Chem/Phys Flashcards
1
Q
The SI base unit for mass is
A
the kilogram
2
Q
How do we sum vectors?
A
Trace a path from one vector to the next and then map the path from the origin to the endpoint of the vector sum
3
Q
What is the equation for vx?
A
vo x cos(θ)
4
Q
What is the equation for vy?
A
vo x sin(θ)
5
Q
What is the kinematic equation for Δy?
A
Δy = vyt + 1/2at²
6
Q
In circular motion, the moving object is always accelerating toward ________.
A
the center of the circle
7
Q
The slope of a _______ vs. _______ graph denotes velocity
A
displacement; time
8
Q
An acceleration that remains steady at 0 m/s is a _______ acceleration
A
constant
9
Q
A free fall situation refers to what?
A
situations where an object has no initial vertical velocity and experiences constant acceleration due to gravity
10
Q
What is the simplified free fall equation?
A
t=√(2y/g)
11
Q
What is a radical?
A
a species with one or more unpaired electrons
12
Q
How do you determine entropy change in a reaction given the moles of reactants and products?
A
Count up the number of moles on both the reactants and products side
13
Q
For a zero order reaction, the rate law is the _____ ______ and a plot of the reactant concentration over time is a straight line with ___ as the slope
A
rate constant; -k
14
Q
How can we determine the order of a reaction given the rate law?
A
by adding up the exponents for the reactants included in the rate law
15
Q
What are the units for a third order reaction?
A
M⁻²⁻s¹
16
Q
Catalysts [stabilize or destabilize] the transition state.
A
stabilize
17
Q
A [homogenous or heteogenous] catalyst is one that is in a different phase than the gaseous and liquid reactants
A
heteogenous
18
Q
What is the overall order of a chemical reaction if it involves a single reactant (R) and if a plot of 1/([R]) vs. time is linear?
A
second order
19
Q
What is the overall order of a chemical reaction if it involves a single reactant (R) and if a plot of [R] vs. time is linear?
A
zero order
20
Q
What is the overall order of a chemical reaction if it involves a single reactant (R) and if a plot of (ln R) vs. time is linear?
A
first order
21
Q
Only ________ are included in rate laws
A
reactants
22
Q
What is the first step to determine the order of a specific reactant given the rate of the reaction and the concentrations of each reactant?
A
look for any cases where the concentrations of two reactants stayed constant while the third changed
23
Q
What is the equation for the velocity of a sound wave in a certain material?
A
v=√B/p
24
Q
If a given material has the smallest bulk modulus of the materials listed, then sound will travel more _______ through the material than others
A
slowly
25
What is an anomer?
a specific type of epimer that differs only at the anomeric carbon
26
The _______ carbon is derived from the carbonyl carbon in the sugar's straight-chain aldehyde or ketone form and is bound to __ oxygen atoms
anomeric; 2
27
What is the equation for torque?
𝛕=rFsinθ
28
What are the two forces acting on a beam in the horizontal direction?
the x component of the tension and the reaction force from the hinge
29
What is torque?
a twisting force (F) applied at some distance from the center of rotation
30
What are triceps, what force do they provide, and what is their function?
muscles on the back of the humerus, opposing the biceps, providing a force that extends the arm, and increases the angle of the arm when the biceps relax
31
What tissues in the body generate force?
muscles
32
What is the formula for Fstatic?
(μs)(N)
33
static frictional force acts [statement]
to oppose motion and never actually makes an object start moving in the opposite direction
34
terminal velocity is only relevant in cases where ___ _________ is present
air resistance
35
when no non-conservative forces are present, a projectile not in contact with any other objects will experience only the ________ ________ _________
downward gravitational force
36
When does rotational equilibrium occur?
the sum of the downward (counterclockwise) torques must equal the sum of the upward (clockwise) torques
37
What does Faraday's constant state?
9.65 x 10⁴ coulombs are present per mole of electrons
38
Lewis bases are species that ______ an electron pair
donate
39
CN⁻ is an example of a _____ ____
Lewis base
40
RHR-1 involves what?
pointing your right thumb in the direction of the moving current & curl your fingers around the wire
41
How can we determine the theoretical yield?
multiply the # of moles of product formed by the molar mass
42
At physiological pH, the carboxyl group of glycine is _________, & ___ charge is delocalized by resonance btw the 2 O atoms
deprotonated; negative
43
[More or Less] energy is needed to evaporate water to vapor than to melt ice to water because no _______ bonds exist in water vapor
More; hydrogen
44
Hydrolysis is a rxn that releases a _____ ____ from a _________
fatty acid; triglyceride
45
Bacteria often have _______ that catalyze hydrolysis of ester linkage btw fatty acid & triglyceride
lipases
46
True or False - the Doppler effect can be observed with light as well as sound waves
True
47
Sound waves are _________ waves
longitudinal
48
For a Doppler shift to occur, the sound source & the object must be ______ relative to each other
moving
49
Fractional distillation depends on the _______ _____ of each substance
boiling point
50
Enantiomers can be separated by introducing _____ _______
chiral compounds
51
Affinity chromatography is based on varying affinities for ________ _____
stationary phase
52
Migration in size-exclusion chromatography is based on ____ & ________ ____
size; molecular mass
53
In size-exclusion chromatography, _______ molecules migrate more quickly than _______ ones
larger; smaller
54
In gel electrophoresis, _______ molecules migrate more quickly than _______ ones
smaller; larger
55
The equation for electrical field is
E=V/d
56
Mutations to critical residues are much more likely to produce a [loss of function or gain of function]
loss of function
57
Enantiomers are virtually identical in all of their physical and chemical properties except for two properties which are:
they rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions (but with equal magnitude) and they react differently with certain other chiral molecules
58
_____ _______ is used to separate mixtures of enantiomers based on how they react with certain other chiral molecules
Chiral resolution
59
What are FLP?
Mixtures or compounds that contain Lewis acids
60
What are Brønsted-Lowry bases?
species that accept protons (ex. NH₃)
61
What are Brønsted-Lowry acids?
species that donate protons
62
What is a Lewis acid?
a compound that accepts electrons
63
Asparagine & glutamine are both ______ ______ _____ _____
polar uncharged amino acids
64
What is the 3 letter code for Asparagine?
Asn
65
What is the 3 letter code for Glutamine?
Gln
66
An increase in [H⁺] is a _______ in pH
decrease
67
Aspartic acid is an ______ amino acid & its side chain has a ____ group
acidic; COOH
68
Side chain of asparagine includes an ______ functionality
amide
69
D is the abbreviation for ________ ____
aspartic acid
70
What does pKa represent?
pH at which half of molecules of a particular species will be protonated & the other half will be deprotonated
71
What does the Venturi effect state?
a fluid's velocity must increase as it passes through a constriction
72
According to Bernoulli principle, then, the _________ _________ must _________ to conserve energy
hydrostatic pressure; decrease
73
What is the equation for the decibel level of sound?
dB = 10log(I/I₀)
74
What is the function of fructokinase?
catalyzes phosphorylation of fructose into fructose-1-phosphate
75
What is starch?
a series of glucose rings linked by glycosidic bonds
76
In starch, only the ______ ______ carbon is available to be oxidized
terminal anomeric
77
Formation of a acetal disaccharide requires ____ of a molecule of water
loss
78
What are the units for viscosity?
Pa·s
79
What are the units of Pascal?
N/m²
80
What are the units for Newton?
kg·m/s²
81
x-axis is called the ________
abscissa
82
y-axis is called the ________
ordinate
83
The average kinetic energy of a sample of gas depends only on the _______ of the sample
temperature
84
According to kinetic molecular theory, the formula for KE of gas sample is what?
KE=(3/2)KᵦT
85
What is buoyancy?
the force that results from the displacement of fluid when an object is submerged
86
What is the relationship between buoyant force & density?
the ↑ the density, the ↑ the buoyant force
87
True or False: Mass differences will factor into determining the final velocities
False
88
kg·m/s² are units of what quantity?
force
89
1 liter-atmosphere is equal to _____ joules
101.33
90
True or False: Units of meters (m) is a base SI unit
True
91
True or False: Units of kilometers (km) is a base SI unit
False
92
In a spring, PE is ___ when fully extended or compressed
max
93
Once the mass is released from one end, ________ ______ is converted to ________ ______ until the mass passes through its equilibrium position (the point where potential energy of the mass/spring system rests at zero).
potential energy; kinetic energy
94
As the mass passes through its equilibrium position, its ________ ______ is converted back to ________ ______ as the spring compresses
kinetic energy; potential energy
95
What is the formula for work done on or by a gas?
W=PΔV
96
What is an isochoric system?
a system where volume is held constant in which no work is done
97
Work [on or by] the surroundings causes the gas to transfer some of its own energy to the surroundings
on
98
When the gas is performing work [on or by] its surroundings, it is transferring some of its own energy to those surroundings. Because the gas has lost some amount of internal energy when performing work, its temperature must have ________.
on; decreased
99
Sound waves are _______ waves whereas waves associated with electromagnetic radiation are ________ waves
longitudinal; transverse
100
Speed of sound through a medium is primarily determined by the ____ _______ of that material
bulk modulus
101
When stiffer materials have a higher bulk modulus, so sound moves more [slowly or quickly] through stiffer materials
quickly
102
What is the formula for v?
v=𝜆f
103
MHz is equal to how many ____ s⁻¹?
1 x 10⁶
104
In longitudinal waves like ultrasound, ________ particles are moving ____ ___ _____ as the wave traverses a region
physical; back-and-fourth
105
Waves with higher _________ are capable of causing greater ____________
amplitudes; displacement
106
What is the formula for velocity traveling on a pendulum?
v=√2gh
107
What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?
T=2π√(L/g)
108
Yes or No: Does the frequency of a sound wave change when it enters a new medium?
No, the frequency of a sound wave does not change when it enters a new medium
109
Sound generally travels [slower or faster] in solids than in air
faster
110
Wavelength must [increase or decrease] in response to the velocity [increasing or decreasing] when a sound wave moves into a new medium
increase; increasing
111
What is the decibel scale?
a logarithmic scale in which each 10 decibel interval represents one order of magnitude
112
40 dB difference represents a ___ difference in intensity
10⁴
113
A ______-____-______ frequency will be observed if the source of the sound and the observer are moving closer together overall
higher-than-actual
114
What is formula for the Doppler equation?
115
What is the formula for the electric field?
E=F/q
116
What is the formula for frequency?
f=c/𝜆
117
What corresponds to destructive interference?
half a wave difference in phase between two waves
118
The period has a [direct or indirect] relationship with wavelength
direct
119
What is the formula for period given the frequency?
T=1/f
120
What is the equation for determining the energy of a photon?
E=hf
121
What is the value of Planck's constant?
6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J·s
122
How do you determine the enthalpy for the complete combustion of one mole of a molecule?
By taking the bond energies of each individual bond in the reactants minus the bond energies of each individual bond in the product
123
How do you determine the enthalpy for the complete combustion of one mole of a molecule?
By taking the bond energies of each individual bond in the reactants minus the bond energies of each individual bond in the product
124
Bond lengths are generally [directly or inversely] related to bond energies and bond order
inversely
125
The higher the bond order, the [stronger or weaker] the bond & the [higher or lower] the vibrational frequency in IR spectrum
stronger; higher
126
What does the zeroth law of thermodynamics state?
heat energy can only spontaneously move from a high energy area (hot) to a low energy (cold)
127
What happens when we put work into a system?
thermal energy moves in the opposite direction
128
0 K is how many degrees Celsius?
-273℃
129
What does the third law of thermodynamics state?
the entropy of a pure, crystalline substance at 0 K is known as absolute zero
130
Le Chatalier's principle states that lowering the temperature causes an exothermic reaction to shift [left or right] to release heat causing ΔS to be [positive or negative]
right; negative
131
How can we obtain the equilibrium constant?
by multiplying the associated equilibrium constant for the overall reaction and the inverse of Ksp
132
The vaporization of water is an [endothermic or exothermic] process
endothermic
133
How do we calculate for the heat of formation of water in the liquid and gas phases?
by subtracting the enthalpy for liquid water by the enthalpy for gaseous water
134
When carbonate is placed in acidic conditions, it will be converted to _______ ____, which can be broken down into ______ _______ & _____
carbonic acid; carbon dioxide; water
135
True or False: The change in voltage between two points does not change based on which path the current takes
True
136
Current flows from areas of ____ voltage to areas of ___ voltage
high; low
137
Le Châtelier's principle states that a decrease in the concentration of a _______ will lead to a decrease in the concentration of reactants
product
138
Le Châtelier's principle does not apply to what two phases of matter?
solids and liquids
139
True or False: London dispersion forces & Van der Waals' forces refer to the same force
True
140
What are London dispersion forces (Van der Waals' forces)?
forces that are caused by the interaction of dipoles which are briefly created due to the random motion of electrons
141
True or False: All molecules experience London dispersion forces & Van der Waals' forces
True
142
What does the RHR state?
thumb points in the direction of the current & other fingers curl in the direction of magnetic field, palm will point in the direction of the force on the wire
143
Only the direction of the _______& _______ _____ are necessary to use RHR for Lorentz force
current; magnetic field
144
What types of neurons are required for measurement of the Lorentz force?
straight neurons
145
Electric field lines point [toward or away from] a positive ion
away from
146
Any form of matter has a [higher or lower] permittivity than the permittivity of free space & so any permittivity must be [positive or negative]
higher; positive
147
The electric field is oscillating and so must be produced by [a direct or an alternating] current
an alternating
148
1 MHz is how many Hz?
10⁶ Hz
149
What is the name of the following structure?
thioester
150
To qualify as an aromatic, a compound must be ______, _____, ________, and obey _____ ____
cyclic; planar; conjugated; Huckel's rule
151
What is Huckel's rule?
the molecule must have a total of 4n + 2π electrons
152
This picture is the structure of what molecule?
pyrrole
153
pyrrole is ______, _____, ________, and has _ p orbital electrons (including the lone pair on nitrogen)
cyclic; planar; conjugated; 6
154
D-galactose is a __ ______ of D-glucose
C4 epimer
155
While D-glucose has the C-H bond in the _____ position ______ the β surface, D-galactose has the C-H bond in the ________ position ______ the β surface
axial; facing; equatorial; away from
156
How is stereochemistry determined?
by placing the least ordered substituent facing the back, and then checking if the first three ordered substituents go clockwise (R) or counter-clockwise (S)
157
What is the Bohr effect?
describes how a drop in pH will result in higher levels of carbon dioxide
158
What are salt bridges?
electrostatic interactions between a negatively charged O atom & a positively charged H atom
159
True or False: Van der Waals forces are an example of electrostatic interactions involved in the secondary, tertiary, and quarternary structure of hemoglobin
True
160
True or False: Peptide bonds are considered a form of electrostatic interaction
False
161
When temperature is increased, [more or less] heat is added to the system, which shifts equilibrium away from ________ & towards ________
more; reactants; products
162
True or False: Pure solids are included in equilibrium constants
False, pure solids are not included in equilibrium constants
163
What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?
pH = pKa + log([A-]/[HA])
164
Heat can be considered as a [reactant or product] for endothermic reactions
reactant
165
In an exergonic reaction, the reaction [releases or absorbs] energy as it proceeds, so ΔG is [positive or negative] and [spontaneous or nonspontaneous]
releases; negative; spontaneous
166
What is the function of the heater in ITC?
works to maintain the sample temperature between the sample cell & reference cell as the reaction occurs
167
What is the pH range for the indicator bromothymol blue?
6 to 7
168
What is the pH range for the indicator naphtholphthalein?
8
169
What is the equivalence point?
when the moles of acid or base added is equivalent to the moles of acid or base originally present in the solution
170
At what point does the pKa occur?
the half-equivalence point
171
What does the half-equivalence point represent?
the point at which pH=pKa and [A-]=[HA]
172
What is the equation for heat transfer with heat capacity?
