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z MCAT: Areas Of Opportunity > Psych And Soc > Flashcards

Psych And Soc Flashcards

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1
Q

What does the hind brain consist of?

A

The cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and reticular formation

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2
Q

What are the components of the midbrain?

A

Inferior and superior colliculi

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3
Q

What are the components of the forebrain?

A 
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Basal ganglia
Lambic system 
Cerebral cortex
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4
Q

What are the methods of studying brain activity?

A

EEG electroencephalogram and regional cerebral blood flow

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5
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

It is a relay station for sensory information

** except smell

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6
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Maintains homeostasis and integrates with the endocrine system through the hypophyseal portal system that connects it to the anterior pituitary

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7
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Smoothness movements and helps maintain postural stability

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8
Q

What is the function of the limbic system? And what does it contain?

A

Contains septal nuclei amygdala and hippocampus

Controls emotion and memory

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9
Q

What are the septal nuclei a part of and what is it involved in?

A

It’s a part of the limbic system

Involved with feelings of pleasure, pleasure-seeking behavior, and addiction

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10
Q

What is the amygdala a part of and what does it do?

A

A part of the limbic system

Controls fear and aggression

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11
Q

What is the hippocampus a part of and what does it do?

A

It’s a part of the limbic system

It consolidates memories an communicates with other parts of the limbic system through the fornix

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12
Q

What part of the brain communicates with other parts of the limbic system through an extension called the fornix?

A

The hippocampus

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13
Q

The cerebral cortex is divided into four lobes, what are the lobes?

A

Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe

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14
Q

What does the frontal lobe control?

A

Executive function

Impulse control

Long-term planning

Motor function

Speech production

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15
Q

What does the parietal lobe control?

A

Sensations of touch, pressure, temperature and pain

Spatial processing

Orientation

Manipulation

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16
Q

What does the occipital lobe control?

A

Visual processing

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17
Q

What does the temporal lobe control?

A

Sound processing

Speech perception

Memory

Emotion

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18
Q

The brain is divided into two hemispheres, left and right. Which hemisphere is dominant hemisphere for language?

A

The left hemisphere

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19
Q

Which nervous systems is acetylcholine used in and what does it tend to do in those systems?

A

Used by somatic nervous system: to move muscles

The parasympathetic nervous system: dominant neurotransmitter in this system

The central nervous system: for alertness

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20
Q

What is the function of dopamine and where are high concentrations usually found?

A

Plays an important role in movement and posture

High concentrations of dopamine are normally found in the basal ganglia

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21
Q

What is associated with imbalances in dopamine transmission?

A

Schizophrenia

*** the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia argues that delusions , hallucinations, and agitation associated with schizophrenia arise from either too much dopamine or from an oversensitivity to dopamine in the brain

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22
Q

What disease is associated with a loss of dopamergic neurons in the basal ganglia?

A

Parkinson’s disease

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23
Q

What are the neurotransmitters further classified as catecholamines? And what is the role of the catecholamines?

A

Dopamine

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

Play an important role in the experience of emotions

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24
Q

Neurotransmitters are classified as monoamine or biogenic amine neurotransmitters?

A

Serotonin

Dopamine

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

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25
Q

What role does serotonin play?

A

Plays a role in regulating mood, eating, sleeping, and dreaming.

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26
Q

What neurotransmitters play a role in depression and mania?

A

Norepinephrine

Serotonin

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27
Q

What happens when serotonin is oversupplied? Undersupplied?

A

Oversupplied: thought to produce manic states

Undersupplied: thought to produce depression

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28
Q

What is the function of GABA? And how does it exerts its effects?

A

Produces inhibitory post synaptic potentials

Plays a role in stabilizing neural activity in the brain

Exerts its effects by causing hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

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29
Q

What is the function of glycine as a neurotransmitter? And how does it exert its effects?

A

An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS

Exerts its effects by increasing chloride influx into the neuron to hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane

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30
Q

What is the function of glutamate?

A

It acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS

Opposite function of glycine

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31
Q

What is the function if endorphins and enkephalins?

A

Acts as natural painkillers

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32
Q

What is the function of GABA and Glycine?

A

Act as brain stabilizers

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33
Q

What hormone is a stress hormone that is released by the adrenal cortex?

A

Cortisol

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34
Q

What are the functions of testosterone and estrogen? Where are the released and what other places can they be produced?

A

Mediate libido

Testosterone increases aggressive behavior

Both are released by the adrenal cortex

Testes can produce testosterone

Ovaries can produce estrogen

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35
Q

What are the functions of norepinephrine and epinephrine? What secretes them?

A

Wakefulness and alertness

Mediate fight or flight response

The adrenal medulla

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36
Q

What reflexes exist in infants and should disappear with age?

A

Primitive reflexes

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37
Q

What is a rooting reflex?

A

When an infant turns his head toward anything that brushes their cheek

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38
Q

What is the Moro reflex?

