Psych Flashcards

1
Q

what are 6 features of ADHD?

A

very short attention span
quick moving from one activity to another
quickly losing interest in a task and not being able to persist with challenging tasks
constant moving or fidgeting
impulsive behaviour
disruptive or rule breaking

must be consistent across various settings and adversely affect person for at least 6 months

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2
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for ADHD?

A

A persistent pattern (e.g., at least 6 months) of inattention symptoms and/or a combination of hyperactivity and impulsivity symptoms that is outside the limits of normal variation expected for age and level of intellectual development

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3
Q

what is the management of ADHD?

A

conservative - diet and exercise, food diary (causative links), self management strategies and organisation, parent training program

Medication - central nervous stimulants - methylphenidate (ritalin) [1st line] or lisdexamfetamine, dexamfetamine, atomoxetine

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4
Q

what monitoring needs to be done for those on medication for ADHD?

A

height and weight measurements as reduces appetite (especially in children)
cardiovascular effects - BP and HR

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5
Q

what are 6 common side effects of methylphenidate?

A

Decreased Appetite + Growth retardation
Headache
mood disturbance - agression, irritability, anxious, tense, depressed
insomnia
dry mouth

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6
Q

What are the 5 Ps of formulation?

A

Presenting
Predisposing
Precipitating
Perpetuating
Protective

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7
Q

what is psychological formulation?

A

the dynamic framework through which the connection between our individual characteristic, experiences and behaviours can be understood

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of risk?

A

risk to self
risk to others
risk from others
risk to property

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9
Q

what is a delusion?

A

Fixed false belief that is outside of cultural or religious norms

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10
Q

what is an overvalued idea?

A

Delusional idea but held with less conviction when challenged than a delusion - the patient might accept there is a possibility that it is not real.

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11
Q

What is the name of the delusional belief and it’s syndrome where you believe that someone important is in love with you?

A

erotomania
de clerambault’s syndrome

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12
Q

What is the name of the delusion and its syndrome that there are bugs crawling on you skin all the time?

A

Paracitosis
Ekbom’s syndrome

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13
Q

what is the name for a delusion shared by multiple people?

A

Folie à deux (or trois)

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14
Q

what is the name for a delusions where you think that someone you know has been replaced by an imposter?

A

Capgras syndrome

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15
Q

what is the name for a delusion where you think multiple people are actually a single person in disguise?

A

Fregoli’s syndrome

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16
Q

what is the name for a delusion where you think you have special powers, wealth, a mission, intelligence or identity?

A

Grandiose delusions

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17
Q

what is the name of delusions where you think there is something wrong with part or all of your body?

A

somatic delusions

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18
Q

what is the name of delusions where you think that unrelated occurrences in the external world have special significance to you in particular?

A

delusion of reference

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19
Q

what are delusions where you falsely think someone is out to get you?

A

Persecutory delusions

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20
Q

what are delusions where you feel guilty for something you haven’t done?

A

delusions of guilt

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21
Q

what is a delusional perception?

A

a true perception that a patient attributes false meaning to

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22
Q

what is the name and syndrome of a delusion where you believe your partner is cheating on you?

A

Delusion of jealousy
Othello syndrome

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23
Q

what is the name of the delusion where you believe you are dead or don’t exist?

A

nihilistic delusions
delires de negation

Cotards syndrome

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24
Q

what is the name of the delusions where you believe your thoughts and actions are being controlled by an external force?

