PSYCH Flashcards

1
Q

PSYCH HX + AX

What are the components of a psychiatric history?

A

PC, HPC, Past psych Hx, PMH, Medications (regular, OTC, allergies), FHx (mental + physical), personal Hx (timeline from birth–adulthood, education, employment, relationships, psychosexual), SH, Forensic Hx (law involvement either perpetrator/victim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PSYCH HX + AX

What are the components of a mental state examination?

A

ASEPTIC –

  • Appearance + behaviour
  • Speech
  • Emotions (mood + affect – objectively + subjectively).
  • Perceptions (hallucinations, etc).
  • Thoughts (alientation, disordered)
  • Insight
  • Cognition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PSYCH HX + AX

What should you do after a psychiatric assesssment?

A

Risk assessment at the end, consider how likely the event is, when it might occur + how bad the consequences will be (e.g. self-harm, harm to others, self-neglect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PSYCH HX + AX

What are the 5Ps in formulation and what do they mean?

A
  • Presenting problem (what the pt presents with)
  • Predisposing factors (what increases a pts risk of developing a mental illness)
  • Precipitating factors (potential trigger to the onset of current problem)
  • Perpetuating factors (what maintains the problem once it’s been established)
  • Protective factors (strengths that reduce the severity of problems)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PSYCH HX + AX

Give examples of what might come under the 5Ps (excluding presenting).

A
  • Predisposing = genetics, life events, temperament
  • Precipitating = abuse, drug misuse, loss of family
  • Perpetuating = drug abuse, lack of social support, financial difficulties
  • Protective = family support, children, marriage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

What is a mental disorder?

A

Any disorder or disability of the mind, excluding substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define psychosis

A

Severe mental disturbance characterised by a loss of contact with external reality (schizophrenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define neurosis

A

Relatively mild mental illness in which there is no loss of connection with reality (depression, anxiety)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define phenomenology

A

The study of signs + symptoms describing abnormal states of mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define illusion

A

The false perception of a real external stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define hallucination

A

An internal perception occurring without a corresponding external stimulus. The person experiences it as they would a real perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of hallucinations, what are...
i) the main senses?
ii) somatic?
iii) hypnogogic/hypnopompic
iv) autoscopic?
v) reflex?
vi) extracampine?
A

i) Auditory, visual, olfactory, gustatory, tactile
ii) within the person
iii) when going to sleep/when waking up
iv) seeing oneself
v) production of a hallucination in one sensory modality by a stimulus in a different modality
vi) hallucinations which are experienced outside the normal sensory field (seeing something behind them)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY
What is Charles-Bonnet Syndrome?
What conditions may it be seen in?

A
  • Complex visual hallucinations in a patient with partial/severe blindness (macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy).
  • Pts understand that the hallucinations are not real + so often have insight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define pseudo-hallucination

A

A perception in the absence of an external stimulus, experienced in one’s subjective inner space of the mind rather than external sensory objects – often have insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define over-valued idea

A

A false or exaggerated belief held with conviction but not with delusional intensity. This idea although perhaps reasonable, dominates their life + causes distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define delusion

A

A fixed, false, unshakable belief which is out of keeping with the patient’s educational, cultural + social norms. It’s held with extraordinary conviction + certainty (even despite contradictory evidence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of delusions, what are...
i) persecutory?
ii) grandiose?
iii) nihilistic?
iv) guilt?
A

i) the idea that someone/something is trying to inflict harm on them (being followed, poisoned, drugged, spied)
ii) idea that the person themselves are powerful/crucially important beyond truth
iii) theme involves intense feelings of emptiness, sense of everything being unreal
iv) ungrounded feeling of remorse or guilt for situations, can be due to a minor error or unrelated to them (may feel responsible for world disasters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of delusions, what are...
i) poverty?
ii) reference?
iii) inadequacy?
iv) religious?
A

i) pt strongly believes they are financially incapacitated
ii) false belief that insignificant remarks/objects in one’s environment have personal meaning/significance (newspaper has hidden text related to them)
iii) false belief of inability to accomplish tasks + meet expectations
iv) false belief related to religious themes/subject matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

What are the 3 delusional misidentification syndromes?

A
  • Capgras = idea someone has been replaced by an imposter.
  • Fregoli = idea various people are the same person
  • Intermetamorphosis = one significant relative is replaced by another (father is son).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define delusional perception and give an example

A

A primary delusion of two components – where a normal perception is subject to delusional interpretation
E.g. – traffic light changed red so that means I am the son of God

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define thought alienation. What are the 3 components of this?

A

Sx of psychosis in which patients feel that their own thoughts are in some way no longer in their control
Insertion = delusional belief thoughts placed into pts head from external
Withdrawal = delusional belief thoughts removed from head from external
Broadcast = delusional belief thoughts are accessible directly to others without expressing them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define concrete thinking

A

Loss of ability to understand abstract concepts + metaphorical ideas leading to a strictly literal form of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define thought disorder and formal thought disorder

A
TD = disorganised thinking as evidenced by disorganised speech/beliefs
FTD = pts expressive language (form) indicates that the links between consecutive thoughts aren't meaningful (disorganised speech evident from disorganised thinking)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of thought disorders, what is...
i) flight of ideas?
ii) pressure of speech?
iii) poverty of speech/alogia?
A

i) Abrupt leaps between topics as a result of thoughts presenting more rapidly than can be articulated. Each thought = more associations. ?Discernible links between successive ideas. Presents as pressure of speech.
ii) Rapid speech w/out pauses which is difficult to interrupt as a consequence of pressure of thought. Connection between sequential ideas may become increasingly hard to follow
iii) speech lacking in amount or content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of thought disorders, what is...
i) tangentiality?
ii) thought block?
iii) clang association (± alliteration)
iv) circumstantiality?
A

i) wandering from the topic + never returning to it or providing info asked
ii) sudden + unintentional break in chain of thought, may be explained as due to thought withdrawal
iii) severe form of flight of ideas whereby ideas are related only by similar/rhyming sounds rather than meaning
iv) irrelevant wandering in conversation (going around the point).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of thought disorders, what is...
i) loosening of association?
ii) perseveration?
iii) echolalia?
A

i) aka derailment/Knight’s move thinking = a lack of logical association between sequential thoughts, often leading to incoherent speech, impossible to follow train of thought.
ii) persistent repetition of words/ideas that were initially appropriate but continue past this point + when the topic changes
iii) repeating other’s words/phrases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
PHENOMENOLOGY
In terms of thought disorders, what is...
i) neologisms?
ii) incoherence/word salad?
iii) poverty of thought?
A

i) making up new words
ii) confused or unintelligible mixture of seemingly random words and phrases
iii) subjective experience of being devoid of thoughts + having a feeling of emptiness, often leads to poverty of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define confabulation + state what conditions you would find this in

A

Giving a false account to fill in a gap in memory.

Korsakoff’s psychosis + dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define passivity phenomena + somatic passivity

A
  • Delusion that one is a passive recipient of actions from an external agency against their will
  • The same but sensations are controlled by an external agency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define psychomotor retardation + state what conditions you would find this in

A
  • Slowing of thoughts + movements with decreased spontaneous movement, often due to subjective sense of actions being laborious
  • Parkinson’s, depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define incongruity of affect

A

Emotional responses that differs markedly from the expected emotion for the situation/subject like laughing whilst discussing trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define blunting of affect

A

A limited range of normal emotional responsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define flattening of affect

A

Diminution of the normal range of emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define depersonalisation + derealisation

A
  • Where a person doesn’t believe themselves to be real

- Where a person doesn’t believe the world/people around them to be real

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define obsession

A

Recurrent thoughts/feelings/images/impulses which are intrusive + persistent despite efforts to resist. They are recognised as the person’s own thoughts (insight preserved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define compulsion

A

Repetitive, purposeful behaviour performed in response to an obsession despite the recognition of its senselessness + anxiety if not performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define thought echo

A

Experience of an auditory hallucination in which the content is the individual’s current thoughts spoken aloud as if next to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define catatonia/stupor

A

Abnormality of movement + behaviour arising from a disturbed mental state, typically severe depression or schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define anhedonia

A

Inability to feel pleasure in normally pleasurable activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define belle indifference

A

A surprising lack of concern for, or denial of, apparently severe functional disability (not specific to psych)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define dissociation

A

When a person feels disconnected from themselves or their surroundings (including emotions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define conversion

A

Development of features suggestive of physical illness but which are attributed to psych illness or emotional disturbance rather than organic pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define sterotypy

A

Repetitive + bizarre act which is not goal-directed. Action may have delusional significance to the pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define mannerism

A

Abnormal + occasionally bizarre performance of voluntary, goal-directed activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

PHENOMENOLOGY

Define projection + give an example

A

What is emotionally unacceptable in the self is unconsciously rejected + projected to others (e.g. mother projects anxiety on children claiming they’re anxious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What does the main part of the MHA allow for?

A
  • ‘Sectioning’ = compulsory admission to hospital for those that are mentally ill.
  • Drs should persuade pts to come in voluntarily if they have capacity, but not always possible (esp if they lack insight)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What are the main principles of the MHA?

A
  • Respect for pts wishes + feelings (past + present)
  • Minimise restrictions on liberty
  • Public safety
  • Pts well-being + safety
  • Effectiveness of treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What is does an individual have to show to be sectioned?

A
  • Evidence of MH disorder
  • Evidence they’re serious risk to self, safety or others
  • Evidence there is good reason to warrant attention in hospital
  • Appropriate treatment must be available for a S3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983
What is a…
i) section 12 approved dr?
ii) approved mental health professional?

A

i) ≥ST4 Dr who has done extra training in MH to get S12 approved to section pts
ii) AMHPs are often social workers who have done extra training in MH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

Who can remove sections?

A
  • Consultant psychiatrist
  • MH review tribunal (MHT) if pt disagrees w/ section
  • Nearest relative can make an order to discharge pt from hospital with 72h written notice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

If a relative requests a section removal how can the clinician respond if they disagree?

A
  • Issue a barring report within 72h which stops discharge up to 6m from then
  • Can still apply to MHT if disagrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What is the purpose, duration, location + professionals involved for a Section 2?

A

P – admission for assessment, treatment can be given w/out consent
D – 28d, cannot be renewed, can be converted to S3
L – anywhere in community (airports, jail, A+E, etc)
Prof – 2 Drs (1x S12), 1 AMHP, or nearest relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983
What is the purpose, duration, location + professionals involved for a Section 3?
Who is involved if a pt is medicated without consent?

A

P – admission for treatment
D – 6m, can be renewed
L – anywhere in community
Prof – 2 Drs (1x S12), 1 AMHP, nearest relative
Second opinion appointed doctor (SOAD) – after 3m SOAD reviews if medication w/out consent is necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What is the purpose, duration, location + professionals involved, evidence needed for a Section 4?

A
P – emergency order
D – 72h
L – anywhere in community
P – 1 S12 Dr, 1 AMHP, nearest relative
E – same as S2 but only in an urgent necessity when waiting for a second dr (for a S2) would lead to undesirable delay/outcome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983
Where can you apply a S5?
What can the team not do?

A
  • Voluntary pt in hospital that wants to leave (NOT A+E as not admitted)
  • Coercively treat the pt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What is the purpose, duration + professionals involved for a Section 5(2)?

A

P – Drs holding power, allows for S2/3 assessment
D – 72h
Prof – 1 Dr (usually in charge of their care or nominated deputy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What is the purpose, duration + professionals involved for a Section 5(4)?

A

P – nurses holding power until Dr attends to assess
D – 6h
Prof – 1 registered nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

MENTAL HEALTH ACT 1983

What are the 2 police sections and their differences? What is the duration and purpose of these?

A
  • S135 – needs magistrates court order to access pts home + remove them
  • S136 –person suspected of having mental disorder in a public place
    D – 24h (extend to 36h if intoxicated but should be seen sooner)
    P – taken to place of safety (local psych unit, police cell) for further assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
What are the two types of anti-psychotics?
Give examples.

A
  • Typical/1st gen = haloperidol, zuclopenthixol (decanoate = depot), chlorpromazine
  • Atypical/2nd gen = olanzapine, risperidone (depot), clozapine, aripiprazole (depot), quetiapine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
What is the mechanism of action of typical anti-psychotics?
What is the issues?

A
  • Antagonism of Dopamine D2 receptors
  • Reduced release of dopamine from dopaminergic neurones + so reduced electrical activity in dopaminergic pathways
  • Not selective so can bind to other dopaminergic pathways causing generalised dopamine receptor blockade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
What pathway do typical anti-psychotics work on to…

i) have anti-psychotic effect?
ii) cause side effects?

A

i) Mesolimbic pathway (reduces +ve Sx)

ii) Nigrostriatal (Parkinsonism), tuberoinfundibular (prolactin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
What is the mechanism of action of atypical anti-psychotics?
What is the benefit of atypical anti-psychotics?
What anti-psychotic has a reduced SE profile and why?

A
  • Antagonists at dopamine D2 receptors but more selective in dopamine blockade + so block serotonin 5-HT2a
  • More useful in treating -ve Sx of schizophrenia + less likely to cause EPSEs
  • Aripiprazole as partial dopamine agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
What is the most crucial adverse effect of clozapine?
What is the most common adverse effect?
What other adverse effects may it have?

A
  • Severe life-threatening agranulocytosis
  • Constipation (big issue in elderly)
  • Reduced seizure threshold, hypersalivation (Rx hyoscine hydrobromide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What are the 5 broad categories of SEs caused by anti-psychotics?

A
  • Extra-pyramidal side effects (EPSEs)
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Metabolic
  • Anticholinergic
  • Neurological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What are the EPSEs?

A
  • Acute dystonic reaction
  • Parkinsonism
  • Akathisia
  • Tardive dyskinesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
How does Parkinsonism present?
How is it managed?

A
  • Bradykinesia, rigid, resting pill-rolling tremor + postural instability
  • Reduce dose or switch to atypical anti-psychotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
How does akathisia present?
What is a risk of this?
How is it managed?

A
  • Motor restlessness, typically lower legs (can’t sit still)
  • Massive RF for suicide in young men with schizophrenia
  • Reduce dose, introduce beta-blocker (propranolol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
How does tardive dyskinesia present?
When does it present?
How is it managed?

A
  • Purposeless involuntary movements (chewing, lip smacking, blinking, tongue protrusion)
  • After months-years of Tx
  • Prevention crucial, switch to atypical anti-psychotic, tetrabenazine used if mod–severe but unlikely to completely resolve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What are the SEs from hyperprolactinaemia?

A
  • Sexual dysfunction (+ anti-adrenergic)
  • Osteoporosis risk
  • Amenorrhoea
  • Galactorrhoea, gynaecomastia + hypogonadism in men
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What are the metabolic SEs?

A
  • Weight gain (esp. olanzapine)
  • Hyperlipidaemia, risk of stroke + VTE in elderly
  • T2DM risk + metabolic syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What are the anticholinergic SEs?

