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Baylor 2023 > Psych Final > Flashcards

Psych Final Flashcards

1
Q

Name the seven schools of psychology

A
  1. Structuralism
  2. Functionalism
  3. Psychodynamic Psychology
  4. Behaviorism
  5. Humanistic Psychology
  6. Cognitive Psychology
  7. Gestalt
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2
Q

Structuralism

A

Wilhelm Wundt

Focused on understanding the conscious experience through introspection(the examination or observation of one’s own mental and emotional processes)

breaking down mental processes into the most basic components. Researchers tried to understand the basic elements of consciousness using a method known as introspection..

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3
Q

Functionalism

A

William James

Functionalism focuses on understanding mental processes and behavior by examining their purpose or function in adapting to the environment. Instead of analyzing the structure of consciousness into its basic elements, as structuralism does, functionalism seeks to explore how mental processes help individuals adapt to their surroundings and fulfill their need

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4
Q

Psychodynamic Psychology

A

Sigmund Freud, Erik Erikson

Focuses on the role of the unconscious thoughts, feelings, memories, and childhood experiences in shaping behavior

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5
Q

Behaviorism

A

Ivan Pavlov, John B. Watson, B. F. Skinner

Focuses on observing and controlling behavior through what is observable

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6
Q

Humanistic Psychology

A

Ulric Neisser, Noam Chomsky, Jean Piaget, Lev Vygotsky

emphasizes the study of human potential, personal growth, and the inherent value of individuals, focusing on subjective experiences and the role of free will in shaping behavior

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7
Q

Gestalt Psychology

A

Looks at the human mind and behaviors as a whole

emphasizes the importance of perceiving and understanding the whole of an experience or phenomenon, rather than analyzing it into its individual components

exImagine you see a drawing of a circle, but a small section of the circle is missing or incomplete. Despite the gap in the circle, your brain tends to perceive it as a complete circle rather than a broken one. This ability to mentally fill in the missing parts and perceive an incomplete figure as a whole is an example of the Gestalt principle of closure

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8
Q

Current theories

A

developmental, social, personality, abnormal, clinical, health

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9
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

Tentative and testable statement about the relationship between two or more
variables

Worded as an if-then statement
ex: If I study all night, then I will get a passing grade on a test

Bridges the gap between the realm of ideas and the real world

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10
Q

What is a theory?

A

A well-developed set of ideas that propose an explanation for observed phenomena

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11
Q

What is the relationship between a hypothesis and theory, and how do they fit into the scientific method?

A

Hypothesis are tested, theories are modified and refined to reflect and incorporate the results of the tests

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12
Q

What is the Institutional Review Board (IRB)

A

Committee of administrators, scientists, and community members that reviews proposals for research involving human participants

Approval generally required to proceed with experiment

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13
Q

Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)

A

Committee of administrators, scientists, veterinarians, and community members that review proposals for research involving non-human animals

Charged with ensuring experimental proposals require the humane treatment of animal subjects

Conducts semi-annual inspections of all animal facilities to ensure that research protocols are being followed

No animal research project can proceed without committee’s approval

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14
Q

Deception

A

Purposely misleading experiment participants to maintain the integrity of the experiment, but not to the point to cause harm

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15
Q

Debriefing

A

Informing participants, the complete and truthful information about an experiment at its conclusion

Only occurs when an experiment involves deception

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16
Q

Informed consent

A

Process of informing a research participant about what to expect during an experiment, any risks involved, and the implications of the research, and then obtaining the person’s consent to participate

Also lets participants know their involvement is completely voluntary and can be discontinued without penalty at any time

Guarantees any data collected in the experiment will remain completely confidential

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17
Q

What is descriptive or qualitative research?

A

Research studies that don’t test specific relationships between variables

Three main types:
1. Naturalistic observation
2. Case studies
3. Surveys

-Used to describe general or specific behaviors and attributes that are observed

-Sometimes difficult to form a hypothesis

Let’s say you’re interested in understanding how students experience stress during exam periods. If you were to use qualitative research:

You might conduct interviews with a small group of students to hear their personal stories and feelings.
You could observe students in their natural environment to see how they cope with stress.
You might analyze personal journals or reflective essays to gain insight into their thoughts.
In the end, instead of providing statistical data like “80% of students feel stressed during exams,” qualitative research might offer a more nuanced understanding of how and why students experience stress, exploring the emotions, coping mechanisms, and social contexts involved.

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18
Q

What is correlational research?

A

Research investigating the relationship between two or more variables

-Formally tests whether a relationship exists between variables

-Can find a relationship between to variables but the only way to claim there even is a relationship is by performing an experiment

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19
Q

What is experimental research?

A

A research method that uses hypothesis testing to make inferences about how one variable impacts and causes another

-Randomly assigns people to different conditions, using hypothesis testing to make inferences about how these conditions affect behavior

-Aims to determine if a variable directly impacts and causes one another

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20
Q

What is naturalistic observation?

A

(A type of description research method)

  • Observation of behavior in its natural setting

-Critical for observers to be as unobtrusive and inconspicuous as possible

-People are less likely to behave naturally when being watched

Pros:
▪ Validity (accuracy) of information collected unobtrusively in a natural setting
Cons:
▪ Often difficult to set up and control
▪ Observer bias

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21
Q

What are case studies?

A

(Observational research studies focusing on one or a few people)

-Typically common with studying rare characteristics in people

Pro:
▪ Focuses attention on a special group of people
Con:
▪ Difficult to generalize any findings to the population as a whole

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22
Q

What is a survey?

A

(List of questions to be answered by research participants, given as paper-and-pencil questionnaires, administered electronically, or conducted verbally, allowing for researchers to collect data from large number of people)

Pro:
▪ Collects information from larger samples of people
Con:
▪ Larger sample sizes do not provide the same depth of information in comparison to a case study

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23
Q

What is archival research?

A

(Relies on looking at past records or data sets to look for interesting patterns or relationships)

Pro:
▪ Less of a money and time investment
Con:
▪ Questions have to be tailored to be answered within the structure of the existing data sets
▪ No guarantee of consistency between records

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24
Q

What is longitudinal research?

A

data-gathering is administered repeatedly over an extended period of time

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25
Q

What is cross-sectional research?

