NEURO Flashcards

1
Q

STROKE

What is a stroke?

A
  • Clinical syndrome consisting of rapid onset focal neurological deficit lasting >24h or leading to death which is the result of a vascular lesion and is associated with infarction of CNS tissue
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2
Q

STROKE

What are the two main causes of stroke and how do they cause a stroke?

A
  • Ischaemic (85%) – cerebral ischaemia leads to infarction of neural tissue + so loss of functionality
  • Haemorrhagic (15%) – ruptured blood vessel leads to reduced blood flow
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3
Q

STROKE

What are the causes of ischaemic strokes?

A
  • Cardiac (atherosclerosis, AF, infective endocarditis, structural like ASD, patent foramen ovale, MR, valve replacement)
  • Vascular (aortic or vertebral dissection
  • Haem (sickle cell, polycythaemia)
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4
Q

STROKE

What are the causes of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Intracerebral haemorrhage
- Trauma, arteriovenous malformation
- Cerebral amyloid angiopathy due amyloid deposition in arteries
- Small vessel disease due to chronic HTN
SAH (trauma, berry aneurysm, AVM)
Anticoagulants, tumours + substance abuse (secondary causes)

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5
Q

STROKE

Give an example of how chronic HTN can cause a stroke.

A
  • Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms most often in the basal ganglia
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6
Q

STROKE

What are the risk factors for strokes?

A
  • HTN = biggest
  • CV = hypercholesterolaemia, smoking, AF, IHD
  • Previous TIA, carotid artery stenosis
  • DM
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7
Q

STROKE

What are some important differentials of stroke?

A
  • Metabolic (hypo or hyperglycaemia, electrolytes)
  • Intracranial tumours, hemiplegic migraine
  • Infection (meningitis)
  • Head injury, seizure (focal > Todd’s paralysis)
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8
Q

STROKE
What classification system can be used for strokes?
What are the various components?

A
  • Oxford stroke (Bamford) classification
  • Total anterior circulation stroke (TACS)
  • Partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS)
  • Posterior circulation syndrome (POCS)
  • Lacunar syndrome (LACS)
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9
Q

STROKE
What vessels can be affected in TACS?
What criteria must be met for a TACS?

A
  • ACA, MCA, carotid
    All three Hs –
  • Hemiplegia (unilateral ± sensory deficit of face, arm leg)
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disturbance)
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10
Q

STROKE
What vessels can be affected in PACS?
What criteria must be met for a PACS?

A
  • ACA, MCA, carotid (same vessels as TACS)

- 2/3 of the criteria for TACS

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11
Q

STROKE
What vessels can be affected in POCS?
What criteria must be met for a POCS?

A
  • PCA, vertebrobasilar artery or branches
    One of the following –
  • Cranial nerve palsy + contralateral motor/sensory deficit
  • Bilateral motor/sensory deficit
  • Conjugate eye movement disorder (e.g. gaze palsy)
  • Cerebellar dysfunction (ataxia, nystagmus, vertigo)
  • Isolated homonymous hemianopia + cortical blindness
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12
Q

STROKE
What vessels can be affected in LACS and what does that mean?
What areas can be affected in LACS?
What criteria must be met for a LACS?

A
  • Perforating arteries so no higher cortical dysfunction or visual field abnormality, subcortical stroke
  • Thalamus, basal ganglia, internal capsule
    One of following –
  • Pure sensory stroke (thalamus)
  • Pure motor stroke (posterior limb of internal capsule)
  • Sensori-motor stroke
  • Ataxic hemiparesis
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13
Q

STROKE

How would an ACA stroke present?

A
  • Contralateral lower limb hemiparesis + loss of sensation

- Gait apraxia (unable to initiate walking)

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14
Q

STROKE

How would a MCA stroke present?

A
  • Contralateral upper (± lower) limb weakness + loss of sensation
  • Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
  • Expressive/receptive dysphasia (Broca’s/Wernicke’s area of dominant hemisphere)
  • Dysarthria, facial droop
  • Hemineglect syndrome if affecting non-dominant hemisphere
  • CLASSIC STROKE*
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15
Q

STROKE

How would a PCA stroke present?

A
  • Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
  • Visual agnosia (cannot interpret visual information but can see)
  • Prosopagnosia (inability to recognise familiar face)
  • Cerebellar dysfunction
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16
Q

STROKE

How would a brainstem/basilar artery infarct present?

A
  • Locked in syndrome – complete paralysis BUT eye movement + awareness preserved
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17
Q

STROKE
How would lateral medullary/Wallenberg’s syndrome present?
What vessel is implicated?

A
  • Cerebellar: ataxia, nystagmus
  • Ipsi: dysphagia, facial numbness + CN palsy
  • Contra: limb sensory loss
  • Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
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18
Q

STROKE
How would lateral pontine syndrome present?
What vessel is implicated?

A
  • Similar to Wallenberg’s but ipsilateral facial paralysis + deafness
  • Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
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19
Q

STROKE
What is a transient ischaemia attack (TIA)?
What is a crescendo TIA?

A
  • Transient neurological dysfunction secondary to cerebral ischaemia without infarction, usually self-resolving neurological deficit within 24h
  • ≥2 TIAs within a week (high risk of stroke)
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20
Q

STROKE

What risk assessment tool can be used to calculate a person’s risk of having a stroke within the next 48h?

A

ABCD2

  • Age >60 (1)
  • BP >140/90mmHg (1)
  • Clinical features (unilateral weakness = 2, speech disturbance = 1)
  • Diabetes (1)
  • Duration (≥60m = 2, 10–59m = 1)
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21
Q

STROKE

What do the scores from ABCD2 mean?

A
  • ≥4 or crescendo TIAs = specialist assessment within 24h (give aspirin 300mg OD)
  • ≤3 = specialist assessment within 1 week, ?brain imaging
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22
Q

STROKE

What tools can be used to identify stroke?

A
  • FAST = Facial drooping, Arms floppy, Slurred speech, Time critical (999)
  • ROSIER = Recognition Of Stroke In Emergency Room
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23
Q

STROKE

What investigation is crucial for the management of stroke and why?

A
  • Non-contrast CT head to exclude haemorrhagic before treatment given.
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24
Q

STROKE

How would an ischaemic stroke appear on CT head?

A
  • Hypodensity in region affected with hyperdense vessel
  • Loss of grey-white matter differentiation + sulcal effacement (squishing) in cortical infarction
  • Hypodense basal ganglia may be seen in deep vessel infarcts
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25
Q

STROKE

How would a haemorrhagic stroke appear on CT head?

A
  • Acute = hyperdense
  • Subacte = isodense
  • Chronic = hypodense
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26
Q

STROKE
What are the pros of CT head imaging?
What is the gold standard imaging for stroke if nothing can be seen on CT head?

A
  • Quick, readily available, can distinguish site affected + if ischaemic or haemorrhagic
  • Diffusion-weighted MRI head as shows changes within minutes + higher sensitivity for infarcts
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27
Q

STROKE

What bloods may be taken in suspected stroke?

A
  • FBC, ESR + clotting screen (polycythaemia, vasculitis, thrombocytopenia)
  • U+Es, creatinine, LFTs, Ca2+ (electrolytes)
  • Blood glucose (hypo)
  • TFTs, lipid profile (hypercholesterolaemia)
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28
Q

STROKE

What other investigations may you do in stroke?

A
  • ECG 72h tape to look for paroxysmal AF, MI.
  • ECHO to check for endocarditis or CHD
  • CTA/MRA or carotid doppler USS to look for dissection or carotid stenosis
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29
Q

STROKE

What are some potential complications following a stroke?

A
  • Raised ICP, aspiration pneumonia due to dysphagia, pressure sores
  • Cognitive impairment, long-term disability, depression
  • VTE due to immobility
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30
Q
STROKE
What is the most crucial management for ischaemic strokes?
What timeframe?
Mechanism of action?
Drug?
A
  • Thrombolysis with IV tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
  • Within 4.5 hours
  • Converts plasminogen > plasmin so promotes breakdown of fibrin clot
  • Alteplase (tPA) or can use streptokinase
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31
Q

STROKE
What must be done after alteplase treatment?
What are the benefits of alteplase?
What are the risks of alteplase?

A
  • Repeat CT head after 24h to check for haemorrhagic transformation
  • Improves chance of independence on discharge, benefit decreases with time (time=brain), risk of death same
  • Haemorrhage (1 in 20), reaction to tPA
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32
Q

STROKE

What are some contraindications to treatment with alteplase?

A
  • Haemorrhagic stroke
  • Recent surgery
  • GI bleeding
  • Pregnancy
  • Hx of intracranial haemorrhage
  • Active cancer
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33
Q

STROKE

What other treatment can be given in ischaemic stroke either alongside alteplase or after the time frame?

A
  • Thrombectomy (mechanical retrieval of clot)
  • Proximal anterior circulation stroke within 6h (with IV alteplase if <4.5h) or within 24h if potential to salvage brain tissue
  • Proximal posterior circulation stroke within 24h (with IV alteplase if <4.5h) if potential to salvage brain tissue
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34
Q

STROKE

What other management is given for ischaemic strokes?

A
  • Control BP

- 300mg aspirin OD 2w post-stroke + then lifelong 75mg clopidogrel

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35
Q

STROKE

What is the management of a haemorrhagic stroke?

A
  • Stop anticoagulants if on any + warfarin reversal with vitamin K + beriplex
  • Aggressive BP control (140–160mmHg systolic)
  • Surgical decompression (either endovascular clipping or coiling)
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36
Q

STROKE

What lifestyle advice should be given post-stroke?

A
  • Smoking + alcohol cessation
  • Improve diet + exercise
  • Cannot drive for 1m post-stroke or 1y if HGV driver
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37
Q

STROKE

What medication and general management may be given in stroke prevention?

A
  • Antiplatelets (lifelong clopidogrel or aspirin + dipyridamole if cardiac disease)
  • Anticoagulation if have AF but wait 2w post-stroke
  • Manage co-morbidities (HTN, DM)
  • Cholesterol >3.5mmol/L diet + 80mg atorvastatin
  • VTE assessment + monitor for infection
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38
Q

STROKE

When assessing whether to anticoagulate a patient, what scores could you use?

A
  • CHA2DS2-VaSc (risk of stroke due to AF)

- HAS-BLED (risk of serious bleeding)

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39
Q

STROKE

What is the CHA2DS2-VaSc score

A
  • Congestive heart failure
  • HTN
  • Age 65-74 (1), ≥75 (2)
  • Diabetes
  • Prev stroke/TIA (2)
  • Vascular disease
  • Sex female
  • 1 = consider anticoagulation, ≥2 = anticoagulate
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40
Q

STROKE

What is the HAS-BLED score?

A
  • HTN >160mmHg
  • Abnormal liver/renal function
  • Stroke
  • Bleeding Hx or predisposition
  • Labile INR
  • Elderly >65y
  • Drug/alcohol use
  • ≥3 = high risk of bleeding
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41
Q

STROKE
What treatment may be considered after a TIA?
How would you assess suitability?

A
  • Carotid endarterectomy if >70% carotid artery stenosis within 2w of Sx (TIA/stroke)
  • Carotid doppler USS
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42
Q

STROKE

Strokes require an MDT approach for rehabilitation. Name some of the members in the stroke MDT and their role

A
  • Nurses (manage meds, NG feeding, prevent pressure sores)
  • Physio (strength, balance + function training)
  • OT (functional Ax + home mods)
  • SALT (swallowing issues, communication rehab)
  • Dietetics, orthotics, psychology
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43
Q

SAH

What is the pathophysiology of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)?

A
  • Spontaneous rupture of arteries supplying the brain causes a rapid release of arterial blood into the subarachnoid space, where the CSF is located between pia mater + arachnoid membrane in the meninges
  • This causes increased ICP + possibly stroke.
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44
Q

SAH

What is the most common cause of SAH?

A
  • Saccular/berry aneurysm rupture (80%)
  • Commonest sites at bifurcations:
  • Junction of anterior communicating/cerebral arteries
  • Junction of posterior communicating with internal carotid
  • Trifurcation of MCA
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45
Q

SAH
What are some other causes of SAH?
What conditions are linked to SAH?
What are some risk factors for SAH?

A
  • Congenital arteriovenous malformations (15%), trauma
  • Polycystic kidneys, coarctation of aorta + Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • Smoking, alcohol misuse, HTN, bleeding disorders, FHx of SAH
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46
Q

SAH

What are some symptoms of SAH?

A
  • Sudden onset excruciating headache, often occipital (thunderclap)
  • Can occur on exertion (weightlifting, sex)
  • Vomiting, seizures, LOC/collapse, coma/drowsiness which can last for days
  • Preceding ‘sentinel’ headache (?small warning leak from offending aneurysm)
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47
Q

SAH

What are some signs of SAH?

A
  • Meningism – neck stiffness, photophobia, +ve kernig’s (pain/unable to extend leg at knee when it’s bent)
  • Focal neurology (CN III palsy, other CN palsies)
  • Retinal, subhyaloid + vitreous bleeds on fundoscopy
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48
Q

SAH

What are some complications of SAH?