Q=mcpΔT
173
What specific information does the heat equation provide?
the total amount of heat that needs to be transferred to raise the temperature a certain number of degrees Celsius back to the original temperature
174
What can the rate of heat transfer be used for?
to calculate the total amount of time required to transfer the total amount of heat energy
175
What equation can be used to determine the pKa given the Ka?
pKa=-log(Ka)
176
What is considered an accurate pH indicator?
has a pH range of color change that includes the equivalence point of the titration, ±1
177
What is considered an accurate pH indicator?
has a pH range of color change that includes the equivalence point of the titration, ±1
178
What is the equivalence point of a strong acid/weak base titration?
less than pH 7
179
What is the equivalence point of a strong acid/strong base titration?
exactly 7
180
What is the equivalence point of a strong base/weak acid titration?
greater than 7
181
What kinematic equation can be used to determine the time given the height and the mass?
Δy=v₀t+1/2at²
182
What is the formula for finding the force of kinetic friction?
Fr = μkFₙ
183
What is the power given the current and voltage?
P=IV
184
What is the standard work equation?
work=Fdcosθ
185
What are 3 ways to increase the power of a circuit?
decrease the resistance, increase the current, and decrease the temperature
186
1 roentgen = ? C/kg?
2.58 x 10⁻⁴ C/kg
187
What is the energy in the photochemical reaction ΔHᵤ?
the difference between the laser pulse energy Eₘ and the heat detected ΔHₙᵣ
188
What is the thin-lens equation?
189
How do we calculate for the kinetic energy of a photoelectron?
hf - 3.4 eV
190
What is the formula for weight?
W=mg
191
What is the formula for buoyant force?
W=rVg
192
The pressure in a liquid due to the gravitational force of the liquid above a given depth is ___________ to the density and the depth
proportional
193
What is the equation for Snell's law?
n₁sinθ₁=n₂sinθ₂
194
What is the latent heat of fusion?
the amount of energy needed to convert a substance from its solid to liquid state
195
What is the formula used to calculate the electric field given the resistance, voltage, current, and distance separating two electrodes?
E = (V - IR)/L
196
What is the difference between an exothermic reaction and an exergonic reaction?
an exothermic reaction involves the loss of energy as heat whereas an exergonic reaction involves the products having a lower potential energy than the reactants
197
1 nm is how many meters?
1 x 10⁻⁹ m
198
In uniform circular motion, the kinetic energy [does or does not] change but the direction of the motion (sign of the velocity) [does or does not] change
does not; does
199
What is a furan?
a heterocyclic, five-membered aromatic ring with four carbon atoms and one oxygen
200
The color appearance of the object is in what?
the light that strikes the object and reflects back to our eye
201
How are covalent bonds formed?
when the two atoms involved share electrons equally
202
How are polar covalent bonds formed?
when electrons are shared in an unequal fashion
203
How are polar covalent bonds formed?
when electrons are shared in an unequal fashion
204
Acetic acid an -__ group, allowing it to form hydrogen bonds with similar particles
OH
205
Acetic acid an -__ group, allowing it to form hydrogen bonds with similar particles
OH
206
When does a bent geometry appear?
when a central atom is bound to two substituents while also containing two lone pairs
207
How would we calculate the mass of a molecule present in a metal complex?
By multiplying the number of moles of a molecule by the molar mass of that molecule
208
Keq is not affected by ________ changes
pressure
209
How is the formal charge calculated?
By subtracting the total number of valence electrons by the sum of the number of nonbonding electrons and bonding electrons
210
What is molarity?
Moles of solute per liter of total solution
211
What is mole fraction?
a measure of the moles of a relevant compound compared to the total number of moles present
212
Changing volume will [change or not change] the number of moles of any individual gas
not change
213
What is electron affinity?
an element's desire to gain an electron
214
_____ _____ have no desire to gain or lose electrons
noble gases
215
Reactions occurring in galvanic cells are always [spontaneous or nonspontaneous]
spontaneous
216
Spontaneous refers to [positive or negative] Ecell values
positive
217
Positive cell potentials correlate to [positive or negative] ΔG values
negative
218
Positive cell potentials correlate to [positive or negative] ΔG values
negative
219
Spontaneous reactions that have negative ΔG values have K values that are [greater than, equal to, or less than] one
greater than
220
When writing an equilibrium constant expression, remember to disregard ____ ______ and ______
pure liquids; solids
221
A reduction in volume will [increase or decrease] the pressure of the system
increase
222
A reduction in volume will [increase or decrease] the pressure of the system
increase
223
When a reduction in volume increases the pressure of the system, the equilibrium will shift to the side that contains [more or fewer] moles of gas in an attempt to reestablish a stable state
fewer
224
Bromine needs to [gain or lose] one electron to establish a complete octet resulting in an [endothermic or exothermic process]
gain; exothermic
225
Bromine needs to [gain or lose] one electron to establish a complete octet resulting in an [endothermic or exothermic process]
gain; exothermic
226
Potassium prefers to [gain or lose] an electron to have a full octet resulting in an [endothermic or exothermic process]
lose; endothermic
227
What happens at equilibrium?
the forward and reverse reactions are occurring at the same rate
228
What happens at equilibrium?
the forward and reverse reactions are occurring at the same rate
229
What element is an exception to the rule that electron affinity increases as you move upwards and to the right on the periodic table?
nitrogen
230
Carbon has an electron configuration of [He]2s²2p², so the addition of another electron would give carbon a ____-______ orbital and is thus highly [favorable or unfavorable]
half-filled; favorable
231
Carbon has an electron configuration of [He]2s²2p², so the addition of another electron would give carbon a ____-______ orbital and is thus highly [favorable or unfavorable]
half-filled; favorable
232
Nitrogen has an electron configuration of [He]2s²2p², so addition of another electron would alter nitrogen's half-filled valence state and produce a ______-____ orbital
partially-filled
233
True or False: pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14
True, pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14
234
True or False: pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14
True, pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14
235
True or False: pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14
True, pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14
236
What is one example of a solution that has a pH below 0 or above 14?
10 M HCl which has a pH of -1
237
What is one example of a solution that has a pH below 0 or above 14?
10 M HCl which has a pH of -1
238
HF is a [strong or weak] acid, so HF has a fairly [weak or strong] conjugate base
weak; strong
239
HF is a [strong or weak] acid, so HF has a fairly [weak or strong] conjugate base
weak; strong
240
After neutralization of HF and NaOH, the three species that will remain in solution are __, __, & ___
F⁻, Na⁺, and H₂O
241
The better reducing agent is always the species that is...
more likely to oxidize
242
The better reducing agent is always the species that is...
more likely to oxidize
243
What happens when zinc is oxidized?
zinc loses two electrons to become Zn²⁺
244
What happens when zinc is oxidized?
zinc loses two electrons to become Zn²⁺
245
What is molality?
moles of solute divided by kilograms of solvent
246
One electron from a bond and six electrons from the lone pairs forms how many electrons? What is the name of this group of elements?
7 electrons; halogens
247
One electron from a bond and six electrons from the lone pairs forms how many electrons? What is the name of this group of elements?
7 electrons; halogens
248
True or False: Molar solubility is distinct from Ksp
True
249
What is molar solubility?
the number of moles of a particular solid that dissociate in one liter of solution
250
What is molar solubility?
the number of moles of a particular solid that dissociate in one liter of solution
251
What is molar solubility?
the number of moles of a particular solid that dissociate in one liter of solution
252
Protium is the most common, well-known form of ________
hydrogen
253
Protium is the most common, well-known form of ________
hydrogen
254
Deuterium and tritium are _______ isotopes, containing _ proton and _ neutrons and _ proton and _ neutrons, respectively
hydrogen; 1; 2; 1; 3
255
What kind of cell uses an external power source to move electrons in a way that would be naturally nonspontaneous?
electrolytic cell
256
What kind of cell discharges and releases energy in a spontaneous process?
galvanic cell
257
What happens when two polarizing lights are oriented at a 90° angle?
no light will be able to pass through
258
What happens when two polarizing lights are oriented at a 90° angle?
no light will be able to pass through
259
What is the formula for horizontal velocity?
vₓ=vᵢcosθ
260
What is the formula for horizontal velocity?
vₓ=vᵢcosθ
261
What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?
T=2π√(L/g)
262
What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?
T=2π√(L/g)
263
What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?
T=2π√(L/g)
264
All mirrors or lenses with positive focal lengths represent [converging or diverging] systems
converging
265
All mirrors or lenses with positive focal lengths represent [converging or diverging] systems
converging
266
All converging mirrors are [concave or convex]
concave
267
All converging mirrors are [concave or convex]
concave
268
All converging lenses are [concave or convex]
convex
269
All converging lenses are [concave or convex]
convex
270
Convex mirrors represent [converging or diverging] systems
diverging
271
What is absolute pressure?
the sum of the relevant gauge and atmospheric pressures
272
What is absolute pressure?
the sum of the relevant gauge and atmospheric pressures
273
What is absolute pressure?
the sum of the relevant gauge and atmospheric pressures
274
In a vaccum, no atmospheric pressure is present, making Pabsolute [less than, equal to, or greater than] Pgauge
equal to
275
In a vaccum, no atmospheric pressure is present, making Pabsolute [less than, equal to, or greater than] Pgauge
equal to
276
10⁹ Watts is how many megawatts (MW)?
10³ MW
277
10⁹ Watts is how many megawatts (MW)?
10³ MW
278
Electric field lines point in the direction that a [positive or negative] particle will be pushed
positive
279
What is the formula for the radius of a wire?
R=⍴L/A
280
When the angle between the displacement and force vectors is zero, no ______ is applied to the system
torque
281
When the angle between the displacement and force vectors is zero, no ______ is applied to the system
torque
282
Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle's velocity and the field itself
perpendicular
283
Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle's velocity and the field itself
perpendicular
284
Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle's velocity and the field itself
perpendicular
285
When light travels from air into glass, it will bend [toward or away from] the normal at an angle determined by the index of refraction
toward
286
Which color of light has the longest wavelength of all visible light and encounters the smallest index of refraction as it passes through glass?
red light
287
Which color of light has the longest wavelength of all visible light and encounters the smallest index of refraction as it passes through glass?
red light
288
Which color of light has the longest wavelength of all visible light and encounters the smallest index of refraction as it passes through glass?
red light
289
What are the two main criteria that must be met for internal reflection to occur?
light must be traveling from a medium with a high index of refraction to one with a lower index, preferably with a large difference between the two and that the angle of incidence must be relatively large
290
What are the two main criteria that must be met for internal reflection to occur?
light must be traveling from a medium with a high index of refraction to one with a lower index, preferably with a large difference between the two and that the angle of incidence must be relatively large
291
The [wavelength or frequency] of light does not change when that light transitions between media
frequency
292
When light rays move from a material with a low index of refraction to one with a higher index of refraction, the wavelength [increases, remains constant, or decreases]
decreases
293
A _______ _______ image is always formed on the other side of the mirror when looking at a divergent (convex) mirror, regardless of the object's distance from the mirror's focal length
virtual upright
294
A _______ _______ image is always formed on the other side of the mirror when looking at a divergent (convex) mirror, regardless of the object's distance from the mirror's focal length
virtual upright
295
What is the formula for centripetal force?
Fcentripetal = macentripetal = mv²/R
296
What is the formula for centripetal force?
Fcentripetal = macentripetal = mv²/R
297
What kind of alcohol produces the most stable carbocation (tertiary) and consequently will most easily lose a water molecule upon protonation of the hydroxyl group in acidic media?
tert-butyl alcohol
298
What is the formula for Ohm's Law?
V = IR
299
An input of energy can be caused by an _______ in pressure
increase
300
An input of energy can be caused by an _______ in pressure
increase
301
What is the formula to calculate the % error?
( I accepted value - experimental valueI/accepted value) x 100%
302
What is the formula to calculate the % error?
( I accepted value - experimental valueI/accepted value) x 100%
303
What is the formula to calculate the % error?
( I accepted value - experimental valueI/accepted value) x 100%
304
A higher _______ _____ leads to a higher boiling point
molecular weight
305
Acetone cannot form what kinds of bonds?
hydrogen bonds
306
Acetone cannot form what types of bonds?
hydrogen bonds
307
How many molecules of O₂ will be required for every 2 molecules of Ca?
1 molecule of O₂
308
How many molecules of O₂ will be required for every 2 molecules of Ca?
1 molecule of O₂
309
A weaker conjugate base is one that has a [larger or smaller] pKb
larger
310
A weaker conjugate base is one that has a [larger or smaller] pKb
larger
311
Ka corresponds to the ____ and the Kb corresponds to the _________ ____
acid; conjugate base
312
Boyle's law states that pressure and volume are [directly or inversely] proportional
inversely
313
Boyle's law states that pressure and volume are [directly or inversely] proportional
inversely
314
True or False: the substance will precipitate when the ion product is smaller than the Kₛₚ
False, the substance will NOT precipitate when the ion product is smaller than the Kₛₚ
315
ΔG has an _____ magnitude and ________ sign for the forward & reverse reactions
equal; opposite
316
The half-reaction that has a more positive reduction potential is where [reduction or oxidation] occurs
reduction
317
The half-reaction that has a more positive reduction potential is where [reduction or oxidation] occurs
reduction
318
As an equilibrium constant, Kₛₚ only responds to changes in _________
temperature
319
As an equilibrium constant, Kₛₚ only responds to changes in _________
temperature
320
A compound will boil when its vapor pressure is [greater than, equal to, or less than] ambient pressure to which it is exposed
equal to
321
Adding a vaccum to distillation apparatus dramatically [increases or decreases] ambient pressure, making compounds that typically have a higher boiling point more prone to vaporization
decreases
322
What type of linkage joins the two subunits of maltose?
α-1,4 linkage
323
Nonpolar solvents are best used for what?
monosubstitution
324
Polar solvents are best used for what?
polysubstitution
325
The glucose monomer in lactose has what kind of linkage?
ꞵ-1,4 linkage
326
Esters can be hydrolyzed by _____ to form carboxylic acids and alcohols
water
327
When hydrolyzing esters, the water acts as a __________ and attacks the _________ carbonyl carbon, breaking the bond between that carbon and the non-carbonyl oxygen
nucleophile; electrophilic
328
Compared to C=C bonds, C=O bonds are [lengthened or shortened] slightly due to the electronegativity of the O atom
shortened
329
_____ is a reducing agent & that it could turn an aldehyde into an alcohol.
NaBH₄
330
What kind of reaction can establish a new carbon-carbon bond?
Grignard reaction
331
DMSO is a _____, ______ solvent
polar, aprotic
332
In a polar, aprotic solvent, nucleophilicity [increases or decreases] as one moves down the periodic table
decreases
333
The ꞵ anomer of glucose is slightly [more or less] stable than the α anomer
more
334
_____ is the site of potential autocatalytic cleavage
ester
335
Glycogen [does or does not] have any free reducing ends
does not
336
A positive Tollens' test is indicated by what?
the formation of a silver mirror, or shiny Ag precipitate
337
Formation of a silver mirror requires the presence of a ________ _____
reducing sugar
338
What are furanoses?
five-membered rings that consist of four carbon and one oxygen atom
339
What are pyranoses?
six-membered rings made of five carbons and one oxygen
340
Quinone compounds are ________
aromatic
341
Quinone is a highly [oxidized or reduced] compound
oxidized
342
Chromium trioxide is used in _________ reactions
oxidation
343
Esters are notably [reactive or unreactive]
unreactive
344
A double bond counts only as a _____ _________
single substituent
345
In IUPAC naming conventions, all functional groups besides the highest-priority group are listed in ____________ order with the numbered carbon to which they are attached
alphabetical
346
How can pH be determined given the concentration of H⁺?
pH=-log[H⁺]
347
What is a stereogenic carbon?
a carbon center attached to four different substituents
348
Electrons travel from _____ to ________ whereas current moves from ________ to _____
anode; cathode; cathode; anode
349
When calculating mole fraction, the denominator must include what?
all of the species present
350
How can we form an ideal buffer?
by obtaining equimolar amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base
351
Ne is a [polar or nonpolar] molecule
nonpolar
352
The d subshell begins at what period?
period 4
353
The higher the pKa value, the [stronger or weaker] the acid
weaker
354
The stronger the conjugate base, the [smaller or larger] its Kb value
larger
355
The "ate" suffix is commonly used for what?
anions
356
What is the chemical formula for perchlorate?