A

Researcher compares multiple segments of population at the same time

-Comparing different groups of people by age, gender, or culture

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26
Q

Correlational and experimental both use ___________ testing, whereas descriptive doesn’t

A

Hypothesis

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27
Q

What is a positive correlation?

A

When two variables change in the same direction, both becoming larger or smaller

ex: the relationship between the amount of time a student spends studying and their exam scores. In a positive correlation, as one variable increases, the other variable also increases

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28
Q

What is negative correlation?

A

When two variables change in the opposite direction while one becomes larger the other becomes smaller

ex: as the amount of exercise increases, body weight tends to decrease.

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29
Q

How do you interpret a correlation coefficient?

A

where the number can vary between –1 to +1 showing the strength of the direction of the relationship between variables +1 and –1 both being strong and the closer to 0 is less strong

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30
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

The variable that the researcher uses to see how much effect the independent variable had.

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30
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

a variable that is influenced by the experimenter, this shows what the difference between the experimental and control group is.

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31
Q

What is the control variable?

A

Any variable that is held constant in a research study

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32
Q

What is a cofounding control variable?

A

An unmeasurable variable that influences both the supposed cause and effect

ex: Imagine you’re studying whether eating breakfast (independent variable) influences student performance on a test (dependent variable). A cofounding variable could be sleep quality. Students who sleep better might both eat breakfast regularly and perform well on tests. To control for this, you include sleep quality as a control variable

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33
Q

What is random sampling?

A

a subset of a larger population that everyone in the population has the same probability of being selected.

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34
Q

What is random assignment?

A

where all participants have the same chance of being assigned to either group.

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35
Q

What are the three stages of the memory process?

A
  1. Encoding
  2. Storage
  3. Retrieval
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36
Q

Encoding

A

the process of converting sensory input into a form that the brain can understand and use

ex:when you hear a new phone number, and your brain converts the auditory information (the sound of the numbers) into a memory trace that you can later recall when needed.

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37
Q

Storage

A

Information is stored in the brain (like a computer hard drive)

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38
Q

Retrieval

A

Information is brought out when needed (like a computer screen when needed)

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39
Q

Atkinson-Shiffrin Model of Memory

A

Memories are composed of three primary stages and three different processes

The stages are sensory, short-term memory, and long-term memory

(While the processes are encoding, storage, and retrieval)

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40
Q

Compare and contrast the stages of the memory process and the Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory

A

They are similar because they both have input as the first step in some form. They differ
when it comes to types of storage and details on how memories are retrieved

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41
Q

What are the two types of long-term memory?

A

Explicit memory (declarative)
Implicit memory (non-declarative)

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42
Q

Explicit memory

A

(type of long-term memory)

It involves the ability to recall facts, experiences, and events consciously (declarative memory)

ex: when you are studying for your chemistry exam, the material you are learning will be part of your explicit memory.

Explicit memories are broken into episodic(experienced events) and semantic(knowledge and concepts)

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43
Q

Implicit memory

A

(type of long-term memory)

The retention of information and experiences without conscious awareness or intentional effort

ex:Imagine you learned to ride a bicycle when you were a child. Years later, as an adult, you decide to hop on a bike after not riding one for a long time. Even if you can’t consciously recall every detail of how to ride a bike, your body seems to remember, and you can pedal and maintain balance relatively effortlessly.

Implicit memories are broken into procedural(skills and actions) and emotional
conditioning.

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44
Q

Episodic memory

A

Experienced events (first date)

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45
Q

Semantic memory

A

knowledge and concepts (state capitol)

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46
Q

Procedural memory

A

skills and actions (driving a car, ride a bike)

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47
Q

Emotional conditioning

A

earning to associate an emotion with a stimulus (scared of
thunder)

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48
Q

Amygdala

A

Regulates emotions, such as fear and aggression.

It plays a part in how memories are stored because storage is influenced by stress hormones.

ex: During pavlovian conditioning, a neural tone was paired with a foot shock to the rats. This produced a fear memory in the rats

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49
Q

Hippocampus

A

important for memory, vital in the formation, consolidation, and retrieval of memories

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50
Q

Cerebellum

A

It involves procedural memory, motor learning, and classical conditioning

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51
Q

Prefrontal cortex

A

Researchers have used brain scans to see how people learn and process information

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52
Q

What are the two types of amnesia?

A
  1. Retrograde amnesia
  2. Anterograde amnesia
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53
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

when a person cannot remember anything before the accident

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54
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

when a person cannot remember things after the accident

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55
Q

Proactive interference

A

when the old information interferes with the new information (saying its 2022 when its 2023)

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56
Q

Retroactive interference

A

when the new information prohibits remembering the old information (just learned chapter 13 so you have a hard time remembering chapter 3)

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57
Q

What is the difference between the types of amnesia and interference?

A

amnesia happens after an accident, which is problematic, while interference is just everyday forgetting and you should not worry about it.

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58
Q

What are the 7 types of memory errors?

A
  1. Transience
  2. Absentmindedness
  3. Blocking
  4. Misattribution
  5. Suggestibility
  6. Bias
  7. Persistence
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59
Q

Transience

A

(type of memory error)

Access to memory fades over time
- Forgetting

ex: getting old and forgetting what happened when you were a kid

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60
Q

Absentmindedness

A

(type of memory error)

When attention is focused elsewhere causing lapses in memory
- Forgetting

ex: forgetting where your phone is whilst talking to someone

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61
Q

Blocking

A

(type of memory error)

When you can’t access stored information (Tip of the tongue)
- Forgetting

ex: when information is “on the tip of your tongue”

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62
Q

Misattribution

A

(type of memory error)

Confusing the source of information on your own
- Distortion

Misattribution is a memory error that occurs when people attribute a memory to the wrong source, context, or person

ex: Imagine you hear a rumor about a celebrity, and later, you mistakenly recall that information as if it were something you personally witnessed or read in a reliable news source. The misattribution occurs when you attribute the information to a different and more credible source than the original rumor.

ex: recalling a dream as a waking memory

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63
Q

Suggestibility

A

(type of memory error)

When external sources lead to the creation of false memories
- Distortion

ex: results from leading questions

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64
Q

Bias

A

(type of memory error)

How one’s current feelings and view of the world can distort memory of a past event
- Distortion

ex: witnessing something in person but when describing the event later you include details you didn’t see at the time but that were said on a new story about the event