A

delusion of passivity/control

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25
what is a hallucination?
a sensory perception in the absence of external stimuli
26
what is a somatic hallucination?
when you believe you can feel your internal organs moving or you heart beating out of chest
27
what is an extracampine hallucination?
one that is not possible due to geography e.g. hearing the kings voice talking to you in sheffield from buckingham palace
28
what is a hallucination as you're falling asleep called?
hypnogogic NORMAL
29
what is a hallucination as you're waking up called?
hyponopompic hallucinations NORMAL
30
what are pseudohallucinations?
vivid mental images that though they sound like hallucinations are not EXTERNAL to the patient ie they're coming from within the patient's own head
31
what are illusions?
special perceptual experiences in which information arising from “real” external stimuli leads to an incorrect perception eg monsters under bed is actually pile of washing
32
what is the old diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia?
schneider's first rank symptoms
33
what are schneider's first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?
A - Auditory hallucinations (3rd person) B - Broadcasting thoughts C - Control delusions - thoughts (withdrawal, insertion, interruption) and actions controlled by someone else (passivity phenomenon) D - Delusional perceptions
34
what are 5 risk factors for schizophrenia?
FHx Black Caribbean ethnicity Migration Urban environment Cannabis
35
what are the 3 features of psychosis?
hallucinations delusions disorganised thinking and speech
36
What are 6 presentations of BPD?
Intense emotions/emotional instability Impulsive/risky behaviour Low self esteem Difficulty maintaining relationships Anger, violence and aggression Self harm, suicide attempts
37
what are the 3 main categories of personality disorders?
Type A - Odd and eccentric Type B - emotional and erratic Type C - anxious and fearful
38
what is avoidant personality disorder?
severe anxiety about rejection or disapproval and avoidance of social situations due to this
39
what is dependent personality disorder?
heavy reliance on others to make decisions and take responsibility for their lives, taking a very passive approach. Fear being left to care for selves
40
what is obsessive compulsive personality disorder?
unrealistic expectations of how things should be done by themselves and others, and catastrophising about what will happen is these expectations are not met
41
what is paranoid personality disorder?
Hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted difficulty in trusting or revealing personal information to others
42
what is schizoid personality disorder?
lack of interest or desire to form relationships with others and feelings that this is of no benefit to them Few friends and like being alone
43
what is schizotypal personality disorder?
unusual beliefs thoughts and behaviours, as well as social anxiety that makes forming relationships difficult
44
what is borderline personality disorder?
fluctuating strong emotions and difficulties with identity and maintaining healthy relationships
45
what is histrionic personality disorder?
the need to be at the centre of attention and having to perform for others to maintain that attention Rapidly shifting shallow emotions
46
what is narcissistic personality disorder?
feelings that they are special and need others to recognise this or else they get upset. They put themselves first.
47
what is antisocial personality disorder?
reckless and harmful behaviour with lack of concern for consequences or the impact of their behaviour on others
48
what are the 6 domains of personality disorder traits recognised in the ICD-11?
Negative affectivity Detachment (from society) Dissocialisation Disinhibition Anankastia - preoccupation with orderliness and control Borderline pattern
49
What is the management for personality disorders?
Dialectic behavioural therapy (DBT) and CBT No medical (though there may be other co-existing psychiatric problems that can be dealt with medically)
50
what are 6 risk factors for personality disorders?
Hx of abuse FHx of schizophrenia Negative parental interactions emotional/disruptice disorder in childhood ethnicity - White other psychiatric diagnosis
51
what are 2 positive and 5 negative presentations of psychosis?
+ Hallucinations + Delusions - Affect Flattening (lack of spontaneity or reactiveness) - Avolition (lack of drive) - Ahedonia - Attention Deficit - Impoverished speech or language
52
What is the prodromal period?
a period of subclinical signs and symptoms preceding the onset of psychosis that can last from a few days to around 18 months
53
what are 6 features of the prodromal period?
transient, low intensity psychotic symptoms Reduced interest in daily activities Problems with mood, sleep, memory, concentration, affect, motivation Anxiety, irritability or depressive features Incoherent or illogical speech Positive family history
54
what are 8 risk factors for psychosis?
Genetics Stressful life event childhood adversity Ethnicity - increase in south asian and african populations Urban living migration cannabis and other substance use (including high dose corticosteroids) Early life factors - maternal stress, nutritional deficiency, IUGR
55
what is the treatment for psychosis and schizophrenia?
Refer to early intervention in psychosis team/ crisis resolution team Bio - Antipsychotics psycho - CBT Social - Family intervention, Care plan (crisis plan, advanced statement, key contacts), inform DVLA and don't drive during episodes Trial of 2x other antipsychotics for 6 weeks Then Clozapine
56
What are 12 first generation antipsychotics?
Benperidol Haloperidol Chlorpromazine Levomepromazine Pericyazine Perphenazine Prochlorperazine Promazine Trifluperazine Flupentixol Zuclopenthixol Pimozide Sulpiride
57
what is the MOA of typical antipsychotics?
Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists
58
What are 7 2nd generation (atypical) antipsychotics?
Olanzapine Quetiapine Clozapine - when 2 other anti-psychotics have failed Paliperidone Risperidone Amisulpride Aripirazole
59
What are typical antipsychotic side effects?