ClO₄⁻
357
The anode of an electrolytic cell is [positive or negative]
positive
358
Positive to negative electron flow represents a [spontaneous or nonspontaneous] process
nonspontaneous
359
To get to the half-equivalence point, we need what?
exactly half of the volume required to neutralize the first proton
360
What formula can be used to calculate the volume of a molecule given the concentrations of both molecules & the volume of one molecule?
M₁V₁=M₂V₂
361
The 4s orbital has a [higher or lower] energy than the 3d block. So the two 4s electrons will be removed [before or after] any of the 3d electrons
higher; before
362
Water's phase diagram is a slightly [positive or negative] slope of line separating solid & liquid gases
positive
363
Water has a solid phase that is [more or less] dense than liquid
less
364
Isothermal curves are generally [more or less] steeply-sloping than adiabatic curves
less
365
What is the formula used to solve for the boiling point elevation?
ΔTᵦ = Kᵦmi
366
______ _____ occurs when both the temperature and pressure of the three phases of the substance coexist in equilibrium
triple point
367
The following molecule is what type of acid?
dicarboxylic acid
368
Higher-energy bonds are [shorter or longer] and [weaker or stronger] than ones containing lower amounts of energy
shorter; stronger
369
What is the formula for magnetic field?
F=qvB
369
What is the formula for magnetic field?
F=qvB
370
A particle must possess both ________ & a _____ to be affected by a magnetic field
velocity; charge
371
Electric field sum as ______
vectors
372
What are the two formulas for a charge on a capacitor?
C=QV & C=kεₒA/d
373
The diaelectric is [directly or indirectly] proportional to the capacitance
directly
374
The diaelectric is [directly or indirectly] proportional to the capacitance
directly
375
If light is moving from a lower into a higher index of refraction, it must bend [toward or away from] the normal
toward
375
If light is moving from a lower into a higher index of refraction, it must bend [toward or away from] the normal
toward
376
The more stable the conjugate base, the [weaker or stronger] the acid
stronger
377
Concentration cells are a form of what type of cell?
galvanic cell
378
Concentration cells include the [same or different] species in both half-cells
same
379
In a galvanic cell, electrons move spontaneously from the _____ to the ______
anode; cathode
380
What types of metals are highly reactive with water?
alkali metals
381
Due to their extreme tendency to lose a single electron and reach a noble gas configuration, alkali metals serve as good ________ ______
reducing agents
382
What is the Kw expression?
Kw = [H⁺][OH⁻]
382
What is the Kw expression?
Kw = [H⁺][OH⁻]
383
What is the formula for pKw?
pKw = pH + pOH
384
What is the formula for Kw given the Ka and Kb?
Ka*Kb = Kw
385
What are the two most well-known chemical hallmarks of transition metals?
ability to possess multiple oxidation numbers and tendency to form brightly-colored compounds
386
What is the oxidation half of the redox reaction that represents the combination of oxygen and solid sulfur into sulfur dioxide?
S → S⁴⁺ + 4e⁻
386
What is the oxidation half of the redox reaction that represents the combination of oxygen and solid sulfur into sulfur dioxide?
S → S⁴⁺ + 4e⁻
387
What is the reduction half of the redox reaction that represents the combination of oxygen and solid sulfur into sulfur dioxide?
O₂ + 4e⁻ → 2O²⁻
388
Ketones mainly exert what type of intermolecular forces?
dipole-dipole interactions
389
The smaller the molecule, the [more or less] energy required to remove it from solution
less
390
Absolute zero represents a temperature of _ K, or ____ C
O K, -273℃
391
In neutral solution, pH is [greater than, equal to, or less than] pOH
equal to
392
Electrical force depends on what two factors?
the particle's charge and the strength of the electric field experienced by the particle
393
Capacitance C is proportional to the _____ ____ and inversely proportional to the __________ _______ of the plates
plate area; separation distance
394
Ions are thousands of times [more or less] massive than the electron
more
395
How are isoforms produced?
alternative splicing of pre-mRNA
396
The ____ ________ of the gel will identify whether both or only one of the isoforms is expressed
band pattern
397
Enzymes with a Hill coefficient [greater than, equal to, or less than] than 1 exhibits cooperativity
greater than
398
Enzymes with a Hill coefficient [greater than, equal to, or less than] than 1 does not exhibit cooperativity
equal to
399
What is a characteristic of noncompetitive inhibitors?
they bind the enzyme and the enzyme–substrate complex with the same affinity
400
HCl reacts with CO₃²⁻ to form what?
CO₂(g)
401
If the absolute value of the work done is mgΔh where Δh is positively defined, these actions involve the [same or unequal] amount of work
same
402
As the object moves up and slows down, the frequency shift is [positive or negative] and _____ __ ____ at the peak of the object’s flight; as the object falls, the shift becomes increasingly [positive or negative]
negative; falls to zero; positive
403
What is the logarithmic form of the Ka expression?
pH = pKa + log([conj. base]/[conj. acid])
404
_____ catalyze the saponification of an ester
bases
405
Isopropyl alcohol contains how many hydroxyl groups?
one hydroxyl group
406
The free energy of the reaction ΔG′° is related to what equilibrium constant expression?
Keq = [ADP][Pi]/[ATP]
407
Co(II) is a dication and is formed from the atomic element by the loss of what?
two 4s electrons
408
How can the total number of molecules that were hydrolyzed be calculated?
multiply the rate in µM•s⁻¹ by the time (in seconds) and the volume of the solution (in L)
409
What is Kₘ?
the concentration of substrate at which the kinetics experiment reaches half the maximum velocity
410
1 g is how many ng?
10⁹ ng
411
[Aspartate or or Glutamate] has a slightly shorter chain and thus will be further from the active site
Aspartate
412
What type of bond links monosaccharides together in an oligosaccharide is a special type of acetal linkage?
glycoside bond
413
True or False: The side chain of alanine contains sites for hydrogen bonding
False, the side chain of alanine does not contain sites for hydrogen bonding
414
The focal length of the mirror depends only on what?
the radius of the curvature
415
Each light ray will refract at each surface of the lens and will increasingly diverge from the others because of the shape of each surface, so only [converging or diverging] rays can result
diverging
416
The two plates of the capacitor collect charges of [same or opposite] sign
opposite
417
As more charge arrives it is [easier or harder] to fill the plates until finally an equilibrium occurs
harder
418
As the capacitor discharges the voltage across it falls, thus to maintain a constant current, R must be proportionately [increased or reduced]
reduced
419
Auto-ionization refers to what?
dissociation into hydronium and hydroxide ions
420
Generation of acidic conditions in situ could be effectively prevented by the presence of ________, which forms an insoluble precipitate with chloride
pyridine
421
A trigonal pyramidal geometry is found in molecules where the central atom has _____ substituents and ___ lone pair of electrons
three; one
422
As bond order increases, bond length [shortens or lengthens] and bond energy [increases or decreases]
shortens; increases
423
The [cis or trans] form is better able to stack on top of like molecules
trans
424
Better stacking equates to [more or less] surface area over which intermolecular forces may be exerted, making the substance [more or less] difficult to melt
more; more
425
What are meso compounds?
symmetrical molecules with multiple chiral centers
426
Meso compounds [do or do not] rotate polarized light
do not
427
Kw is only equal to approximately 10⁻¹⁴ at ____
25℃
428
True or False: Concentrations of acid and conjugate base have to be equal to produce a buffer
False, concentrations of acid and conjugate base do not have to be equal to produce a buffer
429
What is the name of this molecule?
urea
430
Amides are composed of what?
a carbonyl adjacent to a nitrogen atom
431
Silica is a highly [polar or nonpolar] molecule
polar
432
The ______ plateau represents the heat of vaporization
second
433
In the equation, pKa + pKb = pKw, pKa represents the pKa of an ____ while the pKb represents the pKb of its _________ ____
acid; conjugate base
434
What is an ether?
an oxygen atom connected by single bonds to two carbon-based groups
435
What is an ester?
a functional group where a carbon has a double bond to an oxygen, a single bond to a carbon, and a single bond to an oxygen that is bonded to another carbon
436
Cyclohexane has [the same or a different] molecular formula than n-hexane and isohexane
a different
437
True or False: Pure water always has an equal number of hydroxide and hydrogen ions
True, pure water always has an equal number of hydroxide and hydrogen ions
438
Both pH and pOH [increase or decrease] when the temperature increases
decrease
439
What is the first ionization energy?
the energy required to remove an electron from the outer shell of an atom
440
For any given period, when is the first ionization energy lowest?
when the removal of the electron results in a complete shell or subshell
441
For any given period, when is the first ionization energy highest?
when the removal of the electron disrupts a complete shell or subshell
442
The hydroxide ion is one of the worst _______ ______ in substitution reactions
leaving groups
443
What is the formula for the number of possible peptides that contain one each of n amino acids?
n!
444
What is the complementary color to yellow?
purple
445
What is the absorbance of the color purple?
360 nm
446
The protonation of the oxygen atom in glucose makes this substance a [better or worse] leaving group in much the same way that protonation of an alcohol facilitates substitution of an –OH group
better
447
The SDS-PAGE conditions denature the protein and eliminate __________ structure
quarternary
448
This structure represents what?
cytosine that has been methylated at the C5 position
449
The use of histine tagging and a nickel column is a form of what type of chromatography?
affinity chromatography
450
The protein with the smallest size has the ________ electrophoretic mobility
greatest
451
Each mole of ____ can reduce a mole of disulfide bonds
NADH
452
Under what circumstances must the sum of the forces in the horizontal direction be zero?
if the horizontal component of T, T cos θ, has the same magnitude as the frictional force F.
453
What is the formula for determining pressure?
Pressure = (density) • g • (height)
454
What is the formula for Snell's Law?
n₁sinθ₁ = n₂sinθ₂
455
A ray should bend [towards or away from] the normal when it enters going from a lower refractive index to a higher one
towards
456
How can we determine the approximate number of wavelengths of light?
by dividing the diameter by the wavelength
457
Phosphate is only capable of forming what two types of intermolecular interactions?
hydrogen bonds and charge-charge interactions
458
The tyrosine side chain contains a ______ group
phenol
459
The serine side chain contains a _______ group
hydroxyl
460
When does an aldol addition occur?
when there is no dehydration in an aldol condensation
461
How can one determine the charge of a battery?
by multiplying the amount of Farads by the voltage
462
How can one determine the energy of a battery?
by multiplying 0.5 by the amount of Farads by the voltage squared
463
The relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on what?
the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted
464
The less heat there is, the [less or greater] the stability
greater
465
N-H sites readily exchange tritium protons due to what?
their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water
466
True or False: The expression for ideal gas law must include the multiplication of Avogadro's number
True
467
The activation energy for a reaction represents what?
the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products
468
What is an oxidation–reduction?
when both elements involved change oxidation states during the reaction
469
What are electric field lines?
lines that are equally spaced in a uniform field
470
What type of enzyme catalyzes this reaction?
an oxidoreductase
471
FAD is an example of a _____ _______
cofactor oxidant
472
In order to lower the pH of a buffer, the proportion of acidic buffer component must be [increased or decreased]
increased
473
The formation of a peptide bond is accompanied by the formation of _____ as a by-product
water
474
The mass of water is how many amu?
18 amu
475
______ is the final acquirer of electrons in the reaction and is therefore _______
oxygen; reduced
476
Positively charged substances are also very [hydrophilic or hydrophobic]
hydrophilic
477
Oxygen is a Lewis basic atom present in the side chains or backbones of the listed amino acids that has either a partially [positive or negative] charge
negative
478
Nitrogen is a Lewis basic atom that has a partially [positive or negative] chain in the peptide backbone due to resonance
positive
479
Heme is an example of a what?
a porphyrin
480
What is the basic unit of a porphyrin?
the pyrrole ring, which is a five-sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom
481
What type of enzyme catalyzes the hydroxylation of a methyl group?
an oxidoreductase
482
What is the formula for ΔG'°?
ΔG'° = −RTlnKeq([products]/[reactants])
483
What is pK?
the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5
484
Cooperativity is measured as what?
the slope of the unfolding transition
485
A cation-exchange column only binds to [positively or negatively] charged proteins, which only occurs when the pH is [less than, equal to, or greater than] the pI
positively; less than
486
The _________ of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates
frequency
487
What is the continuity equation if u is the speed of flow in the capillary bed?
A × v = n × a × u
488
a spontaneous reaction is one that exhibits ΔG being [less than, equal to, or greater than] 0, so Keq is [less than, equal to, or greater than] 1
less than; greater than
489
What is the formula for the weight of a water column?
the atmospheric pressure multiplied by the tube cross-sectional area A
490
When the acid and conjugate base concentrations are equal, the __ of a buffer equals the ___ of the acid
pH; pKa
491
NO₂⁻ reacts with water to form what?
OH⁻ ions
492
What is tautomerism?
the migration of a hydrogen atom from an α-carbon atom to an oxygen atom
493
Polarity in neutral molecules results from what?
uneven distribution of electron density
494
Uneven distribution of electron density often occurs in what two types of compounds?
in zwitterions and in ylides
495
Molecules that contain strongly electron-withdrawing or electron-donating substituents are highly _____ and possess correspondingly high ______ _______
polar; dipole moments
496
When cyclic hemiacetals and acetals are formed, the ring carbon atom derived from the carbonyl group in the open-chain form of a monosaccharide (i.e., the carbon atom that bears two oxygen substituents) is called what?
the anomeric carbon
497
The prefixes "α" and "β" are employed to define the stereochemistry of what bond at the anomeric carbon atom?
C-OR bond
498
To determine if a specific compound is an oxidizing or reducing agent, look at the _________ ______ of each individual element in the reactants and products
oxidation states
499
How many hydroxide ions are required to hydrolyze one ester linkage of a triacylglycerol molecule?
one hydroxide ion
500
A fatty acid salt contains what two things?
a long hydrocarbon chain, which is soluble in nonpolar solvents, and a charged group –CO2⁻Na⁺, which is soluble in polar solvents
501
The empirical formula shows what?
the lowest whole number ratio of moles of each element in a mole of the compound, or the corresponding number of atoms per molecule
502
How can the polarity of each of the bromomethanes be determined?
by the vector sum of all of the individual bond polarities within a given molecule of the compound
503
An acid differs from its conjugate base only by what?
the presence of an additional H⁺
504
A base differs from its conjugate acid only in what?
the lack of a single H⁺
505
What is the ionization potential?
the energy required to remove an electron from an atom
506
The reactivity of a metal depends on what?
its ionization potential
507
This picture is the structure of what molecule?
glycerol 3-phosphate
508
What types of interactions are primarily responsible for glycerol stabilization?
hydrogen bonding interactions
509
Residues that stabilize glycerol binding also contain functional groups that are capable of what?
forming hydrogen bonds
510
What does Boyle's law state?
if the number of gas moles and the temperature is fixed, there is an inverse relationship between P and V
511
At standard temperature and pressure (0℃, 1 atm), 1 mole of any gas will occupy how much volume?
22.4 L
512
How is the partial pressure of oxygen calculated?
by multiplying the total pressure by the mole fraction of oxygen
513
When are deviations from ideal gas behavior maximized?
when molecular volume and/or intermolecular interactions are increased
514
H₂O experiences hydrogen bonding between what?
between the H donor of one water and the O acceptor of another water molecule
515
The following picture is the structure of what molecule?
formaldehyde
516
When naming nomenclature, does the aldehyde or ketone functional group have higher priority?
aldehyde
517
When naming nomenclature, the highest priority functional group has the [highest or lowest] possible number
lowest
518
Phenoxide can also be described as what?
phenolate ion
519
Phenoxide has how many different resonance structures?
five different resonance structures
520
The following reaction depicts what kind of mechanism?
hydrolysis mechanism
521
__________ is a very common method of activating zymogens
Hydrolysis
522
What role does an enol normally serve in a chemical reaction?
an enol would act as a nucleophile and attack an electrophile using its alpha carbon
523
What is the reactive electrophilic site on an alpha-beta unsaturated carbonyl carbon?
beta carbon
524
What happens when you add water to an imine or enamine?
imine or enamine will be converted back to the carbonyl
525
What type of reaction occurs more rapidly than any other reaction?
proton transfer reactions
526
All Grignard reagents function as ______ _____ and must be present __ ______ in order to successfully esterify carboxylic acids
strong bases; in excess
527
Double and triple bonds must contain ___ _____ ____ before they "add" bonds made from pi orbitals
one sigma bond
528
What is a meso compound?
compounds that have multiple chiral centers but are not optically active overall
529
Why can't compounds with a single stereocenter be meso compounds?
