psych-soc Flashcards

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1
Q

What is availability heuristic?

A

Describes an individual using information that is more readily available than other information to form their opinions

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2
Q

What does the instinct theory of motivation posit?

A

All humans have the same motivations due to our similar biological programming

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3
Q

The motivations stated by the instinct theory of motivation are _________, _________, _________, ________, _________, _________, and _________.

A

generally unlearned; uniform in expression; universal in the species; unmodifiable; irresistible; automatic; and do not require training.

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4
Q

Valence refers to what?

A

The value that a person sets on the reinforcements or rewards

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5
Q

The value that a person sets on the reinforcements or rewards are usually based on _______, _______, _______, and _______.

A

an individual’s values; needs; goals; intrinsic or extrinsic sources of motivation

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6
Q

Instrumentality refers to what?

A

The notion that a person will get a reward upon the successful completion of the expected performance.

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7
Q

Motivational force refers to what?

A

The product of the other three Expectancy theory variables; expectancy, valence and instrumentality.

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8
Q

Self efficacy refers to what?

A

An individual’s belief regarding his own ability to perform a specific behavior.

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9
Q

What does the opponent-process theory of motivation state?

A

At least some processes (actions) promote opposite physiological responses

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10
Q

Provide an example of the opponent-process theory of motivation being applied

A

A drug user may consume a stimulant, which speeds up his heart rate and keeps him awake. In response, his body will attempt to slow down his heart rate and promote sedative processes. Over time, this opponent process becomes stronger, causing the individual to need to consume more of the drug to counter its effects.

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11
Q

What are the three primary components of an attitude?

A

the affective component, the behavioral component, and the cognitive component (think ABC)

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12
Q

According to Erikson’s stages of development, the conflict of initiative vs. guilt is associated with which age range?

A

3-6 years

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13
Q

The Freudian defense mechanism of displacement involves what?

A

taking stress out on someone else

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14
Q

The Freudian defense mechanism of regression involves what?

A

returning to an earlier developmental stage

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15
Q

The Freudian defense mechanism of reaction formation involves what?

A

turning an unacceptable desire into its opposite.

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16
Q

The Freudian defense mechanism of projection involves what?

A

placing one’s own uncomfortable feelings onto other people

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17
Q

What is a hidden curriculum (any lessons learned but not openly intended to be taught)?

A

a side effect of education

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18
Q

What are 3 examples of a hidden curriculum?

A

cultural norms, values, and beliefs that teachers may convey in the classroom and the surrounding social environment

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19
Q

Social exchange theory posits what?

A

human relationships are formed by the use of a subjective cost-benefit analysis and the comparison of alternatives

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20
Q

What is the rational choice theory?

A

principle which states that individuals always make logical decisions that provide people with the greatest benefit or satisfaction

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21
Q

Conflict theory posits what?

A

tensions and conflicts arise when resources, status, or power are unequally distributed between groups in society and that these conflicts become the engine for social change

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22
Q

What is social constructionism?

A

society is viewed as both a subjective and an objective reality with assumptions people share about the world

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23
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

based on the premise that all members of society must compete for limited resources

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24
Q

What does the conflict theory suggest?

A

institutions, including mass media, are put in place to perpetuate inequality between those who control the means of production and those who serve as laborers

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25
Q

What is the sick role?

A

Individuals who are sick make a genuine effort to recover in order to ultimately resume their previous role in society

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26
Q

Role strain occurs when

A

an individual feels conflict between different requirements of one role

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27
Q

What is role conflict?

A

refers to a clash between two separate roles

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28
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy?

A

a hierarchy of authority, promotion based on achievement, specialized division of labor, impersonality, written rules of conduct, and efficiency

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29
Q

What is a utilitarian organization?

A

one that pays its members, typically a business or corporation

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30
Q

What is a normative organization?

A

composed of volunteers who share a moral purpose or goal

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31
Q

What is a coercive organization?

A

formed of members who are forced to join

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32
Q

What are ascribed statuses?

A

conferred by society, often irrespective of the efforts or actions of the individual

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33
Q

What are achieved statuses?

A

earned by individuals based on merit and actions

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34
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

in an experiment, a variable, other than the independent variable, that could influence the dependent variable

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35
Q

What is stigma?

A

the societal disapproval and judgment of a person or group of people because they do not fit their community’s social norms

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36
Q

What is deindividuation?

A

a situation where individuals experience a loss of restraint and individual identity that is replaced with mob mentality

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37
Q

What does social constructionism propose?

A

everything people know as reality is partially, if not entirely, socially situated

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38
Q

What happens during the second stage of the demographic transition?

A

medical advancements are made and sanitation improves causing death (or mortality) rates to decrease and birth (or fertility) rates to remain high

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39
Q

What is cultural diffusion?

A

the transfer of cultural elements from one group to another

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40
Q

What is a population pyramid?

A

a pyramid in which younger age groups are shown on the bottom of the pyramid, while older segments of the population are shown nearer the top

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41
Q

What does a bottom-heavy population pyramid describe?

A

describes a society in which younger individuals predominate in the population implying that the fertility (birth) rate is greater than the mortality (death) rate

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42
Q

What is the total fertility rate?

A

the number of births that the average woman in the population will have over her lifetime

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43
Q

What is the crude birth rate?

A

the number of births per 1,000 individuals in the population over a given time period, typically a year

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44
Q

Serotonin can regulate _____, ____ disorders, and ________ disorders

A

sleep; mood; appetite

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45
Q

What is an informal norm?

A

a rule that is not written down

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46
Q

What is a formal norm?

A

a rule that a government puts in place for people to adhere

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47
Q

What is a more?

A

a subset of informal norms that refer to relatively important norms

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48
Q

What are 3 definitional features of antisocial personality disorder?

A

a lack of empathy, remorse, and regard for others

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49
Q

The side effects of agitation, irritability, hallucinations, and aggressive behavior are normally found in what class of drugs?

A

stimulants

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50
Q

What is one important example of stimulants?

A

methamphetamine

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51
Q

What are negative symptoms?

A

symptoms that reflect a lack or absence of one’s baseline experience

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52
Q

What are positive symptoms?

A

Symptoms that reflect the addition of something extra onto one’s baseline experiences

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53
Q

Schizophrenia is thought to involve [abnormal or inadequate] activation of dopaminergic pathways

A

abnormal

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54
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by [abnormal or inadequate] dopaminergic activity

A

inadequate

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55
Q

What molecules inhibit the transport of synaptic serotonin back into the presynaptic neuron allowing it to remain in the synaptic cleft for an extended period of time?

A

SSRIs

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56
Q

What are somatic disorders?

A

psychological disorders characterized by physical symptoms that cause significant stress to the patient

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57
Q

Conversion disorder is an example of what kind of disorder?

A

Somatic disorder

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58
Q

Antisocial personality disorder refers to what?

A

a pervasive pattern of disregarding the rights of others, often manifesting in violence and a sense of remorse

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59
Q

What are delusions?

A

immutable convictions held by people despite clear evidence that disproves these convictions

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60
Q

What is an exception to the definition of delusions?

A

religious or cultural beliefs

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61
Q

The brain areas that process linguistic information (both production and comprehension) are lateralized in what hemisphere?

A

left hemisphere

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62
Q

What is the shadowing task?

A

the inputs to which subjects must attend

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63
Q

Based on the standardization system used to score IQ, the Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are “normalized” to a mean of ___ and a standard deviation of __

A

100; 15

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64
Q

What is the primary function of the hypothalamus?

A

to maintain homeostatic equilibrium

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65
Q

What are the two major symptoms for one to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder?

A

depressed mood (sadness) or lack of pleasure (anhedonia)

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66
Q

What does Brofenbenner’s model state?

A

systems are related and an issue at a community level can impact individuals

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67
Q

What does the Cannon-Bard theory posit?

