of cultural values and practices among cultural groups in a society

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105
Q

what are the two measures of central tendency in statistics

A

mode and median

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106
Q

what is the measure of variance in statistics

A

standard deviation (indicates consistency)

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107
Q

what is perceptual constancy

A

the tendency to experience a stable perception even as the sensory input itself is changing

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108
Q

what is a confounding variable

A

a variable that varies with the independent variable and affects the dependent variable

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109
Q

rods are mainly found in the ________ of the eye while cones are mainly found in the ________ of the eye

A

periphery ; fovea

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110
Q

what is locus of control? external versus internal?

A

locus of control refers to the types of attributions individuals make to explain their outcomes
- external : individuals believe forces primarily out of their control contribute to their outcomes
- internal : believe it is due to dispositional characteristics

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111
Q

social inhibition is

A

the hindering of someone’s performance when in the presence of an audience

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112
Q

what is the function of acetylcholinesterase

A

enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine

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113
Q

what is structural mobility

A

social mobility as a result of macro-social changes, generally impacts a significant part of the population

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114
Q

what is medicalization

A

the recategorization of a condition as a medical problem that requires diagnosis and treatment by medical professionals
- example: alcoholism

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115
Q

what is the looking-glass self

A

an individual basing their sense of self on how they think others perceive them
- postulated by Cooley

116
Q

what are the 3 steps to developing the looking-glass self

A
  1. How do I appear to others? What do people see?
  2. How do people evaluate us based on their observations? Do they think I’m smart or funny?
  3. We develop feelings about ourselves based on our impressions of their observations
117
Q

what is the mere exposure effect

A

the preference for familiar stimuli over novel ones

118
Q

what is social comparison

A

when individuals compare themselves (favorably or unfavorably) to their social contacts

119
Q

what is suburbanization

A

the out-migration from cities to suburbs which often involves middle-class residents leaving behind low-income residents

120
Q

what is the life course approach

A

approach that posits that early life events influence an individual’s later life outcomes

121
Q

what is strain theory

A

how people react to social constraints to achieving goals

122
Q

what is disengagement theory

A

older adults withdraw from personal relationships and society as they age

123
Q

what is differential association theory

A

focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment

124
Q

what is labeling theory

A

posits that self-identity and behavior may be influenced by the terms and labels used to describe people
- example : how deviant behaviors in the past can have long-term stigmatizing effects

125
Q

what is front stage self

A

an individual’s impression management that is consistent with expectations of a particular social role

126
Q

what is social role conflict

A

the conflicting demands of two different social roles an individual has

127
Q

what is demographic transition

A

the association between the level of socioeconomic development and the balance between fertility and mortality rates in a society

128
Q

source monitoring errors occur when

A

a memory from one source is misattributed to another source

129
Q

what is impression management

A

the process by which an individual attempts to manage how they are perceived by others

130
Q

what is functional fixedness

A

a tendency to think of things based on their usual functions
- an obstacle to problem solving

131
Q

what is role conflict versus role strain

A

role conflict - when needs of separate roles come into conflict
role strain - stress from competing needs/demands within the same role

132
Q

what is role engulfment

A

when a role becomes a dominant sense of identity

133
Q

what is spontaneous recovery

A

the reappearance of an extinguished response after a period of nonexposure to the conditioned stimulus

134
Q

what is stimulus discrimination versus generalization

A

discrimination - a stimulus-controlled behavior occurring only in response to the original controlling stimulus without getting triggered by similar stimuli

generalization - behavior occurring in response to similar stimuli

135
Q

continuous reinforcement is associated with a ______ rate of acquisition and _________ extinction

partial reinforcement is associated with a ________ rate of acquisition and __________ extinction

A

fast ; quicker

slow ; slower

136
Q

what are demand characteristics

A

cues that may be ‘accidentally’ or unknowingly given by research design that gives the participants an idea of the hypothesis and may cause them to act differently

137
Q

what is conceptualization versus operationalization

A

conceptualization - stage in a study where a researcher describes the social dynamics related to a concept

operationalization - refers to how an abstract concept as a variable is observed through different measurements

138
Q

what is instinctive drift

A

the interference of innate, species-specific behaviors with continued performance of a learned response

139
Q

what is the biomedical approach to mental illness

A

suggests that physiological cause (like brain chemistry) result in psychological symptoms
- emphasize diagnosis and medical treatment