A

The infant extends the arms, then slowly retracts them and cries in response to a sensation of falling

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39
Q

What is the babinski reflex?

A

The big toe is extended and the other toes fan in response to the brushing of the sole of the foot

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40
Q

What is the grasping reflex?

A

The infant grabs anything put into his or her hand

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41
Q

What do photoreceptors respond to?

A

Electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum

Sight

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42
Q

What do hair cells respond to?

A

Movement of fluid in the inner ear structures

Hearing, rotational and linear acceleration

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43
Q

What do Nociceptors respond to?

A

Painful or noxious stimuli

Somatosensation

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44
Q

What do osmoresceptors respond to?

A

The osmolarity or blood (water homeostasis)

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45
Q

What do olfactory receptors respond to?

A

Volatile compounds

Smell

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46
Q

What is absolute threshold?

A

The minimum intensity at which a stimulus will be transduced (converted into action potentials)

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47
Q

What is the absolute threshold for normal human hearing?

A

10^-12 W/m^2

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48
Q

What is the just noticeable difference fro sound frequency?

A

.68 percent (3 Hz / 440 Hz)

jnd is 3 Hz.

*** MCAT questions typically will focus on applying a ratio

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49
Q

What law has to do with the jnd?

A

Weber’s Law

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50
Q

What does the signal detection theory focus on?

A

Changes in our perception of the same stimuli depending on both psychological and environmental context

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51
Q

What does signal detection allow us to explore?

A

Response bias

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52
Q

What does response bias refer to?

A

The tendency of subjects to systematically respond to a stimulus in a particular way due to nonsensory factors

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53
Q

What is adaptation?

A

Detection of a stimulus changing over time

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54
Q

What part of the retina contains only cones and is the center most point?

A

Fovea

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55
Q

From the optic chasm, the information goes to several different places in the brain. What are those places?

A

The lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

Through radiations in the temporal and parietal lobes to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe

Inputs into the superior colliculus (which controls some responses to visual stimuli and reflexive eye movements)

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56
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

The ability to simultaneously analyze and combine information regarding color, shape, and motion.

Then these features can be compared to our memories to determine what is being viewed

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57
Q

What is an example of parallel processing involved with cars?

A

Most people can recognize a moving car very easily from a distance because they are familiar with the usual motions and shapes of cars

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58
Q

What type of cells detect shape? And what do they consist of?

A

Parvocellular cells which have:

very high color spatial resolution which permits us to see very fine detail when thoroughly examining an object

Low temporal resolution so can only work with stationary or slow-moving objects

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59
Q

What cells specialize in motion detection?

A

Magnocellular cells

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60
Q

What are the components of the outer ear?

A

Pinna or auricle

External auditory canal

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61
Q

What are the components of the middle ear?

A

Tympanic membrane

The ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes)

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62
Q

Inner ear sits within a bony labyrinth which contains what?

A

Cochlea

Vestibule

Semicircular canals

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63
Q

The structures of the inner ear are continuous with each other and are mostly filled with what? And what is the potassium-rich fluid that it is bathed with?

A

Membranous labyrinth

Bathed with endolymph

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64
Q

The cochlea is divided into three parts called scalae that run the entire length of the cochalea. What does the middle scale house?

A

The actual hearing apparatus, the organ of Corti

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65
Q

The Organ of Corti is the actual hearing apparatus which rests on a thin, flexible membrane called the basilar membrane. What is the organ of Corti composed of?

A

Thousands of hair cells which are bathed in endolymph

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66
Q

What structures of the ear are sensitive to linear acceleration, so are used as part of the balancing apparatus and to determine one’s orientation in 3D space?

A

The utricle and saccule

The vestibule a portion of the bony labyrinth that contains the urticle and saccule

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67
Q

What do the urticle and saccule contain and how to they work?

A

Modified hair cells covered with otoliths

As the body accelerates, these otoliths will resist that motion which bends and stimulates the underlying hair cells, which send a signal to the brain

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68
Q

What component of the ear is sensitive to?

A

Rotational acceleration

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69
Q

The semicircular canals are arranged perpendicularly to each other and each ends in a swelling called the ______, where ___________ are located

A

Ampulla, where hair cells are located

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70
Q

Describe the auditory pathways in the brain

A

Most information passes through the
Vestibulocochlear nerve —–> brain stem —–> medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus—-> auditory cortex in the temporal lobe for sound processing

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71
Q

What other places can sound be sent to? And what do these places do with the sound?

A

Superior olive: localized the sound

Inferior colliculus: involved in the startle reflex and helps keeps the eyes fixed on a point while the head is turned

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72
Q

What is somatosensation and what are the four modalities of it?

A

Often reduced to taste

Modalities are

  • pressure
  • vibration
  • pain
  • temperature
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73
Q

What type of receptor responds to deep pressure and vibration?