Because meso compounds require symmetry to yield a structure that is achiral as a whole
530
True or False: Carbon is the only atom that can serve as a chiral center
False, carbon is not the only atom that can serve as a chiral center
531
What is formed from the reduction of a carbonyl group?
an alcohol
532
Reductive animation reactions always result in the production of what?
an amine, specifically from an aldehyde or ketone
533
What is formed from the reduction of an imine group?
an amine
534
What is chromium trioxide (CrO₃)?
a strong oxidizing agent and is reacting with a molecule that contains tertiary, secondary, and primary alcohols
535
Gases behave least ideally at [low or high] pressure and [low or high] temperature
high; low
536
One gigapascal (or GPa) is equivalent to how many Pa?
1 x 10⁹ Pa
537
Rf is a measure of what?
the distance traveled by a compound in comparison to the distance covered by the solvent front
538
Glutamine has an _________ _____ side chain
uncharged polar
539
Electronegativity is a trend that exists [across a period or down a group]
across a period
540
Why is the conjugate base of a thiol-containing molecule like sulfur better able to delocalize negative charge compared to oxygen?
because sulfur is much larger than oxygen
541
What is N-ethylpropionamide?
an amide that results from the combination of an alkyl amine and an acyl chloride
542
What are the two assumptions of ideal gases?
All of the volume is assumed to be occupied by the gas itself, not the particles and the particles themselves do not experience intermolecular forces from other particles in the gas
543
A benzene ring is an [electron-withdrawing or electron-donating] group
electron-withdrawing
544
Tert-butyl is an [electron-withdrawing or electron-donating] group
electron-donating
545
Attachment of an electron-donating group will add electron density to the hydroxyl oxygen, making it more [positively or negatively] charged and [more or less] likely to lose its proton
negatively; less
546
Enantiomers have specific rotations that have the [same or different] magnitude but [the same or opposite] sign
same; opposite
547
What is the equation to find the enantiomeric excess of an enantiomer?
enantiomeric excess = (observed rotation*100)/specific rotation
548
What does Kirchoff's second law state?
voltage drops across parallel branches of a circuit are always identical
549
What is the definition of 1 electron-volt?
the energy required to move an electron through a 1.0 V potential
550
What formula can be used to find the energy required to move an electron?
V=U/q
551
What are three equations for power in an electric circuit?
P = VI = V²/R = I²R
552
With relatively small amounts of current flowing through the lines, [more or less] power is lost to resistance
less
553
What is the time constant (equal to RC)?
the amount of time it takes a capacitor to reach 63% of its final charge
554
What is the density of water in four different units?
1 g/cm³ = 1 g/mL = 1 kg/L = 1000 g/L
555
What is a viscous fluid?
a fluid that resists flow
556
Laminar flow is a quality of what type of fluid?
ideal fluid
557
How do substances moving in a laminar flow manner travel?
travel in parallel layers, with a lack of up-and-down motion
558
What is the equation for electric field?
E=ma/q
559
What is the formula for finding the total kinetic energy for a fluid?
1/2⍴v² * volume
560
What is the formula for determining the buoyant force?
Fᵦ = ⍴Vg
561
What is mass defect?
All nuclei weigh less than the sum of their component protons and neutrons
562
What happens when subatomic particles come together to form a nucleus?
some of their mass is converted into energy
563
What equation can be used to set the magnetic force equal to the electric force?
qvB = Eq or vB=E
564
How can the RHR be used to determine the direction of the induced magnetic field?
Stick your thumb in the direction of the current and curl your fingers around the wire, representing the circular magnetic field emanating from the wire
565
True or False: A resistor's resistance changes over time
False, a resistor's resistance does not change over time
566
When the current across a capacitor is decreasing, the voltage across its plates must be [increasing or decreasing]
increasing
567
Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle's velocity and the field itself
perpendicular
568
What is the equation for work?
W = Fd cosθ
569
What does the relationship of W = Fd cosθ tell us?
only the force exerted parallel to the object's motion contributes to the work
570
The magnitude of the force is [directly or indirectly] proportional to the electric charge
directly
571
Alpha and beta particles possess charges of [same or opposite] sign, and thus will experience forces in [same or opposite] directions
opposite; opposite
572
What is the formula to find the absolute pressure p at depth h below the surface of a fluid?
p = p₀ + ρgh
573
What is the formula to find the pressure difference Δp between two locations in the water?
Δp = ρgΔh
574
What does Archimedes’ Principle state?
the upward buoyant force, B, equals the weight of water displaced
575
What is the formula for buoyant force according to Archimedes’ Principle?
B = ⍴Vₛg
576
Work is the product of what two quantities?
force and distance
577
The system will be in equilibrium only if what?
the right and left forces exert torques that cancel each other
578
What is the equation for when the torque magnitudes are at equilibrium?
Fleft*Lleft = Fright*Lright
579
True or False: The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
True
580
To find the relative refractive index to air one needs what two variables?
the incident and refracted angles
581
The kinetic friction force F is the product of what?
the normal force the ramp exerted on the mass and the coefficient of kinetic friction
582
True or False: The normal force is independent of speed
True
583
The kinetic friction is given by what mathematical expression?
-μₖₕNᵢ
584
How can we calculate the volume flow rate?
the product of blood speed and artery cross-sectional area
585
The law of conservation of mechanical energy describes what?
the relation between the kinetic and potential energies of a system
586
According to the law of conservation of mechanical energy, an [increase or decrease] in one form of energy requires the [increase or decrease] in the other
increase; decrease
587
The coefficient of kinetic friction is always [lower than, equal to, or higher than] that of static friction
lower than
588
A constant force on a mass produces what?
a constant acceleration (Newton's second law)
589
The buoyant force on an immersed object is the product of what?
(density of the liquid) × (volume of the object) × (acceleration of gravity)
590
What is specific gravity?
the ratio of the density of an unknown substance to that of water
591
What is the formula for the time of a projectile object thrown vertically?
t = 2v/g
592
Sound wave are __________ and ________ when incident on materials just as light waves are
reflected; absorbed
593
Fusion means what?
melting
594
An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after what?
that individual has encountered the stressor for a prolonged period of time
595
Oxidation of tertiary alcohols is difficult because it involves what?
C–C bond breaking
596
The stereochemical designator for the double bond of E or Z is based on the [lowest or highest] priority functional groups
highest
597
The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a [shorter or longer] time than a continuous laser radiation, thus [less or more] heat is transferred to the cornea
shorter; less
598
An amine is defined as what?
R₃N, where R = H or a carbon group (but NOT C=O)
599
No more than ___ out of three R groups can be H
two
600
NaBH₄ reduces a ______ to a _________ _______
ketone; secondary alcohol
601
What does a random order mechanism mean?
either substrate could bind first
602
The side chains of valine and phenylalanine are what?
hydrophobic
603
A buffer has a buffering capacity that is how many pH units away from the pKa?
±1 pH unit away from the pKa
604
Why can't oxygen be an electrophilic atom?
because it has a partially negative charge
605
Diffraction causes what?
the initially plane-parallel wave-fronts of light to change direction and partially enter the shadow region behind the thread due to its narrowness
606
If the pH is less than the pKₐ then the [keto or enol] form is preferred
keto
607
Cl has how many more protons in the nucleus than P?
two more protons
608
How can a Cl nuclide be produced from P?
by two successive β⁻ decays
609
What side chain groups are essential to metal ion binding?
carboxylate side chain groups
610
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid have what types of side chain groups?
carboxylate side chain groups
611
What is current in terms of its units?
flow of charge per unit time
612
What is the base unit for mass in physics?
kg
613
Free electrons arrange themselves on what?
the surface of conductors
614
What is the effect of the collective electric field of the free electrons?
cancels any external electric field
615
True or False: Bound electrons can arrange themselves on the surface of the conductor due to the binding effects
False, bound electrons cannot arrange themselves on the surface of the conductor due to the binding effects
616
What happens when threshold is met at the axon hillock?
voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential
617
How can the current associated with an NCV pulse be calculated according to Ohm's law?
by dividing the potential change by the axon resistance which is the resistance per unit length divided by the length
618
A substance that dissolves to generate an acidic solution is called what?
an oxyacid.
619
Substances that are insoluble in neutral water but dissolve if the solution is acidic features what?
basic anions
620
Alkali metal oxides and hydroxides are ______ _____
strong bases
621
Given the formula for calcium chloride is CaCl₂, it produces _____ as many Cl⁻ ions as Ca²⁺ ions in solution when it dissolves
twice
622
This picture is the structure of what molecule?
hemiacetal group
623
Hydrogen bonding is a higher than anticipated dipole–dipole interaction, it causes substances that exhibit it to have [higher or lower] than expected boiling points and [higher or lower] vapor pressures
higher; lower
624
An enzyme is a [chiral or achiral] catalyst
chiral
625
Why is an enzyme capable of preferentially forming one enantiomer?
because a lower energy chiral transition state leads to the preferred product
626
True or False: A diverging lens spreads out light before it reaches the crystalline lens
True
627
The crystalline lens will focus the light further [forward or back], that is on the retina and correcting [myopia or hyperopia]
back; myopia
628
What two functional groups will hydrolyze in H₂SO₄?
acetal and cyanohydrin
629
According to Archimedes' principle, Wair is proportional to what?
body density
630
Blood in the pulmonary artery is essentially [the same or different] as venous blood
the same
631
Venous blood is [lower or higher] in pH than arterial blood due primarily to the CO2 it carries
lower
632
H₂S is a what?
weak acid
633
____ _____ have a small fraction of the solute molecule ionize and release protons into solution
Weak acids
634
No reaction occurs when the product formed is a _______ ________
soluble compound
635
The lower the value of Kₛₚ is, the [lower or higher] the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and the lower the solubility of the compound in water
lower
636
The pH at the equivalence point in any titration is the pH of what?
the salt solution formed
637
The reaction of an ion such as benzoate ion with water is called what?
hydrolysis
638
What is equivalent mass?
the mass of an acid that yields one mole of hydrogen ions or the mass of a base that reacts with one mole of hydrogen ions
639
A molecule that accepts an electron pair from the OH⁻ of a strong base is acting as a what?
a Lewis acid
640
What element has the largest charge of stable, naturally occurring nuclei?
uranium
641
Adding more protons makes the long-range repulsive Coulomb force [stronger or weaker] than the short-range attractive nuclear force, and a higher-charge nucleus undergoes [fission or fusion]
stronger; fission
642
Coulomb’s law states what?
the repulsive force versus fragment separation (r) has a 1/r² dependence
643
This graph depicts what kind of relationship between f(r) and r?
f(r) = 1/r²
644
Frictional forces dissipate an amount of energy (in joules) given by what?
the product of the force (in newtons) times the distance (in meters) over which the force acts
645
The coefficient of friction is defined as what?
the frictional force divided by the normal force
646
The normal force on a level surface is the product of what?
the mass and the gravitational acceleration, g
647
A ____ __________ has a node at each end
half wavelength
648
Two traveling waves that make up a standing wave must have _____ amplitudes and move in ________ directions
equal; opposite
649
The resistivity relation at a fixed temperature is what?
Resistance = Resistivity x Length/Area
650
What is IR spectroscopy used for?
to identify functional groups present on organic molecules
651
True or False: IR spectroscopy would distinguish between enantiomers
False, IR spectroscopy would not distinguish between enantiomers
652
The direction in which enantiomers rotate plane-polarized light can be assessed by what technique?
polarimetry
653
For a pendulum, period, length, and gravitational acceleration are related by what equation?
T = 2π√(Ig)
654
True or False: The greater the difference between the index of refraction of the lens material and that of the surrounding environment, the more the rays will bend
True, the greater the difference between the index of refraction of the lens material and that of the surrounding environment, the more the rays will bend
655
What is the equation for capacitance?
C = εA/d
656
Doubling the radius of a circle [doubles, triples, or quadruples] the area
quadruples
657
What are the two assumptions of ideal fluids?
ideal fluids are nonviscous and incompressible
658
What is viscosity?
the internal friction of a fluid - a quality that causes it to dissipate energy as it travels
659
True or False: Bernoulli's equation relates much more heavily to viscosity than compressibility
True
660
True or False: Continuity equation relates much more to viscosity than to compressibility
False, continuity equation relates much more to compressibility than to viscosity
661
The initial kinetic energy of the block (KEᵢblock) is equal to what?
the magnitude of work done by friction (ߊWfߊ)
662
Torque is the product of what?
the force and the lever arm
663
What is the lever arm?
the distance from the fulcrum
664
Increasing the lever arm [minimizes or maximizes] the torque
maximizes
665
1 revolution is equal to how many radians?
2π radians
666
What is the formula for energy in terms of torque?
energy = (torque) x (angle)
667
The kinetic energy at the bottom of the ramp is equal to what?
the difference between the potential energy at the top and the energy lost to rotation
668
What is the formula for the energy of rotation?
0.5I𝜔²
669
Why can fluid appear to be sucked downward in a concave meniscus?
because fluid particles are more attracted to the glass sides of the tube than to each other
670
Attractive forces between different particles are known as what?
adhesive forces
671
Forces between like particles are termed what?
cohesive forces
672
What is the formula for E in terms of F and q?
E=F/q
673
How can the force on the charge be determined?
multiply the charge by that of the electric field in N/C
674
What kinematic equation can be used to determine the time for an object to hit the ground?
d = v₀t + 1/2a₀t²
675
A converging lens forms what kind of image?
a real image
676
Real images are always [upright or inverted]
inverted
677
A diverging lens forms what kind of image?
a virtual image
678
Virtual images are always [upright or inverted]
upright
679
Myopia is corrected with [converging or diverging] lenses
diverging
680
What is the thin lens equation?
1/f = 1/o + 1/i
681
What is the geometry of right triangles?
the ratio of the image's distance to the object's distance is equal to the ratio of the image's height to the object's height
682
Dynamic equilibrium describes what?
an object moving at a constant velocity without acceleration
683
The block experiences a frictional force Ff that is equal and opposite to the component of the gravitational force that acts [parallel or perpendicular] to the surface of the incline F∥
parallel
684
True or False: Charged particles intrinsically generate magnetic fields
False, charged particles do not intrinsically generate magnetic fields
685
Current flowing along a circular wire generates what?
unidirectional magnetic field lines within the interior of the coil
686
What are magnetic fields?
vector quantities representing the magnetic influence that electrical currents and magnetized materials would experience at a location in three-dimensional space
687
Volumetric flow rate is equal to what?
the cardiac output
688
What is stroke volume?
the volume of blood that is ejected from the left ventricle (LV) in one cardiac cycle
689
Cardiac output is the product of what?
stroke volume and heart rate
690
1 mL is equal to how many cm³?
1 cm³
691
What is volumetric flow rate?
the product of cross-sectional area A and flow velocity v, or Q = Av
692
What does Pascal law state?
