Psych Exam revison Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is a between-subjects design in experimental research?

A

A design where different participants are assigned to different conditions, so each participant experiences only one condition of the experiment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a within-subjects design in experimental research?

A

A design where the same participants are exposed to all conditions of the experiment, allowing for direct comparisons of each condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the advantages of a within-subjects design?

A

It requires fewer participants and controls for individual differences between groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the disadvantages of a within-subjects design?

A

Fatigue and order effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a mixed design in experimental research?

A

A design that combines both between-subjects and within-subjects elements, allowing some variables to be tested across different groups and others within the same group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are common sampling procedures in psychology research? (3)

A

Random sampling, stratified sampling, and convenience sampling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does random sampling differ from convenience sampling?

A

Random sampling ensures every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected, while convenience sampling selects participants based on availability, not randomness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GUSTATORY SYNAESTHESIA
Experiencing sensations of taste when they perceive certain words
WWhat is the difference between a sample and the population in an experiment?

A

The population is the entire group a researcher is interested in studying, while the sample is the subset of that population used in the actual experiment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define independent variable (IV) and dependent variable (DV).

A

The IV is the variable manipulated by the experimenter, and the DV is the variable measured to determine the effect of the IV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an extraneous variable in an experiment?

A

Any variable other than the IV that might influence the DV if not controlled. Identified at the begining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are confounding variables?

A

Variables that influence both the IV and DV, causing potential false correlations between them, thus “confounding” the results. This is identified at end of the experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can confounding variables be reduced?

A

Through randomization, use of control groups, and matching participants across conditions to account for individual differences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does it mean to operationalize variables in an experiment?

A

It means defining the variables in measurable terms so they can be tested. For example, operationalizing “stress” might involve measuring heart rate or cortisol levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is informed consent in psychological research?

A

The process by which participants are informed about the nature of the study, potential risks, and benefits, and voluntarily agree to participate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are withdrawal rights in psychology experiments?

A

The right of participants to leave the study at any time without any negative consequences or explanation required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is confidentiality in psychology research?

A

Ensuring that all personal information and data collected during the study is kept private and not shared without consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is the use of deception allowed in psychological research?

A

Deception is only allowed when no other alternative exists to achieve the study’s aims and when participants are fully debriefed afterward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is debriefing in psychological research?

A

Explaining the true nature and purpose of the study to participants after it has been completed, especially if deception was used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define voluntary participation.

A

Participants must choose to participate in research freely, without coercion or undue influence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the concept of justice entail in psychological research?

A

Ensuring fair treatment and distribution of risks and benefits among participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does integrity apply to psychology research?

A

Integrity involves conducting research in an honest, ethical, and accurate manner, without falsifying or misrepresenting data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does non-maleficence mean in the context of psychological research?

A

Researchers must ensure that no harm comes to participants, minimizing risks wherever possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is beneficence in psychological research?

A

The obligation to maximize benefits and minimize harm to participants during the study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does respect mean in psychological research?

A

Respecting the dignity, autonomy, and rights of all participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the difference between external and internal validity?

A

Internal validity refers to how well the experiment is conducted and whether the IV truly causes changes in the DV. External validity refers to how well the results generalize to other populations or settings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the differences between objective and subjective data?

A

Objective data is measurable and observable (e.g., heart rate), while subjective data is based on personal experiences and perceptions (e.g., self-reported mood).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative data?

A

Qualitative data is descriptive and explores the quality of phenomena, while quantitative data is numerical and measures the quantity or amount of something.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary data?

A

Primary data is collected firsthand by the researcher, while secondary data is data that has been collected previously by someone else.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does generalizing mean in psychology?

A

Generalizing involves applying the results of a study from the sample to the larger population. Factors like sample size and representativeness may affect the ability to generalize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

: What is the difference between a controlled study, a case study, and a correlational study?

A

A controlled study manipulates variables to establish causation, a case study provides an in-depth look at a single individual or group, and a correlational study examines the relationship between two variables without establishing causality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the advantages of a correlational study?