A
  • 50% die suddenly or soon after haemorrhage
  • Rebleeding (20% within first few days)
  • Cerebral ischaemia due to vasospasm can cause permanent CNS deficit (most common cause of morbidity)
  • Obstructive hydrocephalus due to blockage of arachnoid granulations (requires ventricular or lumbar drain)
  • Hyponatraemia (IV 0.9% NaCl saline)
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49
Q

SAH

What is often associated with better outcomes in SAH?

A
  • GCS >12 on arrival
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50
Q

SAH

What are some important investigations for SAH?

A
  • CT head gold standard (95% sensitivity on day 1) – white star-shaped lesion as blood fills gyro patterns around brain + ventricles
  • Lumbar puncture if CT -ve after 12h to allow Hb to break down – xanthochromia (yellow due to bilirubin) confirms
  • CT angiography to locate aneurysms before surgical procedures
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51
Q

SAH

What is the management of SAH?

A
  • Neurosurgery referral ASAP (endovascular coiling vs. surgical clipping which requires craniotomy)
  • Maintain cerebral perfusion with IV fluids but ensure SBP <160mmHg
  • PO nimodipine for 3w to reduce vasospasm + prevent morbidity
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52
Q

EDH
What is the pathophysiology of extra-dural haematoma (EDH)?
What is the offending vessel?
Any other vessels?

A
  • Often fractured temporal/parietal bone leads to blood accumulating between bone + dura mater
  • Middle meningeal artery
  • 25% venous if fracture disrupts the venous sinuses
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53
Q

EDH
What is the ventricles mechanism seen in EDH?
What causes an EDH?

A
  • Ventricles get rid of their CSF to prevent the rise in ICP

- Traumatic head injury (typically to temple, just lateral to eye e.g. punch)

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54
Q

EDH

What is the natural clinical presentation of EDH?

A
  • May be initial LOC/drowsiness
  • Slow bleeds lead to lucid interval pattern where pt appears to improve but then rapid decrease in GCS from rising ICP
  • Signs of increased ICP ± focal neurology develop
  • Ipsilateral pupil dilation, coma deepens, bilateral limb weakness
  • Cushing’s reflex is a late sign
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55
Q

EDH
In the natural clinical presentation of EDH…

i) what are the signs of ICP ± focal neurology?
ii) what is Cushing’s reflex?

A

i) Increasingly severe headache, vomiting, confusion + seizures ± hemiparesis with brisk reflexes + upgoing plantars
ii) Bradycardia and increased BP

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56
Q

EDH
What are some differentials for EDH?
What are some complications of EDH?

A
  • Epilepsy, CO poisoning, carotid dissection

- Brainstem compression can cause deep + irregular breathing, death may follow period of coma due to respiratory arrest

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57
Q

EDH

What are the investigations for EDH?

A

Non-contrast CT head –
- Hyperdense biconvex haematoma ± midline shift
- Haematoma IS limited by cranial sutures as dura mater adheres tightly to skull at cranial sutures
Skull XR may show fracture lines crossing course of middle meningeal artery

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58
Q

EDH

What investigation is contraindicated in EDH and why?

A
  • Lumbar puncture
  • Drop in CSF pressure in spinal column will speed up brain herniation through the foramen magnum as CSF + brain mass may shift towards low pressure outlet > brainstem compression + respiratory arrest
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59
Q

EDH

What is the management for EDH?

A
  • Neurosurgical transfer for clot evacuation ± ligation of bleeding vessel
  • IV mannitol if increased ICP (osmotic diuresis)
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60
Q

SDH

What is the pathophysiology of subdural haematoma (SDH)?

A
  • Rupture of a vein running from hemisphere to the sagittal sinus of the dural venous sinuses (bridging veins) that’s beneath the dura leading to haematoma between arachnoid + dura mater
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61
Q

SDH
What causes a SDH?
Who are at risk of SDH?

A
  • Often minor trauma, can occur 9m post-incident as venous blood bleeds slowly
  • Alcoholics + elderly as prone to falls + have atrophic brains making bridging veins stretched so more likely to rupture, also shaken babies
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62
Q

SDH

What are the symptoms of SDH?

A
  • Fluctuating level of consciousness (GCS)
  • Insidious physical/intellectual slowing
  • Unsteadiness, drowsy
  • Sx of increased ICP = headache (worse coughing or leaning forward), vomit
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63
Q

SDH

What are some signs of SDH?

A
  • Raised ICP, seizures

- Focal neurology occurs later (often >1m after injury) like unequal pupils, hemiparesis

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64
Q

SDH

What are the investigations for SDH?

A

Non-contrast CT head shows crescent/concave shaped haematoma ± midline shift –

  • Acute/subacute (<14d) = hyperdense (white)
  • Chronic (>14d) = hypodense (darker)
  • Acute-on-chronic (rebleed) = both/mixture
  • Haematoma is NOT limited by cranial sutures
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65
Q

SDH

What is the management of SDH?

A
  • Small = clot evacuation via burr hole
  • Large = craniotomy
  • IV mannitol if increased ICP (osmotic diuresis)
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66
Q
EPILEPSY
Define...
i) epilepsy
ii) seizure
iii) ictal phase
iv) post-ictal phase
A

i) Recurrent tendency to have unprovoked seizures
ii) Paroxysmal event in which changes of behaviour, sensation, cognition + consciousness caused by excessive, hypersynchronous neurological discharges in the brain
iii) Early phase w/ +ve Sx (excessive/jerky actions)
iv) Later phase w/ -ve Sx (weakness, drowsy)

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67
Q

EPILEPSY

What are the causes of epilepsy?

A
  • 2/3rd idiopathic, genetics/FHx, alcohol/drugs including withdrawal
  • Brain injury = trauma, hypoxia, surgery
  • SOL = tumour, asbcess
  • Infection = meningitis, encephalitis
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68
Q

EPILEPSY

What is a focal/partial seizure?

A
  • Confined to one area of cortex with recognisable pattern, usually unilateral meaning 1 hemisphere affected, may affect one body part
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69
Q
EPILEPSY
What is a...
i) simple-partial seizure?
ii) complex-partial seizure?
iii) secondary generalised seizure?
A

i) Consciousness + awareness is preserved (e.g. foot twitch)
ii) Without consciousness or awareness
iii) Seizures starts in 1 hemisphere but spreads to both (focal > general)

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70
Q
EPILEPSY
How would a partial seizure present in...
i) frontal lobe?
ii) temporal lobe?
iii) parietal lobe?
iv) occipital lobe?
A

i) strange smells, motor movements, Jacksonian march
ii) déjà/jamais-vu, automatisms (chewing, lip smacking), hallucinations, aura/sensations, amnesia
iii) contralateral altered sensation (tingling, numbness, crawling, electric-shock)
iv) flashing lights, eyelid fluttering, eye movements

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71
Q

EPILEPSY
What is…
i) Jacksonian march?
ii) Todd’s paresis?

A

i) Starts on one side of body then “marches” over a few seconds to affect larger parts of body like entire hand, foot or facial muscles + may generalise
ii) Focal weakness in a part or all of the body after a seizure

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72
Q

EPILEPSY
What is a generalised seizure?
What are the 4 main types?

A
  • Activity in both hemispheres, diffuse throughout the brain with bilateral movement abnormalities
  • Absence seizures, tonic-clonic seizures, myoclonic seizures + atonic (akinetic) seizures/drop attacks
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73
Q

EPILEPSY

Explain what an absence seizure is.

A
  • Brief <30s pauses where activity stops (still, no talking, stares)
  • Begins in childhood, may progress to tonic-clonic later in life
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74
Q

EPILEPSY

Explain what a tonic clonic seizure is.

A
  • Tonic = vague warning, rigid, pt falls + may make sound, LOC + may stop breathing
  • Clonic = convulsions, bilateral rhythmic muscle jerks, irregular breathing, may bite tongue (lateral) or urinary incontinence
  • Post-ictal = drowsy, confused, irritable or depressed
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75
Q

EPILEPSY

Explain what a myoclonic seizure is.

A
  • Brief, sudden muscle contractions like jerk of a limb, face or trunk
  • Usually remains awake, can occur in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
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76
Q

EPILEPSY

Explain what an atonic (akinetic) seizure/drop attack is.

A
  • Brief, sudden loss of muscle tone causing a fall but no LOC
  • Typically begin in childhood, ?indicate Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
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77
Q

EPILEPSY

What are some differentials of epilepsy?

A
  • Cardiac = postural or cardiogenic syncope

- Non-epileptic attack disorder, hypoglycaemia, TIA

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78
Q

EPILEPSY

What investigations would you do in epilepsy?

A
  • Mostly clinical Dx, witnessed seizure Hx crucial
  • Exclude organic causes (FBC, U+Es, LFTs, glucose, ECG)
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG) often sleep deprived or hyperventilate to provoke
  • ?Neuroimaging (CT/MRI head) if focal neurology + concerned about SOL
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79
Q

EPILEPSY
What is the general management in the ictal phase?
What are the treatment principles in epilepsy?

A
  • Ensure little harm as possible, maintain airway, do not restrain
  • Aim for monotherapy, attain maximum tolerated dose before changing or adding drugs, avoid abrupt withdrawal
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80
Q

EPILEPSY

Compare the management of generalised seizures and focal seizures

A
  • Generalised 1st line = sodium valproate, 2nd line = lamotrigine, carbamazepine for TC as can exacerbate absent + myoclonic, clonazepam for myoclonic
  • Focal 1st line = carbamazepine (or lamotrigine), 2nd line = sodium valproate or levetiracetam
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81
Q

EPILEPSY
What is the management of
i) absence seizures?
ii) failed AEDs?

A

i) 1st line = ethosuximide or sodium valproate

ii) Vagal stimulation, surgery (hemispherectomy or non-dominant lobectomy)

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82
Q

EPILEPSY

What driving advice should be given to patients regarding seizures and established epilepsy?

A
  • Cannot drive for 6m following seizure + must inform DVLA

- Established epilepsy must be seizure free for 12m before driving

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83
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What is status epilepticus?

A
  • Medical emergency where a seizure does not self-limit – seizures lasting >5m or ≥2 within a 5-minute period
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84
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS
What are some causes of status epilepticus?
When might status epilepticus be the first presentation of epilepsy?

A
  • Poor adherence #1
  • Infections (meningitis, encephalitis)
  • Worsening of primary cause of epilepsy (e.g. brain tumour growing)
  • First presentation in alcohol abuse (most commonly) or acute brain problem (stroke, trauma, infections, hypoglycaemia)
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85
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What is the clinical presentation of status epilepticus?

A
  • Convulsions tend to occur for 2–3m
  • Followed by slow activity or rest period + then more convulsions
  • The whole process continues although individual seizures do not
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86
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What are the complications of status epilepticus?

A
  • 10% mortality
  • Long-term morbidity after episode, esp. if hypoxic brain injury occurred (rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, renal failure)
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87
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What is the initial management for status epilepticus?

A
  • ABCDE approach (Secure airway, high conc oxygen, assess cardiorespiratory function)
  • Establish IV access
  • Measure capillary glucose + correct immediately
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88
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What investigations might you do for aetiologies of status epilepticus?

A
  • FBC, U+Es, Ca2+, Mg+, LFTs, INR, AED levels, CK
  • Blood cultures
  • Toxicology screen
  • CT head to rule out organic causes
  • LP if imaging -ve
  • EEG useful
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89
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What is the step-wise management of status epilepticus?

A
  • IV lorazepam 4mg if fitting >5m – repeat after 10m if persists
  • IV phenytoin (regular ECG/BP), phenobarbital or sodium valproate
  • No response to step 2 within 30m then anaesthesia + ICU admission as anaesthesia will stop but v dangerous
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90
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

What considerations should be made in status epilepticus?

A
  • Community – buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam as step 1
  • If ?alcohol related treat with IV thiamine or Pabrinex
  • If medication not working or no response ?non-epileptic
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91
Q
LOC
What is...
i) LOC?
ii) syncope?
iii) NEAD?
A

i) Partial or complete loss of perception of yourself + surroundings
ii) Transient global cerebral hypoperfusion
iii) Episodes of movement, sensation or experience that resemble epileptic seizures but without ictal cerebral discharges, physical manifestation of psychological distress

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92
Q

LOC

What are the potential causes of LOC?

A

CRASH

  • Cardiogenic (more alarming)
  • Reflex (neurally mediated)
  • Arterial
  • Systemic
  • Head
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93
Q

LOC

How might cardiogenic LOC present/causes?

A
  • Transient arrhythmias (SVT, WPW, Brugada, long QT)
  • Bradyarrhythmias like complete heart block > asystole
  • Structural (aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) where may have palpitations, dyspnoea + CP
  • BLACKOUT ON EXERCISE IS CARDIOGENIC UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE*
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94
Q

LOC

How might reflex LOC present?

A
  • Vasovagal syncope = intense fear like watching surgery, needles > faint
  • Situational syncope = coughing, post-micturition
  • Carotid sinus syncope = hypersensitive baroreceptors cause excessive reflexive bradycardia on minimal stimulation (turn head, shaving, reaching high)
  • Postural hypotension (iatrogenic autonomic failure)
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95
Q

LOC
How might…

i) arterial
ii) systemic
iii) head

LOC present?