Extrapyramidal - abnormal movements and pseudoparkinsonisms, restlessness, tardive dyskinesia Increased risk of VTE and stroke Antimuscarinic side effects - dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation Sedation Raised prolactin - galactorrhoea Diabetic type effects - Weight Gain, dyslipidaemia, impaired glucose tolerance Neurological -reduced seizure threshold neuroleptic malignant syndrome Cardiac - QT prolongation (Haloperidol)
60
what antipsychotic side effect is most associated with atypicals?
Weight gain and metabolic syndrome
61
what typical antipsychotic can cause QT prolongation?
Haloperidol
62
What are the 3 core symptoms of autism ?
social interaction problems communication problems behavioural problems
63
what are 6 features of social interaction deficits in autism?
lack of eye contact delay in smiling avoids physical contact unable to read non-verbal cues difficulty establishing friendships not displaying a desire to share attention
64
what are 4 features of communication deficits in autism?
Delay, absence or regression in language development lack of appropriate non-verbal communication such as smiling, eye contact, responding to others and sharing interests Difficulty with imaginative or imitative behaviour repetitive use of words or phrases
65
What are 6 behavioural deficit features in autism?
Greater interest in objects, numbers or patterns than people Stereotypical repetitive movements - self stimulating repetitive movements to comfort self Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid repetitive behaviours and fixed routines Anxiety and distress with experiences that are outside their normal routine Extremely restricted food preferences
66
What are 5 psychiatric emergencies?
Suicide, harm to self, harm to others Substance intoxication and withdrawal Overdose of psychoactive drug Neuroleptic malignancy syndrome Serotonin syndrome
67
what is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
High fever, muscle stiffness, altered mental status and autonomic dysfunction (BP swings, excessive sweating, excessive salavating) Caused by antipsychotics
68
what is seen on bloods in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Raised creatinine kinase Raised WCC
69
what is serotonin syndrome and symptoms?
Neuromuscular excitation - Rigidity, hyperreflexia, myoclonus Autonomic system excitation - increased HR + BP, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, headache, diarrhoea and vomiting Altered mental status and seizures caused by too much serotonin => can lead to death
70
what is the MOA of alcohol?
stimulates GABA to have relaxing effect on brain. Allso inhibits glutamate receptors causing further relaxation Long term - GABA becomes down regulated and glutamate becomes upregulated
71
Units of alcohol =
(Volume (ml) X Percentage (%))/1000
72
what is classed as binge drinking?
>6 units for women >8 units for men in a single session
73
what are 9 complications of alcohol excess?
Alcohol related liver disease Cirrhosis Alcohol dependence and withdrawal Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome Pancreatitis Alcoholic cardiomyopathy Alcoholic myopathy - proximal muscle wasting and weakness Increased risk of CVD Increased risk of cancer - Breast, mouth, throat
74
What are 6 symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Tremors sweating tachycardia GI disturbance Anxiety and irritability Headache
75
what may be seen on blood results with alcohol excess?
raised MCV raised ALT and AST AST:ALT ratio >1.5 raised GGT
76
what is alcohol detoxification treatment?
water vitamins - B1 (IM if preventative or IV if symptomatic) Food - high protein, high calorie Benzos - chlordiazepoxide 5-20mg QDS
77
what medications are used for relapse prevention in alcoholics?
Disulphram - become unwell if drink Naltrexone - opiate blocker that helps cravins Acamprisate - helps with craving
78
what is the advise for an alcoholic if they want to cut down themselves?
safe to cut down 10%every day for 10 days
79
what are the serious side effects of alcohol withdrawal?
24-48 hours Grandmal seizures Wernicke's encephalopathy Delerium tremens confusional state
80
what is the presentation of delirium tremens?
acute confusion severe agitation delusions and hallucinations tremor tachycardia hypertension hyperthermia ataxia arrhythmias
81
what causes Wernicke's encephalopathy?
B1 (thiamine) deficiency
82
what are 4 symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Ataxia Confusional state Eye signs - palsy of lateral rectus or internuclear opthamloplegia, pupillary changes
83
What are 5 signs of opiate withdrawal?
running - eyes and nose GI cramping and upset Deep muscular pain into bones Goosebumps
84
What are 2 opiate substitution options?
Methadone - green liquid, once a day Buprenorphine - partial agonist
85
what is the antidote to opiates?
Naloxone
86
what medication can be used for relapse prevention in opiate addiction?
Naltrexone - take every day - if take normal dose of heroine then it's blocked
87
what questionnaire can be used to screen for harmful alcohol use?
Alcohol use disorders identification test - AUDIT
88
What are the questions in the CAGE questionaire?
Ever thought of cutting back? Annoyed when anyone else tells you to cut back? Ever felt guilty abut drinking? Eye opener?
89
what are the 7 different types of anxiety disorders?
Generalised anxiety disorder Panic disorder PTSD OCD Social anxiety Phobia Acute stress disorder
90
what is the diagnostic criteria for Generalised Anxiety Disorder?
Excessive anxiety and worry about a variety of topics, events or activities for >6 months 3 of the following: - Edginess/restlessness - Fatigue - Impaired concentration/mind going black - Irritability - Difficulty sleeping - Increased muscle aches or soreness
91
what is the diagnostic criteria for panic disorder?
presence of reoccurring unforeseen panic attacks followed by at least one month of persistent worry about having another panic attack and it's consequences Need to have at least 2 unexpected panic attacks
92
What is the management of generalised anxiety disorder?
1 - education and monitoring 2 - Self-help, psychoeducational groups 3 - CBT or SSRIs (1 - sertraline) 4 - refer to psychiatry
93
what are 4 medications that can induce anxiety?
Salbutamol Theophylline Beta blockers St johns wart
94