A

It allows for the study of relationships between variables without manipulation, making it more ethical and practical for certain research questions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are descriptive statistics?

A

Descriptive statistics summarize and describe the features of a data set, including measures of central tendency (mean, median, mode) and measures of variability (range, standard deviation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the six essential components of a graph?

A

Title, axis labels, a key (if needed), a clear data representation (e.g., bars or lines), units of measurement, and a consistent scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is psychological development?

A

Psychological development refers to the growth and changes in a person’s mental, emotional, and social capabilities throughout life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is cognitive development?

A

Cognitive development is the process by which a person’s ability to think, understand, and reason changes over time, involving memory, problem-solving, and decision-making skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is social development?

A

Social development refers to how people develop social skills, relationships, and an understanding of societal norms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is emotional development?

A

Emotional development involves understanding, managing, and expressing emotions, as well as developing empathy and emotional regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the nature vs. nurture debate in psychology?

A

The debate centers on whether genetics (nature) or the environment (nurture) plays a more critical role in psychological development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do heredity and environmental factors interact in psychological development?

A

Heredity provides the genetic framework for development, while environmental factors, like upbringing and social influences, shape how these genetic predispositions are expressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the biopsychosocial model (BPS) in mental well-being?

A

The BPS model suggests that mental health and well-being are influenced by the interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the mental health continuum?

A

The mental health continuum describes the range of mental states, from being mentally healthy to experiencing a mental health problem or a mental disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are risk factors in psychological development?

A

Risk factors are characteristics or conditions that increase the likelihood of developing a mental health problem (e.g., trauma, poverty, or genetic predispositions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are protective factors in psychological development?

A

Protective factors are conditions or attributes that help prevent mental health problems (e.g., social support, coping skills, positive relationships).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the difference between a critical period and a sensitive period in development?

A

A critical period is a specific time in development when certain skills or abilities must develop, while a sensitive period is a more flexible time when learning is optimal but can still occur outside of this window.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Harry Harlow’s theory of attachment?

A

Harlow’s theory of attachment demonstrated that comfort and security (rather than just nourishment) are crucial for forming an emotional bond, as shown in his experiments with baby monkeys and surrogate mothers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are Jean Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development, and what are their key achievements?

A

Sensorimotor stage (0-2 years): Object permanence.
Preoperational stage (2-7 years): Symbolic thought, egocentrism.
Concrete operational stage (7-11 years): Logical thinking, conservation.
Formal operational stage (11+ years): Abstract thinking, hypothetical reasoning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Bandura’s social learning theory?

A

Bandura’s theory suggests that people learn behaviors through observation, imitation, and modeling. Observational learning occurs when people watch others and then replicate their actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the difference between typical and atypical behavior?

A

Typical behavior conforms to societal norms and is common for most individuals, while atypical behavior deviates from the norm and may indicate psychological problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define adaptive and maladaptive behaviors.

A

Adaptive behaviors allow individuals to adjust and function well in daily life, while maladaptive behaviors interfere with a person’s ability to meet the demands of everyday living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the sociocultural and medical approaches to normality?

A

Sociocultural approach: Defines normality based on societal and cultural norms.
Medical approach: Views abnormal behavior as a result of biological factors and treats it medically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the statistical approach to normality?

A

The statistical approach defines normality based on behaviors that are typical or average within a population, where anything that deviates significantly from the average may be considered abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is neurodiversity?

A

Neurodiversity is the concept that neurological differences, such as Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) and Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD), are natural variations of the human brain and should be recognized as such.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are structural and functional neuroimaging techniques?

A

Structural: Techniques like CT and MRI scans that show the physical structure of the brain.
Functional: Techniques like PET and fMRI scans that show brain activity and functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the main structures of a neuron, and what are their functions?

A

Dendrites: Receive signals from other neurons.
Axon: Transmits signals to other neurons.
Myelin sheath: Protects the axon and speeds up signal transmission.
Synapse: The gap between neurons where neurotransmitters are released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What brain structures are involved in memory?

A

The hippocampus, amygdala, basal ganglia, neocortex, and cerebellum all play key roles in various types of memory processing and storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is hemisphere specialisation?