A

i) Vertebrobasilar insufficiency (TIA, CVA)
ii) Hypoglycaemia
iii) Epilepsy, NEAD, anxiety (hyperventilation)

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96
Q

LOC

What are some important questions to ask in LOC?

A
  • Collateral Hx/witness account is crucial
  • Head banging
  • Triggers, before, during, after (how they felt, warning signs, incontinence, injury like tongue biting, sleepy or muscle aches)
  • Previous episodes
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97
Q

LOC
How might syncope present in terms of…

i) patient?
ii) triggers?
iii) prodrome?
iv) ictal?
v) post-ictal?

A

i) Older, co-morbidities or young + FHx of young deaths
ii) Posture, exertion, metabolic
iii) Pale, clammy, palpitations, CPs, ‘going dark’
iv) Floppy, seconds, eye closed ± few jerks
v) Rapid recovery, seconds

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98
Q

LOC
How might epilepsy present in terms of…

i) patient?
ii) triggers?
iii) prodrome?
iv) ictal?
v) post-ictal?

A

i) Any age, ?CNS lesion, FHx of epilepsy
ii) Alcohol, decreased sleep, illness, hyperventilation, none
iii) No warning or ?aura, staring/vacant, vocalisation (cry out), posturing
iv) Tonic>clonic, symmetrical, few minutes, eyes open, incontinence, lateral tongue biting
v) Slow recovery, amnesia, confused, drowsy, agitated

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99
Q

LOC
How might NEAD present in terms of…

i) patient?
ii) triggers?
iii) prodrome?
iv) ictal?
v) post-ictal?

A

i) Younger, F>M, social/personal stressors, psych Hx, deprivation, abuse
ii) Heightened emotion, stress or panic
iii) No warning, upset/panic, aware of impending seizure
iv) Thrashing/asymmetrical, long (up to 1h), pelvic thrusting, violent, back arching, eyes + mouth forcibly closed, crying, ?distractible, tongue biting (tip), waxing/waning
v) unusually rapid, emotional ± amnesia

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100
Q

LOC
What investigations would you do for LOC?
How can NEAD and a true epileptic seizure be differentiated?

A
  • CV + neuro exam
  • Vital signs including lying-standing BP
  • FBC, U+Es, glucose, LFTs, TFTs (normal CK + prolactin in NEAD)
  • 24h 12-lead ECG + ECHO
  • EEG + CT/MRI if necessary
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101
Q

LOC
What is the driving advice for LOC?
What is the management of LOC?
Management of NEAD?

A
  • No driving until cause known or until blackout free for 1y
  • Treat underlying cause
  • NEAD = correct Dx vital, speak to pt, reassure them, wait for seizure to pass, CBT, avoid AEDs as can be fatal if mistreated excessively (respiratory depression)
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102
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What is the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Progressive loss of dopaminergic neurones from the pars compacta of the substantia nigra leading to decreased levels of dopamine causing an alteration in neural circuits within the basal ganglia which regulates movement
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103
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What are the causes of Parkinson’s disease?
What can exacerbate it?

A
  • Unknown, some genetic link, typically 70y/o M
  • Haloperidol (dopamine blockade)
  • Metoclopramide + domperidone (anti-emetics which blockade dopamine)
  • Anticholinergics can precipitate confusion
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104
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What are the cardinal features of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Bradykinesia (slow, difficult initiating movement, small movements)
  • Rigidity (pain, problems turning in bed) – cogwheel rigidity with tension in arm that gives way to movement in small increments (little jerks)
  • Resting tremor – ‘pill-rolling’
  • Shuffling gait, small steps + postural instability (stooped)
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105
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What are some other signs of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Asymmetrical as Sx on one side always worse
  • Problems doing up buttons
  • Smaller writing (micrographia)
  • Hypomimia
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106
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What are some motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Insidious onset, reduced arm swing on one side
  • Tremor worsened by concentration
  • Progressive fatigue + decrease in amplitude of movements (tap foot on floor + it will start to slow)
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107
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What are some pre-motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Anosmia (90%, can occur 7y prior to motor Sx)
  • Depression/anxiety
  • Sleep disturbance (REM sleep behaviour disorder) + insomnia
  • Autonomic features – urgency, hypotension, constipation
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108
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
In terms of tremor, what is…

i) intention tremor?
ii) resting tremor?
iii) postural tremor?

A

i) Worse at end of movement (past-pointing) indicative of cerebellar issue
ii) Tremor seen in Parkinson’s disease
iii) Anxiety, increased adrenaline, salbutamol, valproate, lithium, benign essential tremor

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109
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

How can you differentiate Parkinson’s resting tremor from benign essential tremor ?

A
  • Asymmetrical vs symmetrical
  • 4–6Hz vs 5–8Hz
  • Worse at rest vs improves at rest
  • Improves with intentional movement vs worse with intentional movement
  • No change with alcohol vs improves with alcohol (also Rx = propranolol)
  • Parkinson’s vs. autosomal dominant condition
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110
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What are 4 differential diagnoses to consider in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Parkinson’s plus syndromes –

  • Progressive supranuclear palsy
  • Multiple system atrophy
  • Lewy Body dementia
  • Corticobasal degeneration
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111
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What is progressive supranuclear palsy?

A
  • Early falls, cognitive decline or both sides being equally affected
  • Occurs above nuclei of CN3, 4 + 6 so difficulty moving eyes
  • Impaired vertical gaze (down worse = issues reading or descending stairs)
  • Ocular cephalic reflex present (caused by supranuclear issue) where they tilt/turn their head to look at things rather than moving eyes
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112
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What is multiple system atrophy?

A
  • Neurones in multiple systems in the brain degenerate
  • Degeneration in basal ganglia > Parkinsonism
  • Degeneration in other areas > early autonomic (postural hypotension + falls, bladder/bowel dysfunction) + cerebellar (ataxia) dysfunction
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113
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What is Lewy Body dementia associated with?

A
  • Associated with Sx of visual hallucinations, delusions, REM sleep disorders, fluctuating consciousness, progressive cognitive decline + Parkinsonism
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114
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What is corticobasal degeneration?

A
  • Early myoclonic jerks, gait apraxia, agnosia + alien limb
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115
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What investigations would you do in Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Clinical Dx
  • Histological features may show lewy bodies made up of alpha-synuclein + ubiquitin and loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra
  • Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease shows normal MRI head + DaTSCAN (used to differentiate from other causes of Parkinsonism)
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116
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What are some complications of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Infections
  • Falls
  • Depression
  • Aspiration pneumonia
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117
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

What is the management of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Lifestyle: education, exercise, physio, MDT
  • Co-careldopa, co-beneldopa = increase amount of dopamine in CNS
  • Bromocriptine, cabergoline = dopamine receptor agonist
  • Entacapone + selegiline = inhibit enzymatic breakdown of dopamine
  • Anticholinergic amantadine for tremor + overactive bladder
  • Deep brain stimulation
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118
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE

What is the pathophysiology of Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Presence of mutant huntingtin protein causes loss of neurones in striatum (caudate nucleus + putamen) of basal ganglia causing depletion of inhibitory GABA (ACh + dopamine spared)
  • Reduced GABA = reduced inhibition so dopamine hypersensitivity + increase in dopamine transmission leading to increased stimulation at thalamus + cortex > involuntary movements
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119
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE

What is the aetiology of Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Autosomal dominant inheritance with 100% penetrance
  • Trinucleotide expansion repeat of CAG in HTT gene on chromosome 4
  • > 35 = HD
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120
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE
Huntington’s disease shows anticipation.
What does this mean?
When do symptoms typically occur?

A
  • Successive generations have more repeats leading to earlier age of onset + increased severity of disease
  • Around middle age
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121
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE
How does Huntington’s disease present?
What is the life expectancy from Sx onset?

A
  • Chorea (involuntary movements)
  • Psych (depression, suicide risk, psychotic Sx)
  • Personality change (irritability)
  • Cognitive decline (subcortical dementia)
  • Dysarthria + dysphagia
  • 15–20y + death mostly respiratory disease
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122
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE

What investigations would you do for Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Genetic testing with pre- + post-test counselling (cannot give to children have to be old enough to decide themselves), high risk of suicide with diagnosis
  • MRI head shows atrophy of striatum
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123
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE

What is the management of Huntington’s disease?

A
  • SSRIs for depression
  • Antipsychotics (haloperidol), BDZs (diazepam), dopamine-depleting agents (tetrabenazine) may help reduce chorea by blocking dopamine
  • Risperidone for aggression
  • MDT input from SALT, OT, physio + psychology
  • Advanced directive + EOL planning where necessary
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124
Q

HEADACHES

What are the two types of headaches and give some examples?

A
  • Primary (no underlying cause) such as migraine, cluster + tension (most common)
  • Secondary due to an underlying cause.
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125
Q

HEADACHES
What do these red flags for headaches indicate…

i) fever, photophobia, neck stiffness, rash?
ii) sudden onset occipital?
iii) vomiting, worse on coughing or straining?
iv) Hx of trauma + may resist analgesia?
v) dizziness or new neuro Sx?
vi) visual disturbance?
vii) pregnancy?
viii) subacute or sudden with papilloedema?
ix) travel Hx + flu-like illness?

A

i) Meningitis/encephalitis
ii) SAH
iii) Raised ICP (?SOL)
iv) Head injury or haemorrhage
v) Stroke
vi) GCA or glaucoma
vii) Pre-eclampsia
viii) Venous sinus thrombosis
ix) Malaria

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126
Q

HEADACHES

What are some common causes of headaches and their epidemiology + causes?

A
  • Cluster – 30–50M smokers
  • Tension – missed meals, stress, dehydration, alcohol, lack of sleep
  • Med overuse – commonest secondary, often analgesia overuse
  • Sinusitis – inflammation in ethmoidal, maxillary, frontal or sphenoidal sinuses
  • Acute glaucoma – elderly, long-sighted people with increased intraocular pressure
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127
Q

HEADACHES

How does a cluster headache present?

A
  • 15m–2h
  • Rapid onset excruciating pain around one eye
  • Pain unilateral, often nocturnal
  • Eye may be bloodshot, lid swelling, miosis, ptosis + lacrimation
  • ‘Cluster’ of attacks in a day then remission for weeks/months
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128
Q

HEADACHES

How does a tension headache present?

A
  • 30m–days
  • Bilateral, non-pulsatile headache ± scalp tenderness
  • Pressing/tight-band like sensation
  • Mild–moderate intensity
    (Med overuse headache is similar)
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129
Q

HEADACHES

How does a sinusitis headache present?

A
  • Facial pain behind nose, forehead + eyes, pain on leaning forward
  • Tenderness over affected sinus
  • Post-nasal drip, common with coryza
  • Pain lasts 1–2w, viral
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130
Q

HEADACHES

How does acute glaucoma present?

A
  • Constant aching pain rapidly develops around 1 eye, radiates to forehead, markedly reduced vision, visual halos, N+V
  • Signs = red, congested eye, cloudy cornea, dilated non-responsive eye (may be oval shaped)
  • Can be precipitated by dilating eye-drops, emotions or sitting in dark
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131
Q

HEADACHES
How can you diagnose…

i) cluster headaches?
ii) tension headaches?
iii) medication overuse headaches?

A

i) ≥5 classical headaches
ii) Clinical Dx
iii) Present >15d/month, regular use for >3m of >1 symptomatic treatment drugs + headache developed or worsened during drug use

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132
Q

HEADACHES

What is the acute and prophylactic management of cluster headaches?

A
  • S/c triptans + high flow 100% oxygen via non-rebreathe mask (about 15m)
  • Verapamil is first line, avoid triggers (alcohol), short course prednisolone may break cycle during clusters
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133
Q

HEADACHES

What is the management of tension headaches?

A
  • Reassure, stress relief (Exercise, avoid triggers, massage)
  • Simple analgesia like paracetamol (<15d/m) or complex analgesia (<10d/m)
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134
Q

HEADACHES

What is the management of medication overuse headache?

A
  • Withdrawal of analgesia (may be challenging if pt thinks necessary for headache)
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135
Q

HEADACHES

What is the management of sinusitis headache?

A
  • Nasal irrigation w/ saline

- Prolonged Sx with steroid nasal spray

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136
Q

HEADACHES

What is the management of acute glaucoma?

A
  • Immediate expert help + IV acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
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137
Q

TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA
What is the pathophysiology of trigeminal neuralgia?
What is affected?

A
  • Compression of trigeminal nerve results in demyelination + excitation of the nerve resulting in erratic pain signalling
  • Affects all 3 ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2) + mandibular (V3) branches but V3 mostly
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138
Q

TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA
What are the causes of trigeminal neuralgia?
What is the typical patient?
What are some triggers?

A
  • Idiopathic or secondary to tumour or MS
  • 50y/o asian male
  • Washing affected area, shaving, eating, talking + dental prostheses
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139
Q

TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA

What is the clinical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • Paroxysms of intense, stabbing pain, lasting seconds in the trigeminal nerve distribution (knife-like shooting pain with no neuro deficit)
  • Mostly unilateral, face screws up in pain
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140
Q

TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA

How would you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • Clinically with ≥3 attacks with pain in ≥1 division + classical Sx
  • ?CT/MRI head to exclude secondary causes
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141
Q

TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA

How would you manage trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • Carbamazepine 1st line

- If fails, microvascular decompression or stereotactic radiotherapy

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142
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

What is giant cell arteritis (GCA)?