what questionnaire can assess the severity of anxiety?
GAD-7 - Generalised anxiety disorder questionnaire 5-7 = mild anxiety 10-14 = moderate anxiety 15-21 = severe anxiety
95
what are the withdrawal symptoms from SSRIs?
Dizziness, numbness and tingling, GI disturbance, headache, sweating, anxiety and sleep disturbance
96
what is phobia?
intense fear of specific objects or situations
97
what are 3 risk factors for phobia?
somatisation disorder anxiety disorders mood disorders
98
what is the treatment for phobia?
Education, CBT, exposure therapy
99
What are 4 manifestations of PTSD?
Intrusion symptoms (flashbacks, reactivity, dreams) Avoidance symptoms Negative alterations in cognition and mood Alterations in arousal and reactivity (hyper-vigilance, exaggerated startle response, irritability) >1 month of symptoms
100
what is the management of PTSD?
1 - trauma focused CBT 1 - eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing 2 - other psychological therapy 2 - pharmacological management (SSRIs or venlafaxine)
101
what is a screening tool that can be used for PTSD?
Trauma screening questionnaire
102
what is the presentation of OCD?
Obsessive themes - contamination fears - harm related obsessions - unwanted sexual thoughts - religious/moral obsessions - perfectionism/symmetry Compulsive behaviours - cleaning/washing - checking rituals - counting/repeating rituals - ordering/arranging behaviours - mental neutralising strategies
103
what scale can be used to grade OCD severity?
Yale-Brown obsessive compulsive scale
104
what is the management of OCD?
1 - CBT, exposure and response prevention 2 - Pharmacotherapy - 1 - SSRIs or 2 - clomipramine combine if severe
105
what is somatisation disorder?
multiple physical SYMPTOMS present for at least 2 years patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
106
what conditions can ECT treat?
severe depression - if: Preferred by patients Need rapid response Refractory to medication Severe/long lasting mania Catatonia
107
what is ECT?
electroconvulsive therapy
108
what is an abosolute contraindication to ECT?
Raised ICP
109
what are 5 short term side effects of ECT?
Headache Nausea Short term memory impairment Cardiac arrhythmia
110
what is 1 long term side effect of ECT?
Reports of impaired memory
111
what are hypnotics?
medications used to treat insomnia
112
what medications are hypnotics?
benzodiazepines zolpidem and zopiclone - non-benzo hypnotics Clomethiazole antihistamines
113
which hypnotic benzos have a hangover effect that can cause drowsiness the next day?
nitrazepam flurazepam
114
which 3 hypnotic benzos are shorter acting so cause no hangover?
Loprazolam lormetazepam temazepam
115
what is bipolar I?
manic episode of abnormal persistent, elevated, expansive or irritable mood with abnormally and persistently increased energy or activity lasting for at least one week. Also depression
116
what is bipolar II?
current or past hypomanic episode and current or past major depressive episode. Hypomania presents similarly to mania but causes less impairment and lasts at least 4 days
117
what is the management of acute mania in bipolar?
Antipsychotics - olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, haloperidol Lithium, sodium valproate
118
what is the management of an acute depressive episode in bipolar?
Olanzapine PLUS fluoxetine antipsychotics - olanzapine or quetiapine lamotrigine
119
What is the chronic treatment of Bipolar?
1 - mood stabiliser (lithium) or antipsychotic (halporidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, valporate***) *not women of childbearing age
120
what are the monitoring requirements for lithium and range?
has narrow therapeutic index so levels must be monitored regularly (3-6 monthly) - should be between 0.4-1mmol/L
121
what are 2 screening questions for depression?
during the last month have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? Do you have little interest or pleasure in doing things?
122
what are 2 core symptoms of depression?
Persistent Low mood Anergia (low energy) Anhedonia (loss of enjoyment) for 2 weeks+
123
what are 7 cognitive symptoms of depression?
Processing - reduced concentration - reduced memory - reduced processing speed Thought - self confidence reduced - ideas of guilt and worthlessness - thinking it will never get better - Suicidal ideation
124
what are 5 biological symptoms of depression?
sleep disturbance changes in appetite and weight loss of libido Slow/fast movements - psychomotor agitation/retardation loss of energy
125
what is the criteria for a diagnosis of depression?
1 core symptom + 4 other symptoms >2 weeks + clinically significant distress and not attributable to substances or other conditions
126
what are 4 medical conditions that are differentials for depression?
Hypothyroidism Neurological disorders - parkinsons, MS Nutritional deficiencies - B12, folate, vitamin D Endocrine disorders - Cushings, Addisons
127
what are 4 psychiatric differentials for depression?
Bipolar Dysthymia - persistent depressive disorder Adjustment disorder with depressed mood Anxiety
128
what are 3 medications that can cause depression?
Beta blockers Corticosteroids isotretinoin
129
what are 6 symptoms of antidepressant withdrawal?
Unsteadiness, vertigo, dizziness Altered sensations Restlessness/agitation Problems sleeping Abdo symptoms Palpitations, tiredness, Headaches, muscle and joint aches, sweating
130
what is the management of less severe depression? 11
PHQ-9 <16 Guided self help Group CBT Group behavioural activation Individual CBT/BA group exercise group mindfulness and meditation Interpersonal psychotherapy SSRIs counseling short term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP)
131
what is the management of severe depression?
PHQ-9 >16 inclusive 1 - CBT + SSRIs/SNRIs individual behavioural activation individual problem solving counseling Short term psychodynamic therapy guided self help group exercise
132
what is the last line medication for depression?
vortioxetine - used if 2 prev antidepressants have not been responded to
133
what is the 1st line SSRI in children?
Fluoxetine 10-20g OD
134
what antidepressants should be avoided in warfarin use and what is the alternative?
SSRIs Mirtazapine is alternative
135
what is the max dose of citalopram in adults?