A

The idea that each hemisphere of the brain is specialised for different functions. The left hemisphere is typically involved in language, logic, and analytical thinking, while the right hemisphere processes spatial, creative, and emotional tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

Neuroplasticity refers to the brain’s ability to reorganise itself by forming new neural connections throughout life, especially after injury or learning new information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the difference between developmental and adaptive plasticity?

A

Developmental plasticity occurs as the brain matures, involving processes like synaptogenesis and synaptic pruning.
Adaptive plasticity occurs in response to brain injury, where the brain “reroutes” or “sprouts” new connections to compensate for lost functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does an acquired brain injury (ABI) impact a person’s biological, psychological, and social functioning?

A

ABI can affect motor functions (biological), cognition and behaviour (psychological), and relationships or work life (social).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), and why is it frequently misdiagnosed?

A

CTE is a degenerative brain condition caused by repeated head injuries, often seen in athletes. It is frequently misdiagnosed because its symptoms (memory loss, mood swings, and cognitive decline) overlap with other conditions like Alzheimer’s or depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are long-term potentiation (LTP) and long-term depression (LTD)?

A

LTP: Strengthening of synaptic connections through repeated stimulation, which is essential for learning and memory.
LTD: Weakening of synaptic connections when there is low or no stimulation, which allows for flexibility in learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are attributions?

A

Attributions are explanations that people make about the causes of their own and others’ behaviours. These can be categorised as either internal (personal factors, such as personality) or external (situational factors, such as environment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is cognitive dissonance? Provide an example.

A

Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is a conflict between a person’s beliefs and behaviours, creating psychological discomfort. For example, if someone believes smoking is unhealthy but continues to smoke, they may experience dissonance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How can cognitive dissonance be reduced?

A

Cognitive dissonance can be reduced by changing the conflicting belief, changing the behaviour, or rationalising the inconsistency (cognitive bias).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are cognitive biases, and how do they reduce cognitive dissonance?

A

Cognitive biases are mental shortcuts or errors in thinking that help reduce cognitive dissonance. For example, confirmation bias (seeking out information that supports an existing belief) can ease discomfort by affirming one’s views.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is attitude formation, and what are the criteria for forming an attitude?

A

Attitude formation is the process by which people develop evaluations of others, objects, or ideas. The criteria include experiences, social interactions, and exposure to information, which shape whether an attitude is positive or negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the tri-component model of attitudes?

A

The tri-component model explains that attitudes have three components:
Affective: Emotional response to something.
Behavioral: How one acts toward something.
Cognitive: The beliefs one holds about something.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are heuristics?

A

Heuristics are mental shortcuts or rules of thumb that people use to make decisions quickly and efficiently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using heuristics?

A

Advantages: They save time and mental energy when making decisions.
Disadvantages: They can lead to errors in judgment or biased thinking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define stereotyping and explain why it is problematic.

A

Stereotyping is the act of assigning generalised characteristics to all members of a group. It is problematic because it leads to overgeneralization, ignores individual differences, and can contribute to prejudice and discrimination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the difference between prejudice and discrimination?

A

Prejudice is a negative attitude or feeling toward an individual based solely on their membership in a particular group.
Discrimination is the behaviour that results from prejudice, involving unfair treatment of individuals based on their group membership.

73
Q

How are stereotyping, prejudice, and discrimination linked in the tri-component model?

A

Affective: Prejudice stems from emotional responses.
Cognitive: Stereotypes are formed from beliefs.
Behavioral: Discrimination is the behavioural outcome of these attitudes.

74
Q

What is conformity, and what factors affect it?

A

Conformity is the act of changing one’s behaviour or beliefs to match those of a group. Factors that affect conformity include group size, unanimity, and perceived authority.

75
Q

What is obedience, and what factors affect it?

A

Obedience is following the commands of an authority figure. Factors include proximity to authority, legitimacy of authority, and group conformity.

76
Q

Summarise Milgram’s experiment on obedience.