140
Q

what is the illness experience

A

a symbolic interactionist perspective that examines how individuals understand and cope with serious illness that affects daily life and self-identity
- illness work (learning about the illness, seeking treatment)
- every day work (daily activities that are impacted)
- biographical work (making sense of the illness, explaining it to family)

141
Q

primary reinforcers are ___________ while secondary reinforcers are ___________

A

naturally desirable (like candy) ; conditioned to be desirable (like stickers)

142
Q

what is place theory

A

explains the perception of sound pitch (how high or low a tone is)
- hair cells at the base (start) hear high pitches and cells at the apex (middle) hear low pitches

143
Q

what are the 2 components of self-concept

A

existential - idea of being an individual separate from others ; knowledge that self-concept is permanent/constant

categorical - putting yourself into categories (age, gender, race) that become more internal as we grow older (career, personal traits)

144
Q

what is Carl Rogers’ theory of self concept

A

has 3 aspects
self-image : our view of ourselves
self-esteem: how much value we place on ourselves
ideal self: what we wish to be

145
Q

what is the social identity theory

A

our concept of our social identity is composed of 2 parts
personal aspect - personality traits, unique things
social identity - groups you belong to, community

146
Q

what are the 3 steps to forming a social identity

A

categorization (putting yourself in groups), identification (internalizing the values and behaviors of those groups), and social comparison

147
Q

what is the acronym for people with a strong sense of self-efficacy

A

Recover
Interests
Strong
Enjoy

148
Q

what is the acronym for people with a weak sense of self-efficacy

A

Fail
Avoid
Lose
Lack

149
Q

what are the 4 sources of self-efficacy

A
  1. mastery of experience (performing tasks successfully)
  2. social modeling (seeing people similar to ourselves succeed)
  3. social persuasion (encouragement from others)
  4. psychological responses (minimizing stress/anxiety)
150
Q

do people with an internal or external locus of control generally feel happier/less stressed?

A

internal

151
Q

what’s the main difference between Cooley and Mead

A

Cooley thought that every person we meet throughout our whole lifetime can influence our identity while Mead believed that only certain people during a critical period could

152
Q

what is egocentrism in childhood and who postulated it

A

Piaget
- the inability of children to take on the perspectives of others, think that everyone thinks like they do, are the focus of their own world

153
Q

what is social network analysis

A

an epidemiological technique mapping connections between individuals to study the spread of communicable diseases in a population

154
Q

what is content analysis

A

a qualitative technique used to examine the texts and images used in human communication

155
Q

what is dishabituation

A

a renewed response to a previously habituated stimulus (taking off a sweater that you got used to and it’s scratchy again when you put it back on)

156
Q

what is signal detection theory

A

the detection of a stimulus depends both on the intensity of the stimulus and the physical/psychological state of the individual (plus past experiences)
- tries to quantify the accuracy of decisions made under conditions of uncertainty

157
Q

which of the 5 senses uses mechanoreceptors

A

sound
- sound waves pass through the endolymph fluid in the cochlea
- vibrations in this fluid depolarize hair cells in the ear (mechanoreceptors)

158
Q

which of the 5 senses uses photoreceptors

A

sight
- rods and cones are photoreceptors

159
Q

what is adaptive value

A

the extent to which a trait or behavior helps an organism survive and reproduce

160
Q

what are the functions of the temporal lobe

A

hearing, selective listening, language processing, and memory

161
Q

what is the function of the occipital lobe

A

processing visual information from the eyes including shape, color, and motion

162
Q

what is gentrification

A

the redevelopment of lower-income urban (city) neighborhoods that occurs in conjunction with an influx of higher-income individuals, resulting in the displacement of lower-income residents

163
Q

what are common symptoms of PTSD

A

hyperarousal (exaggerated startle response), intrusive symptoms (nightmares), negative thoughts and moods

164
Q

what are common symptoms of GAD, generalized anxiety disorder

A

excessive worry about a range of topics, muscle tension, difficulty concentrating and sleeping, feeling restless and fatigue

165
Q

what is a primary versus secondary group

A

primary - group of individuals who are emotionally close, smaller, high degree of interaction (family)
secondary - group of individuals who come together to accomplish something, larger, more impersonal (coworkers)

166
Q

what are ambient stressors

A

anything in the environment that causes a physiologically or psychologically negative reaction
- noise, pollution, bad smells