A

the physiological arousal associated with emotion and subjective feeling of emotion itself arise from separate and independent areas of brain

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68
Q

What does the Schacter-Singer theory posit?

A

the emotion is the result of the brain assessing the context of the physiological arousal experienced in the body

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69
Q

What does the James-Lange theory posit?

A

the emotion follows from and is directly caused by the physiological arousal experienced

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70
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

refers to the tendency to look for information that supports rather than rejects one’s hypothesis

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71
Q

What age range corresponds to the preoperational stage of Piaget’s stages?

A

2-7 year olds

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72
Q

What age range corresponds to the concrete operational stage of Piaget’s stages?

A

7-12 year olds

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73
Q

What age range corresponds to the formal operational stage of Piaget’s stages?

A

12-adulthood

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74
Q

At what stage of Piaget’s stages are children able to understand the perspectives of others?

A

formal operational stage

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75
Q

Social science protocols require what?

A

self-reporting

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76
Q

What is projection?

A

a defense mechanism in which a threatening urge or quality is ascribed to others rather than to oneself

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77
Q

What is the drive-reduction theory?

A

humans are motivated to satisfy physiological needs in order to maintain homeostasis

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78
Q

Cognitive theories focus on what?

A

the thoughts that are associated with given phenomena

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79
Q

Cognitive theories of motivation focus on what?

A

how a person’s thoughts affect their motivation to carry out certain tasks

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80
Q

What is REM rebound?

A

the increase in frequency and depth of REM stage sleep after sleep deprivation

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81
Q

What is anticipatory socialization?

A

the process by which individuals prepare themselves for their future roles by learning the values and standards of their new group

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82
Q

What is secondary socialization?

A

the process by which further socialization occurs from groups outside the family, such as the community or school

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83
Q

What is resocialization?

A

a deliberate process by which an individual learns new social behaviors and norms

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84
Q

What is primary socialization?

A

the process by which children learn behavioral patterns from the family that are appropriate in the larger society

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85
Q

In Stage 1 sleep, an EEG shows what?

A

alpha waves and the start of theta wave activity

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86
Q

In Stage 2 sleep, what appears on an EEG?

A

theta waves continue to appear on an EEG, but are now interspersed with K-complexes, single high-amplitude, low-frequency theta waves, and sleep spindles

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87
Q

In Stage 3 sleep, an EEG shows what?

A

delta waves

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88
Q

During REM sleep, the EEG pattern shows what?

A

beta waves, similar to the pattern seen during wakefulness

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89
Q

Slow-wave sleep, also known as deep sleep, contains what?

A

non-REM sleep

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90
Q

How can the correct response be unambiguously made to a test subject?

A

shaping procedure

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91
Q

What is instinctual drift?

A

the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors

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92
Q

The capacity for ___________ ________ __________ is unaffected by aging

A

retrieving general information

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93
Q

The capacity for ___________ ________ __________ is unaffected by aging

A

retrieving general information

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94
Q

Episodic information consists of what?

A

the declarative information people have of specific experiences

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95
Q

Music is an important part of _______ ________

A

popular culture

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96
Q

Agents of socialization refer to what?

A

parts of society that are important for socialization

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97
Q

What is socialization?

A

the process of learning the norms and values in a society

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98
Q

What is cultural transmission?

A

culture is passed along from generation to generation through various childrearing practices

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99
Q

What is proximal stimulus?

A

the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors

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100
Q

What is Gestalt psychology?

A

the theoretical approach that emphasized the idea that the ways in which people’s perceptual experience is organized result from how human brains are organized

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101
Q

Psychophysical testing methods directly assess what?

A

our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties

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102
Q

According to Kohlberg’s theory, promoting social welfare indicates what?

A

moral reasoning at the postconventional level

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103
Q

Depriving the subject of some undesirable stimulus item for a period of time is usually used, in operant conditioning studies, for what purpose?

A

to operationally define the subject’s motivational state

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104
Q

Monozygotic twins are [identical or fraternal] twins & that dizygotic twins are [identical or fraternal] twins

A

identical; fraternal

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105
Q

Sensitive period identifies what?

A

a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life

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106
Q

The incentive theory of motivation calls attention to what?

A

how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior

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107
Q

Social epidemiology focuses on what?

A

the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations

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108
Q

Cultural capital refers to what?

A

knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics used to make social distinctions and associated with differences in social status

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109
Q

Social cognitive theory suggests that…

A

behaviors are learned through observing others and modeling their actions

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110
Q

Intersectionality calls attention to what?

A

how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification

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111
Q

An individual’s position within a social hierarchy being determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity is an example of _______________

A

intersectionality

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112
Q

Intersectionality can also refer to what?

A

intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation

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113
Q

What is an fMRI?

A

an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in blood flow

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114
Q

Stage 2 of sleep is characterized by what?

A

sleep spindles

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115
Q

Children in Piaget’s preoperational stage are typically between the ages of what?

A

2-6 or 7

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116
Q

True or False: The cerebellum is a primary structure of the reward system

A

False, the cerebellum is not a primary structure of the reward system

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117
Q

From an evolutionary standpoint, why have humans developed a preference for high caloric foods?

A

they are a good source of fuel in the form of fat

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118
Q

Name the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision

A

fovea

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119
Q

Name of the retina that contains a high density of rods

A

periphery

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120
Q

What is counterbalancing?

A

a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable

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121
Q

What is emotional flattening with regards to schizophrenia?

A

a negative symptom of schizophrenia

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122
Q

What are negative symptoms defined as?

A

the absence of appropriate behaviors and emotion

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123
Q

Negative priming requires the use of what type of memory?

A

implicit memory

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124
Q

What are neuroleptics?

A

the first antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and are effective in treating positive symptoms

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125
Q

The side effects of neuroleptics include __________ ________, which can exacerbate [positive or negative] symptoms

A

cognitive dulling; negative

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126
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

the ability to think on one’s feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning

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127
Q

Both schizophrenia and Alzheimer’s disease are characterized by what?

A

cognitive dysfunction

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128
Q

Personality traits like neuroticism [do or do not] predict interpersonal attraction

A

do not

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129
Q

___ _______ occurs after being REM-deprived the night before

A

REM rebound

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130
Q

What is the name of the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response?

A

the hypothalamus

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131
Q

What is dichotic listening?

A

the presentation of two different auditory messages, one to each ear

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132
Q

Social construction of race refers to what?

A

the idea that there is little biological basis for race (or ethnicity)

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133
Q

NMDA receptors are a subtype of _________ receptor

A

glutamate

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134
Q

The pheromone is detected by what type of neurons?

A

chemosensory neurons

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135
Q

Self-verification refers to what?

A

the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept

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136
Q

The Five Factor model features what five traits?

A

extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism and openness to experience

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137
Q

Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both ____ (specifically, aggression) and ________ (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements)

A

mood; appetite

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138
Q

Role strain refers to what?

A

stress from different expectations associated with a single role

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139
Q

Symbolic interactionism is most directly related to what?

A

studying social practices and rituals

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140
Q

Fundamental attribution error refers to what?

A

an observer’s bias in favor of internal attributions in explaining another person’s behavior

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141
Q

What are latent functions?

A

aspects of a social institution that may serve an unacknowledged purpose

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142
Q

What is sensory interaction?

A

the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may influence another (e.g., balance)

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143
Q

When does closure, one of the Gestalt principle of perceptual grouping, occur?

A

when people perceive objects that are incomplete as complete

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144
Q

The need for reassurance is an individual characteristic that leads to what?

A

isolation

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145
Q

What is signal detection theory?

A

the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the psychological state of the individual

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146
Q

What happens when an individual has a severed corpus callosum?

A

images projected to a visual field are represented in the opposite hemisphere of the brain

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147
Q

How do people behave when they experience cognitive dissonance?