A

Pacinian corpuscles

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74
Q

What type of receptors respond to light and touch?

A

Meissner corpuscles

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75
Q

What type of receptors respond to stretch?

A

Ruffini endings

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76
Q

What type of receptors respond to pain and temperature?

A

Free nerve endings

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77
Q

What is a two-point threshold?

A

The minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

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78
Q

When temperature is judged relative to physiological zero, when does an object feel cold? Warm? What is physiological zero?

A

Cold because it is under physiological zero

Warm bc it is above Physiological zero

Physiological zero is the normal temperature of the skin (between 86 and 97 degrees F)

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79
Q

What is the gate theory of pain?

A

Special gating mechanism that can turn pain on or off, affecting whether or not we perceive pain

Explains why rubbing an injury seems to reduce the pain of the injury

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80
Q

What is the kinesthetic sense? Where are their receptors found?

A

Called porprioception

Refers to the ability to tell where ones body is in space

Receptors are found mostly in muscles and joints and play a critical role in hand eye coordination balance and mobility

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81
Q

What is bottom up processing? And what is another name for it?

A

Refers to object recognition by parallel processing and feature detection.

The brain takes the individual sensory stimuli and combines them together to create a cohesive image before determining what the object is

Also called data-driven processing

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82
Q

What is top down processing and what is another name for it?

A

Is driven by memories and expectations that allow the brain to recognize the whole object and then recognize the component s based on these expectations

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83
Q

What does bottom up processing allow us to do?

A

Allows us to discriminate slight differences between similar objects

***less prone to mistakes

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84
Q

What does top-down processing allow us to do?

A

Allows us to be efficient at recognizing objects

W/o it , it would be like we are looking at thing s for the first time each time we saw them

***more prone to mistakes

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85
Q

How is the form of an object usually determined?

A

Through parallel processing and feature detection and through the motion perceived by the magnocellular cells

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86
Q

What do gestalt principles do?

A

They are ways fro the brain to infer missing parts of a picture when a picture is incomplete

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87
Q

What are the gestalt principles?

A

Proximity

Similarity

Good continuation

Subjective contours

Closure

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88
Q

What is th law of proximity ?

A

Elements close to another tend to be perceived as a unit

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89
Q

What is the law of similarity ?

A

Objects that are grouped together tend to be similar

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90
Q

What is the law of good continuation?

A

Elements that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together

There is a tendency to perceive continuous patterns in stimuli rather than abrupt changes

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91
Q

What is the law of pragnanz

A

Gesalt prinicples are governed by it

Says that perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible

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92
Q

What is the visual pathway from the eye?

A

Eye—> optic nerves—> optic chiasm —-> optic tracts—> lateral geniculate nucleus of he thalamus—> visual radiations (run though the temporal and parietal lobes) —> the visual cortex in the occipital lobe

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93
Q

How are all senses processed?

A

Parallel processing

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94
Q

How is the middle ear connected to the nasal cavity?

A

Euchstachian tube

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95
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

An unconditioned stimulus that produces an instinctive, unconditioned response is paired with a neutral stimulus

With repetition the neutral stimuli becomes a conditioned response

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96
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Changed through the use of consequences

  • reinforcements
  • punishments
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97
Q

What part of operant conditioning increases the likelihood of the behavior? And what part of it decreases the likelihood of a behavior?

A

Increases: reinforcement

Decreases: punishment

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98
Q

What is observational learning and what is another name for it?

A

The acquisition of behavior by watching others

Another name for it is modeling

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99
Q

What is explicit memory and what is another name for it?

A

Declarative memory

Stores facts and stories

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100
Q

What is implicit memory and wat is another name for it?

A

No declarative memory (procedural memory)

Stores skills and conditioning effects

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101
Q

How are facts stored?

A

Via semantic networks

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102
Q

What is responsible for the conversion of short term memory to long term memory ?

A

Long term potentiation

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103
Q

What is the difference between negative reinforcement and positive punishment?

A

Negative reinforcement is the REMOVAL of a bothersome stimulus to ENCOURAGE a behavior

Positive punishment is the ADDITION of a bothersome stimulus to REDUCE a behavior

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104
Q

What is negative punishment ?

A

The reduction of a behavior when a stimulus is removed

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105
Q

What is a negative reinforcement example?

A

Increase frequency of behavior but they do so by removing a stimulus

Taking an aspirin to reduce a headache so next time you have a head ache you will take an aspirin

106
Q

What is escape learning?

A

The role of the behavior is to reduce the unpleasantness of something that already exists, like a headache

107
Q

What is Avoidance learning

A

Prevent the unpleasantness of something that has yet to happen

(Ex: studying for the MCAT to avoid the presence of a poor score)

108
Q

What are the different ways we encode the meaning of information that requires controlled processing?