40mg
136
what monitoring is needed with SSRIs?
Review after 2 weeks or 1 week if <30 years continue treatment for at least 6 months post remission
137
what are 2 beneficial associated features of mirtazapine?
Drowsiness Increased appetite
138
what antidepressant is 1st line post MI?
Sertraline - 50mg OD
139
what are the 2 2nd line antidepressants in children?
Sertraline Citalopram
140
what is the 1st line management of moderate-severe depression in childre?
CBT, non-directive supportive therapy, interpersonal therapy and family therapy
141
what is cyclothymia?
A persistent instability of mood involving numerous periods of depression and mild elation, none of which is sufficiently severe or prolonged to justify other diagnosis
142
what are 5 medications that interact with SSRIs?
NSAIDs - gastroprotection needed Warfarin/heparin Aspirin Triptans Monoamine oxidase inhibitors - risk of serotonin syndrome
143
what antidepressant has highest risk of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome?
paroxetine
144
what are 2 SSRIs that causes long Q-T?
Citalopram and escitalopram
145
what are 2 of the most common causes of general cognitive impairement?
Down's syndrome Foetal Alcohol syndrome
146
what are 6 specific learning difficulties without generalised cognitive impairement?
Dyslexia Dyscalculia ADHD Specific language impairment Central auditory processing disorder Dyspraxia
147
What are 11 genetic disorders that can cause cognitive impairment?
Down's syndrome Fragile X Prader-willi syndrome Angelman's syndrome 15q11 duplication syndromes William's syndrome Rett's syndrome Turner's syndrome Tuberous sclerosis DiGeorge syndrome 16p11.2 deletion syndrome
148
what are 5 intra-uterine infections or drugs that can cause cognitive impairement?
Cytomegalovirus Toxoplasmosis Rubella Foetal alcohol syndrome Teratogenic drugs
149
What are 2 perinatal events that can cause cognitive impairmenent?
Extreme prematurity Perinatal hypoxia
150
What are 6 CNS disorders that can cause cognitive impairment?
Bacteria meningitis encephalitis tumour trauma hypoxia Seizures
151
what is the definition of a cognitive impairment?
IQ <70
152
what is schizoaffective disorder?
a combination of mood and psychotic symptoms lasting at least one month. Bipolar type has manic symptoms and can also have depressive ones. Depressive type has psychosis and depressive symptoms only.
153
what section of the mental health act allows police to enter private property and take someone to a place of safety for assessment?
section 135
154
what section of the mental health act allows police to pick someone up of the street and take them to a place of safety for assessment?
section 136 only for 24 hours before mental health act assessment is needed
155
How long can you detain someone under section 135/6 of the MHA?
25 hours (up to 36 if still waiting for assessment)
156
what sections of the MHA allow doctors or nurses to detain a patient?
section 5 (2) - doctors for 72 hours Section 5 (4) - nurses for 6 hours
157
How long can you detain someone for under section 2 of the MHA?
28 days
158
How long can you detain someone for under section 3 of the MHA?
6 months with further renewals AMHP with 2 doctors
159
what section of the mental health act allows patients to go on leave?
section 17
160
what are the 5 core principles of the mental capacity act?
1 - assume capacity until proven otherwise 2 - Use all means necessary to allow people to make their own decisions 3 - people are allowed to make unwise decisions 4 - all actions must be in the patients best interest 5 - treat in the least restrictive way possible
161
What is CBT?
focuses on what you believe and how you think and tests you on these behaviours in order to develop the ability to self test thoughts and change behaviours
162
what are 7 risk factors for suicide?
Prev Hx of suicide/mental illness Chronic illness criminal/legal/financial problems Substance use impulsive/aggressive tendencies Fhx isolation
163
what is anorexia nervosa?
an eating disorder characterised by restriction of calorific intake leading to low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and body image disturbances
164
what are 6 features of anorexia nervosa?
Weight loss Amenorrhoea Lanugo hair Hypotension Hypothermia Mood changes - anxiety and depression
165
what are 3 cardiac complications of anorexia nervosa?
Arrythmia Cardiac atrophy sudden cardiac death
166
what electrolyte deficiencies does prolonged starvation cause?
hypokalaemia - especially intracellular Hypophosphatemia Hypomagnesaemia
167
what is the management of anorexia nervosa?
CBT-ED Anorexia focused family therapy in children Slow refeeding magnesium, potassium, phosphate and glucose monitoring Fluid balance monitoring ECG monitoring supplementation - B vitamins, thiamine
168
what is the pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome?
Glucose after prolonged starvation causes insulin release which shifts glucose into intracellular space leading to higher demand for phosphate, magnesium and potassium leading to low levels of these electrolytes intravascularly
169
what are 4 risk factors for refeeding syndrome?
BMI <16 not eaten for 5+ day Compensatory behaviours rapid weight loss
170
what is classed as mild, moderate, severe and extreme anorexia nervosa by BMI?
mild >17 moderate 16-17 severe 15-16 extreme <15
171
what are the 2 types of schizoaffective disorder?
depressive type - more common in older patients bipolar type - more common in younger people
172
what are the 2 types of schizoaffective disorder?
depressive type - more common in older patients bipolar type - more common in younger people
173
what questionnaire can be used to screen for eating disorders?
SCOFF Sick - every make self sick because feel uncomfortably full Control - wory lost control over how much eaten One stone - more than 1 stone loss in a month Fat - do you think you are fat Food - would you say food dominates your life
174
what are the 7 most common physical signs of bulimia nervosa?
Alkalosis on blood gas Hypokalaemia Parotid hypertrophy dental erosion Russell's sign - scaring on dorsum of hands from teeth scraping when inserted into mouth Mouth ulcers GORD
175
What is the management of bulimia nervosa?