A
Can't see, pee, spit, shit –
- Blurred vision
- Urinary retention
- Dry mouth
- Constipation
\+ tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What are the neurological SEs?

A
  • Seizures
  • Postural hypotension (anti-adrenergic)
  • Sedation
  • Headaches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What baseline investigations are done for people starting on anti-psychotics?

A
  • FBC, U+Es, LFTs, lipids, BMI, fasting glucose, prolactin, BP, ECG (QTc prolongation) + smoking status (can reduce effects by enhancing metabolism so issues if suddenly stop)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS

What regular investigations are done for people on anti-psychotics?

A
  • Lipids + BMI at 3m
  • Fasting glucose + prolactin at 6m
  • Frequent BP during dose titration
  • FBC, U+Es, LFTs, lipids, BMI, fasting glucose, prolactin + CV risk yearly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ANTI-PSYCHOTICS
What specific monitoring is required for clozapine?
What happens if they miss a dose?

A
  • FBC at baseline + weekly for 18w, fortnightly until 1y + monthly after
  • If not taken for 48h needs retitrating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What monitoring is needed when starting someone on an anti-depressant?
When can an anti-depressant be stopped?

A
  • 2 weekly to ensure dose working + patient stable, may take up to 6w to start working, weekly if <30y as increased suicide risk
  • Carried on 6m after Sx resolved even if patient feels better
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
How should anti-depressants be stopped?
Why?

A
  • Gradual dose reduction over 4w
  • Sudden cessation can cause severe withdrawal effects (mostly GI) – pain, diarrhoea, vomiting, restlessness, sweating + mood change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs?
Give some examples

A
  • Prevents reuptake + subsequent degradation of serotonin from synaptic cleft by inhibiting its reuptake transporter on the post-synaptic membrane
  • Prolonged serotonin in synaptic cleft = prolonged neuronal activity
  • Citalopram, sertraline, fluoxetine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What are the side effects of SSRIs?

A
  • GI Sx most common (N+V, hyponatraemia, abdo pain, bowel issues, increased bleed risk)
  • Sedation + sexual impotence
  • Citalopram + QTc prolongation (dose-dependent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What are some cautions for SSRIs?

A
  • Suicidal thoughts may increase initially, esp. younger patients
  • May precipitate manic phase in bipolar
  • 1st trimester risk of CHD, 3rd trimester risk of persistent pulmonary HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What are some interactions for SSRIs?

A
  • NSAIDs + aspirin = increased risk of bleeding, co-prescribe PPI
  • Can lower seizure threshold
  • Do not start until 2w after stopping MAOI + vice-versa as increased risk of serotonin syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What is the mechanism of action of SNRIs?
Give some examples

A
  • Prevents reuptake + subsequent degradation of serotonin AND noradrenaline from synaptic cleft by inhibiting reuptake transporters on post-synaptic membrane
  • Venlafaxine, duloxetine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What are some side effects of SNRIs?
What are some interactions of SNRIs?

A
  • GI (N+V, constipation), central/peripheral effects (SIADH, rhabdomyolysis)
  • NSAIDs + warfarin (increased risk of bleeding), lower seizure threshold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What is the mechanism of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)?
Give some examples.

A
  • Inhibits monoamine oxidase enzyme which reduces breakdown of adrenaline, noradrenaline + serotonin so increases level
  • Selegiline is selective MAO-B inhibitor which also increases dopamine
  • Isocarboxazid, phenelzine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What are some side effects from MAOIs?

A
  • Sexual dysfunction, weight gain + postural hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What are some cautions with MAOIs?

A
  • Increased risk of serotonin syndrome if used with other serotonergic drugs
  • Hypertensive crisis with ingestion of foods containing tyramine (aged cheeses, smoked/cured meats, pickled herring, Bovril, Marmite)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What is the mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
Give some examples

A
  • Prevents reuptake + subsequent degradation of serotonin + noradrenaline from synaptic cleft by inhibiting reuptake transporters on post-synaptic neuronal membrane
  • Amitriptyline, dosulepin, imipramine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What are the side effects of TCAs?

A
  • Anticholinergic (can’t see, pee, spit, shit)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

What cautions are there for TCAs?

A
  • Caution in CVD, avoid following MI

- Cardiotoxic in overdose so caution in suicidal patients (QTc prolongation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
In terms of TCA overdose…

i) mild-moderate Sx?
ii) severe Sx?
iii) ECG signs?
iv) management?

A

i) Dilated pupils, dry mouth, urinary retention, increased tendon reflexes + extensor plantars
ii) Fits, coma, cardiac arrhythmias > arrest
iii) Sinus tachy, wide QRS, prolonged QT interval
iv) Sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

ANTI-DEPRESSANTS
What is the mechanism of action of mirtazapine?
What are some side effects?

A
  • Blocks alpha-2 adrenergic receptors > increased release of neurotransmitters
  • Increased appetite + weight gain + sedation are big ones, also increased triglyceride levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

MOOD STABILISERS
What are some examples of mood stabilisers?
What is the mechanism of action?
Important drug information?

A
  • Lithium (first line), AEDs such as valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine
  • Lithium inhibits cAMP production which inhibits monoamines
  • Narrow therapeutic range 0.4–1.0mmol/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

MOOD STABILISERS

What are the side effects of lithium?

A

LITHIUM –
- Leukocytosis
- Insipidus (diabetes, nephrogenic)
- Tremors (fine if SE, coarse if toxicity)
- Hydration (easily dehydrates, renally cleared)
- Increased GI motility (N+V, diarrhoea)
- Underactive thyroid
- Mums beware (Ebstein’s anomaly)
Can cause weight gain + derm (acne, psoriasis) long-term too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

MOOD STABILISERS

What drugs does lithium interact with?

A
  • NSAIDs, ACEi, ARBs + diuretics may increase lithium levels

- Diuretics = dehydration, NSAIDs = renal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

MOOD STABILISERS

What baseline measurements are taken for lithium?

A
  • FBC, U+Es, eGFR, TFTs, BMI + ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

MOOD STABILISERS

What regular monitoring is done for lithium?

A
  • Weekly serum lithium after initiation + dose changes until stable then every 3m for a year, then every 6m (sample taken 12h after dose)
  • 6m = TFTs, U+Es, eGFR
  • Annual = BMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

MOOD STABILISERS

What might carbamazepine and lamotrigine interfere with?

A
  • Contraceptive pill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

BDZs

What is the mechanism of action of anxiolytics/benzodiazepines (BDZs)?

A
  • Enhance effect of inhibitory GABA by increasing frequency of Cl- channels + flow of Cl- ions causing hyperpolarisation of membrane + so prevention of further excitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

BDZs
Give some examples of BDZs?
What are they suitable for?

A
  • Diazepam (longer duration), lorazepam + temazepam (shorter duration), clonazepam, chlordiazepoxide
  • Short-term Tx (<4w), sedation + anxiolytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

BDZs

What are some adverse effects of BDZs?

A
  • Amnesia, ataxia (esp elderly = falls risk), confusion, drowsiness, dizziness next day (hangover effect), tolerance
  • Monitor for resp depression (caution in resp disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

BDZs
What drugs can BDZs interact with?
How would you manage an overdose? Risk of this?

A
  • Anti-hypertensives as enhanced hypotensive effect

- IV flumazenil (danger of inducing status epilepticus or death though)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

HYPNOTICS
What is the mechanism of action of hypnotics?
Give some examples
What are the adverse effects?

A
  • GABA agonists on alpha2-subunit of GABA(A)-BDZ receptor/Cl- channel complex
  • Zopiclone, zolpidem, BDZs used for hypnotic effect (lorazepam, temazepam)
  • Same as BDZs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

ECT
What are the reasons why ECT can be done?
When is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) recommended?

A
  • Rapid improvement of severe Sx after adequate trial of other Tx proven ineffective and/or condition potentially life threatening
  • Severe mania or depression, suicide risk, catatonia, Rx resistant psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

ECT

What are some contraindications to ECT?

A
  • NO absolute, all relative
  • General anaesthesia (reactions)
  • Cerebral aneurysm
  • Recent MI, arrhythmias
  • Intracerebral haemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

ECT

What are some adverse effects of ECT?

A
  • Short-term retrograde amnesia
  • Headache
  • Confusion + clumsiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

DEPRESSION
What is depression?
How common is it?

A
  • Persistent low mood ± loss of pleasure in activities – unipolar depression.
  • 2–6% prevalence globally, F>M but men more likely to be substance misusers + commit suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

DEPRESSION

What are 2 theories speculating the causes of depression?

A
  • Stress vulnerability = someone with high vulnerability will withstand less stress before becoming mentally unwell
  • Monoamine hypothesis = depression caused by deficiency in monoamines (serotonin, noradrenaline) hence why Tx works
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

DEPRESSION

What are the biological causes of depression?

A
  • Personal/FHx + genetics
  • Personality traits (dependent, anxious, avoidant)
  • Physical illness (hypothyroid, anaemia, childbirth)
  • Iatrogenic (beta-blockers, steroids, substance misuse)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

DEPRESSION
What are the…

i) psychological
ii) social

causes of depression?

A

i) Disrupted relationships, child abuse, poor coping mechanisms
ii) Low socioeconomic status, poor social support, discrimination, divorce, refugee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some risk factors for depression?

A
  • Physical co-morbidities, esp. chronic + painful (MS, stroke, DM)
  • Genetics + FHx, female, older age, substance abuse
  • Traumatic events (+ve/-ve) like divorce/marriage, (un)employment, poverty, loss
  • Adverse childhood experiences like abuse, poor parent relationships
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

DEPRESSION

What are the 3 diagnostic criteria for depression?

A
  • Sx present most days ≥2 weeks + change from baselines
  • Sx not attributable to other organic or substance causes
  • Sx impair daily function + cause significant distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

DEPRESSION

What are the three core symptoms of depression?

A
  • Low mood
  • Anhedonia
  • Anergia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some psychological symptoms of depression?

A
  • Guilt, worthlessness, hopelessness
  • Self-harm/suicidality
  • Low self-esteem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some cognitive symptoms of depression?

A
  • Beck’s triad = negative views about oneself, the world + the future
  • Poor concentration + impaired memory
  • Avoiding social contact + performing poorly at work (social Sx too)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some somatic, or biological, symptoms of depression?

A
  • Disturbed sleep (EMW, initial insomnia, frequent waking)
  • Disturbed appetite + weight
  • Loss of libido
  • Diurnal mood variation (worse in morning)
  • Psychomotor retardation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

DEPRESSION

What are the 4 classifications of depression?

A
  • Mild = ≥2 core + ≥2 other (minimal interference)
  • Mod = ≥2 core + ≥3 other (variable interference)
  • Severe = all core + ≥4 other (marked interference)
  • Psychotic = Sx of depression + psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some features of psychotic depression?

A
  • Mood congruent hallucinations (auditory = derogatory or accusatory voices, olfactory = bad smells)
  • Nihilistic delusions
  • Delusions of poverty, guilt, hypochondriacal
  • Catatonia or marked psychomotor retardation (depressive stupor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

DEPRESSION

What is Cotard’s syndrome?

A
  • Delusional belief that they are dead, do not exist, are rotting or have lost their blood + internal organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

DEPRESSION
What are some…

i) psychiatric
ii) organic

differentials for depression?

A

i) Dysthymia, stress-related disorders, bipolar, schizophrenia, anxiety, substance misuse/withdrawal
ii) Dementia, Parkinson’s, anaemia, hypoglycaemia, Addison’s, Cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some complications of depression?

A
  • Reduce QOL
  • Increased morbidity + mortality (IHD, DM)
  • Suicide (20x more likely than gen pop)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

DEPRESSION

What are some investigations for depression?

A
  • FBC, ESR, B12/folate, U+Es, LFTs, TFTs, glucose, Ca2+
  • ECG, MSE + risk assessment
  • Urine drug screen
  • PHQ-9 + HADS to screen for depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

DEPRESSION

When would you consider hospital admission ± MHA in depression?

A
  • Serious risk of suicide or harm to others
  • Severe depressive or psychotic symptoms
  • Initiation of ECT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

DEPRESSION

What is the management of mild depression?

A
  • Watchful waiting
  • Low-intensity psychosocial interventions first line (computerised CBT, individual-guided CBT, structured group physical activity programme) + psychoeducation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

DEPRESSION

Should biological therapy be used in mild depression?

A

No unless…

  • Consider if PMH mod-severe depression
  • Mild depression for 2y or persists after interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

DEPRESSION

What is the management of moderate–severe depression?

A
  • Combination of SSRI + high-intensity psychosocial interventions first line
  • CBT with professional, interpersonal therapy, behavioural activation therapy
  • Psychoeducation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

DEPRESSION

What is the CAMHS management of depression?

A
  • Watch + wait, lifestyle
  • First-line = CBT ± family ± interpersonal therapy (may need intensive if no response)
  • 1st line antidepressant = fluoxetine
  • Mood + feelings questionnaire (MFQ) to follow-up monitoring in secondary care to assess progress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

DEPRESSION

What is the management for resistant depression?

A
  • Different antidepressants (SNRI, MAOI, mirtazapine) or sometimes two
  • Augmentation with lithium, atypical antipsychotic or tryptophan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

DEPRESSION

What is the management of psychotic depression?

A
  • ECT first line + v effective in severe cases followed by antidepressant
  • Antipsychotic initiated before antidepressant if ?primary psychotic disorder then add SSRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

DEPRESSION
What is atypical depression?
What is the management?

A
  • Mood depressed but reactive
  • Hypersomnia (>10h/day)
  • Hyperphagia (excessive eating + weight gain)
  • Leaden paralysis (heaviness in limbs ≥1h/day)
  • Oversensitivity to perceived rejection
  • Phenelzine or another MAOI, if not SSRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

DEPRESSION
What is dysthymia?
What is the management?

A
  • Chronic, low-grade or sub-threshold depressive Sx which don’t meet diagnostic criteria over a long period of time
  • Typically >2y of mildly depressed mood + diminished enjoyment, less severe but more chronic
  • SSRIs + CBT first line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

DEPRESSION
What is seasonal affective disorder?
What is the management?

A
  • Episodes of depression which recur annually at same time each year (Jan-Feb) with remission in between
  • Light therapy + SSRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE
What is self-harm?
What are some causes?
Why do people self harm?

A
  • Act of intentionally injuring yourself
  • Bullying, bereavement, homophobia, low self-esteem
  • Feel in control, reduces feelings of tension or distress, if they feel guilty can be a punishment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE
What are some methods of self-harm?
What are some risk factors?
What does previous self-harm indicate?

A
  • Self-poisoning (paracetamol), cutting, head banging
  • F, social deprivation, single or divorced, LGBTQ+, mental illness
  • Greatest predictor of future self-harm + increased suicide risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE
What is suicide?
What are some methods?
Why is depression higher in females but suicide higher in males?