A

Visual encoding: visualizing it

Acoustic encoding: store the way it sounds

Semantic encoding: put it into a meaningful context

109
Q

What are Piagets stages of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor

Preoperational

Concrete operational

Formal operational

110
Q

Paige’s theorized that new information is processed via adaptation. Adaptation comes about by what two complementary processes?

A

Assimilation and accommodation

111
Q

What is Piagets definition of assimilation?

A

The process of classifying new information into existing schemata, then accommodation occurs

112
Q

What is piagets version of accommodation

A

The process by which existing schemata are modified to encompass this new information

113
Q

What happens in the sensorimotor stage? How long is it?

A

Starts at birth and lasts until about 2 years of age

Learns to manipulate the environment in order to meet physical needs

Two types of circular reactions begin (primary and secondary circulation reactions)

114
Q

What is the key milestone that ends the sensorimotor stage?

A

The development of object permanence

The understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of view

115
Q

What does the preoperational stage include and how long does it last?

A

Lasts from 2 to about 7 years

Characterized by symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and centration

In this stage a child will not be able to understand the concept of conservation (thinking that two small pieces is better than having one large piece

116
Q

What is egocentrism?

A

The inability to imagine what another person may think or feel

117
Q

What does the concrete operational stage consist of and how long does it last

A

Lasts from about 7 to 11 years of age

Children understand conservation and consider the perspectives of others

Able to engage in logical thought if working with concrete objects or information that is directly available

Not able to think abstractly

118
Q

What does the formal operational stage consist of and how long does it last?

A

Starts around 11 years of age

Marked by the ability to think logically about abstract ideas and problem solve.

Typically coincides with adolescence

119
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

Top down

Starts from a set of general rules and draws conclusions from the information given

120
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

Bottom up

Seeks to create a theory via generalizations

Type of reasoning that starts with specific instances and then draws a conclusion from them

121
Q

What are heuristics?

A

Simplified principles used to make decisions

Called rules of thumb

122
Q

When is the availability heuristic used?

A

When we try to decide how likely something is

123
Q

What is a representative heuristic?

A

Involves categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit in the prototypical, stereotypical or representative image of the category

Ex: the probability that a coin that is flipped ten times in a row lands on heads every time is not very likely when looking at the typical times this has happened.

124
Q

An EEG records an average of the electrical patterns within different portions of the brain. There are four characteristic EEG patterns that are correlated with different stags of waking and sleeping. What do the alpha and beta waves correspond to and what are their frequencies?

A

Beta waves: have high frequency and occur when the person is alert or attending to a mental task that requires concentration

Alpha waves: occur when we are awake but relaxing with our eyes closed and are somewhat slower than beta waves and are more synchronized

125
Q

As soon as you doze off what stage do you enter and how does the EEG detect it?

A

Stage 1

EEG detects it by the appearance of theta waves

*** theta waves are irregular waveforms with slower frequencies and higher voltages

126
Q

What stage do you enter as you fall more deeply asleep and how does the EEG characterize this stage?

A

Stage 2

The EEG shows theta waves along with sleep spindles and K complexes

127
Q

As you fall more deeply into sleep what stages do you then enter and how does the EEG characterize those stages?

A

Stages 3 and 4 (slow-wave sleep)

EEG activity grows progressive slower, the low frequency high voltage sleep waves are delta waves

128
Q

What stages are all part of non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM)?

A

Stages 1 through 4

129
Q

When is REM present?

A

Interspersed between cycle3s of the NREM sleep stages

130
Q

What is the sequential order of brain waves from awake to deep sleep represented by an EEG?

A

Beta, alpha, theta, delta

131
Q

Where is melatonin secreted from?

A

The pineal gland

132
Q

What hormones are related to the sleep wake cycle?

A

Cortisol

Melatonin

133
Q

When does most dreaming occur?

A

During REM and soon after we stage 2 sleep our mental experience starts to shift into a dreamlike state

75% of dreaming occurs during REM and they tend to be long and more vivid than what occurs in NREM sleep

134
Q

What are the two categories of sleep disorders?

A

Dyssomnias

Parsomnias

135
Q

What does dyssomnias refer to and what are some examples of them?

A

Refers to disorders that make it difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep or avoid sleep

Ex:

  • insomnia
  • narcolepsy
  • sleep apnea
136
Q

What are parasomnias and what are some examples of it?

A

Abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep

-include night terrors and sleepwalking

137
Q

What do depressants do and what are some examples?

A

Reduce nervous system activity, resulting in a sense of relaxation and reduced anxiety

Ex:

  • alcohol (it increases activity of the GABA receptor, which is a Cl- channel that causes hyperpolarization of the post synaptic
    membrane) inhibits action potential
  • Barbituates and benzodiazepines (increase GABA activity to cause a sense of relaxation)
138
Q

What do stimulants do and what are some examples?

A

Cause an increase in arousal in the nervous system.

Ex:

  • Amphetamines
  • Cocaine
  • Ecstasy

***each drug increases the frequency of action potentials in their own unique mechanism

139
Q

What are opiates and opioids and what are some examples?