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65
Q

Persistence

A

(type of memory error)

Involuntary recall of unwanted memories, usually unpleasant
- Intrusion

ex: PTSD patient suddenly recalling a traumatic event

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66
Q

Rehearsal

A

(memory-enhancing strategy)

Repeating information to be remembered

ex: learning multiplication tables

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67
Q

Chunking

A

(memory-enhancing strategy)

Organizing information into smaller bits/chunks

ex: memorizing a phone number in a 3-3-4 number sequence

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68
Q

Elaborative rehearsal

A

(memory-enhancing strategy)

the process of actively relating new information to existing knowledge or memories

ex:such as associating a new person’s name with characteristics of someone you already know well

Thinking about the meaning of new information and its relation to already known knowledge

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69
Q

Mnemonic devices

A

(memory-enhancing strategy)

A memory aid that organizes information for encoding

ex: Never Eat Soggy Waffles (north-east-south-west)

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70
Q

Shadow Task

A

A task in which the individual is asked to repeat an auditory message as it is
presented

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71
Q

cocktail party phenomenon

A

refers to the ability to focus one’s attention a particular stimulus while filtering out a range of other stimuli (auditory)

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72
Q

Broadbent’s filter model

A

(theory of selective attention)

suggests that, during selective attention, the mind initially filters incoming information based on its physical attributes (like pitch or location) before engaging in deeper cognitive processing, allowing the brain to focus on specific stimuli while temporarily ignoring others.

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73
Q

Treisman’s attenuation Model

A

(theory of selective attention)

Suggested that selection starts at the physical or perceptual level, but that the unattended information is not blocked completely, it is just weakened or attenuated. As a result, highly meaningful or pertinent information in the unattended ear will get through the filter for further processing at the level of meaning

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74
Q

Schemata

A

“Mental frameworks” or structures that organize information and help individuals understand and interpret the world around them

the mental scalding between categories

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74
Q

Categorization

A

the way we sort objects into groups, known as cognitive categories, that help us organize knowledge (“general groupings”)

ex: we can quickly recognize that a cat and a dog both belong to the group “animals.” Both have four legs and a tail prototype is defined as a mental representation of an object or concept

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75
Q

Prototype psychology

A

a mental representation of the idealized form of an object or concept

They are used to quickly identify and recognize instances within a group.

ex: when thinking of a “fruit,” the prototype might be an apple or banana, influencing how quickly one recognizes less prototypical fruits like a pomegranate as part of the category

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76
Q

Concepts

A

mental representations of categories or ideas

ex: the concept is “happiness.” The concept of happiness represents a mental understanding of a positive emotional and psychological state.

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77
Q

Trial and error

A

(problem-solving strategy)

continue trying different solutions until problem is solved

ex: restarting phone, turning off wifi, turning off Bluetooth in order to determine why your phone is malfunctioning

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78
Q

Algorithm

A

(problem-solving strategy)

step by step problem-solving formula

ex: Instruction manual for installing new software on your computer

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79
Q

Heuristic

A

(problem-solving strategy)

general problem-solving framework

ex: working backwards, breaking a task into
steps

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80
Q

Anchoring bias

A

tendency to focus on one particular piece of information when making decisions or problem-solving

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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81
Q

Conformation bias

A

focuses on information that confirms existing beliefs

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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82
Q

Hindsight bias

A

the belief that the event just experienced was predictable

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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83
Q

Representative bias

A

unintentional stereotyping of someone or something

ex: “John formed a representative bias when he assumed all engineers were introverted, based on his encounter with a few reserved engineers, overlooking the diversity within the profession

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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84
Q

Availability bias

A

decision is based upon either an available precedent or an example that may be faulty

“Due to the availability bias, Susan overestimated the likelihood of a shark attack after watching a sensationalized documentary, despite the statistical rarity of such incidents.”

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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85
Q

Mental set

A

continually using an old solution to a problem without results

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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86
Q

Functional fixedness

A

inability to see an object as useful for any other use other than the one for which it was intended

(type of pitfalls to problem solving)

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87
Q

Lexicons

A

refer to parts of speech such as nouns, verbs, adjectives, etc. It is the words of a given language (dictionary)

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88
Q

Grammar

A

Grammar is the set of rules that are used to convey meaning through words

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89
Q

Semantics

A

Semantics refers to the meaning of
something

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90
Q

Syntax

A

Syntax refers to the grammar of something

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91
Q

Morpheme

A

a word or a part of a word that has meaning.

It includes prefixes, suffixes, base words, and roots (e.g. talks, talker, talked)

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92
Q

Phonemes

A

sounds in a word that allow us to create meaning from the word.
(psychology: /sīˈkäləjē/)

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93
Q

Briefly explain the development of language

A

As our brain develops, so does the ability to speak and form sentences. It progresses through the acquisition of sounds, gestures, and complex grammar. The more someone grows, the more language they acquire

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94
Q

Soma

A

Cell body

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95
Q

Dendrites

A

branch-like extension of the soma that receives incoming signals from other neurons (input)

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96
Q

Axon

A

Major extensions of the soma

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97
Q

Terminal buttons

A

axon terminal containing synaptic vesicles

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98
Q

Synaptic Vesicles

A

storage site for neurotransmitters

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99
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

chemical messenger of the nervous system

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100
Q

Myelin sheath

A

fatty substance that insulates axons (coats the axon and acts as an insulator), increases the speed at which the signal travels, the loss of insulation it provides can be detrimental to normal function

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101
Q

Synapse

A

small gap between two neurons where communication occurs

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102
Q

Receptors

A

protein on the cell surface where neurotransmitters attach.

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103
Q

Action Potential

A

electrical signal that moves down the neuron’s axon

104
Q

Threshold of excitation

A

level of charge in the membrane that causes the neuron to become
active

105
Q

Depolarization

A

process of when the cell’s charge becomes positive, or less negative

106
Q

The action potential is an all or none phenomenon which means…

A

that an incoming signal from another neuron is either sufficient or insufficient to reach the threshold of excitation.

107
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A

muscle contraction, memory

108
Q

Beta-Endorphin

A

pain

109
Q

Dopamine

A

reward/pleasure, planning of movement

110
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory, sleep

111
Q

Glutamate

A

excitatory, memory

112
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Fight or flight, arousal

113
Q

Serotonin

A

Mood, dreams

114
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) involves the…

A

brain and the spinal cord

115
Q

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) connects…

A

the brain and spinal cord to the muscles, organs, and senses in the periphery of the body

116
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system(PNS)?