167
Q

what is McDonaldization

A

social process that describes when rationalization (the replacement of traditional practices with predictable, logical rules) is valued as the main tenet in a society

168
Q

what is environmental injustice in terms of disparities

A

when lower-income areas are subject to more environmental risk factors (increased pollution, toxic waste) that negatively impact health

169
Q

what is social desirability bias

A

the tendency of research subjects to respond to questions in a way that makes them look better in the eyes of the experimenter

170
Q

what is question-order bias

A

when the order of questions in a survey affects the results

171
Q

what is sampling bias

A

when nonrandom subject selection results in a sample that inaccurately represents the population

172
Q

what is social exchange theory

A

a microsociological perspective of human interactions which proposes that any interaction between people is the result of a calculated effort to maximize personal benefit and minimize personal loss

173
Q

what is the socioeconomic gradient in health

A

positive correlation between socioeconomic status and health outcomes

174
Q

what are positive symptoms

A

‘pathological excesses’ like hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech

175
Q

what are negative symptoms

A

‘pathological deficits’ like apathy, inability to experience pleasure, social withdrawal

176
Q

what is neuroleptic medication

A

conventional, first-generation antipsychotics
- effective in reducing positive symptoms but may worsen negative symptoms

177
Q

what is atypical medication

A

second-generation antipsychotics
- pose less of a risk for side effects and may lessen negative symptoms

178
Q

what is the most common psychotic disorder

A

schizophrenia

179
Q

what is the Pearson correlation coefficient r

A

coefficient that shows the linear relationship between two variables
- r<0 means negative correlation
- r>0 means positive correlation
- ranges from -1 to 1

180
Q

what are adrenergic receptors and what do they respond to

A

receptors found throughout the body and are involved with the regulation of a variety of functions such as heart rate, vasodilation, and gastrointestinal tone
- respond to epinephrine and norepinephrine
- involved in autonomic nervous system responses

181
Q

what is feature detection

A

the perceptual discrimination of specific aspects of a given stimulus via feature detectors
- feature detectors are specific neurons that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli
- example: neurons in the visual cortex fire to bars of light oriented at specific angles

181
Q

what is spreading activation

A

when a concept within an individual’s semantic network triggers the activation of other related concepts

182
Q

what is serial processing

A

processing one piece of information at a time
- memorizing a list item by item

183
Q

what is conscientiousness

A

the quality of wishing to do one’s work well and thoroughly
- organization, punctuality, dependability

184
Q

what is self-serving bias

A

the tendency to attribute one’s successes to internal, stable traits and one’s failures to external, situational factors

185
Q

a hypothesis requires the _____

A

definition of an expected relationship between two or more variables

186
Q

what does it mean to perceive something categorically

A

when a person begins to perceive items belonging to a category as being more similar to each other and less similar to things belonging to other categories

187
Q

what part of the eye is known as the blind spot

A

optic disc
- portion of the retina where retinal axons project to the optic nerve

188
Q

age, medicalization, and the illness experience are demographic dynamics associated with which social theory

A

social constructionism

189
Q

Age, social isolation, and networks of social support are demographic dynamics associated with which social theory

A

symbolic interactionism (bit of a stretch)

190
Q

Generational status, social solidarity, and the welfare state are demographic dynamics associated with which social theory

A

functionalism

191
Q

Generational status, political power, and resource allocation are demographic dynamics associated with which social theory

A

conflict theory

192
Q

what is the linguistic relativity hypothesis

A

language shapes thought/cognition and so speakers of different languages may perceive the world differently
- ‘weak’ hypothesis

193
Q

what is a source monitoring error

A

when memory derived from one source is misattributed to another source

194
Q

what is absolute poverty

A

when individuals cannot meet their basic needs

195
Q

what is marginal poverty

A

when individuals cannot maintain standard living conditions due to job instability/unstable employment conditions

196
Q

what is relative poverty

A

social disadvantage by income or wealth as compared to the social advantages linked to income or wealth in a society

197
Q

what is structural poverty

A

poverty resulting from a lack of economic opportunities for individuals to leave poverty

198
Q

what is hindsight bias

A

the tendency to overestimate one’s ability to predict an outcome after it has already happened

199
Q

what is response bias

A

the tendency for research participants to respond inaccurately or falsely to self-report questions

200
Q

what is ‘REM rebound’