1st line - Bulimia focused self help (4 weeks) 2nd - Individual CBT-ED Children - Bulimia focused family therapy 3 - SSRIs (fluoxetine 20mg OD)
176
What are the 3 things necessary for capacity?
ability to understand relevant information ability to retain information ability to weigh up information and communicate a decision
177
What is the therapeutic range of lithium?
0.4-1.0 mmol/L
178
what is dysthymia?
A chronic depression of mood, lasting at least several years, which is not sufficiently severe, or in which individual episodes are not sufficiently prolonged, to justify a diagnosis of severe, moderate, or mild recurrent depressive disorder
179
what is hypomania?
persistent mild elevation of mood, increased energy and activity but does not affect function and no psychotic symptoms 4-7 days
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what is mania?
elevated mood with increased energy, overactivity, pressure of speech and decreased need to sleep. Attention cannot be sustained, grandiosity, loss of normal social inhibitions and alteration of function lasting 1 week+ may have psychotic symptoms
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what is delirium?
disturbance of attention, orientation and awareness that develops within a short period of time typically presenting as significant confusion or global neurocognitive impairment with transient symptoms that may fluctuate
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what are the causes of delerium? (mneumonic)
PINCH ME Pain Infection Nutrition Constipation Hydration Medication Environment
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what is classed as a mild learning disability?
IQ 50-69 Some learning difficulties at school but can generally work and function independently
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what is classed as a moderate learning disability?
IQ 35-49 marked developmental delays in childhood but can learn some level of independence will probably need support in the community
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what is classed as a severe learning disability?
IQ 20-34 likely to need continuous support in all things
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What is classed as a profound learning disability?
IQ <20 severe limitation in self-care, continence, communication and mobility
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what is the 4 essential diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia?
At least one of : - persistent delusions - persistent hallucinations - disorganised thinking or speech - Experiences of influence, passivity or control must be experienced for at least a month
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what is the 3 none essential diagnostic criteria of schizophrenia?
Negative symptoms Grossly disorganised behaviour Psychomotor disturbances
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what are 5 negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
affect flattening alogia (poverty of speech) avolition (lack of motivation) anhedonia social withdrawal
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what are 5 poor prognostic factors for schizophrenia?
strong FHx Gradual onset low IQ prodromal phase lack of obvious precipitant
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what scale can be used for depression questionnaire in elderly?
Geriatric depression scale questionnaire
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where in the body are the most serotonin receptors?
GI tract
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what depression scale can be used in patients with dementia?
cornell depression scale
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what electrolyte disturbance can SSRIs cause?
hyponatraemia
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what is the second line management of panic disorder?
if SSRIs/SNRIs ineffective after 12 weeks try imipramine or clomipramine
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what questionnaire can be used in depression?
PHQ-9
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what is a less severe depression score on PHQ-9?
<16
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what is a more severe depression score on PHQ-9?
>16 inclusive
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what are 6 biological features of anorexia nervosa?
Most things low but Gs and Cs raised Growth hormone Glucose Salivary Glands Cortisol Cholesterol Carotinaemia (oranging of skin)
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when do alcohol withdraw symptoms start?
6-12 hours after last drink
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when can hallucinations start in alcohol withdrawal?
12-24 hours
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when is the peak incidence of seizure in alcohol withdrawal?
36 hours
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when is the peak incidence of delirium tremens?
48-72 hours
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What are the symptoms of delirium tremens?
coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia
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what medication is given first line in management of alcohol withdrawal?
1- Chlordiazepoxide 2 - lorazepam in liver cirrhosis as chlordiazepoxide in oxidised in liver
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what medication is given to prevent wernikes in people with alcohol withdrawl?
Thiamine - Vitamin B1 => Pabrinex
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what are 5 side effects of ECT?
headache nausea short term memory impairment memory loss of events prior to ECT cardiac arrhythmia
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what is a contraindication to ECT?
raised ICP
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what is an obsession?
an unwanted intrusive thought, image or urge that repeatedly enters the person's mind
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what is a compulsion?
repetitive behaviours or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform
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which SSRI has a long half life?
fluoxetine fully withdraw fluoxetine and wait a few days when switching antidepressants