A
  1. the somatic nervous system
  2. the autonomic nervous system
117
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

associated with activities traditionally thought of as conscious or voluntary

118
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

controls our internal organs and glands and is generally considered to be outside the realm of voluntary control. It is then subdivided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

119
Q

Sympathetic nervous system is involved in preparing the body for what?

A

stress-related activities.
(pupils dilatating)

120
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system is associated with returning the body to what?

A

routine, day-to- day operations. (increases digestive system, the opposite of the sympathetic)

120
Q

Occipital lobe

A

visual sensation and perception (primary visual cortex)

121
Q

Parietal lobe

A

touch / pain and spatial representation (primary somatic sensory cortex)

122
Q

Temporal lobe

A

hearing, memory, and object recognition (primary auditory cortex, declarative memory, object and face recognition)

123
Q

Frontal lobe

A

movement, planning

124
Q

The limbic system is made up of what three stuctures?

A

hippocampus, the amygdala, and the hypothalamus.

125
Q

The hippocampus is an essential structure for what?

A

learning and memory.

126
Q

The amygdala is involved in our experience of what?

A

emotion and in tying emotional meaning to our memories

127
Q

What does the hypothalamus do?

A

regulates a number of homeostatic processes, including…
-the regulation of body temperature
-appetite
- blood pressure.

The hypothalamus also serves as an interface between the nervous system and the endocrine system and in the regulation of sexual motivation and behavior

128
Q

The thalamus is what?

A

the sensory relay center of the brain, for all senses except for smell

129
Q

What are the three midbrain structures?

A
  1. The VTA (reward and addiction)
  2. Substantia Nigra (planning motor movements)
  3. Reticular formation (arousal and circadian rhythms)
130
Q

What are the three hindbrain structures?

A
  1. The medulla (life-critical functions like heart rate and breathing)
  2. Pons (bridge between the brain and spinal cord)
  3. Cerebellum (coordination and
    balance)
131
Q

Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

records the electrical activity of the brain via electrodes on the scalp.

Mainly used in sleep research.

132
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

Instead of looking at an image, they look at brain activities and areas that are more active.

It measures oxygen so regions that have more oxygen are considered more active areas.

133
Q

Computerized tomography scan (CT)

A

we use x-rays for this image technique measuring particular section of a person’s body or brain

134
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

a person is placed inside a machine that generates a strong magnetic field. Magnetic residence images; using magnets, detailed structure in depth. It can take hours

135
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

scans create pictures of the living, active brain.

Instead of measuring blood oxygen levels, it measures metabolic rates. They can be active
images and videos.

136
Q

Circadian/biological rhythm

A

24-hour cycles that regulate various physiological and behavioral processes in living organisms, influenced by internal factors and external environmental cues

136
Q

NREM sleep stage 1

A

Light sleep; low respiration, heart rate, body temp, and muscle tension

-When woken up you report you weren’t asleep

  • Alpha waves: then moves to theta waves which is lower frequency and high amplitude

-lasts several mins

137
Q

NREM sleep stage 2

A

deep relaxation

-theta waves
-sleep spindles (rapid bursts of high-frequency brainwave that is
good for memory and learning)
-K-complexes (high amplitude of brain wave to respond to something in environment)

138
Q

NREM sleep stage 4

A

Deep sleep

  • delta waves: low frequency and high
  • often say didn’t get good sleep if woken up during this time, this is no dreaming and high muscle tone
138
Q

NREM sleep stage 3

A

Slow wave sleep; transitional stage

  • delta waves: low frequency and high
139
Q

What does NREM and REM stand for?

A

non-rapid eye movement; rapid eye movement

140
Q

REM sleep

A

Paradoxical sleep because low muscle tension and high brain waves (beta) (paradoxical bc muscles are essentially paralyzed)

-This involves dream and is rapid eye movement

-Beta waves: the same waves we have when we are awake

141
Q

Psychological dependence

A

has emotional bond to and does it to relieve mental states (the feeling of needing the drug)

142
Q

Physiological dependence

A

changes in normal body activities

ex: development of withdrawal symptoms such as tremors and nausea in individuals who abruptly cease chronic alcohol consumption, reflecting the body’s adaptation to the presence of the substance.

143
Q

Depressant + drugs in that category

A

substances that enhance the activity of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain

suppresses CNS activity using GABA and chloride channels (cl-), which makes the cell more negative

Drugs: GABA antagonits
1. Benzos (xanax)
2. Barbiturates
3. Alcohol

144
Q

Stimulant + drugs in that category

A

increase overall neural activity

Drugs:
1.Nicotine: acetylcholine agonist
2. caffeine
Dopamine agonists by inhibiting reuptake is:
4. Cocaine
5. Amphetamines ( meth and adderall)
6. Marijuana (is all 3 at the same time)

145
Q

Opioids

A

Agonists of endorphins (thus decrease pain)

class of drugs that act on the opioid receptors in the body, primarily in the central nervous system, to produce their effects

Types of opioids:
1. Heroin
2. Codeine
3. Morphine (pain killer)
4. Marijuana (is all 3 at the same time)

146
Q

Hallucinogens

A

serotonin agonists.

Hallucinogen substances:
1. LSD
2. MDMA
3. Mushrooms (psilocybin)
4. Ketamine
5. PCP
6. Marijuana (is all 3 at the same time)

147
Q

Describe Pavlov’s study

A

Pavlov’s experiment consisted of him ringing a bell shortly after presenting food to the dogs. At first the dogs did not elicit a response to the bells. However, eventually, the dogs began to salivate at the sound of the bell alone.