For a static, incompressible (constant density), and fully enclosed fluid, an external pressure applied to the fluid will be uniformly transmitted to all surfaces
693
What is the Henderson-Hesselbalch equation?
pH = pKa + log([A⁻]/[HA])
694
What is an indicator used for?
to visually detect the endpoint of an acid-base titration
695
What are the two things a good indicator must do?
not react with the substance being titrated and should change color close to the equivalence point of a titration
696
What are polyprotic acids?
acids with more than one acidic proton (H⁺ ion) that can dissociate in water
697
Electronegativity tends to [increase or decrease] moving down a group (column) on the periodic table
decrease
698
How is equilibrium achieved?
when the forward reaction and the reverse reaction occur simultaneously at the same rate
699
What are conformational isomers?
versions of the same molecule that form when an atom rotates about its bond
700
Describe the similarities and differences of diastereomers with respect to their stereocenters
differ at one or more stereocenters but have the orientation of at least one stereocenter in common
701
When one chiral molecule is converted to its enantiomer or to a different chiral molecule, the mechanism often includes formation of what?
a planar intermediate
702
What is decarboxylation?
the removal of a carboxyl group from a compound; the removed carboxyl group is converted to CO₂
703
True or False: Fluorene is a hydrocarbon
True
704
True or False: Hydrocarbons can act as a Brønsted-Lowry base to accept a proton (H⁺) from an acid such as HCl
False, hydrocarbons cannot act as a Brønsted-Lowry base to accept a proton (H⁺) from an acid such as HCl
705
N-H stretches absorb infrared light at what wavelength range?
3200-3600 cm⁻¹
706
How can the velocity be solved using the formula for kinetic energy?
Rearrange to v = √2KE/m
707
What does Newton's 3rd law state?
a pair of equal and opposite forces exists when two objects interact
708
What does Archimedes' Principle state?
an object in a fluid experiences a net upwardly directed buoyant force Fb equal to the product of the fluid's density ⍴, the gravitational acceleration g, and the volume Vfl of the fluid displaced by the object
709
What would happen to the object in the fluid when pobj﹥pfl?
the weight W of the object is greater than Fb & the object will immediately sink in the fluid
710
What would happen to the object in the fluid if pobj﹤pfl?
W is less than Fb and the object will rise in the fluid until it floats on the surface
711
What does Newton's first law of motion imply?
objects with inertia resist changes in their velocity
712
True or False: An object's inertia is equal to its mass m
True
713
When does mechanical equilibrium occur?
when the net external force acting on an object is equal to zero
714
What are the two forms of mechanical equilibrium?
static equilibrium and dynamic equilibrium
715
When does static equilibrium occur?
when the object has zero velocity
716
When does dynamic equilibrium occur?
when the object has a constant nonzero velocity
717
What does the work-energy theorem state?
work W done by a force on an object can be calculated as the change in the object's kinetic energy ΔKE
718
When does bimolecular nucleophilic substitution (SN2) occur?
when a nucleophile donates electrons to an electrophile with a good leaving group
719
Why are larger halogens better leaving groups than small halogens?
because they can spread the negative charge over a larger surface area
720
What is Fisher esterification?
the conversion of a carboxylic acid into an ester by an acid-catalyzed reaction with an alcohol
721
True or False: Acid-catalyzed reactions increase nucleophilicity
False
722
When does superheating occur?
when a liquid is heated past its boiling point but does not boil
723
What purpose do boiling chips serve?
they provide surfaces with nucleation sites where small bubbles can form
724
What are the 3 common types of distillation?
simple, fractional, and vacuum distillation
725
Simple distillation is most ideal for what types of compounds?
compounds with boiling points that are less than 150℃ and more than 25℃ apart
726
Fractional distillation is most ideal for what types of compounds?
compounds with boiling points that are less than 150℃ & less than 25℃ apart
727
Vacuum distillation is most ideal for what types of compounds?
compounds with boiling points greater than 150℃
728
What is gas-liquid chromatography?
a technique used to separate compounds based on boiling point, which depends on several factors including molecular weight, intermolecular forces, and branching
729
Compounds with fewer branching have a [smaller or larger] surface area than compounds with more branching
larger
730
What happens in a series circuit?
the same current flows through each element
731
By conservation of energy, the voltage rise from the voltage source Vₛ is [greater than, equal to, or less than] the sum of the voltage drops across the other elements in the circuit, Vᵣ and LED Vf
equal to
732
The starting time of the pulse wave corresponds to the contraction of the heart is the large spike in what kind of signal?
ECG signal
733
The ending time that corresponds to the arrival of the pulse wave in the finger is the peak in what kind of signal?
PPG signal
734
The heart rate corresponds to the _________ of the heartbeat
frequency
735
Visible light consists of wavelengths that range from ___ __ to ___ __
400 nm; 750 nm
736
The color violet corresponds to what wavelength on the electromagnetic spectrum?
400 nm
737
The color red corresponds to what wavelength on the electromagnetic spectrum?
750 nm
738
When does periodic motion occur?
when an object moves in a cyclical fashion, returning to the same location after a certain period of time
739
What is the equation for angular velocity?
ω = 360° x f
740
What does the work-energy principle state?
the total work done by a force is equal to the change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) of the object acted upon by the force
741
The work done by the force also contributes to a change in the potential energy of the system if...
the forces acting on the object are conservative forces (e.g. gravity)
742
What does power measure?
the rate at which energy is expended by a physical process over a period of time, or P = E/t
743
Power can also reflect a ____ __ ______ ________ or conversion between systems
rate of energy transfer
744
Indicators are [weak or strong] acids or bases
weak
745
The concentrations of indicators are relatively [low or high] during a titration
low
746
What is bromothymol blue?
a weakly acidic indicator that changes from pale yellow at pH 6 to dark blue at pH 8
747
What is transesterification?
a reaction between an ester and an an alcohol in which the ester-OR group is replaced with the alcohol-OR group
748
Alcohols are named based on the [shortest or longest] continuous carbon chain containing the hydroxyl group
longest
749
How are esters formed?
by an acid-catalyzed reaction known as a Fischer esterification
750
What is a Fischer esterification?
an acid-catalyzed reaction in which a carboxylic acid and an alcohol combine
751
The parent chain containing a carboxylic acid functional group as the highest priority group has its parent chain numbered beginning with what?
the carbonyl carbon of the the carboxyl group
752
A reaction that produces a less disordered system yields a [positive or negative] ΔS
positive
753
A reaction that produces a more disordered system yields a [positive or negative] ΔS
negative
754
What is the latent heat of fusion?
the amount of heat a substance must absorb to transition from a solid to a liquid
755
What is the latent heat of vaporization?
the amount of heat a substance must absorb to transition from a liquid to a gas
756
What are epimers?
a type of diastereomer that differ in spatial orientation at only one stereocenter
757
Specific rotation describes what?
the direction (+ or -) and magnitude (degrees) a chiral molecule rotates plane-polarized light
758
What is the equation for specific rotation ɑ?
ɑ=ɑobs/c×l
759
The empirical formula describes what?
only the ratios of each unique atom in a compound
760
The molecular formula describes what?
the actual number of each type of atom
761
How can the empirical formula be calculated from the known mass of each type of atom in a compound
by calculating the number of moles of each atom in the compound
762
For the empirical formula, how can we find the number of moles for each atom?
by dividing each mass given by the atomic mass of the atom
763
What is the formula for the Lorentz force?
F = qvB
764
The direction of the force is always ______________ to the particle's velocity
perpendicular
765
The mass and inertia of an electron are much [smaller or larger] than those of a proton
smaller
766
True or False: The thermal expansion of the length L or volume V of a substance is linearly proportional to its change in temperature ΔT
True
767
What is the term that describes the phase change of a solid directly to a gas?
condensation
768
At the melting (or freezing) point of a substance, the substance can exist in what phases?
either its solid or liquid phase
769
A system is in a state of thermodynamic equilibrium if what?
the temperature of the system is constant and uniform throughout its volume and there is no flow of energy
770
State functions describe what?
the equilibrium state of a system as a relationship between various thermodynamic variables and are independent of the path taken by the system to arrive at its present state
771
What are some examples of a state function?
a system's pressure, volume, and temperature
772
Process functions describe what?
the path taken by a system to transition from one equilibrium state to another
773
What are adiabatic processes?
Processes that occur with no heat exchange between the system and the environment
774
What does the first law of thermodynamics state?
the change in internal energy (ΔU) is the sum of the amount of heat (Q) transferred to the system and the work (W) done to the system by the surroundings
775
The work associated with the expansion or contraction of a gas is known as what?
pressure-volume work
776
What is the formula for pressure-volume work?
the product of the external pressure (P) and the change in volume (ΔV)
777
What is conduction?
the transfer of heat through direct physical contact
778
What is convection?
the transfer of heat through the flow of fluids
779
What is radiation?
the transfer of heat through electromagnetic radiation
780
1 m³ is how many L?
1000 L
781
What happens in laminar flow?
the packets move together in a layered, uniform manner, and the flow is smooth
782
What happens in turbulent flow?
the motion of the packets becomes highly nonuniform, and the resulting flow is more chaotic
783
Large values of Reynolds number are associated with the onset of what?
turbulence
784
What is the formula for the continuity equation for a circular conduit?
A = πr₁² x v₁ = πr₂² x v₂
785
What is viscosity?
an intrinsic property of a fluid that characterizes the amount of friction resisting the motion inside the fluid itself
786
How can the average acceleration be determined?
by taking the difference of the final and initial velocities divided by the difference between the final and initial times
787
A hemiacetal originates from what and consists of what?
an aldehyde and consists of a carbon bonded to a hydroxyl group, an alkyl group, an -OR group, and a H atom
788
Furanoses are ____-membered rings
five
789
Pyranoses are ___-membered rings
six
790
The anomeric carbon is characterized as what?
the carbon in a carbohydrate with two bonds to oxygen
791
A sugar is classified as L or D based on what?
the configuration of the chiral center with the highest number
792
An R-configuration at this center designates a [D or L]-sugar, and an S configuration designates an [D or L]-sugar
D; L
793
A cyclic sugar is in what configuration if the anomeric carbon substituent is on the opposite side of the ring plane as the substituent of the highest numbered chiral center?
ɑ-configuration
794
A cyclic sugar is in what configuration if the anomeric carbon substituent is on the same side of the ring plane as the substituent of the highest numbered chiral center?
β-configuration
795
What is the formula for the change in Gibbs free energy?
ΔG° = ΔH° - TΔS°
796
ΔG° is what kind of function and what does it describe?
a state function that describes the spontaneity of the reaction
797
When ΔG°﹤0, the reaction is [spontaneous or nonspontaneous] and that when ΔG°﹥0, the reaction is [spontaneous or nonspontaneous]
spontaneous; nonspontaneous
798
When ΔS° is positive and ΔH° is negative, the process is...
always spontaneous
799
When ΔS° is negative and ΔH° is positive, the process is...
nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at any temperature
800
When ΔS° and ΔH° are negative, the process is...
spontaneous (-ΔG°) at low temperatures and nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at high temperatures
801
When ΔS° and ΔH° are positive, the process is...
the process is nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at low temperatures and spontaneous (-ΔG°) at high temperatures
802
An endothermic reaction has a positive change in enthalpy ΔH°, which indicates what?
the products have higher enthalpy than the reactants
803
Why are dissociation reactions typically endothermic processes?
because energy must be added to the system (as heat) to dissociate (break) the bonds in the reactants
804
Why do dissociation reactions tend to increase entropy?
because a larger molecule is broken into two (or more) smaller molecules, which generally increases the disorder of the system
805
What are the two exceptions to the octet rule?
small atoms that have an only s orbital and for larger atoms in Period 3 and beyond when d orbitals are utilized
806
A calorimetry experiment measures what?
the temperature T as a reaction progresses
807
The magnitude of ΔT is equal to what?
the difference between the final and initial temperatures of the reaction
808
A negative ΔG indicates what?
the reaction is spontaneous
809
A positive ΔG indicates what?
the reaction is nonspontaneous
810
What is the activation energy Eₐ?
the difference between the free energy of the transition state and the energy of the reactants
811
Because Eₐ is the energy required by the reactants to form a higher energy transition state, Eₐ is always [positive or negative]
positive
812
How do catalysts lower the activation energy?
by stabilizing the transition state for a reaction, creating a less energetic transition state
813
A homogenous catalyst is in the [same or different] phase as the reactants
same
814
A heterogenous catalyst is in the [same or different] phase as the reactants
different
815
A surface catalyst works through what process and how does it work?
adsorption, in which the reacting species clings to the surface of the catalytic medium
816
Why does increasing the surface area of a catalyst increase the rate of the reaction?
because a greater surface area allows more molecules to collect on the surface
817
What are the trends for ionic radii across a period and down a group?
decrease in size across a period of the periodic table and increase moving down a group
818
Losing electrons to form a cation causes the remaining electrons to experience a [greater or smaller] effective nuclear charge (Zeff)
greater
819
Gaining electrons to form an anion produces greater electronic repulsion and nuclear shielding creating a [greater or lesser] Zeff, which pushes electrons farther down the nucleus
lesser
820
Na⁺, F⁻, Mg²⁺, and O²⁻ are _______________
isoelectronic
821
What happens in ꞵ⁺ decay?
a nuclear proton converts to a neutron and ejects a positron
822
What happens in ꞵ⁻ decay?
a neutron converts to a nuclear proton and emits an electron
823
What happens in electron capture?
a proton captures an electron near the nucleus and converts to a neutron without a positron or electron emission
824
The chemical behavior of an atom is determined primarily by what?
its electron configuration
825
Isotopes of the same element have nearly identical _______ __________ but differ in their _______ __________
chemical properties; physical properties
826
How are the reactants and/or products of a particular reaction related to one another?
by the mole ratios from the balanced reaction equation or chemical formula
827
Zeff [increases or decreases] as the atomic number increases
increases
828
Zeff [increases or decreases] as the group number increases
increases
829
How are coordinate covalent bonds formed?
between two atoms when both shared electrons are donated by the same atom
830
The coordination number of a metal complex refers to what?
the number of coordinate bonds formed between the central metal ion and its nearest neighboring atoms
831
How do hybrid orbitals minimize electronic repulsion?
by adopting specific orientations that are determined by the number of hybrid orbitals formed
832
What happens in resonance?
the arrangement of the atoms is unchanged, but some π bonds and nonbonding electrons "oscillate" between multiple atoms
833
Solute molecules that can associate with solvent molecules through [similar or different] types of intermolecular forces tend to be attracted to the solvent and are more soluble to it
similar
834
Electrostatic attractions are ______________ _____ ___________
positive-negative charge attractions
835
What is a retro-aldol reaction?
the reverse of an aldol condensation
836
The retro-aldol reaction yields what two products?
two ketones, two aldehydes, or one of each
837
F⁻ is mildly [acidic or basic]
basic
838
UV has [higher or lower] energy and [higher or lower] frequency than visible light or IR radiation
higher; higher
839
What is refraction?
the change in the direction of a sound wave when it is incident upon a tissue at an oblique angle and is determined by Snell's law
840
What is scattering?
when the waves are scattered in all directions in a non-uniform manner
841
What does amplification do to a signal?
makes the signal stronger
842
What is ultrasound?
sound with a frequency above the human range of hearing
843
An increase in intracellular NADH levels results in [increased or decreased] levels of pyruvate and OAA
decreased
844
Conversion of pyruvate to glucose requires its initial conversion into ____________, in a reaction catalyzed by ________ ___________ in the ____________
oxaloacetate; pyruvate carboxylase; mitochondria
845
Oxaloacetate (OAA) is then decarboxylated and phosphorylated by cytosolic or mitochondrial forms of what enzyme?
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)
846
After transport of either OAA in the form of malate or PEP directly from the ____________, the remainder of gluconeogenesis takes place in the _______
mitochondria; cytosol
847
What are lipases?
enzymes that digest lipids (fats)
848
What is the formula for a straight-chain alkane?
CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
849
What is the formula for a double bond?
CₙH₂ₙ
850
What is the formula for a triple bond?
CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
851
What is aspartme?
the methyl ester of the dipeptide containing aspartic acid and phenylalanine
852
This picture is the structure of what type of molecule?
dipeptide
853
What is the formula for the efficiency of an engine?
ƞ (efficiency) = W/Qₕ
854
What equation does the first law of thermodynamics state?
Qh = Qc + W
855
What is the unit for joules in base SI units?
kgᐧm²/s²
856
This picture is the structure of what functional group?
imide
857
This picture is the structure of what functional group?
primary amine
858
This picture is the structure of what functional group?
tertiary amine
859
For a pure compound, the melting point range is [broad or narrow]
narrow
860
The presence of impurities in a compound [increases or decreases] and [narrows or broadens] the melting point range
decreases; broadens
861
Eluting strength depends on what?
how strongly a compound adsorbs onto the adsorbent
862
Since typical adsorbents in normal phase TLC are highly polar, eluting strength [increases or decreases] with increasing solvent polarity
increases
863
What is the equation for HIC with regards to acceleration?