A
  • Act of intentionally ending your life
  • Overdose, violent means (jumping from height, into traffic, hanging, cutting)
  • Men tend to use violent means which are irreversible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE
What is parasuicide?
Why might this occur?

A
  • Act that mimics suicide but does not result in death

- Someone interrupts them, not enough pills, vomited some of the substances out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE

What are some risk factors for suicide?

A
SAD PERSONS –
- Sex (M>F)
- Age (peaks in young + old)
- Depression
- Previous attempt
- Ethanol
- Rational thinking loss (psychotic illness)
- Social support lacking (unemployed, homeless)
- Organised plan (avoid discovery, plan, notes, final acts)
- No spouse
- Sickness (physical illness)
0–4 low, 5–6 mod (?hospital), ≥7 high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE

What are some protective factors for suicide?

A
  • Married men
  • Active religious beliefs
  • Social support
  • Good employment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE

What are some indicators someone may commit suicide?

A
  • Obsessive thoughts of death, feelings of hopeless/helplessness
  • Active planning (buy equipment, manage affairs, leave notes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE

How should a suicide assessment be conducted?

A
  • Before (?trigger) – amount of planning, notes, final acts?
  • During – method, attempt to avoid discovery, lethality?
  • After – regret? Intend to re-attempt? Evidence of hopelessness?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE

How should paracetamol overdose be managed?

A
  • Acetylcysteine if staggered (>1h) or above treatment line

- Rarely if present <1h then activated charcoal can be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

SELF-HARM + SUICIDE

What is the general management for suicide?

A
  • Plan for further suicidal thoughts + coping strategies
  • Reduce social isolation, regular contact with services
  • Manage depression (if present)
  • ?Inpatient stay or ECT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER
What is bipolar affective disorder?
When is the peak age of onset?

A
  • Recurrent episodes of altered mood + activity involving both upswings or (hypo)mania + downswings or depression
  • Early 20s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What are the 4 types of bipolar?

A
  • Bipolar 1 = mania + depression in equal proportions, M>F
  • Bipolar 2 = more episodes of depression, mild hypomania (easy to miss), F>M
  • Cyclothymia = chronic mood fluctuations over ≥2y (episodes of depression + hypomania, can be subclinical)
  • Rapid cycling = ≥4 episodes of (hypo)mania or depression in 1 year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER
What are some potential causes of bipolar?
What are some risk factors?

A
  • Structural brain abnormalities, neurotransmitter imbalances
  • FHx of depression or bipolar, genetics, traumatic life event (abuse), drugs + other meds (antidepressants, BDZs, steroids) + sleep deprivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What is the diagnostic criteria for bipolar?

A
  • ≥2 episodes of mood disturbance (1 or which MUST be [hypo]manic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What is the clinical presentation of hypomania?

A

> 4d with ≥3 Sx –

  • Elevated mood (euphoria)
  • Increased energy
  • Increased talkativeness
  • Poor concentration
  • Mild reckless behaviour (overspending)
  • Over-familiar, increased self-esteem
  • Increased libido
  • Decreased need for sleep
  • Appetite change
  • Partial insight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What is the clinical presentation of mania?

A

> 1w with ≥3 Sx –

  • Extreme elation or irritability
  • Overactivity + distractibility
  • Pressure of speech + flight of ideas
  • Impaired judgement
  • Extreme risks (jump off buildings, spending spree)
  • Social disinhibition + grandiosity
  • Sexual disinhibition
  • Decreased need for sleep, restless
  • MOOD CONGRUENT PSYCHOTIC Sx
  • TOTAL loss of insight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER
In order to differentiate a manic and hypomanic episode, psychotic symptoms must be present.
What are some of these?

A
  • Grandiose idea may be delusional
  • Persecutory delusions sometimes
  • Pressure speech may become so great that it’s incomprehensible
  • Irritability > violence
  • Preoccupation with thoughts > self-neglect
  • Catatonia ‘manic stupor’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER
What are some…

i) psychiatric
ii) organic

differentials for bipolar?

A

i) substance abuse (cocaine, amphetamines), schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, ADHD
ii) Hyperthyroidism, steroid-induced psychosis, Cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What investigations would you perform in suspected bipolar?

A
  • Full Hx, MSE + physical exam to exclude organic

- FBC, U+Es, LFTs, glucose, TFTs, calcium, syphilis serology, urine drug test, ?neuroimaging if SOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What is the acute biological management of bipolar disorder?

A
  • Antipsychotic (olanzapine, risperidone)
  • Lithium (both acutely + long-term) is first-line
  • ?Stop any antidepressants as can precipitate mania
  • ?ECT if severely psychotic, catatonic or suicide risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER

What is the long-term biological management of bipolar disorder?

A
  • Lithium first-line (antipsychotics in pregnancy)

- Fluoxetine SSRI of choice if depressive episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

BIPOLAR DISORDER
What type of referral would you do in bipolar?
What is the psychological management of bipolar disorder?

A
  • Hypomania = routine CMHT referral, mania or severe depression = urgent
  • CBT for depression, bipolar support groups + psychoeducation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What is schizophrenia?
What area of the brain is most affected?

A
  • Splitting or dissociation of thoughts, loss of contact with reality
  • Temporal lobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What is the neurodevelopmental hypothesis in schizophrenia?

A
  • Hypoxic brain injury, viral infections in-utero, TLE + cannabis smoking = risk of schizophrenia indicating brain development link
  • Imaging has showed enlarged ventricles (poor prognostic feature), small amounts of grey matter loss + smaller, lighter brains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What is the neurotransmitter hypothesis in schizophrenia?

A
  • Excess dopamine + overactivity in mesolimbic tract = +ve Sx
  • Lack of dopamine + underactivity in mesocortical tracts = -ve Sx
  • Overactivity of dopamine, serotonin, noradrenaline + underactivity of glutamate + GABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What is the epidemiology of schizophrenia?
What are some risk factors?

A
  • 1% lifetime risk, M=F, mortality 25y before gen pop.
  • Affects 1/100, 2 incidence peaks – men earlier (18–25), women (25–35)
  • Strongest RF = FHx, others = Black Caribbean, migrants, urban areas, cannabis use + traumatic pregnancy (emergency c-section)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What are the 6 different types of schizophrenia?

A
  • Paranoid (most common)
  • Hebephrenic
  • Simple
  • Catatonic
  • Undifferentiated
  • Residual (‘burnt out’)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What are the features of…

i) paranoid
ii) hebephrenic
iii) simple

schizophrenia?

A

i) Persecutory delusions + auditory hallucinations
ii) Dx in adolescents with mood changes, unpredictable behaviour, shallow affect + fragmentary hallucinations, poor outlook as -ve Sx may develop rapidly
iii) Pts never really experienced +ve Sx, mostly -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What are the features of…

i) catatonic
ii) undifferentiated
iii) residual

schizophrenia?

A

i) Psychomotor disturbance such as posturing, rigidity + stupor
ii) Sx do not fit neatly into other subtypes
iii) Previous +ve symptoms less marked, prominent -ve Sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What can cause schizophrenia?

A
  • Thought to be combination of biopsychosocial factors

- Schizophrenia susceptibility + emotional life experiences may = trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?
What is the relevance?

A
  • Delusional perceptions
  • Auditory hallucinations (3 types)
  • Thought alienation (insertion, withdrawal + broadcasting)
  • Passivity phenomenon, incl. somatic
  • ≥1 for at least 1m is strongly suggestive Dx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What are the three types of auditory hallucinations that count as a first rank symptom?

A
  • 3rd person = talking about the patient (he/she)
  • Running commentary = often on person’s actions or thoughts
  • Thought echo = thoughts spoken aloud
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What are some secondary symptoms of schizophrenia?
What is the relevance?

A
  • 2nd person auditory or hallucinations in other modalities
  • Other delusions (persecutory, reference)
  • Formal thought disorder
  • Lack of insight
  • Negative Sx (incl. catatonia)
  • ≥2 for at least 1m is strongly suggestive Dx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What is the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • +ve = presence of change in behaviour or thought, something added (all of the first rank + secondary Sx)
  • -ve = decline in normal functioning, something removed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Often early prodromal, 5As –
- Affect blunting, flattening or incongruity
- Anhedonia + amotivation
- Asociality
- Alogia (poverty of speech)
- Apathy
(Delusional mood = ominous feeling of something impending)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What are some…

i) psychiatric
ii) organic
iii) substance

differentials for schizophrenia?

A

i) Delusional disorder, transient psychosis, mania, psychotic depression
ii) TLE, encephalitis, delirium, syphilis/HIV, SOL
iii) Drug-induced psychosis, alcoholic hallucinosis, steroid-induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What are the investigations for first-episode psychosis?

A
  • Full Hx, MSE + risk assessment
  • FBC, CRP/ESR, U+Es, LFTs, TFTs, fasting glucose, Ca2+, phosphate, B12 + folate
  • Urine + serum drugs screen
  • ?Serological syphilis + HIV
  • CT/MRI head if ?SOL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What teams would be involved in the management of schizophrenia?

A
  • Early intervention team = initial referral after first episode psychosis
  • CMHT = provide daily support + treatment
  • Crisis resolution team = pts with acute psychotic episode, often pre-existing diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What would warrant hospital admission ± MHA in schizophrenia?

A
  • High risk of suicide or homicide
  • Severe psychotic, depressive or catatonic Sx
  • Failure of OP treatment or non-compliance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What is the biological management of schizophrenia?

A
  • Anti-psychotic (tailor SE profile to patient)

- Aim for minimal effective dose, use depot if non-compliant to prevent relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
What is treatment resistant schizophrenia?
What is the management?

A
  • ≥2 antipsychotics (1 atypical) trialled for ≥6w but ineffective
  • Clozapine
  • ECT is last line if resistant to therapy or catatonic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What is the psychological management for schizophrenia?

A
  • All patients offered CBT

- Family therapy + psychoeducation to reduce or notice relapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA

What is the social management of schizophrenia?

A
  • Social work + housing involvement may be needed
  • Drop-in community centres + support groups
  • Substance misuse service if needed
  • Depot non-attendance at GP/CPN appt may act as early warning system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

SCHIZOPHRENIA
After a Mental Health Act detention, what approach should be taken to their care?
What does it involve?

A
  • Care programme approach

- Assess health + social needs, create care plan, appoint key worker as point of contact + review treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

PARAPHRENIA
What is paraphrenia?
How does it compare to schizophrenia?

A
  • Late-onset schizophrenia >45y

- Less emotional blunting + personality decline, F>M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

PARAPHRENIA
Why is it often undiagnosed?
What are some risk factors?

A
  • Older patients tend to be socially isolated

- Social isolation, poor eyesight + hearing, reclusive + suspicious pre-morbid personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

PARAPHRENIA
What is the clinical presentation of paraphrenia?
How is it managed?

A
  • Delusions, hallucinations + paranoia usually about neighbours
  • Partition delusions where they believe people + objects can go through walls
  • Less -ve Sx + formal thought disorder
  • Low dose antipsychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

TRANSIENT PSYCHOSIS
What is transient psychosis?
What may cause it?
What is it associated with?

A
  • Brief psychotic episodes that last less than time required to diagnose schizophrenia (<1m)
  • Usually resolves within that time
  • Acute stressor (loss, marriage, unemployment)
  • Paranoid, borderline + histrionic personality disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

DELUSIONAL DISORDER

What is a delusional disorder?

A
  • Pt experiences strong delusional beliefs (often non-bizarre) + perceptions but with the absence of prominent hallucinations, thought or mood disorder or significant flattened affect
  • ICD 10 ≥3m (if less it’s persistent delusional disorder)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

DELUSIONAL DISORDER

What is erotomania or De Clerambault’s syndrome?

A
  • Delusion in which patient (usually single woman) believes another person (typically higher social status) is in love with them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

DELUSIONAL DISORDER

What is Othello syndrome?

A
  • Delusional jealousy

- Patients (typically men) possess fixed belief that their partner has been unfaithful + often try to collect evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

DELUSIONAL DISORDER

How else might delusional disorder present?

A
  • Delusions about illness, cancer or skin infestation
  • Grandiose delusions
  • Persecutory delusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

DELUSIONAL DISORDER

What is the management of delusional disorder?

A
  • Antipsychotics, ?SSRIs

- Individual therapy = establish therapeutic alliance, maybe CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

SCHIZOAFFECTIVE
What is schizoaffective disorder?
What are the two types?
How does it differ to schizophrenia?

A
  • Features of both affective disorder + schizophrenia present in equal proportion
  • Manic type or depressive type
  • Psychotic Sx tend to wax + wane, unlike in schizophrenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

SCHIZOAFFECTIVE
What is the prognosis of schizoaffective disorder?
What is the management of it?

A
  • Better than schizophrenia but worse than primary mood disorders
  • Antipsychotics, mood stabilisers of antidepressants (depends on affective disorder)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

GAD
What is Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
What can it be comorbid with?

A
  • Syndrome of excessive, persistent worry + apprehensive feelings about everyday events that the patient recognises as excessive + inappropriate
  • Other anxiety disorders, depression, substance abuse, IBS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

GAD

What are 3 cardinal features of GAD?

A
  • Symptoms of muscle + psychic tension
  • Causes significant distress + functional impairment
  • No particular stimulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

GAD

What is the epidemiology of GAD?

A
  • Highest prevalence 45–69y, F>M
  • Early onset = childhood fears + marital or sexual disturbance
  • Late onset = stressful event, single, unemployment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

GAD

What model can be used to explain the causes of GAD?

A

Triple vulnerability –

  • Generalised biological
  • Generalised psychological (diminished sense of control)
  • Specific psychological (stressful events)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

GAD

What are some organic differentials for GAD?

A
  • Endo = hyperthyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hypoglycaemia
  • CVS = arrhythmias, cardiac failure, anti-hypertensives, MI
  • Resp = asthma (excessive salbutamol), COPD, PE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

GAD

What are some risk factors for GAD?

A
  • Alcohol, BDZs or stimulants (particularly withdrawal)
  • Co-existing depression, FHx, female
  • Child abuse/neglect or excessively pushy parents
  • Life stresses (finance, divorce)
  • Physical health problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

GAD
What is the ICD criteria of GAD?
What are the groups of symptoms present in GAD?

A
  • Difficulty controlling worry, present for more days than not for ≥6m
  • ≥4 symptoms with ≥1 from autonomic arousal section
  • Autonomic arousal, physical, mental, general, tension, other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

GAD
What symptoms in GAD come under the following categories…

i) autonomic arousal?
ii) physical?
iii) mental?
iv) general?
v) tension?
vi) other?

A

i) Palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, tremor
ii) Breathing issues, choking, CP, nausea, abdo distress
iii) Dizzy, derealisation + depersonalisation, fear of losing control, impending death
iv) Numbness + tingling, hot flushes + chills, sleep issues (initial insomnia, fatigue on waking)
v) Muscle aches + pains, restless, lump in throat
vi) Exaggerated responses to minor surprises/startled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

GAD

What are the investigations for GAD?