A

Opiates: morphine and codeine

Opioids: oxycodone, hydrocodone, and heroin

Cause a decreased reaction to pain and a sense of euphoria when they bind to opioid receptors in the CNS and PNS

140
Q

What does THC exert its effects on? (A component of marijuana)

A

Acts as cannabinoid receptors, glycine receptors, and opioids receptors

141
Q

What pathway is drug addiction related to?

A

The Mesolimbic reward pathway (one of four dopamergic pathways in the brain)

  • nucleus accumbens(NAc)
  • ventral tegmental area (VTA)
  • medial forebrain bundle (MFB : the connection btwn them

***this pathway is normall involved in motivation and emotional response

Activated accounts for the positive reinforcement of substance use

142
Q

What form of processing permits the brain to focus on other tasks with divided attention when performing familiar or routine actions?

A

Automatic processing

143
Q

What processing is used when doing new or complex tasks that require undivided attention?

A

Controlled or effortful processing

144
Q

In the timeline of language acquisition, what occurs at 9 to 12 months?

A

Babbling

145
Q

In the timeline of language acquisition, what occurs at 12 to 18 months

A

About one word per month

146
Q

In the timeline of language acquisition, what occurs at 18 to 20 months?

A

Explosion of language and combining words

147
Q

In the timeline of language acquisition, what occurs at 2 to 3 years?

A

Longer sentences, 3 words or more

148
Q

In the timeline of language acquisition, what occurs at 5 years of age?

A

Language rules largely mastered

149
Q

In the Nativist Biological theory, how is language acquisition looked at?

A

Advocates for the existence of some innate capacity for language (transformational grammar (Noam Chomsky))

This innate ability is called the language acquisition device (LAD)
-a theoretical pathway in the brain that allows infants to process and absorb language rules

150
Q

Nativists believe in a critical period for language acquisition between __________ and ________

A

Two years and puberty

151
Q

The learning theory (behaviorist theory) was proposed by skinner. How did he explain learning acquisition?

A

By operant conditioning and by reinforcement

152
Q

How do social interactionists describe language development?

A

Focuses on interplay between biological and social processes

Driven by child’s desire to communicate, the role of brain development in the acquisition of language

153
Q

What part of the brain controls the motor function of speech via connections with the motor cortex and where is it located?

A

Located: inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe

Broca’s area

154
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for language comphresion and where is it located?

A

Location: superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe

Wernickes area

155
Q

What connects the Broca’s area and the Wernicke’s area and what does that connection allow?

A

Connected by the accurate fasciculus

Allows appropriate association between language comprehension and speech production

156
Q

What does functionalism focus on

A

Focuses on the function of each component of society and how those components fit together

157
Q

What are manifest functions?

A

Deliberate actions that serve to help a given system

158
Q

What are latent functions?

A

Unexpected, unintended, or unrecognized positive consequences of manifest functions

159
Q

What does conflict theory focus on?

A

How power differentials are created and how these differentials contribute to the maintenance of social order

160
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

The study of the ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words and gestures and other symbols

161
Q

What is social constructionism

A

Explores the ways in which individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality

162
Q

What is rational choice theory?

A

Individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefit and minimize potential harm

163
Q

What is expectancy theory?

A

Applies rational choice theory within social groups

164
Q

What is feminist theory?

A

Explores the way in which gender can be subordinated, minimized, or devalued compared to the other

165
Q

What are examples of social institutions and what is the definition?

A

They are well eastblished social structures that dictate patterns of behavior or relationships and are accepted as a fundamental part of culture

Ex: family, education, religion, government, the economy, and health and medicine.

166
Q

What are the 4 key tenets of American medicine?

A

Beneficence: refers to acting in the patients best interest

Nonmaleficence: refers to avoiding treatments for which risk is larger than benefit

Respect for autonomy: respecting patients rights to make decisions about their own healthcare

Justice: refers to treating similar patients similarly and distributing healthcare resources fairly

167
Q

What does culture encompass?

A

The lifestyle of a group of ppl and includes both material and symbolic elements

168
Q

What is cultural lag?

A

Idea that material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

169
Q

What is a cultural barrier?

A

A social difference that impedes interaction

170
Q

What does language consist of?

A

Spoken or written symbols combined into a system and governed by rules

171
Q

What is the difference between a value, a belief, and a ritual?

A

Value: what a person deems important in life

Belief: something a person considers to be true

Ritual: formalized ceremonial behavior in which member of a group or community regularly engage. Governed by specific rules such as appropriate behavior and a predetermined order of events

172
Q

What are norms?

A

Societal rules that define boundaries of acceptable behavior

173
Q

What does demographics refer to? What are some examples of demographic variables?

A

The statistics of populations and the mathematical applications of sociology

Age, gender. , race, etc

174
Q

What is ageism?