A

they tend to change their attitudes to match their behaviors, rather than change their behavior

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148
Q

What are the characteristics of a child during Piaget’s sensorimotor stage?

A

a child is incapable of abstract thought

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149
Q

What are the characteristics of a child during Piaget’s preoperational stage?

A

children are imaginative and unable to reconcile errors in their thinking such as errors in a conservation task

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150
Q

What is altruism?

A

doing something for others without the expectation of receiving anything in return

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151
Q

When is group affiliation likely to be greatest?

A

when the members or participants in the group share similar outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills, and other aspects of cultural capital

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152
Q

The distress criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior demonstrates unusual or prolonged levels of stress

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153
Q

The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior negatively impacts the person’s life or poses a threat to others

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154
Q

The statistical deviancy criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior is statistically rare

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155
Q

The violation of social norms criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior violates social norms

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156
Q

Adolescents struggle with ________ _____ ____ _________ according to Erikson’s theory

A

identity versus role confusion

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157
Q

Young adults struggle with ________ _____ _________ according to Erikson’s theory

A

intimacy versus isolation

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158
Q

A middle-aged person struggles with ____________ _____ __________ according to Erikson’s theory

A

generativity versus stagnation

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159
Q

An elderly person struggles with _________ _____ _______ according to Erikson’s theory

A

integrity versus despair

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160
Q

Gender socialization refers to what?

A

the learning of norms and values associated with masculinity or femininity

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161
Q

Gender norms related to masculinity include what?

A

the encouragement of high-risk behaviors

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162
Q

An attitude is comprised of what three components?

A

cognitive, affective, and behavioral

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163
Q

The behavioral component of an attitude consists of what?

A

the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of the attitude object

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164
Q

The cognitive component of an attitude consists of what?

A

an individual’s beliefs about the attitude object

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165
Q

The affective component of an attitude consists of what?

A

the emotional experience evoked by the attitude object

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166
Q

What is a longitudinal study?

A

one that permits comparison of identical measures (including with the same group of participants) at two or more points in time

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167
Q

How is implicit memory tested?

A

by observing a participant’s performance on a task that does not involve any type of recall or recognition (i.e., on an indirect memory task)

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168
Q

Retrieving autobiographical information is an important type of what memory?

A

episodic memory

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169
Q

Semantic memory refers to what?

A

the processing of general world knowledge

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170
Q

Procedural memory is a form of what type of memory?

A

implicit memory

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171
Q

Alcohol dependence is most strongly indicated by what?

A

withdrawal symptoms

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172
Q

True or False: Impulsivity is one of the factors identified in Cattell’s Five Factor (the BIG Five) theory

A

False

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173
Q

True or False: Agreeableness is one of the personality traits identified in Cattell’s Five Factor (BIG Five) theory

A

True

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174
Q

What is overextension?

A

applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance

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175
Q

What is bootstrapping?

A

refers to the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development

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176
Q

Shaping involves what?

A

successive approximations of a behavior and is utilized to establish a novel behavior

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177
Q

Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with what?

A

retinal disparity

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178
Q

Retinal disparity is a [monocular or binocular] depth cue

A

binocular

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179
Q

Healthcare utilization and health-seeking behaviors are likely to be affected whenever a disease or disorder is ___________

A

stigmatized

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180
Q

Dementia is an ________ condition, and [is or is not] an inevitable result of normal aging

A

abnormal; is not

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181
Q

What is medicalization?

A

the process in which a social problem comes to be defined as a disease or disorder

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182
Q

What is tolerance?

A

a need to increase dosage to obtain the desired previous effect

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183
Q

Disinhibition is associated with what and often leads to what?

A

binge drinking; risk taking

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184
Q

Availability heuristic has to do with what?

A

schemas and memory

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185
Q

The bystander effect has to do with what?

A

intervening in social situations

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186
Q

Collective efficacy assessed what?

A

respondents’ perceptions that members of their community would help one another out

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187
Q

Self-efficacy refers to what?

A

a person’s belief in his or her ability to accomplish tasks

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188
Q

The concept of assimilation proposes what?

A

that an immigrant group will eventually adopt the customs (norms, values, etc.) of the majority group in a society

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189
Q

Auditory hair cells are classified under what type of receptors?

A

mechanoreceptors

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190
Q

What is spreading activation?

A

the representation of presented words to semantically related words

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191
Q

Depth of processing is generally used to explain what?

A

superior episodic memory with increasing depth of the encoding task

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192
Q

Social reproduction refers to what?

A

the perpetuation of inequalities through social institutions (like educational systems or the economy)

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193
Q

Institutional discrimination refers to what?

A

differential treatment of sociodemographic groups that is due to institutional culture or policies (rather than individual actions)

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194
Q

Social stratification refers to what?

A

the objective social hierarchy in a society (according to social group characteristics)

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195
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

the tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs, both in the search for evidence and in the interpretation of evidence

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196
Q

Is parental concealment a social interaction factor or a cognitive processing factor?

A

a social interaction factor

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197
Q

According to sociology, what is an organization?

A

a (relatively) formal group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose

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198
Q

Bodily postures, movements, and gestures are ________ _______ and ___________ ________

A

socially learned; culturally variable

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199
Q

The physical response to the original traumatic event was the _____________ ________

A

unconditioned response

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200
Q

What is the Gestalt grouping principle of proximity?

A

when characters are seen as interlinked due to their spatial contiguity with one another

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201
Q

What is the Gestalt grouping principle of continuity?

A

some portion of a visual stimulus is occluded and the unseen portion is inferred as continuous with the visible portion

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202
Q

The Gestalt grouping principle of common fate refers to what?

A

the observation that elements that are moving together tend to be perceived as a unified group

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203
Q

In which cerebral hemisphere are linguistic abilities lateralized?

A

left hemisphere

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204
Q

Institutional discrimination is a relevant factor under what circumstances?

A

when procedure utilization differs by race

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205
Q

What is psychological repression?

A

the process of suppressing a thought or desire in oneself so that it remains mostly unconscious

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206
Q

What is sublimation?

A

a type of defense mechanism where socially unacceptable behaviors are unconsciously transformed into acceptable ones

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207
Q

The inferiority complex is associated with the theory of whom?

A

Alfred Adler

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208
Q

What is the putamen?

A

a large structure located within the corpus striatum

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209
Q

The putamen is involved in what?

A

a complex feedback loop that prepares and aids in limb movements

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210
Q

What does the James-Lange theory state?

A

we experience emotions as a result of our physiological response to events

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211
Q

What dos the Cannon-Bard theory posit?

A

we feel emotions and experience physiological symptoms simultaneously

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212
Q

What does the Schacter-Singer theory state?

A

models emotion first as a physiological response followed by an interpretation of that response to context

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213
Q

There are how many amygdalae per person normally?

A

two, with one amygdala on each side of the brain

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214
Q

The amygdala are located within what specific lobes?

A

the temporal lobes

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215
Q

What does the James-Lange theory state?

A

specific emotions are elicited by stimuli that produce specific physiological reactions, which are transmitted as sensory information to the brain via the spinal cord

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216
Q

An antiemetic that prevents a recurrence of N/V is [inhibiting an undesirable stimulus or adding a desirable stimulus]

A

inhibiting an undesirable stimulus

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217
Q

What is a conditioned taste aversion?

A

a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs when an organism becomes ill after consuming something

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218
Q

When does extinction occur?

A

when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus

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219
Q

Acquisition refers to what?

A

the learning that takes place as an association is formed between the unconditioned stimulus and the neutral stimulus

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220
Q

When does stimulus generalization occur?

A

when the conditioned response is elicited by stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus

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221
Q

When does spontaneous recovery occur?

A

when an extinct response reappears after a period of time

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222
Q

What is secularization?

A

reduced power of religion as religion involvement declines

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223
Q

Religiosity refers to what?