A

the phenomenon that when someone is REM-deprived the night before, they will spend more time in REM the next night

201
Q

what is a dichotic listening task

A

presenting different auditory stimuli to each ear

202
Q

Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity?
A.PET
B.EEG
C.MRI
D.CT

A

A. PET

PET would show activity
EEG captures brainwave data
MRI and CT are good for showing neuroanatomy/structure

203
Q

serotonin is involved in the regulation of both _____ and _______

A

mood (specifically, aggression) ; appetite

204
Q

what is sensory interaction

A

the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may influence another (e.g., balance).
- example: you can only balance when you keep your eyes open

205
Q

what is perceptual maladaptation

A

refers to a situation in which our perception of the world around us is inaccurate or distorted due to prolonged exposure to a particular stimulus or when our perceptual systems are not functioning optimally

206
Q

what are the 3 types of organizations

A

utilitarian - membership is driven by compensation (money or certificate/diploma)

normative - membership is driven by shared goals and/or values

coercive - membership is not freely chosen or maintained (prison)

207
Q

what is reliability vs validity vs generalizability in a study?

A

reliability - consistency, if it produces similar measures repeatedly

validity (internal) - accuracy

generalizability (external validity) - the extent to which the study results can be applied to outside the laboratory

208
Q

Normative social influence is most likely to arise in a group containing:
A. several members who have expertise regarding the subject
B. all females from the same university
C. an assigned group spokesperson
D. members who are disparate in socioeconomic status

A

B. all females from the same university

normative social influence describes when an individual conforms to fit in/not be rejected
- happens when individual identifies with group

209
Q

conformity is due to ________ influence while obedience is due to _________

A

implicit group ; explicit individual

210
Q

what is factitious disorder

A

a somatic symptom and related disorder (SSRD) where an individual fabricates physical or psychological symptoms without obvious external gain
- wants to gain sympathy from others

211
Q

what is cultural transmission vs cultural diffusion

A

cultural transmission - passing of information from older to younger generation
cultural diffusion - spreading of culture from one group to another

212
Q

what is actor-observer bias vs fundamental attribution error

A

actor-observer bias: tendency to attribute one’s own actions to external factors and others’ actions to internal factors

fundamental attribution error: tendency to blame others’ behavior on internal factors (no self component)

213
Q

what is James Marcia’s identity development theory

A

evaluates the psychological processes of individuals based on their level of commitment and degree of exploration, yielding 4 statuses
- identity diffusion (low commitment, low exploration)
- identity foreclosure (high commitment, low exploration)
- identity moratorium (low commitment, high exploration)
- identity achievement (high commitment, high exploration)

214
Q

fixed interval schedules tend to cause an increase in behavior __________ and a decrease in behavior ___________

A

just before the reward ; just after the reward is received

215
Q

do ratio or interval schedules produce faster immediate response rates

A

ratio

216
Q

what are primary vs secondary reinforcers

A

primary - fulfill a biological role and are naturally rewarding (food, praise)

secondary - not inherently rewarding but conditioned to be desirable (money, good grades)

217
Q

are taste-enduring aversions long or short term

A

long

218
Q

what is universalism vs linguistic determinism

A

universalism - cognition controls language

linguistic determinism - language controls cognition

219
Q

what is linguistic relativity vs linguistic determinism

A

linguistic relativity - weak hypothesis, language influences cognition

linguistic determinism - strong hypothesis, language controls cognition

220
Q

what is considered the critical period for language development

A

0 to around 12/13 years

221
Q

what does the central executive control

A

attention and switching between various tasks

222
Q

what is the episodic buffer important for

A

responsible for temporal processing (understanding timeline of events) and integrating long-term memory into working memory

223
Q

what is anomie

A

a state of normlessness that occurs when a society fails to provide individuals with norms and values to guide behavior
- individuals lack guidance and often feel alienated from society

224
Q

what theorists are most associated with structural functionalism

A

durkheim and parsons

225
Q

what theorists are most associated with conflict theory

A

marx and weber

226
Q

what theorists are most associated with symbolic interactionism

A

cooley and mead

227
Q

what is the Malthusian theory of population growth

A

the human population increases exponentially while resources increase at a slower rate (linear)
- preventative checks decrease birth rate (and are usually voluntary like birth control)
- positive checks increase the death rate (large scale positive checks are malthusian catastrophes)