A

Prejudice or discrimination on the basis of a persons age

175
Q

What is gender?

A

The set of behavioral, cultural, or psychological traits associated with a biological sex

176
Q

What is race?

A

A social construct based on phenotypic differences btwn groups of ppl, either real or perceived.

177
Q

What is ethnicity?

A

A social construct that sorts ppl by cultural factors such as religion, language, nationality and other factors

178
Q

What is symbolic ethnicity?

A

Recognition of an ethic identity that is only relevant on special occasions, or in specific circumstances and doesn’t specifically impact everyday life

179
Q

What is the difference btwn immigration and emigration?

A

Immigration is the movement into a new geographic area

Emigration is movement away from. GEOGRAPHIC AREA

180
Q

What is migration?

A

The movement of ppl from one geographic location to another

181
Q

What is a demographic transition?

A

A model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

182
Q

What are social movements?

A

Organized to promote (proactive_) or resist (reactive) social change

183
Q

What is globalization?

A

The process of integrating a global economy with free trade and tapping of foreign labor markets

184
Q

What is urbanization?

A

The process of dense areas of population creating a pull for migration

In other words, creating cities

185
Q

What is game theory?

A

Attempts to explain decision making between individuals as if they are participating in a game

186
Q

What is altruism?

A

A form of helping behavior in which the persons intent is too benefit someone else at some costs to him or herself

187
Q

what is responsible for regulating circadian rhythm?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

188
Q

what do superior colliculi do?

A

coordinate eye movement

189
Q

What happens when the optic chiasm is impaired?

A

the person’s peripheral visual processing is impaired

190
Q

what is an example of a cross sectional study

A

a single survey answered by a group of people at once

191
Q

what is a prospective cohort study?

A

same group of people are followed over time and repeatedly asked the same questions or question

192
Q

urbanization is accompanied by what?

A

a decline in birth rate

193
Q

what is the James-Lange theory?

A

the belief that emotion is simply labeling of physiological responses to the environment

194
Q

what is social cognitive theory?

A

people shape their behaviors based on observing the behaviors of others and the repercussion there of

195
Q

what is socialization? and what factors influence socialization?

A

the process by which individuals are taught the expectations of their society.
Factors: family, peers, media and the work place

196
Q

what is conformity?

A

the act of adapting one’s own behavior to reflect the behaviors of the majority

197
Q

Hamiltion’s kin selection theory predicts that altruistic behavior will occur when ______________

A

reproductive costs of the donor are minimized and the reproductive benefits to a related recipient are maximized

198
Q

what is fundamental attribution error?

A

defining a person based upon a single action with out considering external factors affecting their behavior

199
Q

what is the relationship between empathy altruism theory and Hamilton’s kin selection theory?

A

individuals tend to be more empathetic to their kin

200
Q

what are the stages in Freud’s theory of psychosexual development and what theory’s principles is it similar to?

A

They all are based on libido (sex drive)
Stage 1: oral stage (0 to 1 year) libidinal energy is centered at the mouth
Stage 2: anal stage (1 to 3 years)
Stage 3: phallic or Oedipal stage ( 3 to 5 years)
Stage 4: genital stage beginning in puberty

based on same principles of the drive reduction theory, in that libidinal energy creates internal tension, which we aim to reduce through certain behaviors

201
Q

what is consists of the oral stage of Freud’s theory of psychosexual development? and what happens if the adult becomes fixated at this stage?

A

libidinal energy is centered at the mouth. gratification is obtained by putting objects into the mouth, biting and sucking.
if the adult becomes fixated at this stage, they would likely exhibit excessive dependency

202
Q

what is consists of the anal stage of Freud’s theory of psychosexual development? and what happens if the adult becomes fixated at this stage?

A

libido is centered on the anus and gratification is gained through the elimination and retention of waste materials
toilet training occurs at this time
if the adult becomes fixated at this stage, it would lead to either excessive sloppiness or excessive orderliness

203
Q

what is consists of the phallic or Oedipal stage of Freud’s theory of psychosexual development? and what happens if the adult becomes fixated at this stage?

A

male kid envies his fathers intimate relationship with his mother and wants to eliminate father and possess mother but feels guilty about it. so resolves conflict by identifying with the father, establishing his sexual identity and internalizing moral values.
child sublimates his libidinal energy by working on school work or collecting objects

204
Q

The males are focused on at the Oedipal stage, females are focused on at the Electra complex which is also a part of the phallic stage, what was Freud’s view?

A

thought that girls had penis envy

205
Q

what happens once the libido stage is sublimated?

A

the child enters latency which lasts until puberty is reached

206
Q

what is consists of the genital stage of Freud’s theory of psychosexual development?