A
  • History, MSE + risk assessment
  • GAD-7 + Hospital Anxiety + Depression Scale (HADS) questionnaire
  • Exclude organic (FBC, U+Es, LFTs, TFTs, fasting glucose, PTH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

GAD

What is the stepwise management for GAD?

A
  • Education + active monitoring, exercise
  • Low-intensity psychological interventions like individual self-help or groups
  • High-intensity psychological interventions (CBT, applied relaxation, arts + music therapy) or biological management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

GAD

What is the role of CBT in GAD?

A
  • Cognitive = educate about bodily response to anxiety

- Behavioural = use of relaxation to overcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

GAD

What is the biological management used in GAD?

A
  • Sertraline first line, if ineffective offer alternative SSRI or SNRI
  • If SSRI/SNRI not tolerated then pregabalin
  • Beta-blockers like propranolol for physical Sx sometimes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

GAD

What is the CAMHS management of GAD?

A
  • Watch + wait
  • Self-help (meditation, mindfulness), diet + exercise
  • CBT, counselling + SSRI like sertraline may be considered if more severe (specialists)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What is panic disorder?

A
  • Recurrent panic attacks that are unpredictable + unrestricted in terms of situation, ≥4/week for ≥4w
  • Usually persistent worry about having another attack
  • Chronic relapsing condition > distress + social dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What is a panic attack?

A
  • Period of intense fear characterised by range of physical Sx that develop rapidly, peak intensity at 10m, generally no longer than 20–30m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What is the epidemiology of panic disorder?

A
  • Females 2–3x more likely

- Bimodal distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

PANIC DISORDER
What is panic disorder associated with?
What are some risk factors?

A
  • Meds like SSRIs, BDZs, zopiclone withdrawal

- Widowed, divorced or separated, living in city, limited education, physical or sexual abuse, FHx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What are the 3 key elements of panic disorder?

A
  • Sudden onset panic attack with ≥4 characterised Sx
  • Not necessarily associated with a specific stimulus
  • Pt preoccupied with suffering death or severe life-threatening illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What are the features of panic attacks?

A

Same as GAD but in discrete attacks –

  • Palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, tremor
  • Breathing issues, choking, CP, nausea, abdo distress
  • Dizzy, derealisation + depersonalisation, fear of losing control, impending death
  • Numbness + tingling, hot flushes + chills, muscle aches + pains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What is the stepwise management of panic disorder?

A
  • Recognition + diagnosis with treatment in primary care
  • CBT or drug therapy (SSRIs 1st line, if C/I or no response after 12w then imipramine or clomipramine)
  • Psychodynamic psychotherapy + specialist MH services if severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

PANIC DISORDER

What is the social management of panic disorder?

A
  • Healthy eating, exercise, avoid caffeine.

- Meditation, mindfulness, self-help groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS

What is a simple or specific phobia?

A
  • Recurring excessive + unreasonable anxiety attacks, in the (anticipated) presence of a specific feared object or situation, leading to avoidance if possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS
What might people be phobic of?
Give some examples.

A
  • Animals, blood, injection or injury, situational, natural environment
  • Emetophobia, claustrophobia, arachnophobia, iatrophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS

What is the epidemiology of simple phobias?

A
  • F>M

- Mean age is 15 (animal phobias can be as young as 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS

What are some potential causes of phobias?

A
  • Psychoanalytical = phobia is symbolic representation of repressed unconscious conflict
  • Learning theory = conditioned fear response to traumatic situation with learned avoidance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS

What is the clinical presentation of simple phobias?

A

Same features as GAD but to a specific stimulus –

  • Palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, tremor
  • Breathing issues, choking, CP, nausea, abdo distress
  • Dizzy, derealisation + depersonalisation, fear of losing control, impending death
  • Numbness + tingling, hot flushes + chills, muscle aches + pains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS

What is the management of simple phobias?

A
  • Exposure + response prevention (ERP)
  • CBT (education + anxiety management, coping strategies)
  • BDZs in severe cases to reduce avoidance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

SIMPLE PHOBIAS
What are the two methods of ERP?
Which is preferred?

A
  • Desensitisation with relaxation + graded exposure
  • Flooding where exposed to most frightening situation instantly
  • Desensitisation as flooding can be highly traumatic
215
Q

AGORAPHOBIA

What is agoraphobia?

A
  • Anxiety + panic symptoms associated with places or situations where escape may be difficult or embarrassing leading to avoidance.
  • ≥2 from: crowds, public places, travelling alone or away from home.
216
Q

AGORAPHOBIA
What may be seen in patients with agoraphobia?
What is the epidemiology?

A
  • Predisposition towards overly interpreting situations as dangerous
  • F>M, 15–35y, may have co-morbid panic disorder
217
Q

AGORAPHOBIA

What is the clinical presentation of agoraphobia?

A

Same as GAD but to the specific situations –

  • Palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, tremor
  • Breathing issues, choking, CP, nausea, abdo distress
  • Dizzy, derealisation + depersonalisation, fear of losing control, impending death
  • Numbness + tingling, hot flushes + chills, sleep issues (initial insomnia, fatigue on waking)
218
Q

AGORAPHOBIA

What is the biological management of agoraphobia?

A
  • SSRIs as for panic disorder

- BDZs for short-term use only (clonazepam)

219
Q

AGORAPHOBIA

What is the psychological management of agoraphobia?

A
  • CBT (teach about bodily responses related to anxiety and exposure + desensitisation techniques, relaxation training)
220
Q

SOCIAL PHOBIA

What is social phobia?

A
  • Sx of incapacitating anxiety that are restricted to particular social situations, leading to a desire for escape or avoidance (may reinforce belief of social inadequacy)
221
Q

SOCIAL PHOBIA

What is the epidemiology of social phobia?

A
  • Bimodal distribution with peaks at 5y + 11–15y, may present in 30s
222
Q

SOCIAL PHOBIA

What is the clinical presentation of social phobia?

A

≥2 Somatic Sx in response to the situation –

  • Blushing, trembling, dry mouth, sweating
  • Excessive fear of humiliation, embarrassment, micturition or others noticing how anxious they are.
  • Characteristically self-critical + perfectionist
223
Q

SOCIAL PHOBIA

What is the impact of social phobia?

A
  • Avoiding situations may lead to relationship issues, education + vocational problems (difficulty interacting with others, presentations)
224
Q

SOCIAL PHOBIA

What is the biological management of social phobia?

A
  • SSRIs (sertraline) > SNRIs > MAOIs
  • Beta-blockers like propranolol
  • Clonazepam may be useful short-term
225
Q

SOCIAL PHOBIA

What is the psychological management of social phobia?

A
  • Either individual or group CBT first-line with SSRI (relaxation training, social skills, graded exposure)
  • Psychodynamic psychotherapy
226
Q

OCD

What is obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A
  • Condition characterised by obsessions + compulsions which must cause distress or interfere with their social or individual functioning (usually by wasting time)
227
Q

OCD

What are some examples of obsessions and compulsions?

A
  • Obsessions = being followed, everything being dirty or contaminated
  • Compulsions = checking, washing, doubting, bodily fears, counting, symmetry, aggressive thoughts
228
Q

OCD
What are the two types of compulsions?
What is the natural cycle in OCD?

A
  • Overt = can be observed (checking the door)
  • Covert = can’t be observed (repeating a phrase in their mind)
  • Obsession > anxiety > compulsion > relief
229
Q

OCD
What is the epidemiology of OCD?
What is a potential cause of OCD?

A
  • Adolescents or early adulthood (20y mean age), M=F

- Neurochemical dysregulation of 5-HT system

230
Q

OCD

What are some risk factors for OCD?

A
  • Genetics = FHx of OCD or tic disorder
  • Abuse, neglect, teasing + bullying
  • Parental overprotection
  • Paediatric neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococci (PANDAS)
231
Q

OCD

What are the key features of OCD?

A
  • Obsessions ± compulsions present most days >2w
  • Acknowledged as excessive + unreasonable + originate from inside patient’s mind (not influenced by outside)
  • Repetitive or unpleasant + pt tries to resist them unsuccessfully
  • Time consuming, interferes with ADLs, distress to pt
  • Avoidance of stimuli that trigger Sx
232
Q

OCD

What is the biological management of OCD?

A
  • 1st line SSRIs = sertraline
  • 2nd line = clomipramine (TCA) with specific anti-obsessional action
  • ?Psychosurgery (stereotactic cingulotomy if intractable > 2 antidepressants, 3 combination Tx, ECT + behavioural therapy
233
Q

OCD

What is the psychological management of OCD?

A
  • CBT but behavioural approach
  • ERP (stop carrying out compulsion in response to stimulus)
  • Psychotherapy (incl. family, groups)
234
Q

OCD

What is the OCD management for CAMHS?

A
  • Mild can be managed with psychoeducation or self-help

- Referral to CAMHS, CBT + initiation of SSRI with CAMHS specialist guidance

235
Q

ACUTE STRESS REACTION

What is acute stress reaction?

A
  • Transient disorder that can occur as an immediate response to exceptional stressor with threat to security or physical integrity (rape, natural catastrophe) but typically resolves once stressor removed/after few days
236
Q

ACUTE STRESS REACTION

How does acute stress reaction present?

A
  • Anger, depression/anxiety, excessive grief, social withdrawal, narrow attention
  • Basically presents as PTSD but <1m so not called PTSD (only if no resolution >1m)
237
Q

ADJUSTMENT DISORDER

What is adjustment disorder?

A
  • Abnormal or excessive reaction to an identifiable life stressor
238
Q

ADJUSTMENT DISORDER

What is the clinical presentation of adjustment disorder?

A
  • More severe reaction than expected with functioning impairment, may be subthreshold manifestation of mood/anxiety disorders
  • E.g. self-harming to kill self + depressive Sx for 1w after long-term relationship breakdown
239
Q

ADJUSTMENT DISORDER

How is adjustment disorder managed?

A
  • Supportive psychotherapy to enhance capacity to cope with stressor
240
Q

GRIEF REACTION
What is the normal grief reaction?
How does it present?

A
  • Normal reaction after a sad event e.g. sad after death of loved one
  • Usually occurs <6m from event (delayed grief = >2w until grieving, prolonged grief = hard to define but >12m)
241
Q

GRIEF REACTION

What are the stages of a normal grief reaction?

A
  • Denial incl. numbness, pseudohallucinations of deceased (auditory, visual), may focus on physical objects that remind them
  • Anger usually to family or HCPs
  • Bargaining, depression + acceptance (may not go through all 5 stages)
242
Q

PTSD
What is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
What counts as a traumatic event?

A
  • Severe psychological disturbance following a traumatic event (within 6m usually).
  • Catastrophic event where there is threat to security or physical integrity (life-threatening) such as war, surviving tsunami, sexual assault, not everyday trauma (divorce)
243
Q

PTSD

What are some risk factors for PTSD?

A
  • Low education or social class
  • F>M
  • Previous PTSD/psych issues
  • First responders (ambulance, police, fire)
  • Military (dependent on duration of combat exposure, lower rank, low morale)
244
Q

PTSD
What are the 4 core symptoms of PTSD?
How long do they need to be present for to diagnose?

A

HEAR (≥1m) –

  • Hyperarousal
  • Emotional numbing
  • Avoidance + rumination
  • Re-experiencing (involuntary)
245
Q

PTSD
In terms of PTSD, what are signs of…

i) hyperarousal?
ii) emotional numbing?

A

i) Hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, irritability, difficulty concentrating or sleeping (falling + staying asleep)
ii) Difficulty experiencing emotions, restricted range of affect, detachment from others

246
Q

PTSD
In terms of PTSD, what are signs of…

i) avoidance + rumination?
ii) re-experiencing?

A

i) Avoiding people, situations, thoughts or circumstances resembling or associated to event
ii) Flashbacks, nightmares, vivid memories, distressing images or other sensory impressions from event which intrude during waking day, reminders of event = distress

247
Q

PTSD

What is the mainstay of management in PTSD?

A

Psychological therapy –

  • Trauma-focused CBT
  • Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR)
248
Q

PTSD

What is trauma-focused CBT?

A
  • Education about nature of PTSD, self-monitoring of Sx, anxiety management, breathing techniques + exposure in supportive setting
249
Q

PTSD

What is EMDR?

A
  • Voluntary multi-saccadic eye movements to reduce anxiety associated with disturbing thoughts + help process emotions
250
Q

PTSD

What is the medical management of PTSD?

A
  • Venlafaxine or SSRI like sertraline

- Risperidone for severe cases where resistant to treatment or psychotic

251
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is an addiction?
What is an addictive behaviour?
Why is it addictive?

A
  • Compulsive substance taking behaviour with physiological withdrawal state
  • Behaviour which is both rewarding + reinforcing
  • Related to dopamine + mesolimbic reward system a motivational circuit
252
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

What are the physical effects of dependent drug use?

A
  • Acute = injecting complications, SEs, OD, poor pregnancy outcomes
  • Chronic = BBV transmission, chronic illnesses
253
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What are the…

i) psychological
ii) social

effects of dependent drug use?

A

i) MH issues, fearing withdrawal, craving, guilt, pre-occupation with finding next fix
ii) Effects on relationships, criminality + imprisonment, social exclusion, poverty (no money for food)

254
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

What is dependence?

A
  • The inability to control the intake of a substance to which one is addicted to
255
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

List 8 features of dependence

A
  • Withdrawal
  • Cravings
  • Continued use despite harm
  • Tolerance
  • Primacy/salience
  • Loss of control
  • Narrowed repertoire
  • Rapid reinstatement
256
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is withdrawal?
Give an example

A
  • Physiological withdrawal state when substance stopped with Sx + substance use to prevent
  • Early morning drinking
257
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

What are cravings?

A
  • Very strong desire for the substance
258
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is continued use despite harm?
Give an example

A
  • Despite clear problems caused by substance, person cannot stop
  • Injecting heroin despite abscess formation
259
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is tolerance?
Give an example

A
  • Larger doses required to gain the same effect as previously (NB: individuals often show no signs of being on a drug at dose ordinary people would)
  • Opiate-dependent people may inject enough heroin to kill a non-tolerant person
260
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is primacy/salience?
Give an example

A
  • Obtaining + using substance becomes so important other interests are neglected
  • Not eating to save money for drugs
261
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is loss of control?
Give an example

A
  • Difficulties controlling starting, stopping or amounts used
  • Becomes hard to say no
262
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is narrowed repertoire?
Give an example

A
  • Less variation in types of substances used

- Dependent drinker will drink same amount of same drink in same way (usually cheapest)

263
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE
What is rapid reinstatement?
Give an example

A
  • When a user relapses after period of abstinence, risk of returning to previous dependent pattern quicker
  • Someone who used to smoke 10/d may quickly return to this after 1 fag
264
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

What are some primary care interventions for drug users?