A

the extent to which a religious doctrine is internalized and incorporated into an individual’s life

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224
Q

What are manifest functions?

A

intended, obvious purposes of a social structure

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225
Q

What are latent functions?

A

unintended results of a social structure

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226
Q

What dos the signal detection theory quantify?

A

how judgements or decisions are made under uncertain conditions amid noise

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227
Q

What is an instinct?

A

an innate, fixed pattern of behavior that is complex

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228
Q

What does an instinctive drift describe?

A

an animal’s innate behaviors overshadowing a learned behavior

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229
Q

Comorbidity refers to what?

A

the simultaneous presentation of two or more psychological disorders

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230
Q

What is the alternative hypothesis?

A

based on prior evidence and assumes that a significant relationship or difference exists between variables

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231
Q

What does the null hypothesis state?

A

there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables measured

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232
Q

What is the age range corresponding to Erikson’s generativity vs. stagnation?

A

middle adulthood, or 40-65.

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233
Q

Erikson’s generativity vs. stagnation is marked by what?

A

feelings of productivity for individuals who have made successful contributions to society and feelings of stagnation for those who have not

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234
Q

When does role conflict occur?

A

when expectations for two or more roles simultaneously held by an individual are in competition, producing tension

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235
Q

When does role strain occur?

A

when a single role involves multiple competing expectations that produce tension

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236
Q

Humanistic psychology emphasizes what?

A

the higher aspects of human nature, including the drive toward self-actualization and personal growth

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237
Q

What does the appraisal theory state?

A

one’s appraisal of a stimulus determines one’s emotional response

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238
Q

In a primary appraisal, an individual classifies a stimulus as what?

A

an individual classifies a stimulus as threatening, positive, or irrelevant

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239
Q

Under what circumstances does a secondary appraisal take place?

A

in which the individual evaluates whether their resources/abilities are sufficient to cope with the stressor

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240
Q

What is social capital?

A

the value embedded in social networks, the ability to call in favors, and the ability to rely on others for support in difficult circumstances

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241
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

removes an unpleasant factor that was previously present to encourage a behavior to be repeated

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242
Q

What is positive punishment?

A

adds an unpleasant consequence that was not previously present to discourage a behavior from being repeated

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243
Q

What is sexual dysfunction?

A

difficulty experienced by an individual or a couple during any stage of sexual activity

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244
Q

What is gender dysphoria?

A

the feeling of stress or discomfort in which one’s sense of one’s gender does not align with the gender assigned at birth

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245
Q

What is a racial barrier item?

A

assesses racial adversity in society

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246
Q

What is racial centrality?

A

the extent to which one’s race is an important part of the person’s overall self-concept

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247
Q

What is an independent samples t-test used for?

A

to compare mean values of two unrelated groups

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248
Q

What is regression used for?

A

to predict scores from independent variables

249
Q

What does Chomsky’s view state?

A

individuals have an innate language acquisition capacity

250
Q

Vgotsky’s social learning theory heavily stresses the role of what?

A

people and interactions in the acquisition of cognitive skills such as language, which would involve mirror neurons

251
Q

The postconventional stage in Kohlberg’s stages of moral development is characterized by what?

A

concern for mortality and the good of society rather than social rules and laws

252
Q

The preconventional stage in Kohlberg’s stages of moral development is characterized by what?

A

more concern for rewards and punishments than social rules and laws

253
Q

What is absolute poverty?

A

an income cutoff

254
Q

Stage 3 is referred to as what?

A

Delta sleep because of the delta waves that occur during this stage and typically lasts for about 30 minutes

255
Q

What happens during REM sleep?

A

breathing becomes more rapid, irregular and shallow; eyes jerk rapidly, and limb muscles are temporarily paralyzed

256
Q

What are the universal emotions?

A

anger, disgust, fear, surprise, happiness, sadness, and contempt

257
Q

What is a moderating variable?

A

one that changes the relationship between two variables

258
Q

What is a mediating variable?

A

one that explains the relationship between two other variables

259
Q

What is an ingroup?

A

a group for which a person has personal pride in and affinity

260
Q

An outgroup is regarded to be what?

A

socially undesirable

261
Q

When does a stereotype occur?

A

when an individual’s behavior changes based on perceived negative stereotypes about himself or herself

262
Q

When does cognitive dissonance happen?

A

when a person’s beliefs and reality do not match

263
Q

What is affect heuristic?

A

the process of making a judgement based on emotions that are evoked

264
Q

What does the context effort refer to?

A

the influence of environmental characteristics of a person’s perception of a stimulus

265
Q

What is a false alarm?

A

when the participant incorrectly responded positively when the stimulus was not present

266
Q

A miss implies what?

A

that the stimulus was indeed present on the list but the participant did not recognize it

267
Q

Signal detection theory focuses on what?

A

the mechanisms by which individuals detect certain stimuli over others

268
Q

The humanistic perspective is centered on what?

A

the use of free will and achieving self-fulfillment

269
Q

The social cognitive perspective emphasizes the role of what?

A

both thinking and social learning in personality development

270
Q

The behavioral perspective is related to what?

A

external stimuli and their effects on observable behaviors

271
Q

Sexual dimorphism refers to what?

A

the degree to which males and females resemble each other

272
Q

A species with low sexual dimorphism contains what?

A

males and females that look mostly identical

273
Q

High sexual dimorphism signals what?

A

intense competition for mates

274
Q

Informative pressure is a subtype of __________ ________

A

conformity pressure

275
Q

When does informative pressure occur?

A

when an individual conforms his or her behavior to match that of the rest of the group out of the belief that the group is better informed and knows more than the individual

276
Q

The limbic system plays a key role in what?

A

human emotion

277
Q

True or False: Feminism is not focused on the influence of systems on individuals

A

False, feminism is very focused on the influence of systems on individuals

278
Q

What is a subculture?

A

a group of individuals who are characteristically distinct from the dominant culture, but whose values and norms still generally align with the dominant culture

279
Q

What does the James-Lange theory state?

A

specific emotions are elicited by stimuli that produce specific physiological reactions

280
Q

As a component of the central nervous system, the spinal cord contains what?

A

gray matter surrounded by white matter

281
Q

Why are individuals with cervical spinal injury unable to experience emotion?

A

because sensory information from the body cannot reach the brain

282
Q

What does the Cannon-Bard theory state?

A

physiological arousal and emotion are independent processes that occur simultaneously

283
Q

What is secularization?

A

reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines

284
Q

Religiosity refers to what?

A

the extent to which a religious doctrine is internalized and incorporated into an individual’s life

285
Q

Religious affiliation describes what?

A

the specific religious group to which an individual identifies

286
Q

What is structural functionalism?

A

a macro-sociological perspective that compares modern society to a biological organism

287
Q

From the structural functionalist perspective, manifest functions are _______

A

expected

288
Q

From the structural functionalist perspective, latent functions are __________

A

unintended

289
Q

Division of labor refers to what?

A

the specialization of tasks in society that are interdependent

290
Q

What is the advantage of division of labor?

A

when labor is divided among multiple individuals who each perform one task to accomplish the end product, each individual can specialize, which increases efficiency and quantity while reducing costs

291
Q

What is the disadvantage of division of labor?

A

it can result in the exploitation of labor, reduced quality, and workers becoming bored with monotonous tasks

292
Q

What does the Malthusian theory of population growth suggest?

A

that human populations increase exponentially but the resources needed to sustain these populations increase much more slowly

293
Q

Intersectionality describes what?

A

the multiple, interconnected social identities that intersect to impact individuals’ lives, perspectives, and treatment in society

294
Q

What are sensory receptors?

A

specialized neurons that detect stimuli in the internal or external environment and transmit this information to the brain for interpretation and perception

295
Q

Mechanoreceptors are sensitive to what?

A

mechanical stimulation caused by pressure, vibration, or movement

296
Q

Hair cells are a type of _______________ in the ear

A

mechanoreceptor

297
Q

Hair cells depolarize in response to what?

