Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP 2 > Psych > Flashcards

Psych Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause on intellectual disability

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common genetic causes of intellectual disability

A

Down and Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Deficits in Autism spectrum disorders

A

Social interactions, behavior, and language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ASD is also with which perinatal infections?

A

Rubella and CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ASD patients have a higher incidence of …

A

abnormal ECG, seizures, and abnormal brain morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which drugs are approved for tx of irritability in ASD?

A

Risperidone and aripiprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ADHD is asso w lower levels of …

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD) features

A

Chronic, severe, persistent irritability with temper outbursts and angry, irritable, or sad mood between outbursts. Should not be dx’ed before age 6 or after 18.\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Intermitten explosive disorder features

A

not aggressive on a continuous basis; periods of good behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tourette disorder is asso w what other psych disorders?

A

ADHD and OCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MDD is asso w decreased levels of …

A

NE, 5HT, and DA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is sleep affected in MDD?

A

Decreased REM latency, increased REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tx of depression + neuropathy

A

Duloxetine (an SNRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tx of depression +/- fear of gaining weight / sexual s/e’s +/- desire to quit smoking

A

Bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tx of depression + insomnia + decreased appetite

A

Mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bipolar disorder is asso with increased levels of…

A

NE and 5HT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bipolar disorder type I features

A

Mania (>1 week, affects function, warrants hospitalization) + depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bipolar disorder type II features

A

Hypomania (<1 week, does not severely affect function) + depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tx of acute mania

A

Lithium and valproate, may use atypical antipsychotics (e.g. quetiapine) and anticonvulsant lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx if acute mania + severe sxs

A

Use atypical antipsychotics (quetiapine) d/t shorter onset of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx of mania in pregnancy

A

Lurasidone, risk of fetal EPS in third trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This is never a correct answer on STEP 2

A

refer to psych

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Persistent depressive disorder timing

A

> 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cyclothymic disorder features and tx

A

Hypomanic episodes + mild depression, >2 years, tx w lithium, valproate, antipsychotics, or psychotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tx of major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

A

phototherapy and bupropion or SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Seasonal affect disorders so with abnormal…

A

melatonin metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Duration of postpartum blues or “baby blues”

A

birth to 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Duration of depressive disorder with peripartum onset

A

within 1-3 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Duration of bipolar disorder with peripartum onset and brief psychotic disorder with peripartum onset

A

during pregnancy up to 4 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bereavement duration

A

typically lasts less than 6 mo to 1 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Litium s/e’s

A

tremors, weight gain, GI disturbance, nephrotox, diabetes insidious, leukocytosis, teratogenic
severe tox: confusion, ataxia, lethargy, abnormal reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Valproate s/e’s

A

Tremors, weight gain, GI disturbance, alopecia, teratogenic, hepatoxicity (elevated LFTs). Must monitor levels of the drug. Tox: hyponatremia, coma, death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Serotonin syndrome unique feature and tx

A

Neuromuscular irritability (hyperreflexia and myoclonus); strop the medication and give cyproheptadine (serotonin antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome unique feature and tx

A

Rigidity; most important intervention is d/c’ing the offending drug and if refractory use dantrolene or bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Brieft psychotic disorder duration

A

> 1 day, <1 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Schizophreniform duration

A

> 1 mo, <6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Schizophrenia duration

A

> 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Schizophrenia features

A

> /= 2 of the following sxs, one must be in 1-3, >6 mo
Positive sxs (d/t high DA levels):
1) delusions (persecution/grandiosity)
2) hallucinations (mostly auditory)
3) disorganization of speech and 4) behavior
5) Negative sx (muscarinic receptors and serotonin): flat affect, poverty of speech/movement, anhedonia, cognitive delay

39
Q

Acutely psychotic pt mgmt

A

hospitalize, use atypical as 1st line agent, if IM medication needed d/t combative behavior use short acting olanzapine or ziprazidone, if not available use haloperidol

40
Q

Noncompliant patient with schizophrenia, mgmt

A

use long acting antipsychotic (risperidone or paliperidone) or use depot (olanzapine, risperidone, less so haloperidol)

41
Q

If 2 trials of antipsychotics fail, use…

A

clozapine

42
Q

Clozapine

A

last resort, most effect, agranulocytosis, must monitor CBC first weekly then monthly

43
Q

Typical antipsychotics

A

Most potent: haloperidol, fluphenazine; less potent: thioridazine, chlorpromazine

44
Q

Atypical antipsychotics and their major s/e’s

A

The -pines and the -drones
Pines: metabolic s/e’s
Drones: movement d/o’s, QT prolongation

45
Q

Atypicals by risk of weight gain / metabolic abnormalities

A

Highest risk: olanzapine and clozapine
Medium risk: quetiapine and risperidone
Low risk: aripiprazole and ziprasidone

46
Q

Aripiprazole is a partial _ _ and is approved as adjunct thx for _

A

dopamine agonist; MDD

47
Q

Schizoaffective disorder features

A

mood sxs (meet criteria for depression or bipolar) + psychotic sxs, the psychotic sxs must be present for at least 1 month and be present while the patient has no mood sxs for at least 2 weeks, unlike schizophrenia, where mood sxs may be present some of the time, in schizoaffective mood sxs are present most of the time

48
Q

Mood disorder with psychotic features

A

psychotic sxs occur exclusively during mood sxs

49
Q

Delusional disorder tx

A

Gentle confrontation, atypical antipsychotics

50
Q

Acute dystonia, onset and tx

A

hours to days after starting antipsychotic med; tx with anticholinergic agents (benztropine, trihexyphenidyl, diphenhydramine); e.g. may give haloperidol with diphenhydramine ti prevent s/e’s