A

if all of the prior development has proceeded correctly without fixation, then the person should enter into healthy heterosexual relationships at this point

however, if sexual traumas of childhood have not been resolved such behaviors as homosexuality, asexuality or fetishism may result

207
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The first conflict is trust vs mistrust. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

0 to 1 year

If resolved, the child will come to trust his environment as well as himself

If Mistrust wins out, the child will often be suspicious of the world, possibly throughout his life

208
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The second conflict is autonomy vs shame and doubt. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

1 to 3 year

If autonomy wins, there is a feeling able to exert control over the world and to exercise choice as well as self restraint

If shame and doubt wins, a sense of doubt and a persistent external locus of control happens

209
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The third conflict confronted is initiative vs guilt. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

3 to 6 years

If initiative wins, a sense of purpose, the ability to initiate activities and the ability to enjoy accomplishment result

If guilt wins, the child will be so over come by the fear of punishment that the child may either unduly restrict himself or may overcompensate by showing off

210
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The fourth conflict is industry vs. inferiority. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

6 to 12 years

If industry wins, able to excessive their abilities and intelligence in the world and be able to affect the world in the way the child desires.

If inferiority wins, a sense of inadequacy, a sense of inability to act in a competent manner, and low self esteem

211
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The 5th conflict is identity vs role confusion. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

During adolescence 12 to 20 years

This stage encompasses physiological revolution.

If identity wins then fidelity, the ability to see oneself as unique and integrated person with sustained loyalties

If role confusion occurs, outcomes are confusion about ones identity and an amorphous personality that shifts from day to day

212
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The sixth conflict is intimacy vs isolation. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

20 to 40 years

If intimacy wins, outcomes are love, the ability to have intimate relationship with others, and the ability to commit oneself to another person and to one’s goals.

If isolation wins, there will be avoidance of commitment, alienation, and distancing oneself from others and one’s ideals. Isolated individuals are either withdrawn or capable of only superficial relationships

213
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The conflict of middle age is generativityt vs stagnation. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

40 to 65 years

The successful revolution of this conflict results in an individual is capable of being productive, caring, and contributing member of society

If stagnation wins, one may become self-indulgent, bored, and self centered with little care for others

214
Q

Erickson has a theory of psychosocial development which involves stages of personality development are based on a series of crisis that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands.

The final stage is integrity vs despair. When does this occur and what happens when it is resolved and when it is not resolved?

A

Above 65

Integrity wins, then we will see wisdom ( a detached concern with life itself) with assurance of life, dignity and acceptance of the fact that life has been worthwhile and readiness to face death

Despair wins, then there will be a bitterness about one’s life a feeling that life has been worthless and fear over death

215
Q

What does Kohlbergs theory of personality development focus on?

A

The development of moral thinking

Our cognitive abilities grow, we are able to think about the world in more complex ways and this directly affects the way we resolve moral dilemmas and perceive the notion of right and wrong

Observations based on hypothetical moral dilemmas

216
Q

Kholbergs stages are grouped into 3 phases consisting of two stages each. What are the phases?

A

Preconventional morality: typical of preadolescent thinking and places emphasis on the consequences of the moral choice

Conventional morality: begins to develop in early adolescence when individuals begin to see themselves in the terms of their relationships to others
-based on understanding and accepting social rules

Postconventional morality: describes a level of reasoning that Kohlberg claimed not everyone was capable of and is based on social mores, which may conflict with laws

217
Q

What are the two stages in the preconventional phase?

A

1: Obedience, concerned with avoiding punishment
2: self interest, is about gaining rewards ( often called the instrumental relavist stage because it is asked on the concepts of reciprocity and sharing)

218
Q

What are the stages in the second phase of conventional morality?

A

3) conformity: person seeks approval of others
4) law and order: maintains the social order in the highest regard (if everyone stole things they couldn’t afford,people who produce those items wouldn’t be able to continue their business

219
Q

What are the stages of the third phase post conventional morality?

A

5) social contract: views moral rules as conventions that are designed to ensure the greater good, with reasoning focused on individual rights
6) universal human ethics: reasons that decisions should be made in consideration of abstract principles

220
Q

What are the defense mechanisms of reaction formation, projection, and rationalization?

A

Reaction formation: individuals suppress urges by unconsciously converting them into their exact opposites.

Projection: individuals attribute their undesired feelings to others, the ink blot test and thematic apperception test make use of projection to gain insight into a clients mind. (Relies upon the assumption that the client projects his or her unconscious feelings onto the shape.

Rationalization: justification of behaviors in a manner that is acceptable to the self and society

221
Q

Freud is a supporter of the psychoanalytic theory, what contribution to the study of personality? (id, ego, superego)

A

id is the sum of our basic urges to reproduce and survive
superego is our sense of perfectionism and idealism
ego mediates the anxieties caused by the actions of the id and superegos by using defense mechanisms

222
Q

What are the defense mechanisms of displacement and sublimation?

A

Displacement: describes the transference of an undesired urge from one person or object to another

Sublimation: channeling of an unacceptable impulse in a socially acceptable direction

223
Q

what is resocialization?