HIC = m x a x t
864
How can normality be calculated?
by multiplying the molarity of the solution by the number of protons per molecule of acid
865
According to Huckel's rule, if a molecule has 6π electrons, then it is ________
aromatic
866
What is a heterocycle?
a ring of atoms of more than one kind
867
Perchloric acid is a [weak or strong] acid
strong
868
What is formula for pH given the [H⁺]?
pH = -log[H⁺]
869
What is the pH of a solution that has a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 x 10⁻² M?
2
870
The process of mutorotation requires what?
ring opening
871
Where does ring opening occur?
at a hemiacetal group
872
A hemiacetal group consists of what?
a carbon atom directly attached to one -OR group and one -OH group
873
What is cytochrome c oxidase?
an enzyme responsible for electron transfer in the electron transport chain
874
True or False: The spinal cord is part of the peripheral nervous system
False, the spinal cord is part of the central nervous system
875
Collagen is a primary component in what type of tissue?
connective tissue
876
When does phagocytosis in macrophages occur?
after the macrophage has identified its target via antigen receptors
877
A hemiacetal consists of what?
a carbon atom directly attached to one -OR and one -OH group
878
What is high-performance liquid chromatography?
a purification technique in which a liquid solvent (mobile phase) is under pressure and carries a small sample through a column filled with adsorbent material (stationary phase) to a detector
879
In reversed-phase HPLC, the stationary phase is a [polar or nonpolar] compound, and the mobile phase is a comparatively [polar or nonpolar] compound
nonpolar; polar
880
What is mass spectrometry?
a technique that ionizes molecules, detects the ion's molecular weight, and generates a plot (mass spectrum) of the abundance of each ion versus its mass-to-charge ratio m/z
881
What is the formula for mass-to-charge ratio m/z?
882
Sodium acetate is a ____ ____
weak base
883
What is extraction?
a technique that uses immiscible solvents to separate molecules in a mixture based on differences in solubility
884
What must occur to precipitate the DNA from aqueous solution?
its charge must be neutralized through extraction with ethanol and a salt such as sodium acetate
885
Decreasing the pH of the solvent causes what?
an increase in the concentration of H⁺ ions and results in a greater number of multiply charged ions
886
In normal-phase HPLC, the stationary phase is [polar or nonpolar] relative to the mobile phase
polar
887
In normal-phase HPLC, molecules with more polar bonds have a [weaker or stronger] affinity for the stationary phase and have longer retention times than molecules with fewer polar bonds
stronger
888
In normal-phase HPLC, the molecule that moves through the column slowest, has the longest retention time, and elutes last has what?
a greater number of atoms capable of forming hydrogen bonds with the the stationary phase
889
What is the first step for determining the structure of an organic molecule from its name?
determine the number of carbon atoms in the parent chain, which is the longest chain containing the highest priority functional group. The prefix of the parent alkane determines the number of carbons and the suffix describes the highest priority functional group
890
What is the second step for determining the structure of an organic molecule from its name?
Determine the position and identity of each substituent if any. All substituent names are placed at the beginning of the compound name together with the number of the carbon to which the substituent is attached
891
The reaction of a ketone or an aldehyde with a cyanide ion produces what?
a cyanohydrin
892
The cyanohydrin functional group contains what two functional groups on what carbon?
a hydroxyl group (-OH) and a cyano group (C⫢N) attached to the same carbon
893
If the Fmoc group is removed by a noncyclic amine, the amine [does or does not] need to be cyclic for protection
does not
894
If the Fmoc group is not removed, the cyclic nature of the amine [is or is not] important for deprotection
is
895
RP-HPLC uses a [polar or nonpolar] stationary phase and a [polar or nonpolar] mobile phase
nonpolar; polar
896
Acetone, methanol, and water are all _____ solvents
polar
897
In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for O-H stretch?
3200-3650 cm⁻¹
898
In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for sp C-H stretch?
3300 cm⁻¹
899
In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for sp² C-H stretch?
3100 cm⁻¹
900
In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for sp³ C-H stretch?
3000 cm⁻¹
901
In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for C=O stretch?
1650-1810 cm⁻¹
902
Proton nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy detects what?
protons in a molecule when an external magnetic field and radio frequency are applied to a sample
903
Hydrogen atoms that are in identical magnetic environments within a molecule exhibit what?
rotational or planar symmetry
904
The splitting pattern of a signal is based on what?
the n + 1 rule
905
The location of signals in the ¹HNMR spectrum is known as what?
the chemical shift
906
An electron cloud around the protons shields them from the external magnetic field, causing what?
an upfield signal
907
An electronegative substituent withdraws electrons and deshields neighboring protons from the magnetic field, causing what?
a downfield signal
908
What happens in transesterification?
the alkoxy group (-OR group) on an ester and alcohol are switched
909
What happens when a battery discharges?
the half-reaction at the anode gives up electrons, which are transferred to the cathode (reduction) to complete the other half-reaction
910
What must be present between the half-reactions to achieve the balanced net reaction from the sum of the two half-reactions?
an electron balance
911
Identical species appearing as reactants in one half-reaction and as products in the other cancel and [are or are not] part of the net reaction expression
are not
912
What are enantiomers?
a pair of identical molecules that have the opposite configuration
913
A resolving agent is a ______ molecule
chiral
914
The separation of enantiomers requires what?
the addition of a resolving agent
915
In a concentration cell, the anode and cathode are made of the [same or different] metal and are surrounded by the [same or different] ionic solution, but the solutions are [the same or different] in concentration
same; same; different
916
In the less-concentrated half-cell, cations are [produced or consumed]
produced
917
In the more concentrated half-cell, cations are [produced or consumed] until the cation in each half-cell are equal
consumed
918
Boyle's law describes what?
the inverse relationship between volume V and pressure P for a fixed number of molecules of an ideal gas at constant temperature
919
Charles' law describes what?
the directly proportional relationship between the volume and the absolute temperature at of a fixed number of molecules of an ideal gas at a constant pressure
920
Avogadro's law describes what?
the directly proportional relationship between the number of moles and the volume of an ideal gas at constant temperature and pressure
921
Guy-Lussac's law describes what?
the directly proportional relationship between the pressure and the absolute temperature of a fixed number of molecules of an ideal gas kept at a constant volume
922
The kinetic molecular theory indicates what?
that pressure comes from the combined force of gas particle collisions with the sides of the container
923
What does Avogadro's law state?
that at a constant temperature and pressure, the volume V of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the number of moles n of the gas.
924
What does Dalton's law of partial pressures state?
that in a container with a mixture of gases, the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases within the container
925
What is the mole fraction?
the ratio of the number of moles of an individual gas to the total number of moles
926
What is the formula for the total distance dₜ that the ultrasound travels?
the product of the speed of sound c and the echo time tₑ
927
What is the formula for the weight W of an object?
the product of its density ⍴, gravitational acceleration g, and volume V
928
What does the Archimedes principle state?
an object placed in a fluid experiences a buoyant force Fᵦ equal to the product of the density ⍴f of the fluid, g, and the volume Vd of the displaced fluid
929
The Doppler effect causes what?
the frequency of a sound emitted from a source to be perceived as a different frequency by an observer when the source and/or observer are moving relative to the Earth
930
The perceived sound frequency f is calculated from what?
the speed of sound v, the observer velocity vₒ, the source velocity vₛ, and the frequency fₛ of the sound transmitted by the source
931
When the observer is moving toward the source, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]
plus; numerator
932
When the source is moving toward the observer, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]
minus; denominator
933
When the observer is moving away from the source, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]
minus; numerator
934
When the source is moving away from the observer, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]
plus; denominator
935
For a particular tissue, v equals what?
the product of the wavelength λ and f
936
+1 C is equivalent in charge to approximately how many protons?
6.24 x 10¹⁸ protons
937
-1 C is equivalent in charge to approximately how many electrons?
6.24 x 10¹⁸ electrons
938
The charge magnitudes of one electron and one proton are the smallest unit of charge known as what?
the elementary charge qₑ
939
What does the law of conservation of charge state?
that electric charge is neither created nor destroyed
940
Only ____ can be exchanged with the surroundings in a closed system
heat
941
The amino group of one amino acid reacts with the carboxyl group of another amino acid to form a peptide bond through what kind of reaction?
dehydration reaction
942
The carboxyl group of one amino acid loses a hydroxyl group (-OH) and the amino group of the other loses a hydrogen atom, releasing ___ as a _________
H₂O; byproduct
943
Serine has a _____ _________ side chain
polar uncharged
944
Both arginine and serine are considered __________
hydrophilic
945
What type of amino acids predominate in nature?
L-amino acids
946
Glyceraldehyde is an oxidized form of what molecule?
glycerol
947
What is glyceraldehyde?
a three-carbon aldose with one aldehyde group and two hydroxyl groups
948
Chair projections show substituents in what two positions?
either axial or equatorial positions
949
Simple distillation is best suited for what conditions?
compounds with boiling points＜150℃ and ＞25℃ apart
950
Fractional distillation works best for what conditions?
for compounds that have boiling points ＜150℃ and are ＜25℃ apart
951
Vacuum distillation is appropriate for what conditions?
compounds that have boiling points＞150℃
952
__________ is the fully oxidized form of coenzyme Q
ubiquinone
953
Coenzyme Q participates in what?
the electron transport chain in the mitochondrial membrane
954
What are the lengths of the two distinct chains of triacylglycerol?
one with 16 carbons and two with 18 carbons
955
What is saponification?
the hydrolysis of ester bonds with a strong base
956
One equivalent of base is defined as what?
the amount of base needed to hydrolyze one ester linkage in a triacylglycerol
957
Why are fatty acid sodium salts soluble in aqueous solutions?
because the charged carboxyl group and sodium ion interact with water through ion-dipole interactions
958
Why does the protonation of fatty acid sodium salts render the molecule insoluble in water?
because the fatty acid is no longer a charged species and so cannot interact as readily with water
959
The long-chain hydrocarbons on fatty acids greatly [increase or decrease] the hydrophobicity of these molecules
increase
960
What are geometric isomers?
stereoisomers that arise from disubstituted double bonds
961
Why can geometric isomers be separated by gas chromatography?
because they have slightly different boiling points
962
In intermolecular collisions cause the movement of heat between high- and low-temperature regions because molecules within high-temperature regions tend to move [slower or faster] and therefore have [smaller or larger] kinetic energies
faster; larger
963
What is the elementary charge of an electron?
-1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C
964
What is the formula for the charge Q on an object?
Q = ne
965
Doppler effect describes what?
a waveform phenomenon in which the frequency of the waveforms perceived by an observer is greater or less than the real, native frequency of waveforms emitted from the source
966
When do Doppler shifts occur?
when the velocity of the waveform source (vₛ) or the velocity of an observer (vₒ) leads to a perceived change in the velocity of the emitted waveforms relative to the observer
967
The motion of the observer or waveform source relative to each other leads to a shift in only the ________ _________ ________ of the sound waveform as successive waveform crests and troughs are perceived closer together or farther apart
apparent, perceived velocity
968
Why can no amount of motion by either the source or the observer modify the native velocity of the emitted waveform?
because the speed of a waveform is primarily influenced by its type and by the medium through which it travels
969
What is torque 𝜏?
a rotational force that causes an object to spin about an axis
970
Torques that cause an object to spin counterclockwise are [positive or negative]
positive
971
Torques that cause an object to spin clockwise are [positive or negative]
negative
972
When an object is in static equilibrium the net torque is ____
zero
973
What is the formula for the lens equation?
1/F = 1/o + 1/i
974
The refraction of light through a converging (convex-shaped) lens causes what?
parallel light rays to converge at the focal length behind the lens and f is positive
975
A diverging (concave-shaped) lens causes what?
incident parallel light rays to diverge and f is negative
976
A dehydration reaction is not stereospecific if what happens?
the subsequent loss of a proton will lead to a mixture of cis- and trans-alkenes
977
What is the functional group that represents a peptide bond?
an amide group
978
In gas-liquid chromatography, the first peak to emerge will be from the [least or most] polar and the [least or most] volatile compound
least; most
979
What happens in an Sₙ2 reaction?
there is an inversion of configuration
980
Diluting the solution will [increase or decrease] the percentage ionization by Le Chȃtelier's Principle
increase
981
Adding a strong acid [increases or decreases] the amount of H⁺ in solution and [increase or decrease] the percentage of weak acid that ionizes
increases; decrease
982
What is the index of refraction of a medium equal to?
the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium
983
What is the formula for work in terms of power
Work = Power x time
984
Disulfide bridges is a type of what kind of bonding?
intermolecular covalent bonding
985
True or False: Arginine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction
True, Arginine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction
986
True or False: Glycine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction
False, Glycine does not have a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction
987
Glycine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction
True, Glycine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction
988
The side chain of serine is a what?
primary alcohol
989
Alanine has what kind of side chain?
a methyl side chain
990
The side chain of tyrosine is a what?
a phenol
991
The side chain of threonine is a what?
secondary alcohol
992
True or False: Long alkyl chains are affected by pH
False, long alkyl chains are not affected by pH
993
The high number of capillaries in the body means what?
the total cross-sectional area of these vessels is larger than any other vessel type in the circulatory system
994
An increase in the total cross-sectional area results in the velocity of the blood [increasing or decreasing]
decreasing
995
Rhodopsin kinase catalyzes the reaction between ATP and rhodopsin that causes rhodopsin to be ______________
phosphorylated
996
The substrate for rhodopsin kinase that is also the source of phosphate is what?
ATP
997
In glycogen, each glucose subunit is connected to an adjacent glucose subunit by what kind of bond?
an α-1,4-glycosidic bond
998
In glycogen, branching is due to the formation of what kind of bonds?
ɑ-1,6-glycosidic bonds
999
True or False: The ratio of the image height to the object height is equal to the ratio of the lens-image distance to the object-lens distance
True
1000
Spontaneous reactions must have a [positive or negative] ΔG°
negative
1001
Reactions that create gaseous products from solids and liquids must have a [positive or negative] ΔS°
positive
1002
A spontaneous reaction occurs when E° is [greater than, equal to, or less than] zero
greater than
1003
What is the measurement unit of power?
watt
1004
Watt is defined in units of what?
J/s = ftᐧlb/s = kgᐧm²/s³
1005
True or False: Free energy is a measure of reaction rate/activity
False, free energy is NOT a measure of reaction rate/activity
1006
A single replacement reaction involves what?
the replacement of one type of atom with another in a reaction between a compound and a neutral element in its stable form
1007
Alcohols are [poor or good] leaving groups and [weak or strong] electrophiles
poor; weak
1008
How can an alcohol's leaving group ability be improved?
through the formation of a mesylate (-SO₃CH₃) or a tosylate (-SO₃C₆H₄CH₃)
1009
How can mesylates and tosylates be produced?
by the reaction of an alcohol with a base and methanesulfonyl chloride or p-toulenesulfonyl chloride, respectively
1010
How can mesylate and tosylate anions stabilize their negative charges?
by the delocalization of electrons through resonance
1011
The α-carbon of a carboxylic acid is susceptible to what?
substitution reactions such as bromination
1012
What is the Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction?
the substitution of bromine on the α-carbon of a carboxylic acid
1013
The Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction begins with what?
the addition of PBr₃
1014
What is the side chain of tryptophan?
indole
1015
What is the side chain of proline?
a cyclic alkyl group that bonds to the nitrogen of the amino acid backbone in a five-membered ring
1016
What is the side chain of histidine?
imidazole
1017
What is imidazole?
a five-membered aromatic ring containing two nitrogen atoms
1018
What is the side group of tyrosine?
phenol
1019
On the periodic table, electronegativity tends to [increase or decrease] across a row and [increase or decrease] down a column
increase; decrease
1020
Greater separation between two elements on the periodic table usually indicates what?
a greater difference in electronegativity and a larger dipole moment (higher polarity)
1021
What does the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory state?
the shape of a molecule can be determined from its Lewis structure by distributing the electron domains as far apart as possible around a central atom to minimize electron repulsion
1022
A molecule's electron geometry is determined by what?
the number of electron-dense regions
1023
The molecular geometry (shape) is determined by what?
the orientations the bonded atoms adopt due to the number of bonding and nonbonding electron domains around the central atom
1024
Many intermolecular forces involve what?
the partial charges of bond dipoles
1025
When does a dipole-dipole interaction occur?
when the opposite partial charges of the permanent dipoles of the polar bonds in neighboring molecules form a mutual attraction
1026
What is theoretical yield?
the maximum amount of a product that can be produced from a given amount of the limiting reactant initially present
1027
The overall (net) reaction for the process can be determined from what?
the sum of the reactions for each step
1028
What is electronegativity?
the tendency of an atom to attract electrons within a bond
1029
The electronegativity of an atom depends on what?
the distance of the valence electrons from the nucleus and how well the core electrons shield the valence electrons from the nucleus
1030
On the periodic table, electronegativity tends to [increase or decrease] from left to right across a period and from bottom to top in a group
increase
1031
Within each group (column), the atomic radius generally [increases or decreases] from top to bottom
increases
1032
Within each period (row), the atomic radius tends to [increase or decrease] from left to right
decrease
1033
What is the formula for Zeff?