A

Milgram’s experiment aimed to test the extent to which individuals would obey authority, even if it meant harming others. Participants were instructed to deliver electric shocks to a learner. The results showed that a majority were willing to follow orders, despite moral conflict

77
Q

What is attention?

A

Attention refers to focusing on specific stimuli in the environment while ignoring others. It can be selective, divided, or sustained.

78
Q

What are the three different types of attention?

A

Selective attention: Focusing on one task or stimulus while ignoring others.
Divided attention: Splitting focus between multiple tasks.
Sustained attention: Maintaining focus on a task over a prolonged period.

79
Q

What is the difference between sensation and perception?

A

Sensation is the process by which sensory receptors detect stimuli, while perception is the interpretation of those sensory inputs by the brain.

80
Q

How do sensation and perception differ in gustation (taste)?

A

Sensation in gustation involves the detection of taste by taste buds, while perception is the brain’s interpretation of those tastes, influenced by past experiences, expectations, and context.

81
Q

What are psychological factors that affect vision?

A

Psychological factors include past experiences, emotions, and expectations, all of which can shape how visual information is perceived.

82
Q

What are Gestalt principles of visual perception?

A

Gestalt principles explain how we naturally organise visual information into meaningful patterns or wholes. These include figure-ground, closure, proximity, and similarity.

83
Q

What are visual constancies?

A

Visual constancies refer to our ability to perceive objects as maintaining stable properties (e.g., size, shape, brightness) despite changes in distance or lighting.

84
Q

What is the perceptual set, and what factors affect it in vision?

A

Perceptual set refers to a mental predisposition to perceive something in a certain way. Factors include expectations, culture, context, and emotional state.

85
Q

What are binocular depth cues?

A

Binocular depth cues rely on the use of both eyes to perceive depth and include retinal disparity (the 6-7cm gap difference in images between the two eyes) and convergence (the degree to which eyes turn inward to focus on an object).

86
Q

What are monocular depth cues?

A

Monocular depth cues use one eye to judge depth and include pictorial depth cues, such as linear perspective, texture gradient, interposition, and relative size.

87
Q

What are psychological factors that affect taste?

A

Psychological factors include the influence of food packaging, appearance, and past experiences, which can alter taste perception.

88
Q

What biological factors affect taste?

A

Biological factors include genetics, which can make some people more sensitive to certain tastes, and age, as taste sensitivity tends to decline with age.

89
Q

How do social factors influence taste?

A

Social factors, such as cultural norms, family preferences, and peer influence, can shape what flavors individuals like or dislike.

90
Q

What are perceptual distortions?

A

Perceptual distortions occur when the way we perceive sensory information does not align with reality, such as in the case of visual or auditory illusions.

91
Q

What are visual illusions, and what causes them?

A

Visual illusions are distortions in visual perception caused by environmental, biological, or psychological factors. For example, the Müller-Lyer illusion involves misperceiving the length of lines due to arrow-like endings.

92
Q

What is agnosia, and what are the two types?

A

Agnosia is a disorder where a person cannot recognize objects, even though their sensory organs are functioning properly. The two types are visual agnosia (difficulty recognizing objects) and prosopagnosia (difficulty recognizing faces).

93
Q

What is the fallibility of gustatory perception?

A

The fallibility of gustatory perception refers to how our sense of taste can be easily influenced by factors like color intensity, texture, and perceptual set.

94
Q

How does perceptual set affect flavor judgment?

A

Perceptual set affects how flavors are perceived based on expectations, such as when food packaging or the color of food influences what we think it will taste like

95
Q

Definition of long term potentiation- need word-for word

A

Long-term potentiation - the long-lasting and experience-dependent strengthening of synaptic connections that are regularly coactivated.

96
Q

Definition of long term depression- need word-for word

A

Long-term depression  the long-lasting and experience-dependent weakening of synaptic connections between neurons that are not regularly coactivated

97
Q

Ways to reduce predjudice, discrimination, stigma etc.