A
  • Systemic vasculitis of the medium + large arteries, typically presents with Sx affecting the temporal arteries
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143
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS
What is the cause of GCA?
Who does GCA typically affect?

A
  • Unknown but strong association with polymyalgia rheumatica
  • Secondary to SLE, rheumatoid arthritis + HIV
  • > 60y/o + incidence increases with age so exclude in all those >60 + headache
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144
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

What is the general clinical presentation of GCA?

A
  • Severe unilateral headache, often temple or forehead
  • Scalp tenderness, esp on brushing hair
  • Blurred/double vision, jaw claudication
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145
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS
What are the systemic symptoms of GCA?
What are the signs of GCA?

A
  • Fever, muscle aches, fatigue, loss of appetite or weight loss
  • PMR = bilateral shoulder + hip pain, morning stiffness
  • Tender, thickened/firm, prominent, pulseless temporal arteries
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146
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

What investigations would you do in GCA?

A
  • FBC (normocytic anaemia + thrombocytosis)
  • LFTs (?raised ALP)
  • ESR/CRP raised (>60y/o, ESR >60mm/h)
  • Duplex USS of temporal artery (hypoechoic halo sign)
  • Temporal artery biopsy (multinucleated giant cells although may be skip lesions)
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147
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

What are some complications of GCA?

A
  • Irreversible painless complete sight loss can rapidly occur due to inflammation + occlusion of the ciliary ± central retinal artery (amaurosis fugax)
  • Stroke
  • Later there can be relapses + steroid-related SEs + aortitis > aneurysm + dissection
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148
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

What medications would you prescribe in GCA?

A
  • Stat high dose (60mg) prednisolone + continue until Sx resolve then slowly wean (may take 2y)
  • Aspirin 75mg OD to reduce vision loss + stroke risk
  • Omeprazole for gastric protection whilst on steroids
  • Alendronate with calcium + cholecalciferol supplements for osteoporosis prevention due to steroids
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149
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

What referrals should you make for GCA?

A
  • Vascular surgeons > temporal artery biopsy
  • Rheumatology > specialist diagnosis + management
  • Ophthalmology > emergency same day appt if visual Sx
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150
Q

MIGRAINE

What is the pathophysiology of migraines?

A
  • Changes in brainstem blood flow leads to unstable trigeminal nerve nucleus + nuclei in basal thalamus
  • Leads to release of vasoactive neuropeptides CGRP + substance P > neurogenic inflammation > vasodilation + plasma protein extravasation leading to pain propagating all over the cerebral cortex
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151
Q

MIGRAINE
What is the aetiology of migraines?
How long do they last for and who are they more common in?

A
CHOCOLATE –
- Chocolate
- Hangovers
- Orgasms
- Cheese/caffeine
- Oral contraceptives
- Lie-ins
- Alcohol
- Travel
- Exercise
4–72h, F>M
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152
Q

MIGRAINE

What are the stages of migraine?

A
  • Prodromal (up to 3d before with fatigue + mood change)
  • Aura
  • Headache
  • Resolution (headache fades or resolved by vomiting/sleep)
  • Postdromal
    (Not typical, some experience a few stages)
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153
Q

MIGRAINE

What are the 4 main types of migraine?

A
  • Migraine without aura (most common)
  • Migraine with aura
  • Silent migraine
  • Hemiplegic migraine
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154
Q

MIGRAINE

How does a migraine without aura present?

A
  • Unilateral, pulsatile + throbbing, mod–severe pain, physical activity worsens
  • Photophobia ± phonophobia, N+V
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155
Q

MIGRAINE

How does a migraine with aura present?

A

Same as without but –

  • Sparks/zig-zag lines in vision, blurred vision or loss of different visual fields
  • Aura usually unilateral + lasts up to 60m before headache
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156
Q

MIGRAINE
How does a…

i) silent migraine
ii) hemiplegic migraine

present?

A

i) Migraine with aura but no headache

ii) Can mimic a stroke with typical migraine Sx, sudden/gradual onset, hemiplegia, ataxia + changes in consciousness

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157
Q

MIGRAINE

What investigations would you do in migraine?

A
  • Mostly clinical Dx

- Exclude other causes with bloods, CRP/ESR, CT/MRI head, LP if any red flag concerns

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158
Q

MIGRAINE

What is the acute management of migraines?

A
  • PO (or nasal in paeds) triptan like sumatriptan plus paracetamol or NSAID
  • Antiemetic like metoclopramide or prochlorperazine if vomiting occurs
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159
Q

MIGRAINE

What is the prophylaxis for migarines?

A
  • Propranolol or topiramate are first line
  • Topiramate is teratogenic + can reduce efficacy of hormonal contraceptives though
  • Also, amitriptyline, botulinum toxin or acupuncture.
  • 400mg OD of riboflavin (B2) may help
  • NOT gabapentin
  • Avoid indentified triggers (?headache diary)
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160
Q

MND

What is the pathophysiology of motor neurone disease (MND)?

A
  • Relentless + unexplained destruction/degeneration of UMN + anterior horn cells in the brain + spinal cord
  • Motor cortex = UMN signs
  • Anterior horn cells = LMN signs
  • Cranial nerve nuclei = mixed signs
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161
Q

MND

What is the cause of MND?

A
  • Most spontaneous + idiopathic with no FHx
  • Rare familial cases with SOD-1 implication (suggests free radicals like smoking, pesticides + heavy metals) can cause MN destruction
  • M>F, 60y/o, associated with frontotemporal dementia
162
Q

MND
What are the 4 types of MND?
Best and worse prognosis?

A
  • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
  • Progressive bulbar palsy (worst prognosis)
  • Progressive muscular atrophy (best prognosis)
  • Primary lateral sclerosis
163
Q

MND
What is ALS?
What is a long-term consequence?

A
  • Loss of motor neurones in motor cortex + anterior horn of cord so mixed signs
  • Long term consequence is progressive spastic tetraparesis
164
Q

MND
What is progressive bulbar palsy?
What does it affect?
What does it need to be differentiated from?

A
  • Only affects CN 9–12 (brainstem motor nuclei) so LMN of them
  • Primarily affects muscles of talking, chewing, tongue palsy + swallowing
  • Progressive pseudobulbar palsy = destruction of UMN so same as bulbar but small spastic tongue with no fasciculations
165
Q

MND
What is…

i) progressive muscular atrophy?
ii) primary lateral sclerosis?

A

i) Anterior horn cells affected so LMN signs only, distal > proximal
ii) Loss of cells in motor cortex so UMN signs only

166
Q

MND

What is the general clinical presentation of MND?

A
  • Insidious + progressive muscle weakness affecting limbs, trunk, face + speech
  • Often first noticed in upper limbs, may be fatigue when exercising
  • May have stumbling spastic gait, weak grip + clumsiness
  • Dysarthria, dysphagia, emotional lability in pseudobulbar palsy
  • NO SENSORY SYMPTOMS
167
Q

MND
What are…

i) UMN signs?
ii) LMN signs?

A

i) Hypertonia or spasticity, brisk reflexes + upgoing plantars, muscle wasting
ii) Hypotonia + muscle wasting, reduced reflexes, fasciculations (particularly tongue)

168
Q

MND

What are some important differentials of MND and how can they be differentiated?

A
  • Cervical spine lesion as may present with UMN signs
  • Myasthenia gravis but MND NEVER affects eye movements
  • Multiple sclerosis but MND NEVER affects sphincters or sensation
169
Q

MND

What are some investigations for MND?

A
  • Clinical Dx with El-Escorial diagnostic criteria for ALS (definite = UMN/LMN signs in 3 regions)
  • Nerve conduction studies (muscle denervation) + electromyography (spontaneous fibrillation potentials)
  • Increased creatinine kinase (muscle breakdown)
  • MRI head/spinal cord to exclude structural causes
  • Lumbar puncture to exclude inflammatory causes
170
Q

MND
What are some complications of MND?
How rapidly does MND progress?

A
  • UTI, pneumonia + respiratory failure (common cause of death), constipation, pressure sores
  • Half of patients die <3y from onset, monitor FVC closely for respiratory distress as most die from bulbar palsy respiratory failure
171
Q

MND

What medication may be given in MND?

A
  • Riluzole – Na+ blocker inhibits glutamate release

- Not curative but aims to increase survival by 2–3m + increase their time before needing ventilation

172
Q

MND

What MDT management is given for MND?

A
  • NG/PEG tube for feeding, blend food if dysphagia (SALT)
  • Exercise for spasticity (physio, orthotics)
  • Non-invasive ventilation at home to support breathing at night
  • Palliative care (advanced directives, EOL planning)
173
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is the physiology of myelin?

A
  • Myelin covers axons of neurones + helps electrical impulses move faster along the axon
  • Schwann cells myelinate peripheral nerves, oligodendrocytes myelinate CNS nerves
174
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A
  • Chronic + progressive autoimmune inflammatory disorder due to T-cell mediated immune response affecting the CNS
175
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is the pathophysiology of MS?

A
  • Inflammation leads to infiltration of immune cells + damages the myelin causing focal loss
  • Demyelination heals poorly leaving thinner, inefficient myelin
  • Initially relative preservation of axons but as neurodegenerative, eventually axonal loss leading to fixed + progressive deficits
176
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What are some classic sites for MS?

A
  • Periventricular white matter lesions

- Predilection for distinct sites – optic nerves, corpus callosum, brainstem + cerebellar peduncles

177
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is the aetiology of MS?
What is the epidemiology of MS?

A
  • Unknown as autoimmune but influenced by genes, EBV, lifestyle factors such as low vitamin D, smoking + obesity
  • Commonly presents in young females living further away from equator
178
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is a clinically isolated syndrome?

A
  • First episode of demyelination + neuro Sx – not diagnosis as does not meet criteria
  • More likely to develop MS if lesions on MRI
179
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What are the 4 types of MS?

A
  • Relapsing remitting (most common)
  • Secondary progressive
  • Primary progressive
  • Benign
180
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is relapsing remitting MS?

A
  • Characterised by episodes of Sx in attacks (relapses)
  • Followed by periods of stability (remission)
  • May accumulate disability if don’t fully recover
181
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is…

i) secondary progressive MS?
ii) primary progressive MS?
iii) benign MS?

A

i) Initially RR but now progressive worsening of Sx + incomplete remissions
ii) Gradually worsening of disease from point of diagnosis without any RR
iii) Relapses + Remissions but overall progress will never worsen

182
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is the diagnostic criteria for MS?

A

McDonald criteria –

  • Multiple CNS lesions (≥2)
  • Sx that last >24h
  • Disseminated in space (Clinically or on MRI) and time (>1m apart)
183
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What are the symptoms of MS?

A

DEMYELINATION –

  • Diplopia (CN VI)
  • Eye movement pain (optic neuritis, v common)
  • Motor weakness
  • nYstagmus
  • Elevated temp worsens
  • Lhermitte’s sign
  • Intention tremor
  • Neuropathic pain
  • Ataxia
  • Talking slurred (dysarthria)
  • Impotence
  • Overactive bladder
  • Numbness
184
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
In terms of the symptoms of MS, what is meant by…

i) motor weakness?
ii) elevated temp worsens?
iii) Lhermitte’s sign?

A

i) Pyramidal pattern so extensors weaker than flexors in upper limb, flexors weaker than extensors in lower
ii) Uhthoff’s phenomenon
iii) Neck flexion causes electric shock sensation down spine

185
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What are some signs of MS?

A
  • UMN = spastic paraparesis, brisk reflexes, hypertonia
  • Sensory = loss of sensation, cerebellar signs
  • Relative afferent pupillary defect
  • Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
  • Optic atrophy (pale optic disc) in chronic MS
186
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is relative afferent pupillary defect?

A
  • Seen on swinging light test (retina or optic nerve lesion –afferent issue)
  • The affected and normal eye appears to dilate when light is shone on the affected eye
187
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A
  • CN VI/medial longitudinal fasciculus lesion
  • Disorder of conjugate lateral gaze with;
    – Decreased adduction of ipsilateral eye
    – Nystagmus on abduction of contralateral eye
188
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What are the investigations for MS?

A
  • MRI head + spinal cord to show demyelination plaques = diagnostic
  • Lumbar puncture may show oligoclonal bands of IgG on CSF electrophoresis
  • Evoked potentials = delayed visual, auditory + somatosensory potentials
189
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is the management of MS relapses?
How does this affect disease prognosis?

A
  • IV methylprednisolone

- Shortens acute relapses but no overall effect on prognosis

190
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is the management of MS remissions?
What is the criteria for this treatment?

A
  • First line = beta-interferons (1b) to decrease # relapses + lesions on MRI but SEs = depression, flu Sx + miscarriage
  • 2 relapses in past 2y
  • Second line = monoclonal antibody like natalizumab, dimethyl fumarate
191
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

What is the general symptomatic management for MS?