A
  • Health checks + BBV screening
  • Contraception, smear + sexual health advice
  • General immunisation status + hep A/B
  • Information on local drug services (needle exchange)
265
Q

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

How can harm be reduced in drug users?

A
  • Not injecting or safe injecting (don’t share, new one each time)
  • Not mixing resp depressants or using drugs alone
  • Reduce amount taken after intervals tolerance is lost
266
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is alcohol abuse?

A
  • Regular or binge consumption of alcohol which is sufficient to cause physical, neurological, psychiatric or social damage
267
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE
How do you calculate number of units in a drink?
What is 1 unit of alcohol?
What is the recommended weekly units for men and women?

A
  • % ABV x volume (L)
  • 10ml or 8g
  • 14 units/week
268
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are the components to alcohol abuse?

A
  • Psychological dependence = feelings of loss of control, cravings, pre-occupation
  • Physiological dependence = physical withdrawal Sx
  • +ve reinforcement = drinking to feel euphoric
  • -ve reinforcement = drinking to avoid withdrawal Sx
269
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What areas of the brain can alcohol affect?

A
  • Amygdala + nucleus accumbens
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Pre-frontal cortex
  • Cerebellum
  • Hypothalamus + pituitary
  • Medulla
270
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE
How does alcohol affect…

i) amygdala + nucleus accumbens?
ii) cerebral cortex?
iii) pre-frontal cortex?
iv) cerebellum?
v) hypothalamus + pituitary?
vi) medulla?

A

i) Euphoria, pleasure + reward centre
ii) Slows thinking + speech
iii) Slow behavioural inhibition centres (confident + relaxed)
iv) Slows movement + impairs coordination
v) Alters mood + hormones (libido increases)
vi) Decreases breathing, consciousness + body temp

271
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

How does alcohol affect the activity of neurotransmitters in the brain?

A
  • Ethanol > ADH > acetaldehyde > ALDH > acetate > CO2 + H2O
  • Ethanol binds to GABA + makes inhibitor/depressant effect stronger
  • Glutamate antagonism which decreases excitatory neurotransmission
  • Activates opioid receptors to release endorphins
  • Release dopamine + serotonin
272
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are some causes/risk factors for alcohol dependence?

A
  • Genetics – more likely if FHx, M>F, less likely if acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency
  • Occupation – army, Drs
  • Culture/beliefs/background – high in Scottish, Irish, lower in Muslims + Jews
  • Cost of alcohol
  • Early use of substances
  • Social reinforcement
  • Chronic illnesses
  • Traumatic life events
273
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE
What are the acute effects of alcohol intoxication?
When is it classed as alcohol dependence?

A
  • Euphoria, impaired judgement, reduced anxiety, ataxia, vomiting
  • ≥3 features of dependence
274
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are the 3 stages of alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • 6–12h = tremors, diaphoresis, tachycardia, anxiety, irritability + aggression
  • 36h = seizures
  • 48–72h = delirium tremens
275
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are some chronic complications of alcohol dependence?

A
  • Cardiac = dilated cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias
  • Liver etc – fibrosis, cirrhosis, oesophageal varices, pancreatitis
  • Wernicke’s + Korsakoff’s
276
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are some common causes of death in alcohol dependence?

A
  • Accidents + violence
  • Malignancies (head + neck, pancreatic, stomach, colon, hepatic, breast + gynae)
  • CVA, IHD
277
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are some blood markers for alcohol consumption?

A
  • Red blood cell mean corpuscular volume (MCV) raised
  • Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) raised
  • Carbohydrate deficient transferrin (CDT) raised
278
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are some clinical tools for assessing alcohol dependence or withdrawal?

A
  • CAGE
  • AUDIT
  • Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment
279
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are the CAGE questions?

A
  • Have you ever felt you need to CUT down on your drinking?
  • Have people ANNOYED you by criticising your drink?
  • Have you ever felt GUILTY about your drinking?
  • EYE-opener – ever felt you need drink first thing in morning to steady your nerves?
280
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are the AUDIT questions?

A
  • How often do you have a drink containing alcohol?
  • How many units of alcohol do you drink on a typical day?
  • How often did you have >6 units on a single occasion in the past year?
281
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE
What is blood alcohol content?
How is it affected?
What is the drink drive limit?

A
  • mg ethanol/100ml blood
  • Affected by amount of ethanol consumed, person’s blood volume (males have increased), if eaten, any meds
  • Illegal to drive with BAC ≥0.08%
282
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are public health measurements to help prevent alcohol abuse?

A
  • Increasing tax on alcohol + restricting advertisement on alcohol
  • Drinkaware + know your limits campaign
  • Keeping alcohol out of site (behind counter + having to ask for it)
  • School alcohol education to reduce long-term alcohol use + binge drinking
283
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are the indications for an inpatient detoxification?

A
  • Withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens in past
  • Significant mental/physical illness, including suicidality
  • Lack of stable home environment
284
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is the regime for acute detoxification?

A
  • Chlordiazepoxide 1st line (2nd = diazepam) for withdrawal Sx + preventing seizures
  • Thiamine (PO or IV)
  • Rehydrate with fluids (often IV), correct electrolyte disturbance
  • Reducing regime (slowly reduce doses over days)
285
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What factors make detoxification more likely to work?

A
  • Younger users with less time addicted + lower level of drug use
286
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are the 3 biological treatments used in alcohol dependence?

A
  • Naltrexone
  • Acamprosate
  • Disulfiram
287
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is the mechanism of action of naltrexone?

A
  • Opioid receptor antagonist
  • Blocks euphoric effects of alcohol
  • Helps people stick to detox programme + avoid relapse
288
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is the mechanism of action of acamprosate?

A
  • NMDA antagonist acts on GABA to reduce cravings + risk of relapse
289
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE
What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?
What affects does it have?

A
  • Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase > build-up of acetaldehyde
  • Produces hangover-like Sx when alcohol is drunk = deterrent (flushing, headaches, anxiety, nausea, reduced BP)
290
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What are some psychological treatments for alcohol dependence?

A
  • Motivational intervention
  • Aversion therapy
  • CBT, prevention measures (relapse prevention strategies)
291
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is motivational intervention?

A
  • Discuss potential harm caused, reasons for changing behaviour, cover obstacles to change, strategies to combat obstacles > motivation
292
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is aversion therapy?

A
  • Designed to put the patient off the undesirable habit by causing them to associate it with an unpleasant effect
293
Q

ALCOHOL DEPENDENCE

What is the social management of alcohol dependence?

A
  • Housing, economical + employment issues
  • Alcoholics anonymous
  • Developing social routines that are not reliant on alcohol
294
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

What are opiates?

A
  • Derived from opium poppy, synthetic compounds with similar properties are called opioids with heroin most commonly abused
295
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

How do opioids work?

A
  • Bind to m-receptor > endogenous endorphins causing cortical inhibitor effects (analgesia) almost immediately
  • Addictive as high reward for minimal effort
296
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS
What routes can opioids be taken via?
How long does it take for withdrawal symptoms to develop?
What are some examples?

A
  • Smoking, PO, snorted, parenterally (IM/IV)
  • 6h post-dose
  • Morphine, diamorphine (heroin), codeine, methadone
297
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS
With opioids, what is the…

i) psych effect?
ii) physical effect?
iii) withdrawal?

A

i) Euphoria, relaxation, drowsiness, analgesia
ii) Resp depression (esp. OD), pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, constipation
iii) “Goose flesh” (piloerection), raised HR/BP, fever, pupil dilatation, abdo cramps, insomnia, agitation (everything runs > D+V, lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, diaphoresis)

298
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS
What are some complications from opioids?
What are some complications with injecting heroin?

A
  • Resp depression, constipation, N+V, coma, OD + death

- Abscesses, cellulitis, infective endocarditis, BBV (hep B/C, HIV), VTE

299
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

What is the management of opioid overdose?

A
  • 400mg IV naloxone

- M-receptor inverse agonist > blockade (almost immediate)

300
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

What are some maintenance therapies for opioids?

A
  • Methadone (full opioid agonist) or buprenorphine (partial agonist/antagonist)
  • Start low + titrate up
301
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

What are the pros of methadone?

A
  • Reduces mortality, drug-related morbidity, crime, spread of BBV
302
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

How does maintenance therapies help?

A
  • Don’t get high but reduces cravings

- Less dangerous than heroin + safe in pregnancy (risk of miscarriage if stop in pregnancy)

303
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS

What drug can be used to prevent relapses?

A
  • Naltrexone

- Opiate antagonist which prevents lapse > relapse

304
Q

OPIATES/OPIOIDS
What is the first line detox management in opioids?
How long does detox last?

A
  • Motivational intervention
  • Alternative therapies = exercise, art therapy, counselling
  • 4w = inpatient, 12w = community
305
Q

SEDATIVES
What are some types of sedatives?
What is a ‘date-rape’ drug?
What routes can it be taken?

A
  • BDZs, barbiturates (increased duration of Cl- channels) often taken for their anxiolytic effects
  • Rohypnol > intoxicant, aphrodisiac + anterograde amnesia
  • PO + IV
306
Q

SEDATIVES
What are the…

i) psych
ii) physical
iii) withdrawal

effects of sedatives?

A

i) Euphoria + disinhibition, hallucinations, paranoid, agitation, time passes slowly
ii) Unsteady gait, dysarthria, hypotension, nystagmus
iii) Sweating, myalgia, tremors, risk of seizures

307
Q

STIMULANTS
What is the action of stimulants?
What are some examples?

A
  • Potentiate mood enhancing neurotransmission (dopamine, serotonin, noradrenaline) by blocking their uptake + increase cortical excitability
  • Cocaine, ecstasy (MDMA), amphetamines (speed)
308
Q

STIMULANTS

What different routes of taking these drugs?

A
  • Cocaine inhaled or IV
  • MDMA + amphetamines PO
  • Crack cocaine releases all dopamine straight away when smoked
309
Q

STIMULANTS
What are the…

i) psych
ii) physical
iii) withdrawal

effects of stimulants?

A

i) Euphoria, increased alertness + endurance, grandiosity, hallucinations, aggression, impulsivity
ii) Tachycardia, HTN, N+V, pupil dilation, CP + convulsions
iii) Psychomotor agitation, dysphoric mood, insomnia + bizarre/unpleasant dreams

310
Q

STIMULANTS

What are some other adverse effects of cocaine?

A
  • Arrhythmias, MI + damage to nasal septum if used chronically
311
Q

CANNABINOIDS
Why is cannabis addictive?
What can heavy use lead to?

A
  • Addictive as causes release of dopamine, anxiolytic

- Anxiety + depression, use in youth > schizophrenia

312
Q

CANNABINOIDS
What are the…

i) psych
ii) physical
iii) withdrawal

effects of cannabinoids?

A

i) Euphoria + disinhibition, hallucinations, paranoid, agitation, time passes slowly
ii) Increased appetite, dry mouth, tachycardia
iii) Anxiety, irritable, tremor, conjunctival injection

313
Q

HALLUCINOGENS
Give some examples of hallucinogens.
What are some psych + physical effects of hallucinogens?

A
  • LSD, magic mushrooms (PO)
  • Hallucinations, illusions, depersonalisation + derealisation, paranoia, impulsivity, anxiety, magic mushrooms > euphoria as serotonin release
  • Tachycardia, palpitations, sweating, blurred vision
314
Q

VOLATILE SOLVENTS
Give some examples of solvents.
What are some psych + physical effects of solvents?
Are they dangerous?

A
  • Aerosols, paint, glue, petrol (inhaled)
  • Apathy, lethargy, impaired judgement, psychomotor retardation
  • Decreased consciousness, unsteady gait, diplopia
  • Very –laryngospasm due to cold temp, brain damage, hypoxia
315
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are the 2 types of anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Restrictive = limit food intake

- Binge/purge = binge eat + purge straight away (different from bulimia due to BMI)

316
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA
How is anorexia classified based on BMI?
What is the outcome of anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Anorexia = <17.5kg/m^2
  • Medium risk = 13–15
  • High risk = <13
  • 1/3 recover, 1/3 relapse + remit, 1/3 chronic lifelong
317
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What is the epidemiology of anorexia?

A
  • F>M

- Onset is early to mid adolescence

318
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What premorbid experiences may lead to anorexia development?

A
  • Dieting behaviour in family/personal experience, over-protective family
  • Criticism about weight, personal Hx of obesity, adverse events (abuse)
  • Perfectionism, low self-esteem, disturbed body image, obsessional traits
319
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What is the diagnostic criteria for anorexia?

A

FEED ≥3m with absence of binge eating –

  • Fear of fatness
  • Endocrine disturbance
  • Extreme weight loss
  • Deliberate weight loss
320
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

How may fear of fatness present?

A
  • Over-valued idea
  • Self-esteem unduly influenced by weight/shape
  • Intense fear of gaining weight > body image distortion
321
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

How may endocrine disturbance present?

A
  • Amenorrhoea
  • Reduced libido/fertility
  • Abnormal insulin secretion
  • Delayed/arrested puberty if onset pre-pubertal
322
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

How may extreme weight loss present?

A
  • > 15% below expected for height (BMI ≤17.5kg/m^2)
323
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

How may deliberate weight loss present?

A
  • Restrictive eating (skipping meals)
  • Over-exercising
  • Vomiting
  • Appetite suppressants
  • Laxatives
324
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are some physical symptoms of anorexia?

A
  • GI Sx = constipation, dysphagia (vomiting), abdo pains
  • Dizziness/fainting, headaches, cold intolerance
  • Polyuria (diuresis), polydipsia
325
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are some clinical signs of anorexia?

A
  • Lanugo hair = fine, soft body hair
  • Gaunt face, dry skin, loss of muscle mass
  • Acrocyanosis = blue colouration of peripheries due to slow circulation
326
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are some complications of anorexia?

A
  • Osteoporosis, thyroid issues, cardiac atrophy
  • Electrolyte disturbances (hypokalaemia > arrhythmias)
  • Decrease in WBC > increased infections
  • Death due to health complications or suicide
327
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What screening tool can be used in anorexia?

A

SCOFF –

  • Do you ever make yourself SICK as too full?
  • Do you ever feel you’ve lost CONTROL over eating?
  • Have you recently lost more than ONE stone in 3m?
  • Do you believe you’re FAT when others say you’re thin?
  • Does FOOD dominate your life?
328
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are some investigations for anorexia?

A
  • Sit up squat stand (SUSS) test /3
  • BP (low), temp (low)
  • ECG (brady, T-wave changes, QTc prolongation)
  • FBC (anaemia, dehydrated), LFTs, urinalysis, serum proteins
  • U+Es, Ca2+, Mg2+, phosphate > vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, water loading
  • DEXA scan after 1y of underweight (osteopenia)
329
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

In anorexia, most things are low apart from what?