A

1) Interpersonal contact
2) Education
3) Social media
4) Laws

98
Q

What is the key words in the defintion for heuristics

A

mental shortcuts

99
Q

What is the key word in the defintion for sterotypes

A

generalisations

100
Q

What is the key words in the defintion for attributions

A

an evaluation for the cause of behaviour

101
Q

What is the key words in the defintion for person perception

A

mental process/ first impression

102
Q

What words must be included in questions including distinguish

A

Wereas, in comparison, on the other hand etc.

103
Q

What is the difference between Direct and Indirect discrimination

A

Direct discrimination is outward and obviously discriminatory- Indirect is a blanket rule that unfairly affects a certain group of people

104
Q

What are the 2 types of explicit memories

A

Semantic and Episodic

105
Q

What is the explicit memory type of semantic memories + example

A

Type of explicit memory that is factual in nature(general knowledge or facts) and is set in stone and something like knowing there are 7 continents

106
Q

What is the explicit memory type of episodic memories + example

A

A type of explicit memory that consists of personal experiences or event
These memories are unique to each individual
Like what you ate for dinner last night

107
Q

What is both the Explicit memories encoded by

A

Amygdala and hippocampus

108
Q

What is both the Explicit Stored by

A

Neocortex

109
Q

What is the differnce between explicit and implicit memories

A

Explicit- Declarative memory, verbally aticulated and voulantaryly recieved
Implicit- non-verbally retrieved, involuntary retrieved

110
Q

What is the type of implicit memory

A

Procedual memory

111
Q

What is procedual memory and example

A

How to carry out tasks that are facilitated by motor skills
Example knowing how to: tie your shoelaces, kick a ball

112
Q

Where are procedual memories encoded

A

It is encoded
(processing and manipulating the memory into a useable language )by the amygdala (encodes the emotional components of the memory )
Or
Hippocampus

113
Q

Where are procedual memories stored

A

Basal ganglia

114
Q

What is the known answer to one of the multiple choice questions

A

GUSTATORY SYNAESTHESIA
Experiencing sensations of taste when they perceive certain words

115
Q

What is the definition of psychology

A

The scientific study of the human mental state and behaviours

116
Q

What is the main function of a model

A

Simplify and represent

116
Q

What is a scientific model

A

A representation of a concept, process or behaviour often made to simplify or make something easier to understand

117
Q

Types of extraneous and confounding variables

A

1) participant related differences
2) Order effects
3) the placebo effect
4) Demand characteristics
5) Experimenter effect
6) Situational variables
7) Non-standardized instructions and procedures

118
Q

What is the key words for the different types of sampling

A

Convenience- readily available or easily accessible
Random- every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected
Stratafied- strata, reprensentative

119
Q

Enviromental factors that influence Psycological development

A
  1. Emotional enviroment
  2. Socio cultural enviroment
  3. Learning enviroment
  4. Prenatal enviroment
  5. Physical enviroment
120
Q

What is the theory of mind

A

individuals ability to attribute and understand mental states, beliefs, experiences, and emotions of oneself and others (understanding ours and others emotions and why they are occurring)

121
Q

Theory of attachment

A

A long- lasting bond between two individuals (In attachment theory attachment typically refers to a bond between an infant and their primary caregiver )

122
Q

Key principles of jean piagets work

A

Assimilation
Accommodation

123
Q

The 4 stages of the Jean Piagets theory

A

The sensorimotor stage
The Pre-operational stage
The Concrete operational stage
The formal operational stage

124
Q

The 2 Key cognitive accomplishments of the sensorimotor stage

A

Object permenance
Goal directed behaviours

125
Q

The 5 Key cognitive accomplishments of the Pre- operational stage

A

Ego centrism
Animism
Transformation
Centration
Reversibility

126
Q

The 2 Key cognitive accomplishments of the concrete operational stage

A

Conservation
Classification

127
Q

The 2 Key cognitive accomplishments of the formal operalisation stage

A

Logical thinking
Abstract thinking

128
Q

The stages in Albert banduras bobo doll experiment

A
  1. Modelling
  2. Aggression arousal
  3. Test for delayed imitation
129
Q

The 5 stages of social learning theory

A

Attention
Retention
Reproduction
Motivation
Reinforcement

130
Q

Criterias for classifying typical and atypical behaviour

A

Cultural perspectives
Social norms
Statistical rareity
Personal distress
Maladaptive behaviour