228
Q

what brain region is responsible for the physiological aspects of emotion

A

hypothalamus

229
Q

what are vicarious emotions

A

when an observer intuits the feelings that another may be experiencing

230
Q

sick role theory connects to what social model

A

structural functionalism
- illness is an allowed deviance that causes imbalance

231
Q

the illness experience connects to what social model

A

symbolic interactionism
- how illness becomes part of someone’s identity and daily routine

232
Q

what is strain theory

A

predicts that individuals experience tension (strain) when there is a disconnect between goals and the available means for achieving those goals
- causes individuals to seek deviant ways of achieving that goal

233
Q

what is differential association theory

A

suggests that deviance is learned through interaction with others engaging in deviance

234
Q

what is labeling theory

A

says that when individuals are labeled deviant, they will act that way

235
Q

functional fixedness vs mental set

A

functional fixedness - inability to see use for an object beyond its intentioned use
mental set - inability to see a problem from a new perspective / use of old methods to solve new problems

236
Q

what is social epidemiology

A

a subfield focusing on the social factors that influence the health of an individual or population

237
Q

what is relative deprivation

A

the discontent people feel when they believe they are entitled to something yet are being deprived of it

238
Q

what are push and pull factors

A

factors that help explain human migration patterns
- push factors describe why people move away from their native country

  • pull factors describe why people move to a country
239
Q

what is the general adaptation syndrome

A

proposed by Hans Selye, is a model of describing how the body reacts to stress (three stages)
- alarm
- resistance
- exhaustion

  • the stress response always follows a similar course regardless of the nature of the stressor
240
Q

what are the 3 major psychotherapy approaches

A
  1. Cognitive behavioral therapy - replacing negative habits with positive ones
  2. Psychoanalytic therapy - ‘talk therapy’, discover unconscious causes
  3. Humanistic person-centered therapy - empowers individuals, move towards self-actualization
241
Q

internal validity is most associated with ________ while external validity is most associated with ___________

A

causality ; generalizability

242
Q

what is a content analysis

A

the systematic coding and interpretation of human communication
example: the analysis and coding of social media text

243
Q

what are the 4 major sociological approaches to aging

A

Activity ; Continuity; Disengagement ; Life course

244
Q

how would you describe the stages of the demographic transition model in 1 word each

A
  1. pre-industrial
  2. industrializing
  3. urbanizing
  4. developed
  5. hypothetical/future
245
Q

what is the optimum population model

A

theory that regards the ideal population size, which is the number of people yielding the highest per capita income given the country’s level of wealth, knowledge, and technical resources

246
Q

what is the total fertility rate

A

the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime

247
Q

what is the crude birth rate (CBR) vs general fertility rate (GFR)

A

crude birth rate - number of live births per year per every 1000 members of a population (regardless of sex or age)

general fertility rate - number of live births per year per 1000 women of child-bearing age

248
Q

what are the 3 circadian biomarkers

A

cortisol, melatonin, core body temp
cortisol - peaks immediately after waking and is lowest when falling asleep
melatonin - low when awake but peaks during sleeping hours
body temp - 38˚C when awake and 36 when sleeping

249
Q

what are parasomnias vs dyssomnias

A

parasomnias - disorders involving abnormal function of the nervous system during sleep ; happen mainly during childhood (sleep walking, night terrors)

dyssomnias - disorders involving difficulty falling or staying asleep ; mainly during adulthood (insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy)

250
Q

what is the suprachiasmatic nucleus and where is it

A

specialized nucleus that regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms
- in the hypothalamus

251
Q

what is the monoamine hypothesis

A

a biomedical model of depression
- the idea that the depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters (serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine) in the nervous system directly causes depression

252
Q

what is the teacher expectancy effect

A

describes what occurs when a teacher’s preconceived ideas about a student result in student performance that ultimately meets the teacher’s expectations

253
Q

what is the reminiscence bump

A

older adults tend to recall events from their youth more easily than events that happened later

254
Q

what is the pattern of normal memory decay

A

the initial rate of decay is highest after the material is first learned and then plateaus over time

255
Q

what is social identity

A

how one’s self-concept is shaped by group membership
- define individuals in relation to others and allow for social groupings

256
Q

what is group identification

A

the extent to which an individual perceives himself as a member of a larger collective

257
Q

how do PET scans work

A

scanner detects radioactive tracer attached to glucose analog
- measures changes in glucose metabolism in brain over time
- activity