A

process by which one discards old behaviors in favor of new ones to make a life change, and can have positive or negative connotations

224
Q

what is internalization and what can be be further classfied as?

A

involves changing ones behavior to fit with a group while also privately agreeing with ideas of the groups

conformity

225
Q

what is identification and what is it further classified as?

A

the outward acceptance of other’s ideas with out personally taking on these ideas

conformity

226
Q

what is compliance?

A

change in behavior based on a direct request of others who do not wield authority over the individual

227
Q

what does social cognition focus on?

A

the ways in which ppl think about others and how these ideas impact behavior

228
Q

what is the functional attitudes theory?

A

states that attitudes serve 4 functions: knowledge, ego expression, adaptation, and ego defense

229
Q

what is the learning theory>

A

attitudes develop through different forms of learning

230
Q

what is deep thinking referred to?

what is superficial thinking where people focus on the appearance, catch phrases etc. referred to?

A

central route processing

peripheral route processing

231
Q

what is the social cognitive theory?

A

people learn how to behave and shape attitudes based by observing behaviors, personal factors, and environment

232
Q

what is social facilitation?

A

describes the tendency of ppl to perform at a different level based on the fact that others are around

233
Q

what is deindividuation?

A

the idea that people will lose a sense of awareness and can act dramatically different because of the influence of a group

234
Q

what is social loafing?

A

refers to a decrease in effort seen when individuals are in a group

235
Q

what is group polarization?

A

the tendency toward extreme decisions in a group

236
Q

what is groupthink?

A

tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas

given the pressure to conform and remain loyal to the group

237
Q

what is assimilation in societies with multiple cultures?

A

the process by which multiple cultures begin to merge into 1, typically with an unequal blending of ideas and beliefs

238
Q

what is multiculturalism?

A

refers to the ideas that multiple cultures should be encouraged and respected without one culture becoming dominiant overall

239
Q

what is inclusive fitness?

A

a measure of an organism’s success in the population. based on number of offspring and how sucessful those offspring are

240
Q

what is self-serving bias?

A

indivduals view their own success based on internal factors but view their failures based on external factors

the need to maintain self worth (self-enhancement) can be done via this method

241
Q

what is attribution theory?

A

the tendency for indiviuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior
attributions divided into 2 types:
-dispositional (internal) causes, which relate to the features of the target
-situational (external) causes, which relate to the features of the surroundings or context

242
Q

stereotypes lead to expecations of certain groups which can create conditions that lead to confirmation of the stereotype is referred to as what process?

A

self-fulfilling prophecy

243
Q

what is stereotype threat?

A

anxiety or concern about confirming a negative stereotype

244
Q

what is cultural relativism?

A

the recogntition that social groups and cultures should be studied on their own terms

245
Q

what is secure attachment?

A

upset depature of caregiver, comforted by return

trusts caregiver, who is viewed as a secure base

246
Q

what is avoidant attachment?

A

shows no preference for a stranger or a care giver

shows little distress at depature and little relief by return of caregiver

247
Q

what is ambivalent attachment?

A

distressed by depature of caregiver with mixed reaction to their return

248
Q

what is disorganized attachment?

A

no clear pattern of behavior

249
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?

psychoanalytic perspective:

A

the result of unconscious urges and desires

250
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?
humanistic perspective:

A

personality comes from conscious feelings about oneself resulting from healthy striving for self-realiztion

251
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?

Type perspective:

A

personalitites are sets of distinct qualities and dispositions into which people can be grouped

252
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?

Trait perspective:

A

personalities are assembled from having different degrees of certain qualities and dispositions

253
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?

Behaviorist perspective:

A

personality is the result of behavioral responses to stimuli based on prior rewards and punishments

254
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?

social cognitive perspective

A

personality comes from the interactions between an individual and his or her environment

255
Q

when it comes to personality. there are multiple perspectives, how do each perspective describe the development of personality?

biological perspective

A

personality is based on genetic influences and brain anatomy

256
Q

What are schemas?

A

Organized clusters of knowledge

257
Q

What is the concept of meritocracy?

A

Opportunity based on combination of talent and effort

258
Q

What is the psychoanalytic theory of personality?

A

The assumption of unconscious internal states that motivate the overt actions of individuals determine personality

258
Q

The ego’s resource for relieving anxiety caused by the clash of id and superego is through defense mechanisms. All defense mechanisms have what two characteristics?

A

1) they deny, falsify, or distort reality

2) they operate unconsciously

258
Q

There are 8 defense machnsisms that ego can use what are repression, suppression, and regression?

A

Repression: to disguise threatening impulses that may find their way back from the unconscious (unconscious forgetting)

Suppression: deliberate conscious form of forgetting

Regression: reversion to an earlier developmental state. In a stressful state, children may revert back to thumb sucking

z MCAT: Areas Of Opportunity (4 decks)

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