131
Q

Signs and symptoms of ASD

A

Poor communication and social skills (struggles with empathy, active listening or handling rejection)
Lacks the ability to understand emotional and social cues (struggles with reading body language and inability to attribute)
Poor non-verbal communication skills (struggles with maintaining eye contact, reading and expressing facial expressions)
Struggles to form and maintain long-term friendships (struggles with many short term friendships)

132
Q

4 symptoms of ADHD

A

Inattention
Hyperactivity
Impulsivity
Lack of control over behaviour

133
Q

Cognitive variations

A

Executive function
Working memory
Arousal and alertness
Time estimation

134
Q

2 structual neuroimaging scans

A

Computerised tomography (CT)
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

135
Q

2 functional neuroimaging techniques

A

Functions Magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
Positron emission tomography (PET)

136
Q

What is synaptogenesis

A

The formation of synapses between neurons as axon terminals and dendrites grow
This results in them becoming stronger or ‘bushier’

137
Q

What is synaptic pruning

A

The elimination or pruning of underused synapses to free up space for new connections and allow for strengthening of other synapses.

138
Q

What is myleination

A

The formation and development of the myelin sheath around the axon of a neuron. This allows messages and transmissions to move quicker and smoother with less chance of interruption. The myelin sheath acts as an insulator as the message flows through. Typically myleination is shown or MRIs as ‘white matter’

139
Q

What is sprouting

A

The ability of neurons to develop new branches on the dendrites or axons.

140
Q

What is re-routing

A

The ability of the neuron synapses to disconnect from damaged neurons and connect to undamaged ones, making up for the damaged neurons

141
Q

What are ABIs

A

Aquired brain injuries, An acquired brain injury refers to all types of brain injuries that occur after birth. It is an umbrella term for two types of acquired brain injuries, traumatic brain injuries and non-traumatic brain injuries

142
Q

What is TBI

A

Traumatic brain injury (TBI) occurs when there is sudden physical trauma to the brain from an external force. TBI is a leading cause of death and disability in children and young adults across the world, and can occur when a person’s head violently comes into contact with an object

143
Q

When is CTE diagnosed

A

In a post-mortem

144
Q

What is the protein that builds up in a CTE patients brain

A

p-tau

145
Q

How many stages are there in CTE

A

4, (1- headaches and loss of concentration) (2- memory loss, depression, mood swings) (3- Executive dysfunction, severe memory loss, Visuospatial difficulties) (4- Dementia, Language difficulties, Paranoia, Suicidal tendencies, dificulty walking)

146
Q

Key word in Sustained attention definition

A

High degree of attention over a prolonged period

147
Q

Key word in Selective attention definition

A

Focus on a single activity whilst disregarding other enviromental stimuli yet still remain consiously aware of other stimulis

148
Q

Divided

A

distributing ones attention to allow for the processing of two or more stimuli at the same time (often one or more of the tasks wrequire very little attention)

149
Q

What is the 2 types of processing

A

Top-down and bottom-up

150
Q

What is top - down processing

A

drawing on past experiences to interpret stimuli then adjust according to expectations leading to a perception to be formed

151
Q

What is bottom-up processing

A

Analysing the specific features or elements of a stimulus, then creating a whole picture from those elements and creating a perception that way.

152
Q

Give an example of top-down and bottom-up processing

A

For example, you may use top-down processing to assume something is happening, like if you see some smoke in the sky coming from a forest we might use the top-down processing to assume there is a forest fire, which may lead to you panicking, upon further exploration you see a group of people crowding around, relaxed, your bottom-up processing then kicks in, you see that everyone is relaxed, in an open, wide space and some kids are roasting marshmallows on the big fire and you come to the assumption this is not in fact a bush fire, but a controlled bonfire.