148
Q

Describe classical conditioning

A

a learning process where an originally neutral stimulus becomes associated with a meaningful stimulus, leading to a conditioned response. (Pavlovian Conditioning)

-Classical conditioning is where one is behaviorally trained

  • a category of associational leaning
  • With US/CS/NS/UR/CR
    Conditioned = learned, Response = behavior
149
Q

Describe US/CS/NS/UR/CR for classical conditioning

A

(US)-Unconditioned Stimulus
- causes a response without any prior learning on the part of the subject

(UR)-Unconditioned Response
- an unlearned behavior or reflex

ex:
- US= dust in the air, UR= sneezing
- US= hitting your knee, UR= knee jerk

(NS)-Neutral Stimulus -> becomes (CS)-conditioned stimulus
- Does not elicit a response
- Does not “mean” anything

150
Q

Fill in blanks with US/CS/NS/UR/CR- classical conditioning

You see an unfamiliar car (__) and your grandmother (__) gets out of it– you are happy to see her (__). The next day, the same car drives up (__) and you are happy because you know she is in it (__)

A

NS, US, UR, CS, CR

ex: You see an unfamiliar car (NS) and your grandmother (US) gets out of it– you are happy to see her (UR). The next day, the same car drives up (CS) and you are happy because you know she is in it (CR)

-The unfamiliar car that was once a neutral stimulus that did not mean anything, is now a conditioned stimulus because it means your grandmother is here

151
Q

Higher-order conditioning

A

When a neutral stimulus(NS) becomes linked to a Conditioned
Stimulus(CS)

All that is required for this process is for the neutral stimulus to become
associated with a prior conditioned stimulus

ex: Unconditioned Stimulus (sugar/ice cream)
- Uncle gives you money, you use money to buy ice cream
- Money gets you ice cream
- Next time, you’re happy to see you uncle
(uncle=money=ice cream)

152
Q

Acquisition

A

the initial stage of learning in classical conditioning

where the relationship between the US and the UR is established, leading to the development of a conditioned response(CR)

(concept of classical conditioning)

153
Q

Spontaneous Recovery

A

when behavior is thought to be extinct but returns after some time

-After a period of extinction, if the conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented again, a weak or partial reappearance of the conditioned response (CR) may be observed

(concept of classical conditioning)

153
Q

Extinction

A

here the relationship between the US(unconditioned stimulus) and the UR(unconditioned response) stops/ grows weaker

the learned association weakens or is extinguished over time

(concept of classical conditioning)

154
Q

Operant Conditioning

A

A learning method that uses rewards or punishment to modify and change behavior. Behavior rewarded is likely to be repeated, behavior punished rarely occurs

(conscious learning)

155
Q

What psychologists were relevant with Operant Conditioning?

A

B.F Skinner behind the study of Operant Conditioning

156
Q

B.F. Skinners study

A

involved shaping behavior through reinforcement or punishment.

-rats in skinner box, reinforced or punished with stimuli like food rewards, electric shocks.

157
Q

Describe the 4 types of Operant Conditioning

A
  1. positive reinforcement- adding something to increase desired behavior (giving a child ice
    cream because of a good grade)
  2. negative reinforcement-taking something away to increase desired behavior (taking a toy
    away from a child because of bad behavior)
  3. positive punishment- adding something to decrease undesired behavior (giving a rat a shock
    for behavior)
  4. negative punishment- taking something away to decrease unwanted behavior (taking food
    away from a rat to decrease behavior)
158
Q

What are the 4 stages of reinforcement?

A
  1. Fixed Ratio- rewards schedule when a reward is delivered after a specific number of
    responses. (Ex. Getting paid every time you make 5 Tesla’s)
  2. Variable Ratio- The number of responses needed for a reward varies. (Ex. Slot Machines)
  3. Fixed interval- When the reward only occurs after a certain amount of time. (Ex. A
    monthly review at work)
  4. Variable interval- provides reinforcement after random time intervals. (Ex. Someone
    waiting for the Elevator)
159
Q

Non-associational learning

A

behavior is implicit (ex: getting used to airplane sounds)

-occur without conscious awareness or intentional linking of stimulus

160
Q

Latent learning

A

acquiring information without an obvious need to use it, and the knowledge becomes visible or demonstrated when there’s a motivation or purpose for doing so, even if there was no immediate reward during the initial learning process.

earning that is not immediately apparent, not intentional

ex: a person learning the layout of a city while casually exploring without a specific goal, and later displaying that knowledge when needed, exemplifies latent learning

161
Q

Observational learning

A

learning through watching others’ behaviors

162
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development

A
  1. Autonomy vs shame (1-3) - toddlers begin to explore their world, they learn they can
    control their actions and act on the environment to get results. They begin to show clear
    preferences for certain elements of the environment, such as food, toys, and clothing.
  2. Initiative vs guilt (3-6) - preschool stage they can initiate activities and asserting control
    over their world through social interactions and play
  3. Industry vs inferiority (7-11) - begin to compare themselves to their peers to see how
    they measure up
  4. Identity vs role confusion (12-18) main task is developing a sense of self
  5. Intimacy vs isolation (19-29) - after developing a sense of self in adolescence, we are
    ready to share with others
  6. Generativity vs stagnation (30-64) - contribute to society and be part of a family
  7. Integrity vs despair (65+) - Assess and make sense of life and meaning of contributions
162
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

[0-2 Years] Sensorimotor ~World experienced through senses and actions
* Object permanence - understands even if something is out of sight it still exists
* Stranger anxiety

[2-6 Years] Preoperational ~ Use words and images to represent things, but lack logical
reasoning
* Pretend play
* Egocentrism - unable to take the perspective of others
* Language development

[7-11 Years] Concrete Operational ~ Understand concrete events and analogies logically;
perform arithmetic operations
* Conservation
* Mathematical transformations

[12+ Years] Formal Operational ~ Formal operations. Utilize abstract reasoning
* Abstract logic
* Moral reasoning

163
Q

Define Kohlberg’s theories of moral development

A

3 stages of moral dilemmas

Level 1: pre-conventional morality
- (Stage 1) Obedience and punishment: behavior driven by avoiding punishment
- (Stage 2) Individual interest: behavior driven by self-interest and rewards

Level 2: conventional morality
- (Stage 3) Interpersonal: behavior driven by social approval
- (Stage 4) Authority: behavior driven by obeying authority and conforming to social

Level 3: post-conventional morality
- (Stage 5) Social contract: behavior driven by balance of social order and individual rights
- (Stage 6) Universal ethics: behavior driven by internal moral principles
(More women than men move past stage 4 of morality)

164
Q

Heinz dilemma

A

example used to help us understand Kohlberg’s stages of moral development

Woman with cancer needs radium medication to survive
◦ Cannot make enough money to get the dosage (even a smaller one) because the druggist
sells it at a higher price
◦ Husband went to the druggist to get a cheaper price, but he said no because since he
created it he wanted to make money off it
◦ Husband eventually got desperate and broke into the druggists’ house and stole the drug

165
Q

List some important milestones/vocabulary related to physical development.