A

Gs + Cs –

  • GH, Glucose, salivary Glands
  • Cortisol, Cholesterol, Carotinaemia
330
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What risk assessment tool can be used for assessing if a patient with anorexia needs inpatient psychiatric admission?

A
  • Management of Really Sick Patients with Anorexia Nervosa (MARSIPAN)
331
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are the MARSIPAN indicators of admission?

A
  • BMI <13, severe malnutrition or dehydration
  • HR <40, ECG changes
  • BP <90 systolic, <70 diastolic esp with postural drop
  • Temp <35
  • Severe electrolyte disturbances (K+, Na+, Mg2+, phosphate = low)
  • SUSS test of 0 or 1
  • Significant suicide or serious self-harm risk
332
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

How should the physical complications of anorexia be managed?

A
  • Monitor U+Es + ECGs
  • Oral supplements for electrolytes, thiamine
  • Multivitamins + mineral supplements, calcium + vitamin D
  • Safely + slowly re-feed pt + avoid refeeding syndrome
333
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are the biological treatments for anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Fluoxetine, chlorpromazine + TCAs may be used for weight gain
334
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are the psychological therapies for anorexia?

A
  • Individual therapy (eating disorder focussed CBT, CBT-ED)
  • Maudsley anorexia nervosa treatment for adults (MANTRA)
  • Specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM)
335
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What is the social management for anorexia?

A
  • Avoid over exercise
  • Food diary/dietary advice
  • Self-help groups
336
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What is the CAMHS treatment for anorexia?

A
  • Family therapy 1st line, pt + carer education, self-help resources
  • Adolescent-focussed psychotherapy, individual CBT-ED
  • May require SSRIs
337
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA
What is refeeding syndrome?
What are some risk factors?

A
  • Metabolic disturbances due to reintroduction of nutrition to a starving patient who is fed too much, too quickly
  • Low BMI, poor nutritional intake (>5d), Hx of high alcohol intake, chemo, unintentional weight loss
338
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What is the pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Reduced carb consumption leads to reduced insulin secretion so the body switches from carb > fat + protein metabolism
  • Electrolyte stores depleted as needed to convert glucose>energy
  • Reintroducing food causes abrupt shift from fat>carb metabolism + insulin secretion surges, driving electrolytes from serum>cells to help convert glucose>energy causing further serum concentration decrease
339
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA
What is the clinical presentation of refeeding syndrome?
What are the consequences of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Fatigue, weakness, confusion, dyspnoea (risk of fluid overload)
  • Abdo pain, vomiting, constipation, infections
  • Can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, convulsions, cardiac failure, coma + death
340
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What are the biochemical features of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Hypophosphataemia main disturbance due to role of converting glucose>energy
  • Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia + thiamine deficiency too
  • Abnormal fluid balance
341
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What should be monitored before + during refeeding?

A
  • U+Es (Na+, K+), phosphate, magnesium, glucose, ECG, fluid balance
342
Q

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

What is the management of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Start up to 10cal/kg/day + increase to full needs SLOWLY over 4–7d
  • Start PO thiamine, B vitamins + supplements before + during feeding
  • K+, phosphate + magnesium replacement
343
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What is bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Characterised by recurrent episodes of binge eating + compensatory behaviours (purges)
344
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What is a binge?

A
  • Episodes of overeating a large amount of food in a discrete period of time where an individual feels that they cannot control their eating
345
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What are purges?

A
  • Compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain like induced vomiting, laxative misuse, diuretics, appetite suppressants, enemas, fasting or excessive exercise
346
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What is the epidemiology + aetiology of bulimia?

A
  • F>M, common in adolescent, very common premorbid experiences to anorexia (dieting behaviour, weight criticisms, perfectionism)
347
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What is the diagnostic criteria for bulimia?

A

BPFO ≥2 a week for ≥3m –

  • Behaviours to prevent weight gain
  • Preoccupation with eating (compulsion to eat but regret after)
  • Fear of fatness
  • Overeating ≥2/week
348
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What are some physical symptoms of bulimia?

A
  • Similar to anorexia but less severe
  • GI (constipation, bloating, sore throat, GORD + dyspepsia from vomiting, abdo pains)
  • Dizziness/fainting, headaches, cold intolerance
  • Polyuria (diuresis), polydipsia, lethargy
349
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What are some clinical signs of bulimia?

A
  • Russel’s sign (calluses on dorsum of dominant hand due to vomiting)
  • Dental enamel erosion
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Salivary gland, especially parotid, enlargement
350
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What are some complications of bulimia?

A
  • Cardiomegaly (ipecac toxicity = plant taken PO + can cause vomiting)
  • Arrhythmias, cardiac failure
  • Mallory-Weiss tears from vomiting
351
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What are some investigations for bulimia?

A
  • SCOFF
  • BP (low), temp, SUSS test
  • ECG (arrhythmias from hypokalaemia)
  • FBC (anaemia), LFTs, urinalysis, serum proteins
  • Monitor U+Es, calcium, magnesium, phosphate in vomiting, laxative abuse, diuretics or waterloading (for deceitful weighing)
352
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What metabolic abnormalities may be present?

A
  • Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting
  • Hypokalaemia > muscle weakness + arrhythmias
353
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

When should bulimia be managed as inpatient?

A
  • Suicidality, physical problems, extreme refractory cases

- Pregnancy (risk of spontaneous abortion)

354
Q

BULIMIA NERVOSA

What is the management of bulimia?

A
  • Guided self-help first line with psychoeducation + support group
  • CBT-ED
  • Bulimia focussed family therapy in CAMHS
  • Limited evidence for high-dose fluoxetine
355
Q

BINGE EATING DISORDER

What is binge eating disorder?

A
  • Episodes where person excessively overeats, often as expression of underlying psychological distress
  • Not restrictive so tends to be overweight
356
Q

BINGE EATING DISORDER

How does binge eating disorder present?

A
  • Planned bine with binge foods
  • Eating very quickly + becoming uncomfortably full
  • Eating in “dazed” state
  • Unrelated to if hungry
357
Q

BINGE EATING DISORDER

What is the management of binge eating disorder?

A
  • Self-help, CBT-ED, may benefit from SSRIs
358
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are personality disorders?

A
  • Deeply engrained + enduring patterns of behaviour that are abnormal in a particular culture
359
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is the epidemiology of personality disorders?

A
  • Younger adults
  • Antisocial PD most prevalent amongst prisoners
  • Dx not made in <18 as personality still developing
360
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are some risk factors for personality disorders?

A
  • FHx of PD or other mental illness
  • Abusive, unstable or chaotic life
  • Adverse events
  • Dx of childhood conduct disorder (antisocial PD)
361
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are cluster A personality disorders?

A
  • Characterised by odd, eccentric thinking or behaviour

- MAD

362
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is paranoid personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive + unwarranted tendency to interpret the actions of others as demeaning or threatening
363
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of paranoid personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) acts as if?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?

A

i) Conspiracy
ii) Devious, trying to cause harm
iii) Always on guard + suspicious of others, emotionally cold/distant
iv) Watchfulness
v) Trusting (fear others will use information against you)
vi) Being discriminated against

364
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is schizoid personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of indifference to social relationships + restricted range of emotional experience + expression
365
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of schizoid personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) thinks they are?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?
vii) other?

A

i) Uncaring
ii) Pointless, replaceable
iii) Only person they can depend on
iv) Withdrawal, prefer to be alone
v) Emotionally available + close
vi) Being over-cared for or smothered by others
vii) Inability to take pleasure from activities, little interest in sex

366
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is schizotypal personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of deficits in interpersonal relatedness + peculiarities of ideation, experience, appearance + behaviour
367
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are some features of schizotypal personality disorder?

A
  • Ideas of reference (not delusions as insight)
  • Excessive social anxiety with lack of close friends + social withdrawal
  • “Magical thinking” believing you can influence people/events with thoughts
  • Unusual perceptions (illusions, overvalued ideas)
  • Odd/eccentric behaviour, beliefs, speech or appearance
  • Inappropriate affect with paranoid or suspicious ideas
368
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are some differentials of schizotypal personality disorder?

A
  • Autism
  • Asperger’s
  • Schizophrenia (50% may develop it)
369
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are cluster B personality disorders?

A
  • Characterised by dramatic, overly emotional or unpredictable thinking or behaviour (BAD)
370
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is dissocial/antisocial personality disorder?

A
  • Childhood conduct disorder before 15 + pattern of irresponsible + antisocial behaviour after age 15
371
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
What is a psychopath?
What is a sociopath?

A
  • When they get in trouble with the law

- Same traits but without law involvement

372
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of antisocial personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) thinks they are?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?
vii) other?

A

i) Predatory
ii) Weak
iii) Autonomous + alone
iv) Aggressive/violent
v) Gentle + sensitive, conform to social norms
vi) Perceiving exploitation
vii) Disregard for others’ needs, feelings, safety, impulsive + lacks remorse

373
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
What is borderline/emotionally unstable personality disorder?
What is a big risk factor?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of instability of mood, interpersonal relationships + self image
  • Often Hx of childhood sexual abuse
374
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of EUPD…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) common behaviour?
iv) least likely to be?
v) emotional hotspot?
vi) other?

A

i) Contradictory
ii) Untrustworthy
iii) Self-harm/suicide (impulsive + unpredictable)
iv) Able to show self-compassion
v) Abandonment (extreme reactions)
vi) Paranoid when stressed, labile mood, unstable + intense relationships

375
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of EUPD, what is the difference between…

i) impulsive type?
ii) borderline type?

A

i) Difficulties with impulsive + risky behaviours (unsafe sex, gambling) + anger
ii) Difficulties with relationships, self-harm + feelings of emptiness

376
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is histrionic personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality + attention seeking
377
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of histrionic personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) common behaviour?
iv) least likely to be?
v) emotional hotspot?
vi) think they are?
vii) think relationships with others are?

A

i) Their audience (crave attention)
ii) In competition for attention
iii) Exhibitionism (provocative for attention)
iv) Able to listen to others
v) Actively or passively side-lined
vi) Vivacious, easily influenced by others, excessive concern with physical appearance
vii) Closer than what they really are

378
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is narcissistic personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of grandiosity, lack of empathy + hypersensitivity to the evaluation of others
379
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of narcisssitic personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) thinks they are?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?
vii) other?

A

THINK LUKE

i) Competition
ii) Inferior
iii) Special + more important than others
iv) Competitiveness
v) Humble
vi) Loss of social rank/status or being embarrassed
vii) Failure to recognise other’s needs or feelings, arrogance, envy (both ways)

380
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are cluster C personality disorders?

A
  • Characterised by anxious, fearful thinking or behaviour (SAD)
381
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is anxious/avoidant personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of social discomfort, fear of negative evaluation + timidity
382
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of anxious/avoidant personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) thinks they are?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?
vii) other?

A

i) Evaluative
ii) Judgemental
iii) Inept
iv) Inhibition (social, avoids this)
v) Assertive
vi) Exposed, ridicule, criticism or rejection
vii) Feeling inadequate or inferior, extreme shyness, fear of disapproval

383
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is dependent personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of dependent + submissive behaviour
384
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of dependent personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) they are?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?
vii) other?

A

i) Overwhelming
ii) Stronger + more competent than themselves
iii) Needy
iv) Clinging
v) Self-sufficient
vi) Making a decision, abandonment
vii) Requires excessive advice/reassurance, tolerant of abusive treatment, relationship hops, difficult disagreeing with others

385
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
What is anankastic/obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?
What may it be seen in?

A
  • Pervasive pattern of perfectionism + inflexibility lacking insight
  • Hx of family pressure + wanting approval
386
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS
In terms of anankastic/OC personality disorder…

i) think the world is?
ii) think people are?
iii) think they are?
iv) common behaviour?
v) least likely to be?
vi) emotional hotspot?
vii) other?

A

i) Sloppy
ii) Irresponsible
iii) Responsible
iv) Controlling
v) Flexible
vi) Making a mistake
vii) Preoccupied with order, extreme perfectionism, neglect friends due to excessive project commitment, rigid + stubborn

387
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are some investigations for personality disorders?

A
  • Assessed (Hx + MSE) more than once
  • Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
  • Eysenck Personality Inventory + Personality Diagnostic Questionnaire
388
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What is the biological management of personality disorders?

A
  • Only use to treat comorbid conditions or if Sx distressing (e.g. antipsychotics in group A to reduce suspiciousness)
389
Q

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

What are the psychological therapies for personality disorders?

A
  • Dialectical behavioural therapy for EUPD
  • CBT (change unhelpful ways of thinking)
  • Cognitive analytical therapy (recognise + change unhelpful patterns in relationships + behaviours)
  • Psychodynamic therapy (looks at how past experiences affect present behaviour)
390
Q

DELIRIUM TREMENS

What is delirium tremens?

A
  • Acute, toxic confusional state secondary to alcohol withdrawal (48–72h after)
391
Q

DELIRIUM TREMENS

How does delirium tremens present?

A
  • Clouding of consciousness, disorientation + amnesia of recent events
  • Autonomic = diaphoresis, fever, tachycardia (risk of CV collapse)
  • Psychomotor agitation, delusions + coarse tremor
  • Visual, auditory + tactile hallucinations
392
Q

DELIRIUM TREMENS

Describe the hallucinations in delirium tremens

A
  • Characteristically of small people or animals (Lilliputian hallucinations)
  • May feel ‘ants crawling’
393
Q

DELIRIUM TREMENS

What is the management of delirium tremens?

A
  • ABCDE approach as emergency
  • IV thiamine (pabrinex), supportive fluids
  • PO lorazepam first line to prevent fitting (IV or haloperidol if refused)
394
Q

WERNICKE’S

What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • Atrophy of mammillary bodies due to thiamine deficiency, often alcohol abuse
395
Q

WERNICKE’S

How does Wernicke’s present?

A

Triad –

  • Ataxia
  • Confusion
  • Ophthalmoplegia + nystagmus
396
Q

WERNICKE’S

What is the management of Wernicke’s?

A
  • ABCDE approach as emergency
  • IV pabrinex immediately
  • Treat high risk patients (alcoholics) with prophylactic vitamins
397
Q

KORSAKOFF’S

What is Korsakoff’s psychosis?

A
  • Thiamine deficiency causes damage + haemorrhage to the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus + medial thalamus
  • Complication of untreated Wernicke’s
398
Q

KORSAKOFF’S

What are some causes of Korsakoff’s?

A
  • Heavy alcohol drinkers
  • Head injury, post-anaesthesia
  • Basal or temporal lobe encephalitis
  • CO poisoning
  • Other causes of thiamine deficiency (anorexia, starvation, hyperemesis)
399
Q

KORSAKOFF’S

What is the clinical presentation of Korsakoff’s?

A
  • Profound short-term memory loss with inability to lay down new memories (antero + retrograde amnesia)
  • Confabulation
400
Q

KORSAKOFF’S

What is the management of Korsakoff’s?