153
Q

What is the binocular depth cue of retinal disparity

A

Retinal disparity: Retinal disparity refers to the brain detecting similarities and differences between the information being sent from each eye, due to the pupils of our eyes being 6–7 cm apart

154
Q

What is the binocular depth cue of convergence

A

Convergence involves the inward turning of the eyes, which is detected by the brain as tension changes in the muscles surrounding the eye

155
Q

What is the monocular depth cue

A

Accommodation, he ability of the eye to change focus from near to distant objects and back again. The lens of the eyes bulges (ciliary contracts) when focusing on nearby objects and flattens (ciliary relaxes) when focusing on far away objects

156
Q

What is in the perceptual set

A

Past experiences, Memory, Motivation, Context

157
Q

What is perceptual constancy

A

Size constancy, shape constancy, orientation constancy

158
Q

What are the gestalt principles

A

Figure-ground, closure, Proximity, Similarity

159
Q

What are the 2 types of visual agnosia

A

Apperceptive visual agnosia and assosiative visual agnosia

160
Q

Apperceptive visual agnosia

A

Someone with apperceptive visual agnosia cannot process or perceive certain stimuli (e.g. familiar objects or familiar places).No perception and no recognition

161
Q

Associative visual agnosia

A

Someone with apperceptive visual agnosia can process or perceive certain stimuli (e.g. familiar objects or familiar places). Perception but no recognition

162
Q

What is prosopagnosia

A

This kind of visual agnosia involves an inability to recognise the faces of familiar people, despite having no memory dysfunction, memory loss or impaired visual sensation.

163
Q

What is the difference between direct person perception and indirect person perception

A

Direct- Information, collected by us from the person we are judging through observation or interaction with them (primary data)
Indirect- Formed through hearing about the person from another person or source. (secondary data)

164
Q

What are the cognitive biases

A

The halo effect
Actor-observer bias
Self-serving bias
Conformation bias
False consensus bias

165
Q

What is the Halo effect

A

The halo effect describes the tendency to believe that one positive or negative quality of a person means that all their qualities and actions are also good or bad respectively.
This can also lead to perceiving attractive people as good and moral and unattractive people as bad and immoral

166
Q

What is the actor observer bias

A

Refers to our tendency to attribute our own behaviour to external or situational factors, yet attribute others behaviours to internal factors.

167
Q

What is the self-serving bias

A

When judging ourselves we tend to credit successes to ourselves and deny responsibilities for failures, blaming it on external factors.

168
Q

What is the confirmation bias

A

The tendency to look for actions, characteristics and information that aligns with our beliefs and ignore contradictory information.

169
Q

What is the false concensus bias

A

This is the tendency to overestimate the degree to which people share the same ideas and attitudes as we do

170
Q

What is internal attribution

A

When we judge behaviour as being caused by something personal within an individual . This may be because of their psychological state, age, gender, intellect, motivation, ability, desire, past behaviour and personality.

171
Q

What is external attribution

A

Occurs when we determine the cause of something is due to situational factors occurring outside of the person and out of their control. This may be due to the physical environment a person was in or events that transpired beyond the persons control

172
Q

3 Steps of the cognitive process

A

Step 1- Observation of an outward act or behaviour
Step 2- Conscious determination of the behaviour (deciding what the behaviour is)
Step 3- Attribute causes to the observed behaviour (decide why someone was exhibiting the behaviour/ action)

173
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

The tendency to explain others behaviours in terms of internal factors and ignoring external factors whilst attributing our behaviour to external factors.

174
Q

3 Steps to attitude formation

A

1- The attitude must be an evaluation of something
2- The attitude must be settled and stable
3- The attitude must be learnt through experience

175
Q

What are the three factors that affect obedience

A

Status of authority figure
Social Proximity (Emotional and Physicial )
Group pressure

176
Q

What is group shift

A

A condition of which the influence of the group causes an individual to adopt a more extreme position. The more influential a group is , the greater chance of conformity

177
Q

What is group think

A

A psychological phenomenon in which assumed group unanimity overrules individuals realistic appraisal of consequences

178
Q

What is deindividulization

A

The tendency for individuals to lose their sense of identity within a group which increases the chance of conformity. When we feel anonymous we are more likely to do questionable things.