A
  • Prenatal development
    ◦ Germial stage (week 1-2)
    ▪ Sperm fertilizes egg to create a zygote
    ▪ Genetic makeup and sex are set at this point
    ▪ Zygote goes through mitosis
    ▪ Once bundle of cells has attached to uterus lining, it begins the next stage
    ◦ Embryonic stage (week 3-8)
    ▪ Upon implantation the zygote is now an embryo
    ▪ Blood vessels grow to form the placenta
    ▪ Nourihment and oxygen come via umbilical cord
    ▪ Basic structures being to form like heart, lungs, spine, brain
    ◦ Fetal stage (week 9-40)
    ▪ Now called a fetus
    ▪ Sex organs, fingers and toes
    ▪ Major organs are developed to baby can survive if premature
  • Healthy babies are born with newborn reflexes
    ◦ Rooting reflex
    ▪ Stroking cheek they turn
    ◦ Suckling reflex
    Suckling motion
    ◦ Grasping reflex
    ▪ Grasping when palm is touched
    ◦ Moro reflex
    ▪ Response to feeling like falling
  • Ages 2-5 motor skills develop
    ◦ Fine motor skills
    ◦ Gross motor skills
    ◦ Motor skills
  • Adolecense (12-18)
    ◦ Puberty
    ◦ Finding oneself
  • Early adulthood (20s-40s)
    Middle adulthood (40s-60s)
  • Late adulthood (60+)
166
Q

What are the 4 different types of attachment styles?

A
  1. Secure attachment
  2. Avoidant attachment
  3. Resistant attachment
  4. Disorganized attachment
167
Q

Secure attachment

A
  • Toddler prefers his parents over a stranger
  • It is used as a secure base to explore the environment and is sought out in times of stress
  • They are distressed when the caregivers leave the room in strange situation experiment but
    when caregivers return, the child was happy to see them.
  • These kids have caregivers that are sensitive and responsive to their need
  • Healthiest attachment style
168
Q

Avoidant attachment (insercure or anxious avoidant)

A
  • The child is unresponsive to the parent, they don’t use the parent as a secure base and
    don’t care if the parent leaves
  • Toddlers react to parent the same way they react to strangers
  • When parent does not return the child is slow to show a positive reaction
  • Caregivers was insensitive and inattentive to their needs
169
Q

Resistant attachment (ambivalent or anxious-ambivalent)

A
  • Child shows clingy behavior then they regect the attachment figures attempt to interact
    with them
  • These children do not explore the toys in the room as they are too fearful
  • During separation they become extremely disturbed and angry with the parents. When the
    parent returns the child is difficult to comfort
  • Caregivers give inconsistent level of response to their child
170
Q

Disorganized attachment

A
  • Behaves oddly in strange situation.
  • They freeze, run around the room in an erratic manner or try to run away when the
    caregivers return.
  • This attachment is seen most often in kids who have been abused
  • Shows that abuse disrupts a child’s ability to regulate their emotions
171
Q

Authoritative parenting style

A
  • Gives reasonable demands and consistent limits
  • Expresses warmth and affection
  • Listens to the child’s view points
  • Sets rules but explains the reason behind them
  • Flexible and willing to make exceptions to the rules
  • The most encouraged for parenting styles for it being effective. Child tends to have high
    self-esteem and social skills
  • Most appropriate in basically all cultures
  • The “strict but not strict” parenting style

Ex: Temporarily relaxing bedtime rules to allow for a nighttime swim during a family
vacation

172
Q

Authoritarian style

A
  • Place high value on conformity and obedience
  • Strict, tightly monitor their child and express little to no warmth
  • This style can create anxious, withdrawn, and unhealthy kids
  • As beneficial as any other style in some ethic groups (First generation Chinese American
    students raised by authoritarian parents did just as well in school as peers raised by
    authoritative parents)
  • Usually seen in eastern societies such as Asia.

ex: Strict bedtime and must obey or something may happen to the child

173
Q

Permissive style

A
  • Make few demands and rarely punish child
  • Tend to be very nurturing and loving (may play role of friend rather than parents.
  • Children raised by permissive parents tend to lack self-discipline and typically have bad
    grades
  • May contribute to risky behaviors such as alcohol abuse, risky sexual behavior among
    females, increased display of disruptive behaviors by male children.
  • Children raised by these parents have higher self-esteem, better social skills, and report
    lower levels of depression
174
Q

Uninvolved style

A
  • Uninvolved sometimes referred to as neglectful
  • Don’t respond to the child’s needs and make relatively few demands
  • It could be because of severe depression or substance abuse, or other factors such as the
    parents’ extreme focus on work.
  • Parents provide for the child’s basic needs, but little anywhere else.
  • Children raised with this parenting style are usually emotionally withdrawn, fearful,
    anxious, perform poorly in school, and are at an increased risk of substance abuse
175
Q

Describe fluid and crystallized intelligence

A

Fluid intelligence: Information processing abilities, such as logical reasoning, remembering lists,
spatial ability, and reaction time
* Tend to decrease during late adulthood

Crystalized intelligence: Encompasses abilities that draw upon experience and knowledge.
Measures crystallized intelligence includes vocabulary tests, solving number problems, and
understanding texts.
* Tends to increase as we get older

176
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Motivation to do something that DOES NOT include external rewards. (IE: being motivated to do art simply because it makes you happy = The motivation is the happiness it makes you feel)

-internally self

177
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Motivation driven by external rewards (IE: being motivated to go to work so that you can earn money = The motivation is the money earn from working)

178
Q

Instinct theory of motivation

A

species-specific pattern behavior that is unlearned

179
Q

Drive Theory of motivation

A

deviations from homeostasis create physiology needs that result in psychological drive states that direct behavior to meet the need & ultimately bring the system back to homeostasis

180
Q

Yerkes-Dodson Law - a theory of motivation

A

simple tasks are performed best when arousal levels are relatively high, while complex tasks are best performed when arousal is lower

181
Q

What are Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

1st level: Physiological needs
(Food, water, air, basic needs of life to maintain homeostasis/survivial)

2st level: Safety needs
(Shelter, safety, security, employment, and other factors to maintain a sense of safety; what every individual needs to feel secure in their environment)

3rd level: Belonging and love
(Friendship, love, family, and other factors that increase affiliation and intimacy; what every individual needs to feel belonging in their community)

4th level: Esteem needs
(Self-esteem, personal achievements, and other factors which create respect for others and for yourself; what every individual needs to feel good in their accomplishments
and character)

5th level: Self-actualization
(Morality, fulfillment, and living to your highest potential; what every individual needs to fulfill their life goals and dreams)

182
Q

James-Lange Theory of emotion

A

The stimulus is presented, followed by a reaction or state of arousal, which then produces an emotional response.

ex: feeling trembling and increased heart rate after encountering a snake would lead to the emotion of fear.