A

mechanical stimulation caused by vibration of this fluid

298
Q

Chemoreceptors play a key role in what?

A

taste, smell, and senses

299
Q

Behaviors that are learned result from what?

A

observation and experience

300
Q

Bottom-up processing starts with what?

A

the sensory input and builds up to a final perception in the brain

301
Q

Top-down processing involves what?

A

prior knowledge and expectations influencing perception

302
Q

Place theory explains what?

A

the perception of sound pitch

303
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

processing visual information from the eyes including color, shape, and motion

304
Q

What is the frontal lobe is responsible for?

A

initiating movement and higher-level cognitive processes

305
Q

What are mirror neurons?

A

a type of neuron that fires when an individual both observes and performs a behavior

306
Q

When do vicarious emotions occur?

A

when an observer intuits the feelings that another might be experiencing

307
Q

Feminist theory attempts to explain what?

A

differences in power between men and women in society, or gender inequality

308
Q

At the macro level, feminist theory considers what?

A

how social structures maintain gender inequality

309
Q

At the micro level, feminist theory considers what?

A

how one-on-one interactions maintain gender inequality by objectifying or devaluing women

310
Q

What is structural functionalism?

A

a macro-level perspective positing that social structures serve the function in society of maintaining balance or equilibrium

311
Q

What theory would suggest that differences in the emotional expression of men and women maintain equilibrium in society?

A

structural functionalism

312
Q

What is globalization?

A

the process by which tangibles and spread across the world, primarily as a result of advances in technology and communication

313
Q

What is world systems theory?

A

an economic theory of globalization that views the world as a global economy where some countries benefit at the expense of others

314
Q

What are core nations?

A

wealthy nations with strong, diversified economies and centralized governments

315
Q

What are periphery nations?

A

poor nations and have weak governments and economies

316
Q

What are semi-periphery nations?

A

between core and periphery nations, with economies that are relatively more diversified than those of periphery nations

317
Q

McDonaldization describes what?

A

the process by which extreme efficiency and rationalization produce negative consequences

318
Q

What is ascribed status?

A

a position in society based on a social construct such as age, gender, or race/ethnicity

319
Q

What is the self-serving bias?

A

a common type of attributional bias in which an individual attributes success to internal factors but blames failure on external factors

320
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

a common cognitive bias that occurs when we tend to favor information confirming beliefs and ignore, disregard, or refute information contradicting those beliefs

321
Q

In scientific research, to operationalize a variable means what?

A

that a variable that is not directly measurable is defined in such a way that it can be measured for the purposes of testing/assessment

322
Q

Rational choice theory states what?

A

people are rational decision makers who behave in ways that maximize gain and minimize loss

323
Q

Social exchange theory suggests what?

A

that individual interactions are based on decisions regarding the costs and benefits accrued to each person in the membership

324
Q

Attribution theory suggests what?

A

that individual tend to explain behavior as resulting from internal or external causes

325
Q

Internal (dispositional) attributions ascribe behavior to what?

A

personal factors such as personality, ability, or attitude

326
Q

External (situational) attributions ascribe behavior to what?

A

environmental factors such as task difficulty, presence of others, or luck

327
Q

Social mobility refers to what?

A

the movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society

328
Q

What are attributional biases?

A

cognitive biases that occur when people attempt to explain their own behavior or the behavior of someone else

329
Q

What is the actor-observer bias?

A

an attributional bias that describes the tendency to attribute one’s own actions to external factors but the actions of others to internal factors

330
Q

What is the dependency ratio?

A

the proportion of unproductive to productive members in a society

331
Q

How can the dependency ratio be calculated?

A

by adding the number of people below age 15 and above age 64 and dividing that sum by the number of people age 15-64 multiplied by 100

332
Q

How are expanding pyramids characterized?

A

have broad bases (lots of younger people) and narrow tops (few older people) and are characteristic of developing countries in the early stages of demographic transition, with high birth/death rates and increasing population sizes

333
Q

How are stationary pyramids characterized?

A

have broad bases and tops and are characteristic of developed countries in the later stages of demographic transition, with low birth/death rates and stable population sizes

334
Q

How are contracting pyramids characterized?

A

have narrower bases than middles and are characteristic of developed countries in the final stage of demographic transition, with very low birth rates and a gradually declining population size

335
Q

What is a confirmation bias?

A

a type of cognitive bias in which individuals tend to embrace evidence supporting their beliefs, dismiss or ignore evidence refuting their beliefs, and interpret ambiguous evidence as support

336
Q

When does self-serving bias occur?

A

when success is credited to internal factors but failure is blamed on external factors

337
Q

When does actor-observer bias occur?

A

when an individual is more likely to blame his or her own bad behavior on external circumstance

338
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

a cognitive bias in which an event is perceived as being likely or predictable after it has occurred, even if it was not likely to happen

339
Q

Nonverbal communication involves what?

A

all wordless cues that convey meaning when exchanged between individuals

340
Q

What is structural functionalism?

A

a macro-level sociological perspective suggesting that all aspects of society work together to maintain dynamic equilibrium

341
Q

What does the elaboration likelihood model propose?

A

that when an individual is uninterested in a message, superficial factors may be most persuasive

342
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

a micro-level sociological theory that suggests that people communicate using symbols

343
Q

Classical conditioning is closely related to what approach?

A

the behaviorist approach

344
Q

What forms the outermost layer of the front of the eye, in which it directly contacts the back of the eyelid?

A

the cornea

345
Q

What does Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) state?

A

an organism’s stress response always follows a similar course, regardless of the exact nature of the stressor

346
Q

Motor tasks require the proper functioning of what?

A

the cerebellum

347
Q

What does the median represent?

A

the middle of the distribution, splitting the sample distribution of values in half (half of the values are above the median while the other half are below it)

348
Q

Gentrification describes what?

A

the process in which relatively affluent individuals move into a neighborhood that recently consisted of residents with low to moderate income

349
Q

In Erikson’s theory, the major crisis facing adults is what?

A

generativity versus stagnation

350
Q

Assimilation refers to what?

A

the process in which new members of a society adopt the norms and values of the dominant culture

351
Q

What are three of the elements of assimilation?

A

cultural adaptation, adopting new norms, and relinquishing old norms

352
Q

What is chunking?

A

when a sequence is combined into a single unit, making it easier to recognize

353
Q

What does the Atkinson-Shiffrin multistore memory model state?

A

the initial registration of the information is briefly processed in a form of sensory memory, which is extremely brief in duration

354
Q

What are reference groups?

A

groups that an individual would like to join and are important for self-evaluation and identity formation

355
Q

What is a peer group made up of?

A

individuals in a similar social position or social role

356
Q

When does role conflict occur?

A

when a person experiences stress or tension from having to manage the social responsibilities of two or more social roles

357
Q

Conflict theory emphasizes what?

A

competition between social groups over the allocation of resources

358
Q

Conflict theory assumes what?

A

power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages

359
Q

The functionalist theory assumes what?

A

social phenomena have specific functions that work within a systematic whole

360
Q

What is shadowing?

A

testing for selective attention

361
Q

The brain areas that process linguistic information are lateralized in what hemisphere?

A

the left hemisphere

362
Q

The ________ ____ operationally defines the inputs to which subjects must attend

A

shadowing task

363
Q

The hypothalamus is concerned largely with what?

A

the maintenance of homeostatic equilibrium

364
Q

Damage restricted to the hypothalamus would be [likely or unlikely] to interfere with discrimination learning or attention skills

A

unlikely

365
Q

The correct response must first be unambiguously made known to the subject, generally through a ________ procedure

A

shaping

366
Q

What is instinctual drift?

A

the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors

367
Q

What is operant extinction?

A

when a behavior is no longer exhibited after the reinforcer is removed

368
Q

Popular culture is an agent of what?