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when is gastroprotection needed with SSRI?
if use NSAIDs - add PPI
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what medications when taken with SSRIs increase risk of serotonin syndrome?
Triptans St john's wart Monoamine oxidase inhibitors amphetamines and ecstasy
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what is the management of serotonin syndrome?
Supportive Benzodiazepines If severe - Serotonin antagonists – cyproheptadine, chlorpromazine
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what is the management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
supportive Dantrolene in severe cases
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what are 9 side effects of lithium?
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea Fine tremor Nephrotoxicity secondary to diabetes insipidus Thyroid enlargement => hypothyroidism ECG - T wave flattening/inversion weight gain and idiopathic intracranial hypertension leucocytosis hyperparathyroidism => raised calcium - bones, stones, groans, moans
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when should lithium levels be taken?
12 hours post dose
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how often should lithium levels be monitored?
weekly until at stable dose then 3 monthly once stable
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what 2 bloods should be done every 6 months in patients on lithium?
TFTs U+E
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what are 2 monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors?
Rasagiline Selegiline
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what can't monoamine oxidase inhibitors be taken with?
tyramine containing foods cheese, pickled herring, Bovril, Oxo, Marmite, broad beans can cause hypertensive reaction
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what is the management of acute mania?
antipsychotics - olanzapine, haloperidol
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what are 5 side effects of clozapine?
Agranulocytosis Reduced seizure threshold Constipation Myocarditis Hypersalivation
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which antipsychotic is most likely to cause dyslipidaemia and obesity?
olanzapine
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what antipsychotics are most likely to cause extra pyramidal side effects?
1st generation antipsychtics - haloperidol, chlorpromazine etc
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what are extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics?
Parkinsonism Acute dystonia Sustained muscle contraction Akathisia – severe restlessness Tardive dyskinesia - Choreoathetoid abnormal, involuntary movements
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what is the management of sustained muscle contraction due to antipsychotics (acute dystonia)?
procyclidine
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what is acute dystonia?
involuntary contractions of muscles of the extremities, face, neck, abdomen, pelvis, or larynx in either sustained or intermittent patterns that lead to abnormal movements or postures due to medications usually antipsychotics
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which non-antipsychotic can cause acute dystonia?
metoclopramide - antiemetic
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what is the management for acute dystonia?
IV anticholinergics - benzotropine IV Benzodiazepines
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at what level does lithium toxicity usually occur?
>1.5 mmol/L
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what are 3 things that may precipitate lithium toxicity?
dehydration renal failure drugs - diuretics (thiazides), ACEI/ARBS, NSAIDS, metronidazole
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what are 5 side effects of lithium toxicity?
COARSE tremor (fine is side effect of normal lithium level) hyperreflexia acute confusion seizure polyuria coma
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what is the management of lithium toxicity?
IV fluids until euvolaemic Monitor serum sodium closely haemodialysis if severe
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what is the diagnostic criteria for delirium? (5)
1.) Impairment of consciousness and attention 2.) Global disturbance in cognition 3.) Psychomotor disturbance 4.) Disturbance of sleep-wake cycle 5.) Emotional disturbances
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what is the MOA of benzodiazepines?
They facilitate and enhance the binding of GABA to the GABAA receptors
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what is the MOA of antipsychotics?
block the postsynaptic dopamine D2 receptors
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what are 4 blood results for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Raised CK (creatine kinase) --> due to muscle rigidity Raised white cell count Deranged LFT’s Acute renal failure --> abnormal U&E’s Metabolic acidosis --> low pH, low HCO3
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what are the hallucinations like in schizophrenia?
3rd person auditory external to patient thought echo running commentary multiple voices talking about the patients amongst themselves
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what is Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)?
persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious DISEASE, e.g. cancer patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
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what is conversion disorder?
typically involves loss of motor or sensory function the patient doesn't consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering) patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder - la belle indifference - although this has not been backed up by some studies
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what is factitious disorder?
aka Muchausen's syndrome - intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms
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what is malingering?
fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain
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How often is monitoring for clozapine?