A
  • ABCDE approach as emergency
  • PO thiamine replacement + multivitamin supplements (for up to 2y)
  • OT assessment + cognitive rehab
401
Q

LITHIUM TOXICITY
What is lithium toxicity?
What can precipitate it?

A
  • Serum lithium >1.5mmol/L
  • > 2mmol/L = life-threatening
  • Dehydration, renal failure, diuretics, anti-HTNs + NSAIDs
402
Q

LITHIUM TOXICITY
What is…

i) acute
ii) chronic
iii) acute-on-chronic

lithium toxicity?

A

i) Acute ingestion in patient not chronically on lithium
ii) Patients on long-term lithium without acute OD
iii) Ingestion of excess lithium in patients on chronic lithium

403
Q

LITHIUM TOXICITY

What is the clinical presentation of lithium toxicity?

A
  • Ataxia, dysarthria, confusion (drunk)
  • COARSE tremor, blurred vision, hyperreflexia
  • N+V, diarrhoea
  • Myoclonus, seizures + coma if severe
404
Q

LITHIUM TOXICITY

What are some complications of lithium toxicity?

A
  • Arrhythmias (VT)
  • Acute renal failure
  • Syndrome of irreversible lithium-effectuated neurotoxicity (SILENT) after cessation of lithium >2m = truncal ataxia, ataxic gait, scanning speech, incoordination
405
Q

LITHIUM TOXICITY

What is the management of lithium toxicity?

A
  • ABCDE approach as emergency
  • Stop + check lithium levels, serum creatinine, U+Es
  • IV fluids (bolus + 1.5–2x maintenance
  • ?Whole bowel irrigation with polyethene glycol for severe, acute ingestion
  • Haemodialysis
406
Q

LITHIUM TOXICITY

When would you do haemodialysis in lithium toxicity?

A
  • Serum [Li] >5mmol/L
    OR >4 + renal dysfunction
    OR severe toxicity (seizures, coma, life-threatening arrhythmias)
407
Q

ACUTE DYSTONIA
What is an acute dystonic reaction?
What may it be caused by?

A
  • Sustained painful muscle contraction in ≥1 muscle groups
  • ?Imbalance of dopamine + cholinergic transmission where D2 receptors become so blocked that excess output of cholinergics
408
Q

ACUTE DYSTONIA
What is the clinical presentation of acute dystonic reaction?
What is the life-threatening complication?

A
  • Rapid onset after dose given or changed
  • Spasm of muscles of tongue, face, neck + back
  • Oculogyric crisis (prolonged involuntary upward deviation of eyes)
  • Torticollis (twisted neck)
  • Tongue protrusion
  • Laryngeal dystonia > airway compromised
409
Q

ACUTE DYSTONIA

What is the management of acute dystonia?

A
  • ABCDE approach as emergency
  • Anticholinergic – IM procyclidine
  • Stop antipsychotic (switch to atypical as less EPSEs)
410
Q

NMS

What is the pathophysiology of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

A
  • Dopamine antagonism often due to typical antipsychotic OD or acute withdrawal of Parkinson’s meds
411
Q

NMS

How quickly does NMS present?

A
  • Onset within 2w of drug or dose change (onset + progression slow)
  • May last 7–10d after PO or 21d after depot
412
Q

NMS

What is the clinical presentation?

A

Bodybuilder–

  • Pyrexia >38 + diaphoresis
  • Muscle rigidity (diffuse “lead-pipe” rigidity)
  • Confusion, agitation, altered consciousness
  • Tachycardia, high/low BP
  • Hyporeflexia
413
Q

NMS

What are the complications of NMS?

A
  • Resp failure, CV collapse
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • DIC
414
Q

NMS

What are some investigations for NMS?

A
  • FBC (leukocytosis)
  • Low serum iron
  • U+Es, Ca2+, phosphate
  • Urinary myoglobin (raised)
  • Serum creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) may be raised
  • CK raised
415
Q

NMS

What is the management of NMS?

A
  • ABCDE approach
  • Stop antipsychotic (wait >2w before restarting, consider atypical)
  • Give L-dopa if dopamine withdrawal in Parkinson’s
  • IV dantrolene or lorazepam to reduce rigidity 1st line (amantadine second)
  • Bromocriptine prophylaxis
416
Q

NMS

What is the supportive management for NMS?

A
  • Oxygen, cooling blankets, antipyretics, ice-water enema for pyrexia
  • IV access to correct volume depletion + reduce risk of rhabdomyolysis with fluids (cooled)
417
Q

NMS

How is risk of rhabdomyolysis reduced?

A
  • Vigorous hydration

- Alkalinisation with IV sodium bicarbonate (target urine pH of 6)

418
Q

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

What is serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Disorder caused by excess serotonin in brain
419
Q

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

What are some causes of serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Antidepressants = SSRIs (inhibit reuptake), SNRIs, St. John’s wart, MAOI (decreased metabolism)
  • Drugs = ecstasy, amphetamines, LSD, anti-emetics
420
Q

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

What is the clinical presentation of serotonin syndrome?

A

Sx onset + recovery fast–

  • Neuro = confusion, agitation
  • Neuromuscular = myoclonus, tremors (incl. shivering), hyperreflexia, ataxia
  • Autonomic = hyperthermia, diarrhoea, tachycardia, mydriasis
421
Q

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

What are some investigations for serotonin syndrome?

A
  • FBC, U+Es, biochemistry (Ca2+, Mg2+, phosphate), CK, drug toxicology scren
  • ECG monitoring for prolonged QRS or QTc interval
422
Q

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

What is the management of serotonin syndrome?

A
  • ABCDE
  • Stop offending agent
  • IV access to correct volume + reduce risk of rhabdomyolysis as in NMS
  • BDZs like slow IV lorazepam for agitation, seizures + myoclonus
  • Serotonin receptor antagonists like PO cyproheptadine or chlorpromazine if severe
423
Q

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

What is the management of serotonergic drug OD?

A
  • ?Gastric lavage ± activated charcoal
424
Q

CATATONIA

What is catatonia?

A
  • Group of Sx that usually involve lack of movement + communication.
425
Q

CATATONIA

What are the 3 types of catatonia?

A
  • Akinetic = won’t move or communicate
  • Excited = may move around but movement pointless or impulsive, may be agitated, combative, delirious
  • Malignant = Sx > other health problems (changes in temp, BP, breathing, HR)
426
Q

CATATONIA

What are some causes of catatonia?

A
  • Mania (#1), depression (manic or depressive stupor)

- Can be caused by heat stroke, BDZ withdrawal + Parkinsonism

427
Q

CATATONIA

What is the clinical presentation of catatonia?

A
  • Mutism + staring
  • Posturing (stays in fixed position), rigidity
  • Negativism (resistance to attempts to move)
  • Echopraxia + echolalia
428
Q

CATATONIA

What are some complications of catatonia?

A
  • Long-term issues with dehydration, VTE or renal failure
429
Q

CATATONIA

What are some investigations for catatonia?

A
  • Temp, BP, pulse, FBC, U+Es, LFTs, glucose, TFTs, cortisol, prolactin
430
Q

CATATONIA

What is the management of catatonia?

A
  • BDZs (PO/IM lorazepam)
  • Barbiturates (amobarbital)
  • ECT
  • Address underlying issue
431
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES

What is a learning disability?

A
  • Condition of arrested or incomplete development of mind, characterised by impairment of skills that contribute to overall intelligence (language, cognition, social) which has manifested during developmental period
432
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES

How is a learning disability different to learning difficulties?

A
  • Learning difficulties (dyslexia) are difficulties in acquiring knowledge + skills to the normal level expected of those of the same age, especially due to a mental disability or cognitive disorder
433
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES

What is the triad in learning disabilities?

A
  • Low intellectual performance (IQ < 70)
  • Onset during birth or early childhood
  • Wide range of functional impairment
434
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES

What is the epidemiology of learning disabilities?

A
  • M>F, biggest risk factor is FHx
435
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES

What are some causes of learning disabilities?

A
  • Genetic = Down’s, Fragile X, Prader-Willi, neurofibromatosis
  • Antenatal = TORCH
  • Perinatal = asphyxia, intraventricular haemorrhage
  • Postnatal = meningitis, kernicterus
  • Environmental = malnutrition, smoking or alcohol in pregnancy
436
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES

What physical disorders may be present in those with learning disabilities?

A
  • Motor disabilities (ataxia, spasticity)
  • Epilepsy
  • Impaired hearing/vision
  • Incontinence
437
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES
How is mild learning disability characterised by…

i) IQ?
ii) mental age?
iii) mobility?
iv) speech?
v) academia?
vi) self-care?

A

i) 50–69
ii) 9–12
iii) Mobile
iv) Mostly adequate
v) Difficulties reading + writing
vi) Most independent

438
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES
How is moderate learning disability characterised by…

i) IQ?
ii) mental age?
iii) mobility?
iv) speech?
v) academia?
vi) self-care?

A

i) 35–49
ii) 6–9
iii) Mobile
iv) Simple-no speech, may sign, reasonable comprehension
v) Limited, some learn to read, write + count
vi) Lifelong supervision, may need prompting + support

439
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES
How is severe learning disability characterised by…

i) IQ?
ii) mental age?
iii) mobility?
iv) speech?
v) academia?
vi) self-care?

A

i) 20–34
ii) 3–6
iii) Marked impairment
iv) Simple-no speech, may sign, reasonable comprehension
v) Limited, some learn to read, write + count
vi) Lifelong supervision, may need prompting + support

440
Q

LEARNING DISABILITIES
How is profound learning disability characterised by…

i) IQ?
ii) mental age?
iii) mobility?
iv) speech?
v) academia?
vi) self-care?

A

i) <20
ii) <3
iii) Severe impairment
iv) Basic non-verbal comms, understands basic commands
v) None
vi) Complete dependency

441
Q

SEPARATION ANXIETY
What is separation anxiety?
What may cause it?

A
  • Children become distressed if separated from attachment figure (usually mum)
  • Parental overprotection, may develop following stressful event
442
Q

SEPARATION ANXIETY

Is separation anxiety normal?

A
  • Yes for toddlers

- Pathological in older children when interferes with social functioning (off school, inability to sleep without parent)

443
Q

SEPARATION ANXIETY

What are the stages of attachment?

A
  • Indiscriminate attachment (0–3m)
  • Preference for main caregivers (3–6m)
  • Only main caregiver (6–12m)
  • Increasingly able to separate from main caregiver (>12m)
444
Q

SEPARATION ANXIETY

What is the importance of attachment?

A
  • Infants need to develop relationship with ≥1 primary caregiver for successful social + emotional development, especially learning how to effectively regulate emotions
445
Q

SCHOOL PHOBIA/REFUSAL
What is school phobia/refusal?
When may it occur?
How is it managed?

A
  • Child refuses to attend school due to specific fear (bullying, unsympathetic teacher, fear of failure)
  • May occur in families with ‘precious’ child (issues conceiving, sibling death)
  • Address anxieties of child + parent + reintroduce to school ASAP
446
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM
What is autism?
What is associated with autism?
What is Asperger’s syndrome?

A
  • Pervasive development disorder which manifests before age 3
  • Learning difficulties
  • ASD without cognitive impairment + fewer problems with language
447
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM

What are some risk factors for autism?

A
  • M>F
  • Obstetric complications
  • Perinatal infection (rubella)
  • Genetic disorders (Fragile X, Down’s)
448
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM

What are the 3 areas of impaired functioning that need to be present in autism?

A
  • Social interaction
  • Communication (speech + language)
  • Behaviour (imposition of routine with ritualistic or repetitive behaviour)
449
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM

Give some examples of impaired social interaction

A
  • Failure to notice + respond to social cues + others’ emotional states
  • Difficulty establishing friendships
  • Lack of eye contact
  • Delay in smiling
450
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM

Give some examples of impaired communication

A
  • Expressive speech + comprehension usually delayed or minimal
  • Concrete thinking (lack imagination)
  • Absence of gestures
  • Later speech consists of monologues, endless questions, echolalia
451
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM

Give some examples of impaired behaviours

A
  • Inability to adapt to new environments (distress)
  • Tendency to have rigid routine with resistance to change
  • Greater interest in objects, numbers + patterns than people
  • Stereotypical repetitive movements which may be self-stimulating movements to comfort themselves (rocking, hand-flapping)
452
Q

AUTISM SPECTRUM

What is the management of autism?

A
  • No cure so MDT for best environment to support child + parent
  • CAMHS, paediatrician, SALT, dieticians, social workers, specially trained educators, special school environments
  • Picture based timetables
  • Charities for support (national autistic society)
453
Q

TIC DISORDERS
What are tics?
What might cause them?

A
  • Repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements + sounds

- Stress, gestational + perinatal insults, PANDAS

454
Q

TIC DISORDERS

What is the epidemiology of tics?

A
  • Transient simple tics affect 10% of children
  • May be associated with OCD, ADHD + ASD
  • M>F, usually present around or after 5y
455
Q

TIC DISORDERS
What are the two types of tics?
How may they manifest?

A
  • Simple
  • Complex
  • May be invisible to observer (abdo tensing, toe crunching)
456
Q

TIC DISORDERS

Give some examples of simple tics

A
  • Throat-clearing
  • Blinking
  • Sniffing
  • Head jerking
  • Eye rolling
457
Q

TIC DISORDERS

Give some examples of complex tics

A
  • Physical movements (twirling on spot, touching objects)
  • Copropraxia (obscene gestures)
  • Coprolalia (obscene words)
  • Echolalia
458
Q

TIC DISORDERS
What improves or worsens tics?
What sensations are felt before tics?

A
  • Stress + stimulant meds worsen, distraction improves
  • Premonitory = pts feel urge to perform tic, often several times to get relief from that urge (can be suppressed but internal tension builds)
459
Q

TIC DISORDERS
What is Tourette’s syndrome?
How does Tourette’s syndrome present?

A
  • Development of tics that are persistent for >1y
  • More severe expression of the spectrum of tic disorder
  • Multiple motor tics + at least 1 phonic tic (coprolalia)
460
Q

TIC DISORDERS

What is the management of mild tics?

A
  • Watch + wait (usually improve over time
  • Education + reassurance
  • Avoid caffeine + stress
461
Q

TIC DISORDERS

What is the management of severe tics?

A
  • Habit reversal training
  • ERP
  • Antipsychotics considered in VERY severe cases
462
Q

ENURESIS

What is enuresis?

A
  • Involuntary discharge of urine by day, night or both in child aged ≥5y, in the absence of an organic cause
  • Common, M>F
463
Q

ENURESIS
What are the 2 types of enuresis?
Why may it occur?

A
  • Primary = bladder control never mastered
  • Secondary = follows at least 1y of continence
  • Often emotional upset, polyuria from diabetes
464
Q

ENURESIS

What can cause enuresis?

A
  • Detrusor instability
  • Bladder neck weakness
  • Lack of attention to bladder sensation
  • Neuropathic bladder
  • UTI
465
Q

ENURESIS

What is the management of enuresis?