A
  • Spasticity = baclofen or gabapentin
  • Fatigue = amantadine or CBT + Exercise
  • Neuropathic pain = gabapentin or amitriptyline
  • Lifestyle = smoking cessation, avoid stress
192
Q

MENINGITIS
What is meningitis?
How does it occur?
What can cause it?

A
  • Inflammation of the meninges which line the brain + spinal cord
  • Microorganisms can reach the meninges either by direct extension from ears, nasopharynx or via blood
  • Infection (bacterial, viral, TB) or aseptic (autoimmune, reactive)
193
Q

MENINGITIS

What are the bacterial causes of meningitis?

A
  • Strep pneumoniae (pneumococcal) most common – gram +ve cocci chain
  • N. meningitidis (meningococcal) – gram -ve diplococci, more serious
  • Group B strep in neonates (contracted during birth via vagina)
  • TB
194
Q

MENINGITIS
What are the…

i) viral
ii) aseptic

causes of meningitis?

A

i) Enteroviruses #1 (Coxsackie virus), HSV + varicella zoster virus
ii) MS.
HSV2, SLE, sarcoidosis + skull # can cause recurrent aseptic meningitis

195
Q

MENINGITIS
What are the symptoms of meningitis?
How does viral + TB present?

A
  • Fever, headache, vomiting, drowsiness.
  • Meningism = neck stiffness + photophobia
  • Later = seizures, focal neurology, decreased GCS
  • Viral = benign + self-limiting, no rash but blurred vision or headache
  • TB = long Hx + vague Sx with meningism later
196
Q

MENINGITIS

What are the clinical signs of meningitis?

A
  • Meningism
  • +ve Kernig’s = pain or unable to extend leg at knee when it’s bent
  • +ve Brudzinski = involuntary flexion of hips + knees when neck flexed
  • Non-blanching purpuric rash = later sign in meningococcal septicaemia
197
Q

MENINGITIS

What are some differentials of meningitis?

A
  • Malaria
  • Encephalitis
  • SAH
  • Septicaemia
  • Tetanus
  • Dengue fever
198
Q

MENINGITIS

What investigations would you do for meningitis?

A
  • Blood cultures + serology (before LP + Abx unless undesirable delay)
  • FBC, U+Es, LFTs, CRP, blood glucose
  • CT head if other signs like papilloedema
  • Lumbar puncture for MC&S with protein, cell count, glucose + viral PCR
199
Q

MENINGITIS
What would you expect the lumbar puncture result for meningitis to be in bacterial causes for…

i) appearance?
ii) protein?
iii) glucose?
iv) white cell count?
v) other?

A

i) Cloudy/turbid
ii) ++
iii) ––
iv) ++ neutrophils
v) Gram stain

200
Q

MENINGITIS
What would you expect the lumbar puncture result for meningitis to be in viral causes for…

i) appearance?
ii) protein?
iii) glucose?
iv) white cell count?
v) other?

A

i) Clear
ii) Mild + or normal
iii) Mild – or normal
iv) ++ lymphocytes
v) PCR

201
Q

MENINGITIS
What would you expect the lumbar puncture result for meningitis to be in TB causes for…

i) appearance?
ii) protein?
iii) glucose?
iv) white cell count?
v) other?

A

i) Fibrin web
ii) ++
iii) ––
iv) ++ lymphocytes
v) Acid fast bacilli

202
Q

MENINGITIS

When is a lumbar puncture contraindicated in meningitis?

A
  • Drowsy, signs of raised ICP + in meningococcal septicaemia due to risk of coning of cerebellar tonsils
203
Q

MENINGITIS

What are some complications following meningitis?

A
  • Hearing loss is key complication
  • Seizures + epilepsy
  • Sepsis or abscess
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Cognitive impairment + learning disability
204
Q

MENINGITIS
You see a patient in General Practice with a non-blanching petechial rash and suspect meningococcal septicaemia.
What immediate treatment should be given whilst awaiting for hospital transfer?

A
  • IM benzylpenicillin
205
Q

MENINGITIS

What is the management of bacterial meningitis

A
  • IV cefotaxime
    • amoxicillin to cover listeria (potential contraction in birth) in <3m
  • Dexamethasone to reduce frequency + severity of neurological sequelae
  • Adjust treatment according to sensitivities
206
Q

MENINGITIS

What is the management of viral meningitis?

A
  • Supportive therapy mainly

- IV aciclovir for HSV

207
Q

MENINGITIS

What prevention can be given for meningitis?

A
  • Childhood vaccination schedule

- All close contacts should receive PO ciprofloxacin (or rifampicin) prophylaxis if <7d exposure since onset

208
Q

MENINGITIS

Who must you notify about cases of meningitis?

A
  • Public Health England immediately as notifiable disease
209
Q

ENCEPHALITIS

What is encephalitis?

A
  • Infection + inflammation of the brain parenchyma (cortex, white matter, brainstem, basal ganglia)
210
Q

ENCEPHALITIS
What are the…

i) viral
ii) non-viral

causes of encephalitis?

A

i) Most commonly – HSV, HIV, CMV/EBV, measles, mumps, rabies, tick-borne encephalitis
ii) Any bacterial meningitis, TB, malaria, listeria, lyme disease, legionella

211
Q

ENCEPHALITIS

What is the clinical presentation of encephalitis?

A
  • Headache + altered mental state (confusion, behavioural changes, bizarre)
  • Reduced GCS compared to meningitis
  • Focal neurological deficit (hemiparesis, dysphasia)
  • Preceded by infectious prodrome (fever, rash, meningeal signs)
  • ?Hx of travel or animal bite
212
Q

ENCEPHALITIS

What are the differentials of encephalitis

A
  • Meningitis
  • Stroke
  • Brain tumour
  • Hypoglycaemia, SLE, hypoxic brain injury, DKA
213
Q

ENCEPHALITIS

What investigations would you do for encephalitis?

A
  • Blood culture + serology for viral PCR
  • CT head
  • LP for MC&S with protein, cell count, glucose + viral PCR
  • EEG may aid Dx
214
Q

ENCEPHALITIS
What would the CSF look like in encephalitis for…

i) appearance?
ii) protein?
iii) glucose?
iv) white cell count?

A

i) Clear
ii) Raised
iii) Normal/low
iv) + lymphocytes

215
Q

ENCEPHALITIS

What is the management of encephalitis?

A
  • Start aciclovir within 30m of pt arriving if suspected
  • Supportive therapy in HDU/ICU if needed
  • Symptomatic treatment such as phenytoin for seizures
216
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS
What is a brain abscess?
What are the most common causative organisms?

A
  • Pus-filled swelling in the brain

- Staph. aureus + strep. pnuemoniae

217
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS

What are the aetiologies of brain abscesses?

A
  • Local infection spread (otitis media, sinusitis, mastoiditis)
  • Penetrating head injuries, trauma or surgery to the scalp
  • Haematogenous spread (more common in immunocompromised) from CHD (esp. R>L shunt), pneumonia, embolic events from infective endocarditis
218
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS

What is the clinical presentation of a brain abscess?

A
  • Fever, headache (raised ICP Sx) + focal neurology are the classic triad
  • If in critical area (motor cortex) will present earlier
  • Often have considerable mass effect in brain + raised ICP common
219
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS

What are the investigations for brain abscess?

A
  • CT head shows ring-enhancing lesion ± surrounding oedema

- LP is contraindicated due to raised ICP

220
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS

What is the management of brain abscess?

A
  • CT guided aspiration via burr hole or craniotomy + abscess cavity debridement
  • Craniotomy usually if no response to aspiration or if reoccurs
  • Abx with IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole, ICP Mx with dexamethasone
221
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What is…

i) coma?
ii) persistent vegetative state?
iii) brain death?

A

i) Unarousable unresponsiveness
ii) State of wakefulness with sleep-wake cycles but no detectable awareness
iii) Irreversible cessation of all brain function, usually from widespread injury to brain indicated by lack of brainstem signs

222
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What are some neurological causes of brain death and coma?

A
  • Trauma, tumours
  • Infection (meningitis, encephalitis)
  • Vascular (stroke, haemorrhages)
  • Epilepsy (status epilepticus, post-ictal)
223
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What are some metabolic causes of brain death + coma?

A
  • Drugs, poisoning (alcohol, TCAs, CO, opiates)
  • Hyperglycaemia (DKA, HHS) or hypoglycaemia
  • Septicaemia
  • Hypothermia
  • Hepatic/uraemia encephalopathy due to liver/renal failure
  • CO2 narcosis in COPD where too much oxygen leads to hypoxic drive slowing down so CO2 builds up
224
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
In terms of clinical presentation in brain death and coma, what are some…

i) focal neurological deficits?
ii) brainstem signs?

A

i) Asymmetry of motor function, tendon reflexes + plantar responses
ii) Pupil size (pinpoint vs. dilated + pupillary reactions), eye movements, corneal reflexes, cough + gag reflexes, ice cold water in ears > nystagmus

225
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What are lateralising signs?
Give an example of one

A
  • Signs that occur from one hemisphere of the brain but not the other, helps to localise pathology
  • Fixed dilated pupil (CN3 palsy)
226
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

Explain the pathophysiology of a third nerve palsy?

A
  • CN3 comes out of brainstem + goes over apex of petrous part of temporal bone as it goes through cavernous sinus to supply eye so susceptible to damage if brain swollen, bleeding + trauma.
  • Outside CN3 are parasympathetic fibres which constrict pupil so if damaged > fixed + dilated
227
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What is the main differential of a third nerve palsy?
How can they be differentiated?

A
  • Blind eye
  • Blind eye will not give contralateral responsiveness but other causes will + if you shine light in good eye then dilated pupil will restrict
228
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What are some investigations for brain death and coma?

A
  • Bloods – FBC, cultures, U+Es, Ca2+, phosphate, LFTs, glucose, clotting screen, toxicology (+ alcohol), ABG
  • CT/MRI head, EEG + LP for infection
229
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
What is it based on?
What scores should prompt action?

A
  • Universal consciousness assessment tool
  • BEST eye, verbal + motor response – 15 max, 3 min
  • ‘GCS ≤8 = intubate’ secure airway as may be unable to maintain on own
  • GCS >8 is greatest prognostic indicator in patients with traumatic brain injury
230
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What are the components of ‘eyes’ in GCS?

A
E4 = opens spontaneously
E3 = opens to verbal command
E2 = opens to pain
E1 = no response
231
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What are the components of ‘verbal’ in GCS?

A
V5 = orientated in TPP, answers appropriately
V4 = confused conversation, odd answers
V3 = inappropriate words (random, abusive)
V2 = incomprehensible sounds (groans)
V1 = no response
232
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What are the components of ‘motor’ in GCS?

A
M6 = obeys commands
M5 = localises pain
M4 = withdraws away from painful stimulus
M3 = flexion to pain
M2 = extension to pain
M1 = no response
233
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What is abnormal flexion to pain?
What does it indicate?

A
  • Decorticate posturing – arm adducted + flexed, wrist flexed, internal rotation, plantar flexed + stiff appearance
  • Indicates significant damage to cerebral hemispheres, internal capsule + thalamus
234
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What is abnormal extension to pain?
What does it indicate?

A
  • Decerebrate posturing – arms + legs extended, head extension, plantar flexion, internal rotation, pt rigid with teeth clenched
  • Indicates brainstem damage + so lesions in cerebellum or midbrain
235
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What does the progression from decorticate to decerebrate posturing suggest?

A
  • Uncal (transtentorial) or tonsillar brain herniation ‘coning’
236
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA

What is the management of brain death + coma?

A
  • ABCDE as emergency
  • Measure vitals, GCS, neuro signs (pupils) + re-check
  • IV access
  • Stabilise c-spine if trauma
  • Management in ICU
237
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What is myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Autoimmune disorder against acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction
238
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Anti-ACh receptor antibodies (IgG) interfere with NMJ via depletion of working post-synaptic receptor sites for ACh to bind to leading to fewer action potentials firing, blocking excitatory effect of ACh on receptors (all or nothing principle)
  • Both B + T cells implicated
239
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What is the aetiology of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Associated with autoimmune disease (RA, SLE)
  • If <40y: F>M, thymic hyperplasia
  • If >60y: M>F, thymoma
240
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
What is the main symptom of myasthenia gravis?
What is the natural course of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Fatiguable weakness of muscles which improves with rest
  • Affects ocular, bulbar + proximal limb muscles
  • Dysphagia + dysarthria (bulbar)
  • Eventually leads to atrophy
  • Fluctuating relapsing + remitting pattern
241
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What will patients with myasthenia gravis struggle with?

A
  • Hairs, chairs + stairs (proximal muscle weakness)
  • Speech, mastication, face + neck weakness
  • Resp muscles (breathing difficulty + dysphagia dangerous features which indicates advancing disease)
242
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
What are the signs of myasthenia gravis?
What can exacerbate myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Ptosis, diplopia (extra-ocular muscle weakness)

- Abx, CCBs, beta-blockers, lithium + statins

243
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What are some clinical signs of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Repeated blinking = ptosis

- Repeated abduction of one arm 20x + compare to other side

244
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What antibodies are implicated in myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Anti-AChR antibodies (90%)
  • Muscle-specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK, esp. males)
  • Low density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (rare)
245
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What other investigations would you do for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Tensilon/edrophonium test = cholinesterase enzymes > increased ACh in NMJ so briefly relieves weakness
  • Electromyogram shows decremental muscle response to repeated nerve stimulation
  • CT/MRI chest for thymoma
246
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
What is the main complication of myasthenia gravis?
What happens?
What may occur?