183
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

The stimulus is presented, followed by a bodily response and emotional response SIMULTANEOUSLY but independently of one another.

“Cannon-Bard - Cannons go off immediately.”

184
Q

Schachter-Singer two-factor theory of emotion

A

suggests that emotions depend on two factors: physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation

ex: For instance, imagine you’re in a dark alley, and your heart starts racing. According to the theory, your emotion (fear or excitement) depends on how you cognitively interpret the situation. If you think it’s because you’re excited about a surprise party, you’ll feel excited; if you think it’s because of danger, you’ll feel fear. The theory highlights the role of interpretation in emotional experiences

185
Q

What are the seven universal/primary emotions?

A

happiness, surprise, sadness, fright, disgust, contempt, and anger

186
Q

For the 7 universal/primary emotions what does it mean that they are universal?

A

Blind ppl make the same facial expressions of emotions despite never acc observing facial expressions on other people, so universal

187
Q

What system has important brain structures in emotion?

A

The Limbic System

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Thalamus
  3. Amygdala
  4. Hippocampus
188
Q

Hypothalamus

A
  • Involved in the action of the sympathetic nervous
    system (part of an emotional reaction)
  • Primary function is to keep your body in a stable state of
    homeostasis
  • Center for automatic nervous system
  • Controls the “fight or flight” response by releasing cortisol
189
Q

Thalamus

A
  • serves as the main relay station for sensory information, transmits signals from sensory organs to diff parts of the brain, inclusing those in emotional processing
  • center neurons project to both the amygdala and higher cortical regions for further processing
  • All motor sensory signals (EXCEPT smell) pass through the thalamus
190
Q

Amygdala

A
  • regulates emotions such as fear and aggression
  • helps activate the appropriate
    fear-related behaviors in response to threatening or dangerous stimuli
191
Q

Hippocampus

A

integrates emotional experience with cognition

192
Q

Individualistic cultures

A
  • Often American or Western cultures
  • More independent sense of self
  • The view of oneself and their opinions is often used to
    influence others
  • More concrete sense of self despite the situation or environment
193
Q

Collectivist cultues

A
  • Often East Asian cultures

-More Interdependent sense of self

  • The view of oneself is dependent on specific situations, often adjusting to others
  • view of self is often situational and changes due to the environment
194
Q

Attribution

A

explanation on behaviors(why we act the way we act)

194
Q

What are 3 ways we often have errors in our attributions?

A
  1. self serving bias (my own
    behavior)
  2. actor observer discrepancy (both my own behavior and others behavior)
  3. fundamental attribution error (describing other’s behavior)
195
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

phycological discomfort, having 2 opposing beliefs or behaviors within yourself

ex: wanting to quit, but still smoking. Being torn between a attitude and a behaviors

196
Q

Persuasion

A
  • changing our attitude, beliefs, opinions, or behavior on something in response to a MESSAGE.
  • influenced by: speaker, message, and audience.
  • relation to elaboration likelihood model: how well a message can be persuaded
197
Q

Compliance

A

changing your beliefs or opinions on something to a favor or request

198
Q

Negotiant technique

A

foot in the door, lowballing, door in the face

199
Q

Group think

A

views that were acted upon after being associated with a group

199
Q

Group polarization:

A

extreme views strengthen by the influence of a in group

200
Q

social loafing

A

performance decreases because of diffuse of responsibility

201
Q

social facilitation

A

performance strengths because the audience

201
Q

bystander affect

A

less willing to help out

4 reasons: diffusion of responsibility, cost benefit
analysis, being anonymous, polaristic ignorance, don’t interrupt as a emergency

202
Q

altruism

A

helping others for their own
benefit

202
Q

reciprocal altruism

A

helping others in return for a favor in the future for yourself.

203
Q
A
204
Q

prejudice

A

having strong feelings/beliefs towards a person because of their involvement of a group

205
Q

Explain the diathesis-stress model of psychological disorders

A

suggests that people with a predisposition for a disorder (a diathesis) are more likely to develop the disorder when faced with stress

ex: a child has a rough upcoming and develops depression or PTSD

206
Q

Specific Phobia

A

An irrational fear of something specific

207
Q

Social anxiety

A

Fearful and avoidant of social situations

208
Q

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A
  • General anxiety about specific
  • Anxiety even when doing nothing
208
Q

Panic Disorder

A

sudden episodes of intense fear and dread; worries/anticipates next attack

209
Q

Agoraphobia

A

avoiding situations that could cause a panic attack

210
Q

Obsessions

A

persistent, unintentional, and unwanted thoughts and urges that are highly intrusive, unpleasant, and distressing

211
Q

Compulsions

A

repetitive and ritualistic acts that are typically carried out primarily as a means to minimize distress

212
Q

What are symptoms associated with PTSD?

A
  • haunting memories
  • nightmares
  • social withdrawal
  • jumpy anxiety/hypervigilance - – numbness of feeling
  • insomnia

High risk populations: veterans, survivors of accidents, disasters, violent and sexual assaults

213
Q

Whats MDD?

A

Major Depressive Disorder
aka unipolor depression

a condition characterized by overwhelming sadness, feelings of worthlessness, and loss of interest in normally pleasurable activities

-persistent symptoms for 2 weeks

Symptoms:
■ Thoughts of suicide
■ Tiredness
■ Angry outburst
■ Feelings of sadness
■ Low concentration
■ Little sleep
■ Little appetite

214
Q

What are the three cognitive theories of MDD

A
  1. Hopelessness
  2. Rumination
  3. Diathesis stress model
215
Q

What is Rumination?

A

a cognitive theory of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

When one bad thing happens and that individual focuses on it, how bad that one thing is

ex: I got a bad grade on my test and now I don’t deserve to live because I’m not smart
enough

216
Q

Persistent depressive disorders (PDD)

A

Depressed moods most of the day every day for at least 2 years

-2 years
- At least two symptoms involved in MDD at a consistent time

217
Q

Seasonal Depression:

A

Mood affected by changes in the season

218
Q

Postpartum (peripartum onset)

A

type of depression

applies to women who experience major depression during pregnancy or in the four weeks following the birth of their child

219
Q

Explain Bipolar I

A
  • Mania+depression
  • Experiences more manic episodes then depression
220
Q

What is Schizophrenia characterized by and what is the symptom?

A

by major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior

delusions or halluciations

221
Q

What are the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A

reflect noticeable decreases and absences in certain behaviors,
emotions, or behaviors

222
Q

Flat affect

A

a person who exhibits diminished emotional expression shows no emotion in his facial expressions, speech, or movements, even when such expressions are normal or expected

(negative symptom of schizophrenia)

223
Q

Avolition

A

characterized by a lack of motivation to engage in self initiated and meaningful activity, including the most basic of tasks, such as bathing and grooming

(negative symptom of schizophrenia)

224
Q

Alogia

A

reduced speech output

(negative symptom of schizophrenia)

224
Q

Asociality

A

social withdrawal and lack of interest in engaging in social interactions with others

(negative symptom of schizophrenia)

225
Q

Anhedonia

A

to an inability to experience pleasure; expresses little interest in what most people consider to be pleasurable activities, such as hobbies, recreation, or sexual activity

(negative symptom of schizophrenia)

226
Q

Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

are symptoms of commission, meaning they are something that individuals do or think, including hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre or disorganized behavior

227
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

Loss of memory or consciousness for a period of time

  • Forgetting a period of time

-Loss of consciousness of memory period does not last very long

228
Q

Dissociative fugue

A

a person suddenly wanders away from one’s home.

  • Loss of a sense of memory and who they are
  • Happens when someone is moving
  • Period of confusion of self can last for a short period of time or longer (sometimes even months)
229
Q

Depersonalizations

A

People feel detached from the self (depersonalization), and the world feels artificial and
unreal (derealization)

  • Experiences out of one’s body
230
Q

DID (dissociative identity disorder) (split personality)

A

Exhibit two or more separate personalities or identities, each well-defined and distinct from
one another.

  • Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is highly controversial. Some believe that people fake
    symptoms to avoid the consequences of illegal actions
231
Q

Psychoanalysis

A

(Type of therapy)

  • Sigmund Freud developed this theory
  • Someone’s psychological problems are the result of repressed impulses or childhood Trama
  • Goal of a therpist is to help a person uncover burried feelings by using techniques such as free association and dream analysis
232
Q

Play Therapy

A

(type of therapy)

  • Psychodynamic theory
  • Often used for children
  • Interaction with toys and objects rather than talk or communication
  • Children play out their hopes, fantasies, and traumas, using dolls, stuffed animals, and sandbox
233
Q

Behavior Therapy

A

(type of therapy)

  • Therapist employs principles of learning from classical and operant conditioning to help clients change undesirable behavior
  • Counter conditioning is often used
234
Q

Cognitive Therapy

A

(type of therapy)

  • Focuses on how thoughts lead to feelings of distress
  • Work to change self-defeating behaviors
  • How you think determines how you feel and act
  • How do our thoughts affect our behavior?
235
Q

Humanistic Therapy

A

(type of therapy)

  • Focusing on helping people achieve their potential
  • Increase self-awareness and acceptance through focous on conscious thoughts
  • Client centered therapy (Carl Rodgers)
  • Active listening, unconditional positive reguard, genuiness, empathy to help clients become more accepting of themselves
236
Q

What does Biomedical therapies involve?

A

Involves medication and medical procedures to treat psychological disorders.

237
Q

What does Antipsychotics (Thorazine) treat?

A

Schizophrenia

238
Q

What does Anti-depressants (Abilify) treat?

A

Depression and anxiety

239
Q

What does Anti-anxiety (Prozac) treat?

A

anxiety and agitation that occur in OCD, PTSD, panic disorder, social phobia

240
Q

What does Mood stabilizers (Xanax) treat?

A

bipolar disorder

241
Q

What does Stimulants (Adderall) treat?

A

ADHD

242
Q

What is Individual Therapy?

A
  • client and clinician meet one-to-one weekly or every other week
  • confidential and caring environment.
  • it helps them explore their feelings, work through life challenges, identify aspects of themselves and their lives that they wish to change,
    and set goals
243
Q

What is Group Therapy?

A
  • 1 clinician meets with several clients with similar problems.
  • helps decrease a client’s shame and isolation about a problem while offering needed support, both from therapists and other members of the group
244
Q

What is Couples Therapy?

A
  • Two people in an intimate relationship who are having difficulties and are trying to resolve them.

-couples meet with a therapist to discuss conflicts in their relationship that they want to change

245
Q

What is Family Therapy?

A
  • Special form of group therapy, one or more families. The family is viewed as an organized system, and each individual member creates and maintains processes within the system that shape behavior

Structural family therapy – therapist examines and discusses the boundaries and
structure of the family; who makes the rules, who sleeps in bed with whom, how
decisions are made, and the boundaries within the family

Strategic family therapy – Address specific problems within the family that can be
dealt with in a relatively short amount of time

246
Q

What are the stages of General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

  • in alarm, the immune system actually is susceptible as
    much of our energy is directed to our sympathetic response to the threat. However, once the
    threat is no longer immediate, we enter resistance, which is our body’s long-term response to
    stress. This works , but at a certain point, the body gives out and cannot withstand the high levels
    of stress anymore, it exhausts
247
Q

Describe the biopsychosocial model of health

A

Health is influenced by biological, social, and psychological factors all equally

248
Q

Explain the difference between emotion-focused coping and problem-focused coping

A

Emotion-focused coping involves managing the emotional response to stressors, while problem-focused coping aims to address and solve the underlying problems causing stress.

Baylor 2023 (4 decks)

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