Zeff = Z - S
1034
Substitution reactions require what?
a good nucleophile and a good leaving group on a suitable substrate
1035
When do Sₙ2 reactions occur?
when a nucleophile attacks an electrophile, causing the leaving group to leave in the same step
1036
Why do Sₙ2 reactions take place more readily on the less substituted carbon?
because they are less sterically hindered, allowing the nucleophile easier access to attack the electrophilic substrate
1037
Halide leaving group ability [increases or decreases] as the size of the halide ion increases
increases
1038
To determine the suffix, organic compounds with multiple functional groups are named using what?
the highest-priority functional group
1039
All other functional groups are named using what?
prefixes
1040
Numbering of the longest carbon chain provides what?
location references for substituents and stereocenter configurations
1041
Numbering of the longest carbon must assign the [lowest or highest] possible number to the highest-priority group
lowest
1042
The color of a substance is determined by what?
the wavelengths of light it absorbs
1043
A substance appears to be the color that is _____________ to the color of light that is maximally absorbed
complementary
1044
The work done to lift an object is equal to what?
its change in gravitational potential energy ΔPE
1045
When does dynamic equilibrium occur?
when the sum of all forces acting on an object in motion is equal to zero
1046
What are used to assess the directional components of translational forces?
free-body diagrams
1047
What is power?
the amount of work done per unit time
1048
The velocity of blood in the aorta is equal to what?
the ratio of the cardiac output and the cross-sectional area of the aorta
1049
1 L is equal to how many cm³?
1000 cm³
1050
During exercise, what increases to maintain normal body temperature?
blood flow to the skin
1051
Excess body heat generated during exercise can be transferred to the surface through what process?
convection
1052
Excess body heat generated during exercise can be dissipated into the environment through what process?
radiation
1053
The ideal gas law implies what?
that the molar volume is 22 L/mol for all gases at standard temperature of 273 K and pressure of 1 atm
1054
Magnetic fields are generated by what?
electromagnetic radiation, permanent magnets, or the motion of charged particles
1055
How can the direction of magnetic fields generated by moving charges be determined?
using the right-hand rule
1056
True or False: Charged particles intrinsically generate magnetic fields
False, charged particles do not intrinsically generate magnetic fields
1057
What is a reaction free-energy diagram?
a plot of the Gibbs free energy (y-axis) versus the reaction coordinate (x-axis)
1058
During elementary molecular conversion steps, existing bonds are broken while new bonds are formed, resulting in what?
momentary transition states with elevated energy that are seen graphically as energy maxima (peaks)
1059
What is specific rotation?
the degree to which a chiral molecule rotates plane-polarized light
1060
True or False: Diastereomers differ in the magnitude of their specific rotations
True
1061
True or False: Enantiomers have specific rotations of the same magnitude but opposite direction
True
1062
What are conformational isomers?
versions of the same molecule that form when an atom rotates about its bond
1063
What are esters?
carboxylic acid derivates
1064
How are esters formed?
by the condensation of a carboxylic acid and an alcohol under acidic conditions
1065
What are terpenes?
a type of lipid made up of branched five-carbon units known as isoprenes
1066
Terpenes are classified according to what?
the number of isoprene units present in the molecule
1067
A monoterpene is made up of what?
two isoprene units
1068
An Sₙ1 reaction occurs in how many steps?
two steps
1069
What are the two steps of an Sₙ1 reaction?
a carbocation intermediate is formed when the bond between the leaving group and adjoining carbon atom is broken; next, the nucleophile adds to the carbocation to form the reaction product
1070
Substrates that form a more stable carbocation react [faster or slower] than substrates that form a less stable carbocation
faster
1071
Oxidation of an organic molecule requires what?
a decrease in the number of C-H bonds and an increase in the number of C-O bonds
1072
Primary alcohols can be oxidized by various oxidizing agents to what?
carboxylic acids
1073
Secondary alcohols can be oxidized by various oxidizing agents to what?
ketones
1074
Why can't tertiary alcohols be oxidized?
because the tertiary carbon does not have any C-H bonds to lose
1075
Aldehydes are oxidized by various oxidizing agents to what?
carboxylic acids
1076
What is chromic acid?
an oxidizing agent that can oxidize primary alcohols and aldehydes to carboxylic acids and secondary alcohols to ketones
1077
What are protecting groups?
organic molecules added to a functional group to prevent them from reacting under a given set of reaction conditions
1078
Protecting groups tend to be stable against what?
oxidation and reduction
1079
Why do London dispersion forces tend to be more pronounced in larger molecules?
because larger molecules have larger electron clouds that are more polarizable
1080
Structural changes that increase polar sites on the protein surface [increase or decrease] water solubility
increase
1081
Alanine contains what kind of side chain?
a methyl side chain
1082
What are two reactions of Sₙ1?
carbocation formation and nucleophilic addition
1083
Why do Sₙ1 reactions readily occur with tertiary alkyl halides?
because they are sterically hindered and form stable carbocations
1084
As electronegativity decreases, nucleophilicity tends to [increase or decrease] from right to left across a row of the periodic table
increase
1085
Atoms of higher electronegativity [more or less] effectively stabilize negative charge and [more or less] readily donate electron density to electrophiles
more; less
1086
When does the inductive effect occur?
when electron density is donated through sigma bonds
1087
Why are carbocations stabilized by electron donating groups?
because they donate electrons to the positively charged carbon
1088
Why are carbocations destabilized by electron withdrawing groups?
because they pull electrons away from the carbocation, creating two adjacent positive charges
1089
The extent of a substrate's ______ _________ can dictate whether Sₙ1 or Sₙ2 is more likely to undergo
steric hindrance
1090
Sₙ1 reactions permit [easily accessible or sterically hindered] electrophiles whereas Sₙ2 reactions require [easily accessible or sterically hindered] electrophiles
sterically hindered; easily accessible
1091
The Strecker synthesis is used to generate what from an aldehyde using ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) and potassium cyanide (KCN)?
ɑ-amino acids
1092
True or False: Elements within the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons and exhibit similar chemical properties
True, elements within the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons and exhibit similar chemical properties
1093
The first ionization energy tends to [increase or decrease] across a period and [increase or decrease] moving down a group on the periodic table
increase; decrease
1094
Elements with a lower first ionization energy are [easier or harder] to ionize and [more or less] reactive than elements with a higher ionization energy
easier; more
1095
Elements can be broadly classified on the periodic table as what?
metals, metalloids, and nonmetals
1096
Due to many shared characteristics within each of these categories, the _______ ______ of each element are often useful for qualitative comparisons between elements
general traits
1097
What are the representative elements?
the elements in Groups 1-2 (1A-2A) and Groups 13-18 (3A-8A) that are contained in the s-block and the p-block, respectively, of the periodic table
1098
What is polarizability?
the extent to which an electron cloud of an atom can be distorted by an external charge or by an applied electric field to produce a dipole
1099
What is electronegativity?
the tendency of an atom to attract electrons within a bond
1100
Electron affinity assesses what?
the tendency of an atom to accept an additional electron by measuring the energy change when an electron is added to an atom
1101
What does ionization energy measure?
the energy required to remove an electron from an atom
1102
At standard temperature and pressure (STP), which are 0℃ (273 K) and 1.00 atm, gases occupy a molar volume of what?
22.4 L/mol
1103
If a reaction does not occur, it is because ΔH is [greater than, equal to, or less than] TΔS
greater than
1104
The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a [shorter or longer] time than a continuous laser radiation, thus [less or more] heat is transferred to the cornea
shorter; less
1105
The energy of the photon is [directly or inversely] proportional to the wavelength, so the longest wavelength corresponds to the [smallest or largest] photon energy
inversely; smallest
1106
NaBH₄ reduces the ketone to what?
secondary alcohol
1107
The new ester formed when an alcohol group reacts as a nucleophile with the carbonyl in the ethyl ester is called what?
a lactone
1108
The intramolecular transesterification yielding this lactone is called what?
lactonization
1109
What is the formula for pH?
pH = -log([H₃O⁺])
1110
What is the definition of current?
flow of charge per unit time
1111
True or False: Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons
True, conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons
1112
How do free electrons arrange themselves?
on the surface of conductors
1113
The collective electric field of free electrons produced inside the conductor causes what effect?
cancels any external electric field
1114
True or False: Graded potentials occur in the axon
False, graded potentials occur in the cell body and dendrites
1115
What happens when threshold is met at the axon hillock?
voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential
1116
What is attenuation?
the decrease in the amplitude of a wave due to absorption and scattering
1117
Sound propagates through the vibrations as longitudinal pressure waves, and therefore [can or cannot] exist in a vacuum
cannot
1118
Attenuation of sound is greatest in [soft or hard] materials
soft
1119
Sound travels most slowly in _____ and most quickly in ______
gases; solids
1120
When does the Doppler effect occur?
when the observed frequency and wavelength of a sound are shifted from those of the original due to relative motion between the source and the observer
1121
The frequency shift is [positive or negative] when the source velocity is negative
positive
1122
The frequency shift is [positive or negative] when the source velocity is positive
negative
1123
Sound is propagated in the form of what?
pressure waves by the vibrations of the molecules in a medium
1124
How does the rapid expansion and contraction of crystals create pressure waves?
by vibrating nearby particles
1125
What is the period of a wave?
the amount of time for one cycle to pass through a fixed point
1126
The period of a wave is the reciprocal of what?
frequency
1127
Concave mirrors create what kinds of images when the object is placed outside the mirror's focal length?
real images
1128
For spherical mirrors, the radius of curvature is _____ the focal length
twice
1129
When does constructive interference occur?
when the sum of the amplitudes results in a larger amplitude
1130
When does destructive interference occur?
when the sum of the amplitudes results in a smaller amplitude
1131
A wave is combined with a copy of itself that has been flipped across the x-axis would result in what?
complete destructive interference
1132
The frequency of a sound is associated with what?
its perceived pitch
1133
What is the Doppler effect?
when relative motion exists between a sound source and an observer, the observed frequency and wavelength differ from that of the original frequency and wavelength
1134
When the source moves toward the observer, the observed wavelength [increases or decreases] and the observed frequency [increases or decreases]
decreases; increases
1135
For a pipe open at both ends, the length is ____ the fundamental frequency wavelength
half
1136
Why does the current entering and exiting a resistor remain the same?
because electric charge is always conserved
1137
The voltage across a resistor is the product of what?
resistance and current
1138
What is the apparent weight of a submerged object?
its reduced weight due to an upward buoyant force
1139
The buoyant force is equal to the product of what?
the fluid's density ρ, volume of displaced fluid V, and the gravitational acceleration g
1140
For an object fully immersed in two different fluids, the ratio of the buoyant forces is equal to what?
the ratio of the fluid densities
1141
What is hydrostatic pressure?
the pressure exerted by the weight of a static fluid
1142
What happens when a mass experiences a net force?
the mass will accelerate in the direction of the force
1143
What happens when no net force acts on an object?
the object's velocity remains unchanged
1144
The resistance of an object is [directly or inversely] proportional to its resistivity and length but [directly or inversely] proportional to its cross-sectional area
directly; inversely
1145
Resistivity assesses what?
the intrinsic resistance within a defined volume of a material
1146
Coulomb's law may be used to determine what?
the electric force generated by two point charges separated by some distance
1147
Electric force is [directly or inversely] proportional to the square of the distance separating the two charges
inversely
1148
The fundamental frequency of a wave is directly proportional to what?
wave speed
1149
The fundamental frequency of a wave is inversely proportional to what?
wavelength
1150
For a string fixed at both ends, the wavelength of each harmonic is _____________ to the string length
proportional
1151
What is magnification?
the phenomenon in which a lens produces an image that is enlarged or shrunken relative to the original object
1152
Multi-lens systems arranged in series provide what?
a combined magnification equal to the product of all individual lens magnifications
1153
Using oxidation state rules, the oxidation number of each atom in a compound formula may be determined on the basis that what?
the sum of the oxidation states of each atom must equal the net charge of the compound or ion
1154
What is a disproportionation reaction?
a special case of an oxidation-reduction reaction in which both the oxidation and the reduction occur to atoms of the same element
1155
How can a disproportionation reaction be identified?
by comparing the oxidation number of a given element in the reactants with the oxidation number of that same element in the products
1156
What is high-performance liquid chromatography?
a purification technique that separates compounds based on polarity and consists of a mobile phase, stationary phase, detector, and computer for data acquisition
1157
What is the mobile phase?
a solvent or mixture of solvents that are pumped through the system under pressure
1158
What is the stationary phase?
a column made of either a polar or nonpolar material
1159
¹HNMR detects what?
hydrogen atoms in a molecule as an external magnetic field and radio frequency pulse are applied to the sample
1160
The splitting pattern can be determined by what?
the n+1 rule
1161
The pH of a solution is defined as what?
pH = -log[H⁺]
1162
[H⁺] and [OH⁻] concentrations are related by what?
the self-ionization constant Kw of water
1163
pH is related to [OH⁻] by what relationship?
pH + pOH = 14
1164
The pOH scale is defined as what?
pOH = -log[OH⁻]
1165
The pH and pOH scales are [directly or inversely] correlated
inversely
1166
The pH unit is based on a logarithmic scale defined as what?
pH = -log[H₃O⁺]
1167
The magnitude of [H₃O⁺] is given by what expression?