A
  • Myasthenic crisis
  • Acute exacerbation of Sx with severe muscle weakness incl. resp muscles leading to difficult breathing, speaking, intercostal recessions, tiredness + trouble swallowing
  • Resp failure or death
247
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What are the causes of myasthenic crisis?

A
  • Infection (resp), natural disease cycle, under/overdosing meds
248
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What is the management of myasthenic crisis?

A
  • Urgent review by neurologists + anaesthetists
  • Monitor breathing with serial FVC measurements
  • NIV, BiPAP or intubation + ventilation
  • Immunomodulatory therapies (IVIg or plasmapheresis)
249
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

What is the management of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like pyridostigmine or rivastigmine
  • Immunosuppression with prednisolone (acute) or azathioprine to suppress antibody production
  • Thymectomy if thymoma or anti-AChR +ve disease
  • Plasmapheresis for severe relapsing cases
250
Q

LAMBERT-EATON

What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • Progressive muscle weakness with increased use as a result of damage to the neuromuscular junction.
  • Very similar to myasthenia gravis
251
Q

LAMBERT-EATON

What is the pathophysiology of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • Typically seen in those with small cell lung cancer
  • Antibodies produced by immune system against voltage gated Ca2+ channels in SCLC cells also target + damage those at the pre-synaptic terminals of the NMJ responsible for releasing ACh
  • Channels destroyed = less ACh bind to receptors so less muscle contraction
252
Q

LAMBERT-EATON

What is the clinical presentation of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • Main difference is repeated use of muscle IMPROVES fatigue
  • Proximal muscles affected causing proximal muscle weakness (hairs, stairs, chairs)
  • Limb girdle weakness so lower limbs affected first
  • Autonomic involvement (dry mouth, constipation, impotence)
  • Hyporeflexia
  • Diplopia + resp muscle involvement is rare (gait before eye signs)
253
Q

LAMBERT-EATON

What are the investigations for Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • Autoantibodies against voltage gated Ca2+ channels
  • Tensilon test response is not as noticeable
  • EMG shows incremental muscle response to repeated nerve stimulation
  • CT chest for SCLC
254
Q

LAMBERT-EATON

What is the management of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • 3,4-diaminopyridine like amifampridine which allows more ACh release at NMJ
  • Immunosuppression with prednisolone, azathioprine
  • IVIg (Screen for IgA deficiency to avoid anaphylaxis) or plasmapheresis may be useful too
255
Q

LAMBERT-EATON

What is the mechanism of action of amifampridine?

A
  • Blocks voltage gated K+ channels in presynaptic cells which prolongs depolarisation of cell membrane + assists Ca2+ channels
256
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?

A
  • Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy which targets Schwann cells
257
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is the pathophysiology of GBS?

A
  • B cells produce antibodies against the antigens on the pathogen causing the preceding infection and these antibodies also match proteins on the nerve cells leading to demyelination and potentially axonal degeneration
258
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is Miller-Fisher syndrome?

A
  • GBS variant which affects CNS + eye muscles

- Characterised by ophthalmoplegia + ataxia

259
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is the aetiology of GBS?

A
  • Often triggered by preceding illness 4w before symptoms

- Campylobacter jejuni (v common), CMV, EBV

260
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is the clinical presentation of GBS?

A
  • Acute symmetrical, progressive, ascending muscle weakness.
  • Peripheral neuropathy or neuropathic pain
  • Absent tendon reflexes early in disease
  • Back or leg pain is very common in initial stages
  • Proximal muscles (trunk, resp) more affected + cranial nerves (esp. VII)
  • Autonomic –urinary retention, diarrhoea, sweating, BP changes
261
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What are some differentials for GBS?

A
  • Other causes of neuromuscular paralysis = hypokalaemia, polymyositis, botulism
  • Cord compression, transverse myelitis
262
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What are the investigations for GBS?

A
  • Clinical usually
  • Nerve conduction studies = slowing of motor conduction velocity (demyelination)
  • LP CSF shows raised protein with normal WCC + glucose
  • Monitor FVC 4h for ?resp involvement
263
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is the prognosis of GBS?

A
  • 80% fully recover
  • 15% recover with neurological disability
  • 5% die, mostly from PE, resp failure or infection
264
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is the main treatment for GBS?

A
  • IVIg reduces duration + severity of paralysis but C/I if IgA deficiency as would cause anaphylaxis
  • Plasma exchange
  • Intubation, ventilation + ICU admission in severe cases in resp failure
265
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE

What is the supportive therapy for GBS?

A
  • VTE prophylaxis with heparin
  • Physio to prevent contractures
  • NG or PEG feeding if swallowing issues
266
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS
What is a brain tumour?
What is the prognosis?
Where do they come from?

A
  • Abnormal growths in the brain
  • Poor (12m median survival time)
  • Most commonly secondary (lungs > breast > melanoma > GI tract > kidney)
267
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

Give 4 examples of different brain tumours

A
  • Gliomas
  • Meningiomas
  • Pituitary tumours
  • Acoustic neuromas (vestibular Schwannomas)
268
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS
What are gliomas?
Give some examples

A
  • Glial cell in origin in the brain or spinal cord
  • Graded 1–4 (1 = most benign ?cure, 4 = most malignant glioblastomas)
  • Astrocytomas like glioblastoma multiforme most common (90%), oligodendrogliomas + ependymoma
269
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

What are meningiomas?

A
  • Benign tumours growing from cells of the meninges in the brain + spinal cord
270
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

What are pituitary tumours?

A
  • Often benign, if large can press on optic chiasm causing bitemporal hemianopia
  • Can cause hypopituitarism or release excessive hormones > acromegaly, Cushing’s, hyperthyroidism
271
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS
What are acoustic neuromas?
What are they associated with?
How do they present?

A
  • Tumours of Schwann cells that occur around cerebellopontine angle surrounding the auditory nerve that innervates inner ear
  • Slow growing but eventually grow large enough to produce Sx
  • Usually unilateral, bilateral associated with neurofibromatosis type 2
  • Classic Sx = hearing loss, tinnitus, balance issues, decreased facial sensation
272
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

What are the 3 cardinal signs of brain tumours?

A
  • Progressive focal neurological deficit depending on location of tumours
  • Sx of raised ICP
  • Seizures/epilepsy (focal rather than generalised, recent new onset suggest sinister aetiology)
273
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

Why is the neurological deficit progressive in brain tumours?

A
  • Mass effect of tumour + surrounding cerebral oedema as it grows
274
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS
What focal signs would you get if the tumour was located in…

i) frontal lobe?
ii) temporal lobe?
iii) parietal lobe?
iv) occipital lobe?
v) cerebellum?

A

i) Personality + intellect change, hemiparesis, expressive dysphasia
ii) Receptive dysphasia, amnesia
iii) Hemisensory loss, dysphasia
iv) Contralateral visual defects
v) Dysdiadochokinesia, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremor, Slurred speech, Hypotonia (DANISH)

275
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

What are some symptoms of raised ICP?

A
  • Headache – worse in morning, coughing, bending forwards or lying
  • Drowsiness, confusion, vomiting
  • Papilloedema (cardinal sign = swollen optic disc) on fundoscopy
276
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

What investigations would you perform for brain tumours?

A
  • CT/MRI head (MRI gold standard)
  • LP C/I if Sx of raised ICP until after imaging
  • Audiogram + gadolinium enhanced MRI head for acoustic neuroma
  • MR angiography may be useful to define site or blood supply of mass
277
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

When would surgery be indicated as management in brain tumours?

A
  • Single mets in younger pts with controlled primary with aim to improve QOL
  • Meningiomas may be removed entirely without unacceptable damage to surrounding structures
278
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS

What other management is there for brain tumours?

A
  • Radio/chemotherapy – stereotactic radiotherapy (gamma knife)
  • Medical – dexamethasone or mannitol to reduce cerebral oedema but can cause insomnia so give in mornings
  • AEDs for seizures
  • Palliative care involvement
279
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is a neuropathy?

A
  • Dysfunction/disease of the nerves typically causing weakness or numbness
280
Q

NEUROPATHY

What are the peripheral nerve causes of muscle weakness?

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy = lots of nerves affects all over body, often symmetrical + systemic causes
  • Mononeuropathy = 1 nerve affected, usually due to entrapment
  • Mononeuritis multiplex = various, individual nerve defects all over the place, randomly
281
Q

NEUROPATHY
What is the pathophysiology of mononeuritis multiplex?
What can cause mononeuritis multiplex?

A
  • Inflammation of vasa nervorum can block off blood supply to nerve causing sudden deficit
  • Inflammatory or immune mediated vasculitis like granulomatosis with polyangiitis, polyarteritis nodosa, RA or sarcoidosis
282
Q

NEUROPATHY

What are the causes of peripheral neuropathy?

A

ABCDE –

  • Alcohol
  • B12 deficiency
  • Cancer + CKD
  • Diabetes + drugs (isoniazid, amiodarone)
  • Every vasculitis
283
Q

NEUROPATHY
In terms of peripheral neuropathy, what conditions show a…

i) mostly motor loss?
ii) mostly sensory loss?

A

i) GBS, chronic inflammatory demyelination polyneuropathy (chronic GBS), Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
ii) DM, CKD, deficiencies

284
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A
  • Autosomal dominant condition.
  • Characterised by high-arched feet, distal muscle weakness + atrophy (inverted champagne bottle legs), hyporeflexia, foot drop + hammer toes
285
Q

NEUROPATHY
What is the generic clinical presentation of…

i) mononeuropathy?
ii) mononeuritis multiplex?

A

i) Individual nerve deficits in isolation, mostly upper limb nerves affected at compression points
ii) Subacute presentation (months rather than years), painful, asymmetrical sensory + motor neuropathy

286
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is the generic clinical presentation of peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Chronic + slowly progressive
  • Starts in legs + longer nerves first (furthest from heart)
  • Sensory/motor/both
  • Glove + stocking distribution
287
Q

NEUROPATHY
What is the most common mononeuropathy?
What is the pathophysiology?
What is the aetiology?

A
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Inflammation of carpal tunnel leads to entrapment of the median nerve
  • Idiopathic but associated with local tumours, DM + RA
288
Q

NEUROPATHY

What muscles does the median nerve innervate?

A

LLOAF –

  • Lateral lumbricals x2
  • Opponens pollicis
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Flexor pollicis brevis
289
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is the clinical presentation of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Aching pain in hand + arm (especially at night)
  • Paraesthesia in radial 3.5 digits relieved by dangling hand over edge of bed + shaking (wake + shake)
  • Difficulty with precision grip
  • Sensory loss (radial 3.5 digits palmar + fingertips dorsally)
  • Wasting of thenar eminence (APB, FPB + OP)
290
Q

NEUROPATHY

What investigations can you do for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Phalen’s test = inverse prayer sign, can only maximally flex wrist for 1m
  • Tinel’s test = tapping on nerve at wrist induces tingling
  • Nerve conduction studies
291
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is the management of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Splinting
  • Analgesia
  • Local steroid injection ± decompression surgery
292
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of the ulnar nerve?
What causes ulnar neuropathy?

A
  • C7–T1

- Elbow trauma or fracture, elbow arthritis

293
Q

NEUROPATHY

What are the motor signs of ulnar neuropathy?

A

Weakness/wasting of –

  • Interossei (can’t do good luck sign)
  • Medial lumbricals (claw hand)
  • Hypothenar eminence
  • +ve Froment’s sign when grip paper between thumb + index finger
294
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is Froment’s sign?

A
  • Weak adductor pollicis (usually keeps IPJ straight) means flexor pollicis longus compensates, manifesting as thumb hyperflexion (pinching paper)
295
Q

NEUROPATHY

What are the sensory signs of ulnar neuropathy?

A
  • Sensory loss 1.5 fingers ulnar side on dorsal + palmar aspects
296
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of the radial nerve?
What causes radial neuropathy?

A
  • C5-T1

- Compression against humerus

297
Q

NEUROPATHY
What are the motor signs of radial neuropathy?
What are the sensory signs?

A
  • Wrist + finger drop (weak extension), can’t open first

- Below fingertips on radial 3.5 fingers dorsally, part of thenar eminence

298
Q

NEUROPATHY
What causes brachial plexus neuropathy?
Presentation?

A
  • Trauma, radiotherapy or heavy rucksack

- Pain, paraesthesia + weakness in affected arm in variable distribution

299
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of phrenic nerve?
Causes of neuropathy?
Presentation?

A
  • C3–5
  • Lung cancer, myeloma, thymoma
  • Orthopnoea with raised hemidiaphragm on CXR
300
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh?
Causes of neuropathy?
Presentation?

A
  • L2–L3
  • Entrapment under inguinal ligament
  • Meralgia paraesthetica = antero-lateral burning thigh pain
301
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of sciatic nerve?
Causes of neuropathy?
Presentation?