258
Q

what are the 3 types of kinship

A

consanguineal - based on genetic relationship
affinal - based on marriage
fictive - social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (like adopted children)

259
Q

what are the 3 degrees of kinship

A

primary - first-degree family member (mother)
secondary - primary kin of first-degree family members (mother’s brother)
tertiary - secondary kin of first-degree family members (mother’s uncle)

260
Q

what is spatial inequality

A

the uneven distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area (like low-income public housing projects)

261
Q

what is the James Lange theory of emotion

A

suggest that the physiological response elicited by a stimulus produces emotion

262
Q

what is the Schacter Singer theory of emotion

A

two-factor theory ; cognitive interpretation of the physiological response produces emotion

263
Q

what is the Cannon Bard theory of emotion

A

physiological and emotional responses occur simultaneously and independently

264
Q

what are the 6 universal emotions

A

anger, sadness, fear, disgust, happiness, surprise

264
Q

what is the Lazarus theory of emotion

A

cognitive appraisal of the stimulus leads to physiological and emotional response

265
Q

what brain structures does the limbic system include

A

cingulate gyrus, thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala, hippocampus

266
Q

what are the 3 components of emotion

A

cognitive - includes all the mental processes accompanying emotion and appraisal of the situation

behavioral - immediate outward reaction to emotion ; involuntary and automatic

physiological - bodily processes that accompany emotion

267
Q

what is the adaptive role emotions play

A

allow humans to emotionally connect with others
- fosters group unity and conformity

268
Q

what is the base rate fallacy

A

the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events

269
Q

what is the hindsight bias

A

The hindsight bias (i.e., the “I knew it all along” effect) refers to the tendency for a person to overestimate how well he or she could have successfully predicted a known outcome (i.e., a “forecast,” given before the outcome was known).

270
Q

what is the “glass escalator” effect

A

sociological concept that men who pursue occupations that have high proportions of women (such as teaching or nursing) will quickly ascend the career ladder with promotions

271
Q

what are the Big Five personality traits

A

OCEAN
optimism, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

272
Q

what is overextension

A

the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example “doggie” for cows)

273
Q

what is the naming explosion

A

phenomenon that toddlers learn a huge amount of new words between the ages of 1 and 2

274
Q

what is bootstrapping

A

happens during early grammar development in kids
- they learn syntax and grammar by building upon (bootstrapping) things they’ve already learned

275
Q

what is the tricolor vs opponent process theory

A

the tricolor theory states that the cones are red, blue and green and the spectrum of color perception is made from a mixture of the three receptors. Opponent process theory states that the receptors are green-red, blue-yellow, black-white and the mixture of those creates all the colors. The opponent process theory also accounts for after images

276
Q

what is the somatic nervous system

A

the division of the peripheral nervous system that controls sensory and motor functions of the effectors that allow organisms to deal with their external environment

277
Q

Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ (questionnaire) measure?

A.A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores
B.A negative correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores
C.A positive correlation between participants’ scores on two different administrations of the DMQ
D.A negative correlation between participants’ scores on two different administrations of the DMQ

A

A.
Both the DMQ and the CG were designed to assess risky behavior. Lower scores indicated greater risk aversion on both measures. Therefore, a positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores can be interpreted as supporting their validity (i.e., that both measure what they are intended to measure).

It’s not C because that indicates reliability

278
Q

what is selective vs divided attention

A

selective attention - flipping between multiple tasks (think of a flashlight being able to shine only on one thing at a time)

divided attention - actively focusing on two things at once (cooking dinner while listening to friend talk)

279
Q

what are exogenous vs endogenous attention cues

A

exogenous - external; we don’t have to think about paying attention to it, it happens automatically (loud noises, bright colors)

endogenous - more internalized and higher order; require internal knowledge to understand the cue (arrows that point)

280
Q

what is a classic example of selective attention

A

cocktail party effect
- hearing one voice out of several

281
Q

hearing someone say your name and you directing your attention to it is an example of an exogenous or endogenous cue?

A

endogenous - the meaning of your name is what made you pay attention

282
Q

what two effects make up the serial position effect

A

primacy and recency
- you remember first and last things

283
Q

which types of memory and intelligence are unaffected by aging

A

semantic memory ; crystallized intelligence

284
Q
A

MCAT (10 decks)

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