Factor Δ[H₃O⁺] = 10⁻^ΔpH
1168
How can a standard solution be made?
by diluting a particular amount of a stock solution
1169
Because the number of solute particles stays the same, the ratio of concentrations can be calculated to determine what?
how much smaller the concentration of the standard solution is compared to the stock solution
1170
How can the analyte concentration in an unknown sample be determined?
by comparing its absorbance to a calibration curve prepared using the measured absorbances of standard solutions with known concentrations
1171
The determined concentration may then be used to calculate the mass of the analyte present in the sample based on what?
the solution volume, relevant mole ratios, and the molar mass of the analyte
1172
Of the common representative elements, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine occur naturally as what?
covalently bonded diatomic molecules in an elemental state to achieve a full valence shell
1173
Which two elements do not exist as a gas a room temperature?
bromine and iodine
1174
Amino acids are important biological molecules that make up what?
proteins
1175
Amino acids contain what?
amino group, carboxyl group, and a side chain all bonded to an ɑ-carbon
1176
Amino acids can be grouped together based on what?
the classification of the side chains and functional group
1177
What are the classifications of amino acids?
aromatic, hydrophilic or hydrophobic, acidic or basic, and charged or uncharged
1178
An aldol condensation results in what?
a new carbon-carbon bond and an ɑ,β-unsaturated enone
1179
An aldol condensation requires what?
two carbonyl groups and occurs by the nucleophilic attack of an enolate on a carbonyl followed by elimination
1180
A diketone substrate will result in what?
cyclization and formation of a five- or six-membered ring
1181
Acid ionization in an aqueous solution produces what?
hydronium ions and a corresponding conjugate base of the ionized acid
1182
Both the acid and its conjugate base interact with water and establish equilibria that can be described by molar concentration ratios in the form of what?
the acid dissociation constant Kₐ and the base dissociation constant Kᵦ
1183
In aqueous solutions, strong acids ionize essentially 100%, giving [small or large] values of Kₐ and [high or low] [H⁺]
large; high
1184
Weak acids ionize only to a small extent, giving [small or large] values of Kₐ and [H⁺] that are much [lower or higher] than the concentration of the non-ionized acid
small; lower
1185
A water-soluble salt formed from the conjugate base of a weak acid dissociates [partially or fully] in an aqueous solution
fully
1186
Because the salt contains the conjugate base of a weak acid, the resulting solution often exhibits a [acidic or basic] pH
basic
1187
How does a reducing agent cause a reduction in another compound?
by giving electrons to the other compound
1188
Oxidation state accounts for what?
electrons gained or lost by a particular atom
1189
The magnitude and direction of the attractive or repulsive forces exerted between electric charges are [directly or inversely] proportional to the charge of each particle but [directly or inversely] proportional to the square of the distance separating the charges
directly; inversely
1190
What does Coulomb's law state?
the electrostatic force between two charged objects is directly proportional to the product of charge magnitudes
1191
Increasing the charge on one object [increases or decreases] the electrostatic force on the other object
increases
1192
The electric force between two charged objects is [directly or inversely] proportional to the product of the magnitude of charge and [directly or inversely] proportional to the square of their separation distance
directly; inversely
1193
The acceleration of an object is always [directly or inversely] proportional to the force acting on that object and [directly or inversely] proportional to the mass of that object
directly; inversely
1194
What is the equation for capacitor strength?
C = Q/V
1195
The electromotive force quantifies what?
the capacity of electrical generators to establish an electric potential energy gradient
1196
Due to internal resistance within the electrical generator, the observed terminal voltage is [less than, equal to, or greater than] the electromotive force
less than
1197
Circuits composed of multiple loops contain what?
junctions
1198
The current entering any junction must be equal to what?
the current exiting the junction
1199
Conductivity is an intensive property that quantifies what?
the ease with which current flows through a material acting as an electrical conductor
1200
Conductivity is [directly or inversely] proportional to resistivity
inversely
1201
The order of elution will depend on the ________ of the molecule
polarity
1202
Silica gel serves as the stationary phase for the experiment, increasing the polarity of the eluting molecule will [increase or decrease] the elution time
increase
1203
As the person is attempting to stand, the only support comes from what?
the feet on the ground
1204
The person is in equilibrium only when what?
the center of mass is directly above their feet
1205
At pH 7.2, the N-terminus will be [positively or negatively] charged and the C-terminus will be [positively or negatively] charged
positively; negatively
1206
G–C base pairs form [weaker or stronger] π-stacking interactions than A–T base pairs, thereby creating the [least or most] thermal stability
stronger; most
1207
What is a coordinate covalent bond?
the Lewis acid–base interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor
1208
What happens as guanine and cytosine form base pairs on opposite DNA strands?
they will occur in equal amounts within a specific DNA sequence
1209
True or False: Sugar-phosphate backbones form the interior of the double helix
False, sugar-phosphate backbones form the exterior of the double helix
1210
What is the formula for work done in terms of x and the elastic constant?
W = 1/2kx²
1211
Lenses have a negative focal length means they are [converging or diverging] lenses
diverging
1212
Diverging lenses form what?
virtual and reduced images of objects
1213
Secondary structure is represented by repeated patterns of hydrogen bonds between what?
the backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygen atoms
1214
Gabriel synthesis is a method that uses what as starting materials to synthesize amino acids?
potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalonate
1215
The starting reagents of the Gabriel and Strecker syntheses are all what?
planar
1216
In a neutral environment, why are amino acids zwitterions?
because the N- and C-termini are charged
1217
In a neutral environment, the carboxyl group is [protonated or deprotonated] and in its [conjugate acid or conjugate base] form
deprotonated; conjugate base
1218
In a neutral environment, the amine group is [protonated or deprotonated] and in its [conjugate acid or conjugate base] form
protonated; conjugate acid
1219
A conjugated system of alternating single and double bonds in a molecule causes what?
electron delocalization
1220
Sₙ1 reactions that generate an allylic carbocation lead to the formation of what?
multiple substitution products
1221
Atomic hybridization can be determined by what?
the number of electron domains
1222
True or False: The number of electron domains may change throughout a reaction process
True
1223
What is the rate-limiting step in an Sₙ1 reaction?
the formation of the initial carbocation
1224
Tertiary carbocations have the [least or greatest] stability and provide the [lowest or highest] rate of Sₙ1 reactions
greatest; highest
1225
First-order (Sₙ1) substitution reactions are ____ order with respect to the nucleophile
zero
1226
True or False: The identity of the nucleophile will affect the rate of Sₙ1 product formation
False, the identity of the nucleophile will not affect the rate of Sₙ1 product formation
1227
For two depictions of a molecule to be considered the same compound, the atoms must have the same what?
relative position and stereochemical orientation
1228
The energy delivered in one pulse is given by what?
the product between the power and the pulse duration
1229
What is the thin lens formula in terms of solving for f?
f = (dₒ x dᵢ)/(dₒ+dᵢ)
1230
What is the kinetic energy of a photoelectron equal to?
hf - work function
1231
In oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions, a chemical conversion causes a change in what?
the oxidation state of one or more of the constituent elements
1232
For redox processes expressed as two half-reactions, how is the net reaction found?
by adding the two half-reactions together so that the electron terms cancel
1233
What is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?
a species that donates an H⁺ ion
1234
What is a Lewis acid?
a species that accepts an electron pair
1235
What is a Brønsted-Lowry base?
a species that accepts an H⁺ ion
1236
What is a Lewis base?
a species that donates an electron pair
1237
Small, highly charged metal cations can form hydrated complexes that are [weakly acidic, weakly basic, strongly acidic, or strongly basic]
weakly acidic
1238
The acid dissociation constant Kₐ indicates what?
the extent to which a weak acid ionizes in solution
1239
The pH of the solution is determined by what?
the equilibrium concentration of the hydronium ion produced by the ionization of the acid
1240
Double replacement reactions involve what?
the exchange of the bonding partners of two reactant compounds, forming two new product compounds
1241
Decomposition reactions involve what?
a single compound breaking down into two or more new compounds
1242
Multiplying the specific heat capacity by the mass and change in temperature of a sample yields what?
the associated amount of heat absorbed or released by the sample
1243
How is the molar enthalpy of a reaction calculated?
dividing the heat of the reaction by the moles of the reaction
1244
Under conditions of standard temperature and pressure (STP), 1 mole of a gas occupies a volume of what?
22.4 L
1245
Given the mass of a compound sample, the number of moles present in the sample can be determined using what?
its molar mass
1246
Relating a known number of moles of a reactant to a balanced reaction equation, what can be applied to determine the stoichiometry of one chemical species relative to another species in a reaction?
mole ratios
1247
This compound is called what?
phosphatidyl choline
1248
Phosphatidyl choline is a phospholipid member of what group of compounds?
phosphatides
1249
Co(II) is a dication and is formed from the atomic element by the loss of ___ __ _________. As a consequence, only _____ __ __________ remain in the valence shell
two 4s electrons; seven 3d electrons
1250
Alanine residue is a [hydrophobic or hydrophilic] residue that is also [small or large] in size
hydrophobic; small
1251
Mechanical waves such as sound exist only in what?
a medium
1252
True or False: Electromagnetic waves can propagate, even in a vacuum
True
1253
The energy carried by a mechanical wave depends only on what?
its amplitude
1254
Mechanical waves with a higher amplitude carry [greater or less] energy than waves with a lower amplitude
greater
1255
The frequency of a sound is directly related to what?
wave speed
1256
The frequency of a sound is inversely related to what?
wavelength
1257
Sound waves travel faster in [warmer or cooler] air and slower in [warmer or cooler] air
warmer; cooler
1258
What are longitudinal waves?
waves that displace a medium parallel to the direction of the wave's propagation
1259
What are ultrasound waves?
sound waves of high frequency
1260
True or False: Mechanical waves propagate through a medium
True
1261
Wavelength and amplitude are both [independent or dependent] on the type of medium
dependent
1262
Frequency is [independent or dependent] of the medium
independent
1263
What is wavelength?
the distance between successive crests or troughs of a wave
1264
What is the bond that links monosaccharides together in an oligosaccharide is a special type of acetal linkage?
glycoside bond
1265
An aldol addition occurs only under what circumstances?
if there is no dehydration in an aldol condensation
1266
What is the formula for the energy of a capacitor?
Energy of a capacitor = 1/2 x F x V²
1267
What is the formula for power?
Power = Force x velocity
1268
A linear graph is represented by one shown as a [curve or straight line]
curve
1269
The relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on what?
the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted
1270
The best site for tritium labeling [would or would not] exchange the tritium ions for protons in water
would not
1271
The activation energy for a reaction represents what?
the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products
1272
What must happen in order to lower the pH of a buffer?
the proportion of acidic buffer component must be increased
1273
The formation of a peptide bond is accompanied by what?
the formation of water as a by-product
1274
What is the equilibrium constant for DNA unfolding?
Keq = [unfolded]/[native]
1275
What is the pK?
the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5
1276
Cooperativity is measured as what?
the slope of the unfolding transition
1277
What property of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates?
the frequency of a wave
1278
What is the formula for velocity in terms of the frequency and the wavelength?
v = 𝜆f
1279
When does spherical aberration occur?
when lenses with perfectly rounded surfaces focus light at multiple focal points
1280
Spherical aberration is most pronounced among light rays entering and exiting the periphery of [converging or diverging] lenses
converging
1281
Why do X-rays diffract within molecules?
because the space between atoms is comparable to the wavelength of x-rays
1282
X-ray diffraction through a sample of a purified and crystallized material can be used to determine what?
its three-dimensional molecular structure and packing
1283
Hyperopia describes what?
the refractive error that results in an individual being unable to see nearby objects
1284
Hyperopia is caused by what?
the optical power of the eye being insufficient relative to the length of the eye
1285
Hyperopia is corrected by placing a [converging or diverging] lens in front of the eye
converging
1286
Thin-film interference describes what?
the multicolored array generated when polychromatic light is incident on an interface formed by two semitransparent media
1287
Localized discrepancies within the thickness of a thin film contribute to what?
variable interference patterns that produce the colorful array
1288
The photoelectric effect describes what?
the ejection of electrons from a substance due to the absorption of electromagnetic radiation with sufficient energy
1289
Because the energy needed to eject an electron is fixed via its work function, increasing the energy of electromagnetic radiation will [increase or decrease] the kinetic energy of ejected electrons
increase
1290
Concave mirrors form what kinds of images of objects placed outside of mirror focal length?
real, inverted images
1291
What is the focal length of a concave spherical mirror relative to the radius of curvature?
half the radius of curvature
1292
The focal length is positioned [in front of or behind] the mirror
in front of
1293
The electromagnetic radiation consists of what?
radiation types with different wavelengths, frequencies, and energies
1294
Ordering the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of decreasing wavelength is equivalent to ordering the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of [increasing or decreasing] energy
increasing
1295
Transverse waves displace a medium [parallel or perpendicular] to the direction of the wave's propagation
perpendicular
1296
Longitudinal waves displace a medium [parallel or perpendicular] to the direction of the wave's propagation
parallel
1297
Water waves in the ocean are an example of what kind of wave?
transverse wave
1298
Sound waves are an example of what kind of wave?
longitudinal wave
1299
What are conformational isomers?
structures that have the same formula and connectivity and can be interconverted by the rotation of σ bonds
1300
Because conformational isomers are identical except for structural bond rotations, they are the [same compound or different compound]
same compound
1301
Ketones undergo acid-catalyzed addition of 1° to form what?
imines
1302
Aldehydes undergo acid-catalyzed addition of 2° to form what?
enamines
1303
Like aldehydes and ketones, imines contain what?
a carbon-heteroatom double bond
1304
Enamines are the nitrogen analogue to enols containing what?
a carbon-carbon double bond
1305
Ionic bonds involve what?
complete transfer of electrons from an atom with low electronegativity to an atom with high electronegativity
1306
Covalent bonds are considered polar if the sharing is [equal or unequal]
unequal
1307
Covalent bonds are considered nonpolar if the sharing is [equal or unequal]
equal
1308
The energy required to break a bond, known as the bond dissociation energy, is related to what?
the bond length
1309
Atoms with smaller radii tend to form [shorter or longer] and [weaker or stronger] bonds than atoms with larger radii
shorter; stronger
1310
Why are alkali metals very reactive?
because of their low ionization energy, large atomic radius, and small electronegativity
1311
What element is considered the most reactive metal?
cesium
1312
The acid halides are all strong acids except for what?
H-F
1313
Fluorine is the most electronegative atom and has the [smallest or largest] atomic radius of the halides, resulting in [weak or strong] bond formation
smallest; strong
1314
What is electron affinity?
the measure of energy change when an electron is added to an atom in the gaseous state
1315
Electron-electron repulsions result in an [increased or decreased] electron affinity
decreased
1316
Ion-dipole interactions occur between what?
the partial charge of a permanent dipole and the full charge of an ion
1317
When do dipole-induced dipole interactions occur?
when a permanent dipole induces a weak temporary dipole in a nonpolar bond or atom
1318
Dipole-dipole interactions occur between what?
the partial charges of two permanent dipoles
1319
True or False: Soluble ionic compounds act as electrically conductive electrolytes in solution
True
1320
True or False: Covalent molecular compounds generally conduct electricity in solution
False, covalent molecular compounds generally do not conduct electricity in solution
1321
When a battery is discharging, it behaves as what kind of cell?
a galvanic cell
1322
When a battery is charging, it behaves as what kind of cell?
electrolytic cell
1323
Where does oxidation always occur?
at the anode
1324
Where does reduction always occur?
at the cathode
1325
Electrons always flow in what direction?
from the anode to the cathode
1326
In an electrolytic cell, the deposition of solids by the reduction of a metal ion onto the cathode surface is known as what?
electroplating
1327
When charging a battery, an external [positive or negative] electric potential must be applied to force the spontaneous oxidation reaction in the nonspontaneous direction
positive
1328
A lead storage battery is an example of what kind of reaction that occurs in an acidic electrolyte?
oxidation-reduction reaction
1329
What is energy density?
the amount of energy produced by a battery per unit of mass
1330
Solvent diffusion across the semipermeable membrane during osmosis produces what?
an osmotic pressure against the membrane proportional to the osmolarity
1331
Solute concentration and osmolarity are related by what?
the van 't Hoff factor
1332
Nucleophilic substitution reactions can proceed by what specific mechanisms?
Sₙ1 or Sₙ2
1333
Gas chromatography separates compounds primarily by what?
boiling point
1334
Molecules with low boiling points elute [before or after] those with high boiling points
before
1335
Rank the functional groups from the lowest boiling point to the highest boiling point
alkanes → aldehydes and ketones → alcohols → carboxylic acids
1336
Acidity of a functional group is determined by what?
the stability of the conjugate base it forms
1337
What factors contribute to acidity?
size of the proton-donating atom, electronegativity of the proton-donating atom, and the ability to stabilize the negatively charged atom in the conjugate base by charge distribution or resonance contribute to acidity
1338
What are amides?
carboxylic acid derivatives made up of an acyl group bonded to an -NR₂ substituent
1339
Amides form from what?
the condensation of any carboxylic acid derivative with a primary or secondary amine
1340
β-lactams are a class of cyclic amides that exhibit significant ring strain due to what?
their small ring size, making the carbonyl carbon more reactive than noncyclic amides
1341
Carboxylic acid derivatives can undergo what?
nucleophilic acyl substitution
1342
Anhydrides are cleaved in a nucleophilic acyl substitution reaction into what?
a carboxylic acid and an ester or an amide
1343
Cyclic anhydrides are converted into a single hydrocarbon chain with what?
a carboxylic acid on one end and an ester or an amide on the other