A
  • L4–S3
  • Pelvic tumours or pelvic/femoral #
  • M = foot drop, S = loss below the knee laterally
302
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of common peroneal nerve?
Causes of neuropathy?
Presentation?

A
  • L4–S1
  • Damaged as winds round fibular head by trauma or sitting cross-legged (classic after night out)
  • M = foot drop, weak ankle dorsiflexion + eversion with high steppage gait, S = loss over dorsal foot
303
Q

NEUROPATHY
Roots of the tibial nerve?
Presentation of neuropathy?

A
  • L4–S3

- M = weak ankle plantar flexion, inversion + toe flexion, S = loss over sole of foot

304
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN1 lesion cause?

A
  • Anosmia
305
Q

NEUROPATHY
In terms of the optic nerve, what does a…

i) L optic nerve lesion
ii) Optic chiasma lesion
iii) L optic tract lesion
iv) L Baum’s loop lesion
v) L Meyer’s loop lesion

cause?

A

i) No vision through L eye
ii) Bitemporal hemianopia
iii) Contralateral (R) homonymous hemianopia
iv) Inferior R homonymous quadrantanopia
v) Superior R homonymous quadrantanopia

306
Q

NEUROPATHY
Where is Baum’s loop located?
Where is Meyer’s loop located?
How can you remember which is superior/inferior?

A
  • Parietal lobe
  • Temporal lobe
  • PITS – Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior
307
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN3 lesion cause?

A
  • Tramps’ palsy (eye down + out)
  • Ptosis
  • Fixed dilated pupil (loss of parasympathetic outflow, exclude a surgical 3rd nerve)
308
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN4 lesion cause?

A
  • Vertical diplopia noticed when reading book or going downstairs
  • Defective downward gaze as innervates superior oblique
309
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN5 lesion cause?

A
  • Loss of sensation to face
  • Weak muscles of mastication
  • Loss of corneal reflex (afferent)
  • Jaw deviation to weak side
310
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN6 lesion cause?

A
  • Issues abducting eye beyond midline as innervates lateral rectus
311
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN7 lesion cause?

A

Face, ear, taste, tear –

  • Muscles of expression
  • Stapedius
  • Anterior 2/3rd tongue
  • Parasympathetic fibres to lacrimal + salivary glands
312
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is Bell’s palsy?

A
  • CN7 lesion with complete facial paralysis, hyperacusis,
  • Differentiate from stroke as no forehead sparring as LMN
  • Often post-viral (HSV), treat with pred + eye care
313
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN8 lesion cause?

A
  • Sensorineural deafness

- Tinnitus, vertigo, nystagmus

314
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN9/10 lesion cause?

A
  • Swallow, gag + cough issues

- Uvula deviated away from side of lesion

315
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN11 lesion cause?

A
  • Weakness turning head to contralateral side
316
Q

NEUROPATHY

What does a CN12 lesion cause?

A
  • Tongue deviation towards side of lesion
317
Q

NEUROPATHY

What are the investigations used in neuropathy?

A
  • Neuropathy screen (symmetrical) = FBC, CRP/ESR, U+E, glucose, TFT, B12 + folate
  • Vasculitis screen (asymmetrical) = first 3 + ANA, ANCA, anti-dsDNA, RhF, complement
  • EMG + nerve conduction studies
318
Q

NEUROPATHY

What is the management of neuropathy?

A
  • Sx relief with neuropathic analgesia (gabapentin, pregabalin, amitriptyline)
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Inflammatory = pred + steroid-sparing agents like azathioprine (+ IVIg or plasmapheresis in CIDP)
  • Vasculitis = rapid pred + immunosuppressant (cyclophosphamide) to avoid irreversible damage
319
Q

CORD COMPRESSION
What is…

i) myelopathy?
ii) radiculopathy?

A

i) Injury to the spinal cord due to severe compression resulting in UMN signs + specific symptoms based on compression
ii) Sx caused by pinching of a nerve root as they exit the spinal cord

320
Q

CORD COMPRESSION
How does radiculopathy present?
What is the most common radiculopathy?

A
  • Sharp, shooting pain within distribution of nerve, weakness + loss of sensation
  • Sciatica (L5) = lower back pain that travels to buttocks + down back of thigh to calf
321
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What are the aetiologies of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Malignancy (mostly secondary, 5Bs = breast, bronchus, byroid, bidney, brostate)
  • Infection (epidural abscess), spinal osteophytes
  • Disc prolapse (slower onset), haematoma (warfarin)
  • Lumbar degeneration due to trauma or age (conservative Mx or steroid injections)
  • Myeloma
322
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What are the symptoms of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Weakness of legs with UMN signs (contralateral spasticity + hyperreflexia)
  • Sudden/progressive onset weakness = emergency
  • Sensory loss below certain level
  • Numbness/tingling may have stabbing pain
  • Bladder + anal sphincter involvement is a later manifestation (hesitancy, frequency, painless retention)
323
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What are the signs of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Motor, reflex + sensory level = normal ABOVE lesion
  • LMN signs = AT level
  • UMN signs = BELOW level
  • Tone + reflexes usually reduced in acute cord compression
  • ?Sign of infection like tender spine, pyrexia
324
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

How does degenerative cervical myelopathy present?

A
  • Pain, loss of motor or sensory function affecting neck, upper or lower limbs
  • Loss of autonomic function
  • Hoffman’s sign +ve
325
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What are the differentials for spinal cord compression?

A
  • Transverse myelitis (inflammation of both sides of one section of spinal cord)
  • MS
  • Trauma
  • Dissecting aneurysm
326
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What are the investigations of spinal cord compression?

A
  • PR to assess loss of sphincter control
  • Screening bloods (FBC, CRP/ESR, B12, LFT, U+Es)
  • MRI spine gold standard
  • If mass, ?biopsy/surgical exploration
327
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What is the main complication of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Cauda equina syndrome

- Cord compression below the level of the termination of the spinal cord at L1/2 vertebral level = medical emergency

328
Q

CORD COMPRESSION
What can cause cauda equina syndrome?
How does it present?

A
  • Mostly malignancy, disc prolapse (L4/5, L5/S1), trauma
  • Back pain, early urinary retention + constipation, saddle anaesthesia, decreased sphincter tone, mixed UMN/LMN leg weakness, erectile dysfunction, asymmetrical paralysis of legs
329
Q

CORD COMPRESSION
What is spinal stenosis?
How does it present?
How is it managed?

A
  • Narrowing of lower spinal canal
  • Spinal claudication > pain in buttocks/legs when walking, pain eased by bending forward as canal opens, negative straight leg raise
  • MRI + canal decompression surgery
330
Q

CORD COMPRESSION

What is the management of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Malignancy = stat dexamethasone + consider chemo, radio, surgery
  • Epidural abscess = surgical decompression + Abx
  • Cauda equina = surgery for emergency pressure relief
  • Degenerative cervical myelopathy = urgent spinal surgery referral for surgical decompression
331
Q

SPINAL CORD INJURY

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  • Lateral hemisection of spinal cord
  • Ipsilateral weakness below the lesion (lateral corticospinal)
  • Ipsilateral loss of fine touch, proprioception + vibration (DCML)
  • Contralateral loss of pain + temp (lateral spinothalamic)
332
Q

SPINAL CORD INJURY

What is anterior cord syndrome?

A
  • Anterior spinal artery occlusion or compression
  • Bilateral spastic paresis (lateral corticospinal)
  • Bilateral loss of pain + temp (lateral spinothalamic)
333
Q

SPINAL CORD INJURY

What is posterior cord syndrome?

A
  • Trauma or posterior spinal artery occlusion

- Loss of fine touch, proprioception + vibration (DCML)

334
Q

SPINAL CORD INJURY

What is central cord syndrome?

A
  • Hyperextension injury, often elderly with underlying cervical disease
  • Sensory + motor deficit (upper extremities > lower)
335
Q

MYOPATHY
What are myopathies?
What are dystrophies?
How do they compare to neuropathies?

A
  • Neuromuscular disorders where the primary Sx is muscle weakness due to dysfunction of muscle fibres
  • If they’re inherited = dystrophies
  • Weakness is proximal in muscle disease (nerves = distal)
336
Q

MYOPATHY

What are the aetiologies of myopathies?

A
  • Inflammatory = polymyositis, dermatomyositis (associated with interstitial lung disease)
  • Inherited = Duchenne, Becker’s muscular dystrophy, myotonic dystrophy or rare = fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD), mitochondrial
  • Endo = Cushing’s, thyrotoxicosis
  • Drugs = alcohol, statins
337
Q

MYOPATHY

How do myopathies present?

A
  • Symmetrical proximal pattern of muscle weakness (hairs, stairs + chairs)
  • Weakness > wasting
  • Reflexes + sensation normal, no fasciculations
338
Q

MYOPATHY

How does myotonic dystrophy present?

A
  • DM1 = (DMPK gene on C19) = distal weakness more prominent
  • DM2 = (ZNF9 gene on C3) = proximal weakness more prominent.
  • May have cataracts, testicular atrophy, cardiac lesions (heart block, cardiomyopathy), DM
339
Q

MYOPATHY
How does…

i) polymyositis
ii) dermatomyositis
iii) FSHD
iv) mitochondrial

issues present?

A

i) Proximal muscle weakness ± pain, Raynaud’s, dysphagia, dysphonia
ii) Photosensitive, macular rash over back + shoulder
iii) Facial weakness
iv) Eye movement disorders

340
Q

MYOPATHY

What are the investigations for myopathies?

A
  • CRP/ESR, creatinine kinase elevated

- Autoantibodies (anti-Jo-1), EMG, genetics + muscle biopsy

341
Q

MYOPATHY

What is the management of myopathies?

A
  • Remove causative agent (statins, steroids)

- Immunosuppression (steroids, azathioprine) if inflammatory cause.

342
Q

MYOPATHY

What is the general supportive management of myopathies?

A
  • OT = aids + adaptations to help live with condition
  • Physio = prevent contractures
  • Renal protection = myoglobin can cause kidney damage
  • Diet = ideally low BMI with good nutrition
343
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

What is hydrocephalus?

A
  • Abnormal build-up of CSF around the brain causing compression to nearby brain tissue as the ventricles dilate
344
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

What is the purpose of CSF?

A
  • Protects brain from damage
  • Removes waste products from the brain
  • Provides brain with nutrients to function properly
345
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

What is the usual flow of CSF in the brain?

A
  • Lateral ventricles
  • Foramen of Munro
  • 3rd ventricle
  • Cerebral aqueduct
  • 4th ventricle
  • Subarachnoid space (Medially by foramen of Magendie, Laterally by Luschka)
  • Dural sinus via arachnoid granulations
346
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

What are the 3 types of hydrocephalus?

A
  • Obstructive (non-communicating) = structural pathology blocking flow of CSF with dilatation superior to site of obstruction
  • Non-obstructive (communicating) = imbalance of CSF production/absorption
  • Normal pressure = unknown, can develop after head injury or stroke, >60s
347
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS
What are some causes of…

i) obstructive
ii) non-obstructive

hydrocephalus?

A

i) Tumour, acute haemorrhages, developmental abnormalities (aqueduct stenosis)
ii) Commonly failure of reabsorption of arachnoid granulations (meningitis, post-haemorrhage) or increased CSF production (choroid plexus tumour) but very rare

348
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

How does hydrocephalus present?

A
  • Signs of raised ICP
  • Headache (worse in morning or lying down)
  • N+V, papilloedema, blurred vision
349
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

How does normal pressure hydrocephalus present?

A

‘Wet, wacky, wobbly’ –

  • Urinary incontinence, dementia + abnormal gait (apraxia)
  • Sx come on gradually + similar to Alzheimer’s so difficult to diagnose
350
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

What are the investigations for hydrocephalus?

A
  • CT head = enlarged ventricles
  • MRI head if suspected underlying lesion
  • LP is both diagnostic + therapeutic (caution in obstructive as difference in cranial/spinal pressures can cause brain herniation)
351
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS

What is the management of hydrocephalus?

A
  • Ventriculoperitoneal shunt = surgically implanted into brain to drain excess fluid (may become blocked or infected)
  • Endoscopic third ventriculostomy = hole made in floor of 3rd ventricle to allow trapped CSF to escape to be reabsorbed
352
Q

IIH

What is idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)?

A
  • Build up of CSF pressure around the brain causing signs of raised ICP
  • Associated with obese young women
353
Q

IIH

What are the causes of IIH?

A
  • Primary = idiopathic
  • Secondary (often causing chronic intracranial HTN) = brain tumour, chronic SDH, meningitis/encephalitis, venous sinus thrombosis, drugs (nitrofurantoin, vitamin A)
354
Q

IIH

What is the clinical presentation of IIH?

A
  • Presents as if mass but none found
  • Signs of raised ICP (headache, papilloedema + enlarged blind spot)
  • Blurred vision, narrowed visual fields ± diplopia
  • Consciousness + cognition preserved
355
Q

IIH

What are the investigations for IIH?

A
  • Routine bloods + CT head to exclude organic causes

- LP to exclude infection = increased opening pressure (can be therapeutic)

356
Q

IIH

What is the management of IIH?