A

socialization

369
Q

What are some examples of agents of socialization?

A

popular culture, schools, family, and religion

370
Q

Agents of socialization to refer to what?

A

parts of society that are important for socialization

371
Q

What is socialization?

A

the process of learning the norms and values in a society

372
Q

Cultural transmission addresses what?

A

how culture is learned

373
Q

In cultural transmission, how is culture passed along from generation to generation?

A

through various childrearing practices

374
Q

Culture lag refers to what?

A

the fact that culture takes time to catch up with technological innovations, resulting in social problems

375
Q

Unconditioned responses occur naturally, [with or without] learning

A

without

376
Q

When do conditioned responses occur?

A

when a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus

377
Q

What does positive reinforcement refer to?

A

a desirable stimulus being applied

378
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

an undesirable stimulus being withdrawn

379
Q

What is taste aversion?

A

a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs after just one instance of becoming ill following food/beverage consumption

380
Q

In classical conditioning, when does extinction occur?

A

when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus

381
Q

What are the effects of stimulants on the central nervous system?

A

increase feelings of well-being, energy, and alertness

382
Q

What are the effects of depressants on the central nervous system?

A

slow down or inhibit the central nervous system and reduce anxiety

383
Q

What are narcotics?

A

analgesics

384
Q

What are the effects of hallucinogens on the central nervous system?

A

they can alter the mind

385
Q

How does intragenerational social mobility occur?

A

within a single generation

386
Q

How does intergenerational social mobility occur?

A

over multiple generations

387
Q

In operant conditioning, reinforcement [increases or decreases] the likelihood a behavior will occur again

A

increases

388
Q

Positive reinforcement involves what?

A

the application of a desirable stimulus

389
Q

Negative reinforcement involves what?

A

the withdrawal of an undesirable stimulus

390
Q

What is implicit/nondeclarative memory?

A

memory for things that cannot be consciously recalled such as skills, tasks, emotions, and reflexes

391
Q

Classically conditioned responses rely on what?

A

implicit memory

392
Q

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by what?

A

inattention and impulsivity

393
Q

What type of memory has the shortest duration and smallest capacity?

A

sensory memory

394
Q

How long does short-term memory last for?

A

half a minute

395
Q

What are the two types of long-term memory?

A

explicit (declarative) and implicit (procedural)

396
Q

What are the two types of declarative memory?

A

episodic (personal experiences) and semantic (facts)

397
Q

Motion parallax is important for what?

A

motion and distance

398
Q

Motion parallax describes what?

A

when objects in the foreground appear to be moving faster than objects in the background

399
Q

What is the phi phenomenon?

A

an optical illusion in which a series of still photographs presented in rapid succession appear to be moving

400
Q

When does divided attention occur?

A

when an individual attends to more than one stimulus or task simultaneously

401
Q

Multitasking is impacted by what?

A

task similarity, difficulty, and practice

402
Q

The cocktail party effect describes what?

A

when attention quickly shifts from an attended stimulus to an unattended stimulus when something significant occurs

403
Q

What is proactive interference?

A

when old information prevents recollection of new information

404
Q

What is retroactive interference?

A

when new information prevents recollection of old information

405
Q

The education system’s hidden curriculum includes what?

A

implied, informal mechanisms by which certain values and behaviors are reinforced

406
Q

The formal curriculum includes what?

A

explicit, official content taught to students

407
Q

The Gestalt principle of similarity refers to what?

A

our tendency to group together objects that share similar features

408
Q

The Gestalt principle of common fate describes what?

A

our perception that things moving together are grouped together

409
Q

The Gestalt principle of continuity describes what?

A

our tendency to perceive elements as continuing on a smooth path

410
Q

The Gestalt principle of proximity describes what?

A

our tendency to perceive things that are physically closer to one another as a group

411
Q

Those in the upper class tend to have what?

A

the most power and prestige in society

412
Q

Social stratification refers to what?

A

a society’s categorization of its people into rankings of socioeconomic tiers based on factors like wealth, income, and power

413
Q

What is the nuclear family?

A

the basic social unit composed of primary kin (two married adults and their offspring)

414
Q

What is spatial inequality?

A

the unfair distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area

415
Q

Spatial inequality results in what?

A

poor health outcomes for lower-income individuals

416
Q

Erikson’s theory focuses on what?

A

how personality is shaped by social interaction

417
Q

Piaget’s theory contends what?

A

that children progress through four universal stages that reflect the acquisition of predictable mental skills

418
Q

Freud’s theory proposes what?

A

that progression through psychosexual stages as a child determines adult personality

419
Q

Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development proposes what?

A

that humans progress through stages of moral and ethical reasoning throughout their lifetime, starting with basic moral reasoning during childhood and progressing to more abstract reasoning in adulthood

420
Q

When does a self-fulfilling prophecy occur?

A

when a belief about oneself causes behavior that makes the belief come true

421
Q

What are attributional biases?

A

cognitive biases that occur when individuals attempt to understand their own behavior or the behavior of others

422
Q

What is the just world phenomenon?

A

an attributional bias that occurs when one believes that the world is fair and good things happen to people who are bad or lazy

423
Q

What is the fundamental attribution error?

A

an attributional bias that occurs when one attributes another’s behavior to internal factors such as personality instead of external or situational factors

424
Q

What is a population pyramid?

A

a type of bar graph that depicts the number or percentage of men and women in certain age cohorts in a given population

425
Q

What do expanding pyramids reflect?

A

growing populations with more young than old individuals

426
Q

What do stationary pyramids reflect?

A

stable populations

427
Q

What do contracting pyramids reflect?

A

gradually declining populations

428
Q

Long-term potentiation (LTP) describes what?

A

the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations

429
Q

When does long-term potentiation (LTP) occur?

A

when a neuron’s firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple inputs

430
Q

What are the two mechanisms LTP can occur?

A

an increase in the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron and an increase in the number of receptors in the postsynaptic neuron

431
Q

What is state-dependent memory?

A

a phenomenon whereby memory retrieval is most efficient when an individual’s internal state at the time of retrieval is the same as when the memory was encoded

432
Q

What are tonic receptors?

A

sensory receptors that continue to produce action potentials throughout the duration of a stimulus

433
Q

What does a rigid behaviorist approach state?

A

only actual outcomes of a behavior determine whether that behavior will be repeated

434
Q

Extrinsic motivation refers to what?

A

any motivation that results from incentives to perform a behavior that are not inherent to the behavior itself

435
Q

Incongruence refers to what?

A

the gap between a person’s actual self and ideal self

436
Q

The retina contains photoreceptors, which serve what function?

A

detect light and transduce light to energy

437
Q

What is the function of the cornea and iris?

A

can accommodate and focus the incoming light rays

438
Q

What function do the lens serve?

A

can focus the incoming light rays on the photoreceptors

439
Q

What is socialization?

A

learning of norms and values

440
Q

What is a reference group?

A

a group by which participants will evaluate themselves based on thoughts about the group

441
Q

What is an in-group?

A

a group that an individual feels an affinity toward

442
Q

The distress criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior demonstrates unusual or prolonged levels of stress

443
Q

The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior negatively impacts the person’s life or poses a threat to others

444
Q

The statistical deviancy criterion takes into account of what?

A

whether the behavior is statistically rare

445
Q

According to Erikson’s theory, adolescents struggle with what?

A

identity versus role confusion

446
Q

According to Erikson’s theory, young adults struggle with what?

A

intimacy versus isolation

447
Q

According to Erikson’s theory, a middle-aged person struggles with what?

A

generativity versus stagnation

448
Q

According to Erikson’s theory, an elderly person struggles with what?

A

integrity versus despair

449
Q

Observation is important to what theory?

A

social learning theory

450
Q

What is habituation?