A
  • Reassurance, advice on diet + toileting behaviour, restrict fluids before bed
  • Positive reinforcement (star charts for dry night)
  • 1st line Mx = enuresis alarm if <7, desmopressin if >7y
466
Q

ADHD

What is attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A
  • Extreme end of hyperactivity + inability to concentrate, affecting person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks, develop normal skills + perform well in school
467
Q

ADHD

What are some risk factors for ADHD?

A
  • Epilepsy, low socioeconomic status, learning difficulties
  • Premature or LBW
  • Brain damage (in vitro or after severe head injury later)
468
Q

ADHD

What is the epidemiology of ADHD?

A
  • M>F

- Dx between 6–12y (must be ≥6y but show Sx before 12y)

469
Q

ADHD

What is the triad of symptoms in ADHD?

A
  • Inattention
  • Impulsivity
  • Hyperactivity
470
Q

ADHD

How does inattention present?

A
  • Short attention span
  • Quickly changes task as loses interest
  • Easily distracted
  • Loses important items
  • Careless mistakes
471
Q

ADHD

How does impulsivity present?

A
  • Blurts answer before questions completed
  • Difficulty awaiting turn
  • Interrupts others
  • Teenagers have impulsive behaviours (car accidents, pregnancy)
472
Q

ADHD

How does hyperactivity present?

A
  • Constantly fidgeting
  • Constant “on the go” or “driven by a motor”
  • Excessive talking
473
Q

ADHD

How is a diagnosis of ADHD reached?

A
  • Features consistent across ≥2 settings (home, school)
  • Diagnosed ≥6y when Sx present continuously for ≥6m
  • Information from teachers, school reports, family etc used
474
Q

ADHD

What is the management of ADHD?

A

Conservative initially (watch + wait) –

  • Family education on ADHD + parenting advice
  • Establish normal balanced diet, exercise can improve Sx
  • Food diary to identify any triggers + eliminate with dietician
475
Q

ADHD

What is the management for severe ADHD?

A
  • CNS stimulants like methylphenidate (increase monoamine pathway activity, not addictive)
  • S/E = appetite suppression, insomnia, psychosis, important to monitor growth, baseline ECG (cardiotoxic)
  • Atomoxetine (SE = liver dysfunction, suicidality)
  • (Lis)dexamfetamine
476
Q

CONDUCT DISORDER
What is conduct disorder?
What are the 2 types?

A
  • Persistently, marked antisocial behaviours
  • Socialised = child has peer group, often share antisocial behaviour
  • Unsocialised = rejected by others so more isolated + hostile
477
Q

CONDUCT DISORDER
What is the epidemiology of conduct disorder?
What are some risk factors?

A
  • M>F, more common in adolescents
  • Urban upbringing, deprivation, parental criminality, harsh or inconsistent parenting (behaviours often learned from parents)
478
Q

CONDUCT DISORDER

What is the clinical presentation of conduct disorder?

A
  • Aggression/violence towards people or animals
  • Destruction of property
  • Deceitfulness or theft
  • Serious violations of rules
479
Q

CONDUCT DISORDER

How is conduct disorder managed?

A
  • 3–11y = group parent training programme (focus on parenting skills to improve child’s behaviour)
  • 9–14y = child-focused programmes (focus on child’s behaviours)
  • Older = multimodal interventions with many services
480
Q

CONDUCT DISORDER

What can be used as a last resort in conduct disorder?

A
  • Antipsychotic like risperidone to reduce aggressive tendencies
481
Q

ODD
What is oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)?
What may be linked to ODD?

A
  • Negative, hostile + defiant behaviour particularly directed towards authority figures like parents + teachers
  • Common in children with ADHD, may be linked to parenting styles
482
Q

ODD

How can ODD and conduct disorder be differentiated?

A
  • Less severe + more common

- Children are NOT aggressive and do NOT destroy property or steal etc.

483
Q

ODD

What is the clinical presentation of ODD?

A
  • Loses temper + argumentative
  • Actively defies or refuses to comply with adult’s requests or rules
  • Blames others for their mistakes or misbehaviour
484
Q

ODD

What is the management of ODD?

A
  • Child-focussed programmes + group parent training programmes
485
Q

CONVERSION DISORDERS

What is a conversion disorder?

A
  • Actual loss or disturbance of normal motor/sensory function which initially appears to have neuro or physical cause but is later credited to psychological
486
Q

CONVERSION DISORDERS

What is the most severe form of dissociative/conversion disorders?

A
  • Dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality disorder) = inability to recall personal information, may have loss of identity.
487
Q

CONVERSION DISORDERS

What are the features of conversion disorders?

A
  • Paralysis (any pattern)
  • Aphonia (complete loss or whispered speech)
  • Sensory loss (area may cover patient’s beliefs about anatomy)
  • Seizure (NEAD)
  • Amnesia (short-term memory loss usually too severe for forgetfulness)
488
Q

CONVERSION DISORDERS

When would you suspect conversion disorder?

A
  • Clinically inconsistent nature (or absence) of signs
  • Excluded underlying organic disease
  • Convincing psychological explanation for deficit (can be induced by stressful event)
489
Q

CONVERSION DISORDERS

What is the management of conversion disorder?

A
  • Present Dx of positive (emphasise likelihood of recovery)
  • May need physio
  • CBT, interpersonal therapy, supportive psychotherapy or family therapy may help
490
Q

SOMATISATION DISORDER

What is somatisation disorder?

A
  • Multiple, atypical + inconsistent presentations with MUS, affecting multiple organ systems.
  • Symptoms present ≥2y, F»M
491
Q

SOMATISATION DISORDER

What is the clinical presentation of somatisation disorder?

A
  • Non-specific + atypical Sx (usually derm, GI)
  • Discrepancy between subjective + objective findings (S = Sx)
  • Sx often in one system, may move to another once Dx possibilities exhausted
  • Often results in multiple needless investigations + operations (pt refuses to accept -ve results)
492
Q

SOMATISATION DISORDER

What is the management of somatisation disorder?

A
  • Rule out all organic illnesses
  • Communicate Dx but acknowledge Sx severity
  • Reassure patient of continuing care
  • May benefit from CBT, group therapy or psychotherapy
493
Q

HYPOCHONDRIASIS

What is hypochondriacal disorder?

A
  • Preoccupation with fear of having a serious disease (C = condition) which persists despite -ve Ix + appropriate reassurance
494
Q

HYPOCHONDRIASIS

What is the clinical presentation of hypochondriasis?

A
  • Over-valued idea of having serious medical condition, often fatal
  • Ruminates on possibility, misinterprets insignificant bodily abnormalities as signs of serious disease needing investigation
  • Unable to be reassured by negative investigations
495
Q

HYPOCHONDRIASIS

What is the management of hypochondriasis?

A
  • Clarify Sx real but emphasise absence of organic cause
  • SSRIs may help
  • ERP to illness cues, CBT to identify + challenge misinterpretations + substitute realistic interpretations
496
Q

SOMATOFORM PAIN

What is somatoform pain disorder?

A
  • Complaint of persistent + distressing pain which is not adequately explained by organic pathology
497
Q

SOMATOFORM PAIN

What is the management of somatoform pain disorder?

A
  • Atheoretical “see what works” approach
  • Pain clinics (anaesthetics led, antidepressants, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation/TENS, local + regional nerve blocks)
  • Relaxation training, CBT, hypnotherapy
498
Q

MUNCHAUSEN’S

What is Munchausen’s (factitious disorder)?

A
  • Pt intentionally falsifies their Sx, past Hx + fabricate signs of physical or mental disorder with primary aim of obtaining medical attention + Tx
  • May flee when story questioned
499
Q

MUNCHAUSEN’S

What are the 3 subtypes of Munchausen’s?

A
  • Wandering
  • Non-wandering
  • By proxy
500
Q

MUNCHAUSEN’S

What is wandering Munchausen’s?

A
  • M>F

- Move hospital-hospital, job-job, place-place, makes elaborate stories, changes name

501
Q

MUNCHAUSEN’S

What is non-wandering Munchausen’s?

A
  • F>M
  • More stable lifestyles, less dramatic presentations
  • Often paramedical professionals
  • Associated with EUPD
502
Q

MUNCHAUSEN’S

What is Munchausen’s by proxy?

A
  • F>M
  • Mothers, carers, paramedic staff who simulate or prolong illness in their dependents
  • Clinical focus to prevent further harm on the dependent
503
Q

MUNCHAUSEN’S

What is the management of Munchausen’s?

A
  • Reduce iatrogenic harm from inappropriate tests + treatment
  • Challenge pt in non-punitive manner
  • Healthcare systems change to prevent harm (blacklisting)
504
Q

MALINGERING
What is malingering?
Give some examples

A
  • Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of Sx for personal gain
  • Drug-seeking behaviours, avoid army service, compensation
505
Q

COUNSELLING

What is counselling?

A
  • Relieving distress via dialogue between 2 people

- Therapist listens + helps patient find own solutions

506
Q

PSYCHOEDUCATION

What is psychoeducation?

A
  • Briefing patients about their illness so they understand it better
  • Problem solving training so they know how to deal with it better
  • Communication training so they can express their emotions better
  • Self-assertiveness training, relatives included
507
Q

CBT

What is the role of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)?

A
  • Identify + challenge negative thoughts + modify abnormal core beliefs
  • Based on idea disorder not caused by life events but way patient views these events > better emotional regulation
508
Q

DBT

What is dialectical behavioural therapy (DBT)?

A
  • Helps to change unhelpful ways of thinking (anger) + behaving (self-harm) like CBT but also focuses on accepting who you are at same time (accept + change
509
Q

DBT

What are the two components to DBT?

A
  • Individual therapy = therapist validates pt’s responses, reinforces adaptive behaviours + facilitates analysis of maladaptive behaviours + their triggers
  • Group therapy = teaching on mindfulness, interpersonal effectiveness skills (problem solving, communication), emotional modulation skills
510
Q

PSYCHOANALYTICAL PSYCHOTHERAPY

What is psychoanalytical psychotherapy?

A
  • Childhood experiences, past conflicts + relationships influence individual’s current situation
  • Once inner struggles brought to light, behaviour + feelings improve
511
Q

GROUP PSYCHOTHERAPY
What is group psychotherapy?
Give some examples

A
  • Individuals brought together under therapist’s guidance with goals of reducing distress + Sx, increasing coping or improving relationships
  • Support groups, activity groups (art, music), self-help groups (AA)
512
Q

FAMILY THERAPY

What is family therapy?

A
  • Enables those in close relationships to better understand, support each other better, explore each other’s thoughts + build on family strengths together
513
Q

INTERPERSONAL THERAPY
What is interpersonal therapy?
What is it used in?

A
  • Identify + address problems in their relationships with idea that poor relationships can leave you depressed + depression in turn can make relationships worse
  • Depression (severe or not responded to other therapies)
514
Q

BEHAVIOURAL ACTIVATION
What is behavioural activation therapy?
What is it used for?

A
  • Aim to give patients motivation to make simple, practical steps towards enjoying life again
  • Also teaches problem-solving skills
  • Depression
515
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What is gender dysphoria?

A
  • Mismatch between biological sex + gender identity of an individual causing distress
516
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA
Define…

i) transsexual
ii) trans woman
iii) trans man

A

i) Person who emotionally + psychologically feels that they belong to opposite sex
ii) Assigned male sex 46XY at birth who later identifies as a woman
iii) Assigned female sex 46XX who later identifies as a man

517
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What act is relevant to gender dysphoria?

A
  • Gender recognition act 2004
  • Allows transsexual people to legally change their gender
  • Have to demonstrate Dx of gender dysphoria + have lived as gender role for ≥2y
518
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What is the clinical presentation of gender dysphoria?

A
  • Low self-esteem, self-neglect, social isolation
  • Depression, anxiety + suicidality
  • Only comfortable when in preferred gender role
  • Strong desire to hide physical signs + dislike of genitals of biological sex
519
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA
What is the management of gender dysphoria in…

i) <18?
ii) >18?

A

i) Referral to gender identity development service (GIDS) with MDT (CAMHS, clinical psychologist, social worker, family therapist)
ii) Referral to gender dysphoria clinic (GP or self-referral)

520
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What surgical procedures may be offered?

A
  • TM = mastectomy, hysterectomy, nipple repositioning, phalloplasty or penile implant, scrotoplasty + testicular implants
  • TW = orchidectomy, penectomy, vaginoplasty, vulvoplasty or clitoroplasty
521
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What biological treatment can be used in <16y?

A
  • Very few young people who meet strict criteria may have gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues (hormone blockers) as reach puberty
522
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What biological treatment can be used >16?

A
  • Cross-sex/gender-affirming hormones if on hormone blockers for ≥12m
    – Oestrogen for breasts + feminine features
    – Testosterone for deep voice + masculine features (body hair)
523
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA
What psychological treatment can be given to…

i) <18y?
ii) >18y?

A

i) Family therapy, individual child psychotherapy, parental support/counselling
ii) Counselling, SALT to help sound like gender identity

524
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What social management is there for gender dysphoria?

A
  • Quit smoking (may increase risks of side effects from treatments)
  • Lose weight if overweight to reduce risks from cross-sex hormones)
  • Social transitioning incl. changing name by deed poll
525
Q

GENDER DYSPHORIA

What are some risks of the hormone therapy?

A
  • Oestrogen = clots, gallstones, high triglycerides
  • Testosterone = polycythaemia, acne, dyslipidaemia
  • Both = elevated LFTs, infertility, weight gain
526
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What is insomnia?

A
  • Issues with – falling to, maintaining or poor quality of sleep (≥3d/week for 1m)
527
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What are the 2 types of insomnia?

A
  • Primary = intrinsic + Extrinsic factors (fear of falling asleep, poor sleep hygiene, change of environment)
  • Secondary = to illness or substance misuse (sleep apneoa, circadian rhythm disorder, shift work)
528
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What is the management of insomnia?

A
  • Rx with zopiclone if good sleep hygiene unsuccessful

- Mirtazapine

529
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS
What is narcolepsy?
What is cataplexy?

A
  • Hypersomnolence, sleep paralysis, hypnogogic + hypnopompic hallucinations
  • Cataplexy = sudden loss of muscle tone often triggered by emotion
530
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What is the management of narcolepsy?

A
  • Multiple sleep latency EEG, early onset REM sleep

- Rx with daytime stimulants (modafinil) + night-time sodium oxybate

531
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What is circadian rhythm disorder?

A
  • Mismatch between sleep-wake cycle + circadian rhythms (jet lag, shift work)
532
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What is parasomnia?

A
  • Restless leg syndrome
  • Nightmares + night tremors
  • Sleep walking + talking
533
Q

SLEEP DISORDERS

What are some sleep hygiene advice?

A
  • Limit caffeine, alcohol + cigarettes
  • Reduce noise, lights + phone use, wind down before bed
  • Reduce sleep during day + try establish regular pattern