A
  • # 1 weight loss (topiramate can be used + has benefit of weight loss)
  • Acetazolamide
  • Surgery = optic nerve sheath decompression + fenestration to prevent damage
  • Lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt
357
Q

DVS THROMBOSIS
What is dural venous sinus thrombosis (DVS thrombosis)?
What can it lead to?
What causes it?

A
  • Blood clot in the dural venous sinuses which drain blood from the brain.
  • Cerebral infarction (stroke) but less commonly than arterial
  • Thrombophilias, pregnancy, polycythaemia, sickle cell
358
Q

DVS THROMBOSIS

What is the clinical presentation of DVS thrombosis?

A
  • Headaches (sudden onset), N+V, abnormal vision
  • Sagittal sinus thrombosis (mostly) = seizures + hemiplegia
  • Lateral sinus thrombosis = CN6+7 palsies
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis = periorbital oedema, ophthalmoplegia (CN 6 usually before 3 + 4), hyperaesthesia to upper face + eye pain (CN 5)
359
Q

DVS THROMBOSIS

What structures run through the cavernous sinus?

A
  • CN3, 4, CN 5 (V1+V2) + ICA
360
Q

DVS THROMBOSIS
What are the investigations for DVS thrombosis?
What is the management?

A
  • CT head of superior sagittal sinus thrombosis can show classic empty delta sign
  • CT/MRI venogram may visualise clot
  • Anticoagulation with LMWH
361
Q

ABNORMAL GAIT
What is an ataxic gait?
What causes it?
What side is deficit?

A
  • Wide based, falls, cannot walk heel-to-toe, worse in dark or eyes closed
  • Cerebellar issues (MS, posterior fossa tumour, alcohol, POCS)
  • Ipsilateral as cerebellar fibres decussate twice
362
Q

ABNORMAL GAIT
What is an important differential of ataxic gait?
How can they be differentiated?

A
  • Proprioception issues (sensory neuropathies, inner ear problem affecting vestibular system
  • Normal walking when eyes open but issues when eyes closed = proprioceptive, constant issues = cerebellar
363
Q

ABNORMAL GAIT
What is a circumduction or spastic or hemiplegic gait?
When is it seen?

A
  • Stiff gait, circumduction of legs ± scuffing of toe of shoes, asymmetrical with affected side flexion in upper limb, extension in lower
  • Stroke, haemorrhage, UMN lesion
364
Q

ABNORMAL GAIT
What is an apraxic gait?
What causes it?

A
  • Pathognomonic “gluing to floor” on attempting to walk, short + shuffling steps, freezing, wide based unsteady gait + falls
  • Normal pressure hydrocephalus, multi-infarct states, Alzheimer’s
365
Q

ABNORMAL GAIT
What is a waddling gait?
What causes it?

A
  • Body/hip swings or drips side-side as hard to balance when walking
  • Proximal muscle weakness in pelvic girdle (myopathies, DDH)
366
Q

SPEECH ISSUES
What is dysphasia?
What is it seen in?

A
  • Impairment of language caused by brain damage (area affected dictates type)
  • Stroke
367
Q

SPEECH ISSUES
What are the features of Broca’s dysphasia?
What area is affected?

A
  • Expressive dysphasia so reading + writing impaired, malformed words + non-fluent speech BUT comprehension intact (can follow commands)
  • Frontal lobe of dominant hemisphere (often left)
368
Q

SPEECH ISSUES
What are the features of Wernicke’s dysphasia?
What area is affected?

A
  • Receptive dysphasia so cannot respond to requests (comprehension issues) BUT fluent speech production (albeit replies inappropriate)
  • Temporal lobe dominant hemisphere
369
Q

SPEECH ISSUES
What is dysarthria?
What is it seen in?

A
  • Difficulty in speech articulation due to weakness of speech-related musculature so slurred
  • Cerebellar disease, stroke, pseudobulbar palsy (MND), bulbar palsy (GBS, MND)
370
Q
SPEECH ISSUES
What is pseudo?
What is bulbar?
What is pseudobulbar dysarthria?
What is bulbar dysarthria?
A
  • Affects UMN
  • Affects LMN of CN9–12
  • Slow, nasal, effortful ‘hot potato’ voice
  • Nasal speech due to paralysis of palate
371
Q

SPEECH ISSUES
What is dysphonia?
What is it seen in?

A
  • Difficulty in speech volume due to weakness of resp muscles or vocal cords
  • MG, GBS, Parkinson’s (mixed dysphonia + dysarthria)
372
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS

What are vascular causes of unilateral vision loss?

A
  • Amaurosis fugax/central retinal artery occlusion
  • Central retinal vein occlusion
  • Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy
  • Vitreous haemorrhage
  • GCA
  • Occipital lobe stroke
373
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS
Explain the process of…

i) central retinal artery occlusion.
ii) central retinal vein occlusion.
iii) anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy.
iv) vitreous haemorrhage.

A

i) Branch of ophthalmic artery which supplies whole retina blocked
ii) Dilatation of branch veins (backflow) as central vein occluded
iii) Ischaemia of posterior choroidal artery that supplies head of optic nerve, can be arteritic (think GCA)
iv) Blood leaks into vitreous humour between lens + retina preventing light travelling lens>retina (assoc. with diabetic retinopathy, CRVO, macular degeneration)

374
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS

What are some non-vascular causes of unilateral vision loss

A
  • Optic neuritis
  • Retinal detachment
  • Acute angle closure glaucoma
375
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS
Explain the process of…

i) optic neuritis.
ii) retinal detachment.
iii) acute angle closure glaucoma.

A

i) Inflammation of optic nerve caused by MS, infection (lyme, syphilis, HIV), B12 deficiency or arteritis
ii) Retina pulled away from underlying surface (flashers/floaters with decrease in vision)
iii) Drainage of aqueous humour suddenly occluded leading to rise in intraocular pressure

376
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS
What causes…

i) painless
ii) painful
iii) generic

unilateral vision loss?

A

i) Central retinal artery occlusion + central retinal vein occlusion
ii) Optic neuritis, acute angle closure glaucoma
iii) Retinal detachment + vitreous haemorrhage

377
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS
How does…

i) CRAO
ii) optic neuritis
iii) acute angle closure glaucoma
iv) retinal detachment
v) vitreous haemorrhage

present?

A

i) Amaurosis fugax (like pulling curtain over eyes)
ii) Reduced visual acuity over few days (cloudy vision), painful eye movements, heat exacerbation, RAPD + dyschromatopsia
iii) Painful red eye, N+V
iv) Flashes/floaters, decrease in vision, ‘curtain’ over part of vision
v) Flashes/floaters, decrease in vision, red ‘tinge’

378
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS
What are the findings on fundoscopy for…

i) CRAO?
ii) CRVO?
iii) optic neuritis?

A

i) Cherry red spot in macula (different blood supply), pale optic disc
ii) Cotton wool spots, multiple retinal haemorrhages
iii) Pale optic disc

379
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS

What other investigations would you do in unilateral vision loss and what for?

A
  • ESR/CRP (GCA)
  • Fluorescein angiography (CRVO)
  • Tonometry (measure intraocular pressure for glaucoma)
  • Ocular USS (vitreous haemorrhage/retinal detachment)
380
Q

UNILATERAL VISION LOSS

What is the management of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A
  • Bright room
  • Pilocarpine (constricts pupil)
  • Timolol drops with laser or surgical intervention
381
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
Give some examples of anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs).
What is their mechanism of action?

A
  • Carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, levetiracetam, phenytoin, ethosuximide.
  • Inhibit voltage-gated Na+ channels which prevents excitability of neurones > reduced firing > stops seizure, some promote GABA release
382
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are some side effects and important information for…

i) carbamazepine?
ii) valproate?
iii) lamotrigine

A

i) Blurred vision, headache, drowsiness – agranulocytosis, aplastic anaemia, P450 inducer
ii) Teratogenic, hepatitis, hair loss, tremor, weight gain – some interactions with antidepressants
iii) Blurred vision, headache, drowsiness – Steven-Johnson syndrome + risk of leukopenia

383
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are some side effects and important information for…

i) phenytoin?
ii) levetiracetam?
iii) ethosuximide?

A

i) Megaloblastic anaemia (folate), osteomalacia, teratogenic, P450 interactions – Steven-Johnson syndrome
ii) Headache, drowsiness – some interactions with antidepressants
iii) Night terrors, rashes

384
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY

What is the mechanism of action of Levodopa?

A
  • Levodopa is dopamine precursor which can cross BBB to be converted to dopamine by dopa-decarboxylase
  • Must be combined with peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor like carbidopa so levodopa can reach brain
385
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY

What are the side effects of Levodopa?

A
  • Postural hypotension
  • Confusion
  • Dyskinesias (abnormal movements)
  • Effectiveness decreases with time (even with dose increase)
  • On-off effect
  • Psychosis
386
Q
NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
A side effect of high dopamine are dyskinesias.
What is dystonia?
What is chorea?
What is athetosis?
A
  • Excessive muscle contraction > abnormal postures/movements
  • Abnormal involuntary movements may be jerky
  • Involuntary twisting or writhing movements, usually in fingers/hands/feet
387
Q
NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
Give some examples of dopamine receptor agonists.
What is the mechanism of action?
What are some side effects?
What monitoring is required?
A
  • Bromocriptine, cabergoline, ropinirole
  • Increases amount of dopamine in CNS
  • Hallucinations (more than levodopa), postural hypotension
  • ECHO, ESR, creatinine + CXR prior to Rx
388
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY

What are some adverse effects of dopamine receptor agonists?

A
  • Pulmonary retroperitoneal + cardiac fibrosis

- Bromocriptine associated with gambling + other inhibition disorders (e.g. sexual)

389
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are COMT + MAO-B inhibitors?
What is the mechanism of action?

A
  • Catechol-o-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor = entacapone
  • Monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitor = selegiline
  • Inhibit enzymatic breakdown of dopamine
390
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY

Why are dopamine receptor agonists + COMT/MAO-B inhibitors used in Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Delay use of levodopa + then used in combination to reduce levodopa dose as levodopa is most effective treatment
391
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
Examples of triptans.
Mechanism of action?
Used for?

A
  • Sumatriptan, naratriptan
  • 5-HT (serotonin) receptor agonists + act on smooth muscle in arteries > vasoconstriction, peripheral pain receptors > inhibit activation of pain receptors (vasoactive peptides) + reduce neuronal activity in CNS
  • Abort migraines when start to develop
392
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY

What are some SEs + C/Is of triptans?

A
  • Dizziness, dry mouth, sleepy, nausea

- C/I in CVD

393
Q

DIZZINESS/VERTIGO
What is vertigo?
What is it characterised by?

A
  • Hallucination of movement, often rotary, of the pt/their surroundings
  • Spinning, tilting, veering sideways, feeling as if being pushed/pulled
  • Always worse with movement, relief on lying or sitting still
  • Difficulty walking or standing
  • N+V, pallor, sweating
394
Q

DIZZINESS/VERTIGO
What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?
What is it caused by?
What is the treatment?

A
  • Brief vertigo on head movements (rolling in bed) due to disruption of debris in semi-circular canal of ears (canalolithiasis)
  • Idiopathic, secondary to head trauma, labyrinthitis
  • Reassurance, Epley manoeuvre
395
Q

DIZZINESS/VERTIGO
What is acute labyrinthitis?
How does it present?
What are the causes?

A
  • Inflammation of labyrinth + damage to vestibular + auditory end organs
  • Abrupt onset severe vertigo, N+V, may have hearing loss or tinnitus + nystagmus towards side opposite to lesion
  • Severe vertigo subsides in days, full recovery 3-4w
  • Usually viral, ?vascular lesion
396
Q
DIZZINESS/VERTIGO
What is Ménières disease?
How does it present?
What causes it?
How is it managed?
A
  • Increased pressure in endolymphatic system due to increased volume of inner ear.
  • Recurrent attacks in clusters of vertigo lasting >20m, fluctuating/perm sensorineural hearing loss (uni/bilateral), tinnitus + sense of fullness or pressure in one or both ears
  • Idiopathic, trauma, endo
  • Bed rest, reassurance
397
Q

DIZZINESS/VERTIGO

How does traumatic damage present?

A
  • Trauma affecting petrous temporal bone or cerebellopontine angle then auditory nerve may be damaged > vertigo, deafness ± tinnitus.
398
Q

DIZZINESS/VERTIGO

What are other causes of dizziness/vertigo?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Motion sickness
  • Ototoxicity (aminoglycoside Abx like gentamicin, thiazide diuretics, lithium)
  • Vestibular neuronitis – recent viral, recurrent vertigo attacks, no hearing loss.
399
Q

DIZZINESS/VERTIGO

What is the management of dizziness/vertigo?

A
  • Tilt-table test + Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
  • FBC, ESR/CRP, U+Es, LFTs, TFTs to exclude causes
  • MRI head if ?acoustic neuroma or other brain issue
  • Sx relief with anti-emetic (prochlorperazine), dizziness use antihistamine cinnarizine
400
Q

MOVEMENT ISSUES
What is ballismus?
What is it caused by?

A
  • Severe movement disorder with spontaneous involuntary movements, muscular weakness + incoordination of movements or proximal extremities (aka chorea but worse, can be hemi).
  • Vascular issue with subthalamic nucleus like thalamic stroke