A

the loss of reduced levels of responsiveness due to repeated exposure

451
Q

What does the behavioral component consist of?

A

the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of the attitude object

452
Q

What does the cognitive component of an attitude consist of?

A

an individual’s beliefs about the attitude object

453
Q

What does the affective component consist of?

A

the emotional experience evoked by the attitude object

454
Q

Alcohol dependence is most strongly indicated by what?

A

withdrawal symptoms

455
Q

Bootstrapping refers to what?

A

the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development

456
Q

Overextension is the term for what?

A

applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance

457
Q

Shaping involves what?

A

reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior

458
Q

Retinal height, occlusion, and texture gradient, are all [monocular or binocular] depth cues

A

monocular

459
Q

Retinal disparity is a [monocular or binocular] depth cue

A

binocular

460
Q

What is medicalization?

A

the process in which a social problem comes to be defined as a disease or disorder

461
Q

What is role conflict?

A

tensions stemming from multiple social roles

462
Q

Role strain involves what?

A

tensions in the demands from a single social role

463
Q

What is generalized anxiety disorder?

A

an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry

464
Q

People with GAD may experience what?

A

muscle tension, difficulty concentrating or sleeping, and restlessness, fatigue, or irritability

465
Q

REM sleep is characterized by what?

A

rapid closed-eye movements, body paralysis, and brain activity

466
Q

Dreaming is most common during what stage of sleep?

A

REM sleep

467
Q

What are somatic symptom and related disorders?

A

a group of disorders in which bodily symptoms or illnesses are associated with psychological factors

468
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

an SSRD characterized by extreme distress and concern regarding one or more actual bodily/physical symptoms

469
Q

What does the null hypothesis (H₀) state?

A

there is no difference between 2 groups

470
Q

What does the alternative hypothesis suppose?

A

a difference does exist

471
Q

What is a type I error?

A

a true null hypothesis

472
Q

What is a type II error?

A

failing to reject a false null hypothesis

473
Q

When does escape learning occur?

A

when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus

474
Q

When does avoidance learning occur?

A

when an organism learns how to prevent coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus before it occurs

475
Q

Primary reinforcers are what?

A

naturally rewarding

476
Q

Secondary reinforcers are what?

A

conditioned to be desirable

477
Q

Tokens can be exchanged for what?

A

something the individual wants

478
Q

Fluid intelligence involves what?

A

logic and creativity

479
Q

Crystallized intelligence involves what?

A

knowledge and skills

480
Q

What is selective attention?

A

the ability to focus on one stream of information while ignoring other stimuli

481
Q

What is divided attention?

A

the ability to attend to more than one stimulus at a time

482
Q

Each stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory of personality is associated with what?

A

a crisis involving a conflict that provides an opportunity for growth

483
Q

Successful resolution of stages results in what?

A

healthy personality

484
Q

Unsuccessful resolution leads to what?

A

psychopathology

485
Q

When does retroactive interference occur?

A

when recently encoded information prevents the recall of older information

486
Q

When does proactive interference occur?

A

when previously encoded information prevents the recall of new information

487
Q

What is context-dependent memory?

A

the process whereby information is more easily recalled when an individual is in the same context where he or she first learned the information

488
Q

Reinforcement schedules can be ____________ or _______

A

continuous; partial

489
Q

What is fixed ratio?

A

reward given after a consistent number of behaviors

490
Q

What is variable ratio?

A

reward given after an inconsistent number of behaviors

491
Q

What is fixed interval?

A

a reward given after consistent amount of time

492
Q

What is variable interval?

A

a reward given after an inconsistent amount of time

493
Q

Ratio schedules produce [rapid or slow] response rates, whereas interval schedules produce [faster or slower] response rates

A

rapid; slower

494
Q

Fixed interval reinforcement schedules tend to produce [increased or decreased] behavior just before the reward and [increased or decreased] behavior just after

A

increased; decreased

495
Q

What must be controlled for at the outset of a study?

A

potential confounding variables

496
Q

If the groups do not vary in terms of the potential confounding variable, then any significant differences may be attributed to what?

A

the independent variable

497
Q

The expectancy theory of motivation proposes what?

A

that motivation results from expectancy, instrumentality, and valence

498
Q

What is expectancy?

A

the belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome

499
Q

What is instrumentality?

A

the belief that one has the control over the desired outcome

500
Q

Valence involves what?

A

the value placed on the desired outcome

501
Q

The Maslow hierarchy of needs proposes what?

A

that basic needs must be met before psychological needs can be attained

502
Q

What are some examples of basic needs?

A

physiological and safety

503
Q

What are some examples of psychological needs?

A

love and belonging and esteem

504
Q

All lower needs must be addressed before one can reach the pinnacle of safety, which is what?

A

self-actualization

505
Q

A correlation coefficient with an absolute value close to 1 indicates what?

A

a strong linear relationship between variables

506
Q

Positive correlations reflect what?

A

scores that move in the same direction

507
Q

Negative correlations reflect what?

A

scores that move in opposite directions

508
Q

What does the principle of grouping by similarity state?

A

things that look alike are more likely to be grouped together during perceptual processing

509
Q

What is Gestalt psychology?

A

the theoretical approach that emphasized the idea that the ways in which people’s perceptual experience is organized result from how human brains are organized

510
Q

Context effects reflect what?

A

how both the context in which stimuli are presented and the processes of perceptual organization contribute to how people perceive those stimuli

511
Q

What is the method used to operationally define the subject’s motivational state?

A

depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time

512
Q

Cultural capital refers to what?

A

knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status

513
Q

Learning that a specific facial expression means one feeling, rather than another, is an example of what?

A

discrimination

514
Q

What is discrimination?

A

the ability of an individual to tell apart differing stimuli

515
Q

What is acquisition?

A

the initial learning of a conditioned response to a stimulus

516
Q

The human body responds to chronic stress by producing what from the pituitary gland?

A

the adrenocorticotropic hormone

517
Q

The production of the adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the release of what from the adrenal gland?

A

cortisol

518
Q

What is released in the bloodstream from the adrenal gland as part of the acute stress response?

A

epinephrine

519
Q

When does body dysmorphic disorder occur?

A

when a subject perceives a defect in the appearance of part of his or her body, and becomes excessively preoccupied with this defect

520
Q

Feelings or sensations caused by a missing limb are known as what?

A

Phantom Limb pain

521
Q

What are some symptoms of Phantom Limb pain?

A

tingling and itching to burning and aching

522
Q

Somatoform disorders are concerned with what?

A

symptoms that cannot be explained by a general medical condition

523
Q

What is a fixed ratio schedule?

A

Receiving a reward every time the subject responds correctly

524
Q

The sociological paradigm of conflict theory broadly calls attention to what?

A

competition among social groups, including generational conflict

525
Q

What is the dependency ratio?

A

a ratio of the number of economically dependent members of the population to the number of economically productive members

526
Q

When do source monitoring errors occur?

A

when the details of an event are correctly remembered, but the origin or context of the information is incorrectly attributed

527
Q

Dissociative disorder is marked by what?

A

an apparent “escape from reality” to avoid stressors in the environment

528
Q

Retrograde amnesia involves what?

A

the inability to remember things before the accident/disease onset

529
Q

Meritocracy assumes what?

A

that opportunity is based on a combination of talent and effort

530
Q

Hallucinogens have [low or high] risk of dependence

A

low

531
Q

Conflict theory is most often associated with what?

A

class-based conceptions of society

532
Q

Social stratification refers to what?

A

a society’s categorization of its people into rankings of socioeconomic tiers based on factors like wealth, income, and power

533
Q

Individuals 12 years and older who acquire abstract reasoning skills reach which of Piaget’s cognitive developmental stages?

A

Formal operational stage

534
Q

According to Erikson, infants who are 3 to 4 months old and 6 to 7 months old are faced with what issues?

A

trust versus mistrust

535
Q

According to Freud, the oral stage occurs at what point in an individual’s life?

A

from birth to 12–18 months

536
Q

The oral stage is characteristic of what?

A

interest in oral gratification from sucking, eating, and biting

537
Q

What occurs during the anal stage?

A

toddlers and preschool-aged children begin to experiment with urine and feces

538
Q

Vocabulary skills tend to be lateralized to what hemisphere?

A

the left hemisphere

539
Q

Visuospatial skills, music perception, and emotion processing tend to be lateralized to what hemisphere?

A

the right hemisphere

540
Q

Emotional intelligence refers to what?

A

the ability to perceive, express, understand, and manage one’s emotions

541
Q

Bottom-up processing refers to what?

A

processing details first and then processing the whole

542
Q

What happens in top-down processing?

A

perceptions begin with the most general and move toward the more specific

543
Q

What does invariance state?

A

that a drawing of an object can be perceived as the same object even if it has been changed in size

544
Q

What is multistability?

A

when an image can be perceived in two or more ways

545
Q

Bluish-violet light is [short or long] wavelength light

A

short

546
Q

With more information, the brain is able to create a [less or more] accurate interpretation of the information

A

more

547
Q

450 nm corresponds to what range of colors on the visible spectrum?

A

indigo-violet end

548
Q

What is phototransduction?

A

the process by which light is converted into electrical signals in the rods, cones, and photosensitive ganglion cells of the retina of the eye

549
Q

What is phototaxis?

A

the movement of an organism towards or away from a light source

550
Q

A discrepancy between a belief and a behavior creates what?

A

cognitive dissonance

551
Q

What does fundamental attribution error refer to?

A

he tendency of individuals to attribute other’s behaviors to dispositional factors while attributing one’s own behaviors to situational factors

552
Q

What does the incentive theory of motivation posit?

A

that humans respond rationally to external incentives and focuses largely on extrinsic motivation

553
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

the phenomenon wherein people do better on simple, familiar tasks when others are present, but worse on less familiar or less well-practiced tasks when others are present

554
Q

Demographic transition theory addresses what?

A

changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development

555
Q

The pattern of demographic transition theory begins with what?

A

begins with a drop in the death rate, leading to population growth, followed by a drop in the birth rate, leading to population stabilization

556
Q

Stage 2 of sleep is characterized by what?

A

sleep spindles

557
Q

Piaget’s preoperational stage are typically between the ages of what?

A

2–6 or 7

558
Q

True or False: The cerebellum is a primary structure of the reward system

A

False, the cerebellum is a primary structure of the reward system

559
Q

What do infants commonly begin to express around 8 months of age?

A

stranger anxiety

560
Q

What does the place theory posit?

A

that one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basilar membrane

561
Q

What is counterbalancing in research?

A

a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable

562
Q

Negative priming requires the use of what kind of memory?

A

implicit memory

563
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

the ability to think on one’s feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning

564
Q

Both schizophrenia and Alzheimer’s disease are characterized by what?

A

cognitive dysfunction

565
Q

Associative learning is based on what?

A

conditioning a response to stimuli

566
Q

When is associative punishment administered?

A

when an organism exhibits behavior without the stimulus

567
Q

What is vicarious reward or punishment?

A

when subjects watch others get rewarded or punished

568
Q

What is a good technique for conditioning any new behavior?

A

continuous reinforcement

569
Q

What kind of schedule creates a behavior that is most resistant to extinction?

A

a variable ratio schedule

570
Q

What are primary reinforcers?

A

things that are directly biological

571
Q

What are some examples of primary reinforcers?

A

food, drink, or sex

572
Q

What are secondary reinforcers?

A

things that are conditioned

573
Q

What are some examples of secondary reinforcers?

A

money or grades in school

574
Q

What is perceptual narrowing?

A

losing the ability to discern certain stimuli from disuse

575
Q

What is an example of perceptual narrowing?

A

losing the ability to hear or pronounce certain sounds if these sounds are not used in an individual’s language

576
Q

According to Piaget, the infants between 0-24 months are in what period?

A

the sensorimotor period

577
Q

During the sensorimotor period, humans learn what?

A

object permanence

578
Q

What is object permanence?

A

when objects continue to exist when they are not perceivable

579
Q

When does symbolic thinking occur?

A

during the preoperational stage

580
Q

When does logical thinking occur?

A

during the concrete operational stage

581
Q

A mediating variable explains what?

A

a counterintuitive relationship between a dependent variable and an independent variable

582
Q

A moderating variable modulates what?

A

the intensity of a certain relationship

583
Q

What is avoidance learning?

A

a type of negative reinforcement where an attitude or behavior is learned that causes avoidance of something in the future

584
Q

What is escape learning?

A

a learned behavior to escape something in the present

585
Q

Central route processing of the elaboration likelihood model involves what?

A

elaboration upon persuasive and concrete information

586
Q

Peripheral route processing of the elaboration likelihood model involves what?

A

consideration of more subjective and superficial information

587
Q

A cross-sectional design focuses on what?

A

data from a specific point in time

588
Q

The more distinctive behavior is, the [less or more] likely an observer is to attribute that behavior to the situation

A

more

589
Q

What is intergenerational class mobility?

A

a change in social class from one generation to the next

590
Q

What does intragenerational class mobility refer to?

A

a change in social mobility of an individual throughout the course of his or her life

591
Q

Stage 1 of a society is what?

A

preindustrial and has high birth and mortality rates

592
Q

When does Stage 2 of a society occur?

A

when a country has begun industrializing and the mortality rates decline, and birth rates remain at a high level

593
Q

Stage 3 of society sees what?

A

a drop in both mortality and birth rates

594
Q

When does Stage 4 of a society occur?

A

when a society is fully industrialized and both birth and mortality rates are low and fluctuate only to a small degree

595
Q

What is the old-age dependency ratio?

A

the population ages 65 or above divided by the population ages 16-64

596
Q

Experiencing psychological distress when observing someone in pain is an element of what?

A

empathy

597
Q

What is the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response?

A

hypothalamus

598
Q

What is the operational definition of dichotic listening?

A

two different stimuli are presented to different ears

599
Q

The social construction of race refers to what?

A

the idea that there is little biological basis for race (or ethnicity). Instead, racial/ethnic categories result from history, culture, and society

600
Q

What is the best imaging tool for measuring brain activation in particular regions?

A

a PET scan

601
Q

Peer groups is what type of group?

A

a type of primary group

602
Q

What is groupthink?

A

when individuals who are part of a cohesive in-group will agree to the same behavior

603
Q

A functionalist is focused on what?

A

social solidarity

604
Q

A conflict theorist is focused on what?

A

social control and social inequality

605
Q

Different generational cohorts will have distinct life experiences based on what?

A

their place in history

606
Q

What is one example of a generational difference?

A

patterns of internet usage

607
Q

NMDA receptors are a subtype of what receptor?

A

glutamate receptor

608
Q

Self-verification refers to what?

A

the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept

609
Q

What are the Big Five traits from the Five Factor model?

A

Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness

610
Q

What is serotonin involved in?

A

the regulation of both mood (specifically aggression) and appetite

611
Q

The use of maintaining homeostasis is consistent with what theory?

A

drive reduction theory

612
Q

Symbolic interactionism is most directly related to what?

A

studying social practices and rituals

613
Q

When does closure, one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping, occur?

A

when people perceive objects that are incomplete as complete

614
Q

What does the fundamental attribution error refer to?

A

an observer’s bias in favor of internal attributions in explaining another person’s behavior

615
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

when one gives up after enduring repeated aversive stimuli beyond his or her control

616
Q

The symbolic interactionist perspective is predicated on what?

A

interaction and interpretation

617
Q

What is one possible adaptive coping response?

A

support-seeking

618
Q

Impression management addresses what?

A

how individuals actively manifest their sense of self in social interactions