51
Q

Akathisia (restlessness), onset and tx

A

weeks after starting antipsychotic med; tx with beta-blocker

52
Q

Tardive diskinesia, onset

A

> 6 mo after starting antipsychotic

53
Q

Panic disorder, r/o…

A

ACS (ECG and trop), hyperTH (TSH), and asthma (wheezing)

54
Q

Tx of panic disorder vs panic attack

A

SSRI; benzo (alprazolam)

55
Q

2 types of phobias

A

Specific phobia and social phobia, sxs must be present for >6 mo

56
Q

Tx of specific phobia

A

exposure techniques, CBT (flooding - “bombing” the pt - or desensitization - exposure in relaxed state)

57
Q

Tx of social phobia

A

beta-blocker (atenolol, nadolol, propranolol)

58
Q

OCD tx

A

SSRIs, CBT (exposure and response prevention)

59
Q

Hoarding disorder tx

A

SSRI

60
Q

PTSD tx

A

1st line: paroxetine, sertraline; prazosin reduced nightmare

61
Q

Acute stress disorder vs PTSD, duration

A

acute stress disorder: >2 days, <1 mo

PTSD: >1 mo

62
Q

GAD general criteria

A

> 6 mo of excessive worry + somatic complaint

63
Q

Rapid acting benzos

A

Lorazepam (IV/IM) - use in emergencies, alprazolam (PO) - use in panic attacks

64
Q

Long acting benzo

A

Clonazepam

65
Q

Benzos used in withdrawal

A

Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide

66
Q

Liver safe benzos

A

Lorazepam and oxazepam

67
Q

Flumazenil, use

A

benzo antagonist, use only with overdose is acute and you’re certain that there is no benzo dependence (causes acute withdrawal similar to DT, seizures)

68
Q

How many positive responses needed for positive CAGE test?

A

2

69
Q

Adjustment disorder duration

A

sxs usually occur within 3 months of stressor and remit within 6 mo of removal of the stressor

70
Q

Russell sign

A

callus/scarring on dorsum of hand

71
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities d/t vomiting

A

hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic acidosis

72
Q

Impotence is 50% more likely in …

A

smokers

73
Q

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

persistent or recurrent experience of depersonalization (“outside observer”) and derealization (experiencing surroundings as unreal)

74
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

inability to recall important personal information, usually of traumatic or stressful nature; includes dissociative fugue

75
Q

Dissociative identify disorder

A

involves fragmentation in to at least 2 distinct personality states

76
Q

Somatic symptom disorder

A

excessive anxiety about >/= 1 physical symptom(s) lasting for >/= 6 mo and can occur in patients whose sxs are explained by recognized diseases

77
Q

Delusional disorder criteria

A

> /= 1 delusion > month, no other psychotic sxs, normal functioning apart from direct impact of delusions

78
Q

PCP intoxication unique finding

A

multidirectional nystagmus

79
Q

Woman who presents with s/s of early pregnancy and beliefs that she is pregnant when she in fact is not…

A

pseudocyesis

80
Q

Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome

A

caused by the abrupt discontinuation or rapid taper of start half-life serotonergic antidepressant –> leads to sudden onset of dysphoria, fatigue, insomnia, myalgias, dizziness, flu-like sxs, GI sxs, temor, and neurosensory disturbances; tx with re-introduction of the same antidepressant and then tapering over 2-4 weeks

81
Q

body dysmorphic d/o dx

A

preoccupation with perceived bodily defect; NOT DX’ED WHEN CRITERIA FOR EATING D/O ARE MET

82
Q

difference between bulimia and purge-bing type of anorexia nervosa?

A

bulimia patients typically maintain normal body wt
bradycardia and refeeding syndrome in anorexia patients
SSRIs effective in bulimia, ineffective in anorexia

83
Q

PCP intoxication

A

nystagmus, dissociative feelings, psychotic and violent behavior, severe HTN, hyperthermia, quick onset and duration typically <8 h

84
Q

risk factors for Rx opioid misuse

A

age <45, psychiatric d/o, personal or FH of substance d/o, presence of legal hx. review the states’ rx drug-monitoring program data, do random urine drug screens and regular f/u’s (at least q3months) to reduce risk of rx opioid misuse

85
Q

difference between somatic sx d/o and panic d/o

A

multiple physical sxs, high health care use, and preoccupation with sxs are seen in both conditions; however in somatic sx d/o, physical sxs are persistent overtime. panic attacks have abrupt onset and resolve within minutes

86
Q

pharmacotherapy in alcohol use d/o

A

medications that target the reinforcing effects of alcohol by modulating opioid and glutamate functions are effect. first line treatment options include naltrexone, a mu-opioid antagonist, and acamprosate, a glutamate modulator. naltrexone decreases alcohol craving, reduces heavy drinking days, and increases days of abstinence; in patients takin opioids it can precipitate w/drawal. acamprosate is used to maintain abstinence and should be avoided in patients with renal failure.

87
Q

things that falsely show as positive amphetamines on urine tox screen

A

pseudoephedrine, bupropion, selegiline

88
Q

cyclothymic disorder dx in children

A

sxs for 1 year

89
Q

cyclothymic disorder part of which spectrum

A

bipolar

90
Q

tx of anorexia nervosa

A

psychotherapy, nutritional rehabilitation, olanzapine if severe/refractory

91
Q

Tourette time criteria

A

sxs must be present for >1 year, must occur before age 18

92
Q

Tourette tx

A

antipsychotics, alpha-2 agonists, and behavioral therapy (habit reversal training)

93
Q

PCP intoxication tx

A

benzos benzos benzos, antipsychotics 2nd-line

STEP 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions