Psych Flashcards

1
Q

What will an isolated benzodiazepine overdose present with?

A

A patient who has normal vital signs and is arousable. Bradycardia, respiratory depression, ect suggests involvement of another CNS depressant.

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2
Q

What are PTSD symptoms less than 1 month but greater than 3 days referred to as?

A

Acute stress disorder.

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3
Q

What triad defines serotonin syndrome?

A

Mental status changes, autonomic dysregulation, and neuromuscular hyperactivity. A tyramine induced HTN crisis would have just hypertension, not hyperreflexia or mydriasis, ect.

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4
Q

What agent other than dantrolene can be used in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Bromocriptine (after stopping the antipsychotics of course).

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5
Q

What would SIG E CAPS symptoms in someone who’s wife died 7 months ago be classified as?

A

Major depressive disorder. MDD is diagnosed regardless of an existing precipitant. Thus the most appropriate next step would be anti-depressant therapy.

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6
Q

Can anorexia present initially as edema?

A

Yes, it can cause edema due to nutritional deficiencies. Initially put hypothyroidism but I should have noticed that her BMI was 17; hypothyroidism would have caused weight gain.

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7
Q

What is the first line medication for OCD?

A

SSRIs. Can also use the TCA clomipramine.

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8
Q

What is premenstrual syndrome/PMS?

A

Bloating, fatigue, headaches, mood swings, anxiety, ect that begin 1 week before menses and resolve a few days into menses.

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9
Q

What is the most appropriate next step for suspected premenstrual syndrome/PMS?

A

A menstrual diary to rule out a primary mood disorder (if symptoms not consistently tied to menstrual cycle it may not be PMS).

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10
Q

What is the difference between separation anxiety disorder and normal development in a pre-schooler?

A

It is normal for a child to initially protest and cling to their parent on the first day of school if they then settle down, play with other children, engage in school activities, ect.

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11
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for committing homicide?

A

Access to firearms.

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12
Q

What agents are used in the management of PCP intoxication?

A

Benzodiazepines.

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13
Q

What is the best initial approach to a patient with acute stress disorder?

A

Educate them on the range of reactions to trauma to normalize their experience.

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14
Q

What do individuals with alcohol use disorder commonly present to the PCP with?

A

Sleep disturbance and/or mild anxiety symptoms due to mild withdrawal.

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15
Q

How is a grief reaction differentiated from MDD?

A

Grief involves sadness that is specific to the person with “waves” of grief at reminders. Feelings of worthlessness and guilt are less likely than MDD.

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16
Q

What is the best next step for a single episode of major depressive disorder that has gone into remission following anti-depressant therapy?

A

Continue the anti-depressant(s) for 6 additional months to reduce risk of relapse.

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17
Q

What is the first line non-stimulant option for management of adult ADHD?

A

Atomoxetine (a NE re-uptake inhibitor).

18
Q

What mood stabilizer is associated with hepatotoxicity?

A

Valproate. Those on it should receive regular LFTs.

19
Q

What is the best management for tardive dyskinesia if anti-psychotic dose reduction isn’t possible?

A

Switch to clozapine as it is the least likely anti-psychotic to produce extrapyramidal symptoms.

20
Q

What is valbenzine?

A

A VMAT2 inhibitor that is FDA approved for tardive dyskinesia.

21
Q

How do you tell adjustment disorder from a normal stress reaction?

A

In adjustment disorder there is a functional impairment, while with a normal stress reaction there is no functional impairment (ex stressed out due to changes at work but is still getting work done, ect.).

22
Q

Can a 15 year old have oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Yes. A teenager who is defiant in multiple situations resulting in impairment (school suspension, ect) and who blames failings on others has ODD.

23
Q

What is REM sleep behavior disorder?

A

Motor movement/dream enactment that occurs during REM sleep if muscle atonia is absent. Patients can be awakened and become fully alert and remember the dream (contrast to non-REM disorders like sleepwalking or night terrors).

24
Q

What is nightmare disorder?

A

Recurrent awakenings from REM sleep associated with full alertness and dream recall. Contrasted from REM sleep behavior disorder in that there is no sleep motor movement, and from non -REM disorders like sleep terror and sleep walking where patients lack dream content and are slow to awaken.

25
Q

What symptoms characterize the early course of HIV-associated dementia?

A

Subcortical (basal ganglia). I.e. movement/gait disorder would be seen with HIV-associated dementia. Suspect in a patient with HIV, a CD4 count close to 200, and difficulty with smooth limb movement.

26
Q

What is the treatment of catatonia?

A

Benzodiazepines or electroconvulsive therapy.

27
Q

A patient who is immobile and mute whose arm stays in the same position (posturing) is suggestive of what?

A

Catatonia.

28
Q

What is the best next step for management of an acute manic episode with psychosis or escalating agitation (banging on door, ect)?

A

Administer an anti-psychotic.

29
Q

What is the best response to a gift given by a patient who has come in for psychiatric reasons?

A

Politely decline the gift (patient could have an unstable mental illness affecting their judgement, like a hypomanic episode in a patient who’s bipolar).

30
Q

What are the indications for hospitalization of a patient with anorexia nervosa?

A

Unstable vital signs (hypotension, bradycardia, ect), cardiac dysrhythmias, electrolyte derangement, and severely low body weight.

31
Q

How can parkinson disease dementia be differentiated from dementia with lewy bodies?

A

In parkinson disease dementia, parkinsonian/motor symptoms predate dementia symptoms by at least one year.

32
Q

What is the treatment of choice for adjustment disorder?

A

Psychotherapy.

33
Q

What is the first line therapy for anorexia nervosa?

A

Nutritional rehabilitation and CBT.

34
Q

Why should OTC cold medicines be avoided in very young children (ex. 4 years old)?

A

They can potentially cause confusion and hallucinations (1st generation anti-histamines, ect).

35
Q

What is a potential risk of anti-psychotic use for dementia with lewy body patients?

A

Extreme anti-psychotic hypersensitivity. Can present as confusion, worsening parkinsonism (rigidity, ect) and autonomic dysfunction (orthostatic hypotension, ect).

36
Q

In addition to causing serotonin syndrome, what electrolyte abnormality can be seen with MDMA intoxication?

A

Hyponatremia. Bath salts can also cause serotonin syndrome but are less likely than MDMA to cause hyponatremia.

37
Q

Does MDMA or bath salts show up on urine toxicology screening?

A

Both MDMA and bath salts may or may not be detected as amphetamines by urine toxicology screening.

38
Q

What psychiatric condition can high dose glucocorticoids precipitate?

A

Glucocorticoid induced psychosis.

39
Q

Which atypical anti-psychotics have the lowest low metabolic risk profile ? (i.e. safe for use in diabetics, ect).

A

Ziprasidone, aripiprazole, and lurasidone.

40
Q

What is the management of sleep terrors?

A

Reassurance, as they usually resolve within 1-2 years.

41
Q

What is consuming the same meal daily in a demented patient a possible sign of?

A

Compulsive behavior, which suggests the behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia.

42
Q

Are long-acting injectable anti-psychotics appropriate first line agents for acute psychosis?

A

No. Oral anti-psychotics (preferably 2nd generation but 1st could be used) are indicated for cooperative patients. Injectables should only be considered if a pattern of non-compliance occurs afterwards.