weekly for 18 weeks then fortnightly till one year then every month
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what is the name for severe restlessness in antipsychotic use?
akathisia
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what is acute stress reaction?
Phycological condition following exposure to severe stress or traumatic events lasting up to a month
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what are 5 risk factors for acute stress reaction?
Genetics + neurobiological factors Prior psych Hx Trauma/precipitating event Lower socioeconomic status Lack of coping mechanisms and social support
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what are 3 cognitive symptoms of acute stress reaction?
Confusion and disorientation Intrusive thoughts - memories, dreams, flashbacks Derealisation and depersonalisation
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what are 2 behavioural symptoms of acute stress reaction?
Avoidance behaviour - avoid thoughts, conversations, activities, places or people Hyper-vigilance
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what are 2 physiological symptoms of acute stress reaction?
tachycardia and hypertension Sweating and trembling
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what is the management of acute stress reaction?
1 - Trauma focused CBT Mindfulness can consider short term use of benzodiazepines
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what is self harm?
intentional self injury without suicidal intent Cutting is most common
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what are the 6 steps in the cycle of self harm?
Emotional suffering Emotional overload Panic Self-harm Temporary relief Shame and guilt
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what are 7 presenting features that increase risk of suicide?
Previous attempts Escalating self harm impulsiveness hopelessness feelings of being a burden making plans Writing a note
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what are 9 background factors that increase risk of suicide?
Mental health conditions physical health conditions Hx of abuse/trauma FHx Financial difficulties/unemployment Criminal problems Lack of social support Alcohol and drugs Access to means
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what are 4 protective factors for suicide?
Social support and community sense of responsibility over others resilience, coping and problem solving skills access to mental health support
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what are 4 examples of self harm?
Cutting hitting self burning own skin applying tight ligatures to skin
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What are the baby blues?
transient mood disturbance in the 1st week post partum crying, fatigue, sensitivity, anxiety, irritability, helplessness, low mood and mood swings Managed with reassurance and support
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What is postnatal depression?
low mood, anhedonia and low energy typically affecting mothers around 3 months post natally
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what is the management of postnatal depression?
Mild - reassurance, support, self help, follow up Moderate - SSRIs - sertraline, paroxetine, CBT Severe - referral to psychiatry, impatient care on mother and baby unit
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what scoring system is used for post natal depression?
Edinburgh postnatal depression scale
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What is pueperal psychosis?
typically onset 2-3 weeks postnatal with mother experiencing psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, depression, mania, confusion, thought disorder)
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what is the treatment for puerperal psychosis?
admission to mother and baby unit CBT medications - antidepressants, antipsychotics, mood stabilisers electroconvulsive therapy 25-50% recurrence rate in future pregnancies
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what is charles-bonnet syndrome?
persistent or recurrent complex hallucinations - usually visual - predominantly against a background of visual impairment. Insight is preserved and there is absence of other neuropsychiatric disturbance
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what are 5 risk factors for charles bonnet syndrome?
Older age peripheral visual impairment Social isolation sensory deprivation early cognitive impairment
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what are 3 types of dissociative disorders?
Depersonalisation-derealisation disorder Dissociative amnesia Dissociative identity disorder
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what is Depersonalisation-derealisation disorder ?
feeling of being separated/outside body and feeling that the world is not real
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what is Dissociative amnesia?
forgetting autobiographical information typically following trauma
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what is Dissociative identity disorder?
AKA multiple personality disorder - lack of clear individual identity, with multiple separate identities
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what is catatonia?
abnormal movement, communication and behaviour presenting in a variety of ways
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what is reactive attachment disorder?
from severe neglect and trauma in childhood emotional withdrawal and inhibition, sadness, fearfulness, irritability, impaired cognition
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what is alien hand syndrome?
patient loses control of one of their hands which then acts independently can occur after brain tumour, injury surgery
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what is alice in wonderland syndrome?
AKA todd syndrome incorrectly perceiving size of objects or body parts May be caused by migraine, epilepsy, brain tumour
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what is Koro syndrome?
delusion that sex organs are retracting or shrinking and will one day disappear
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what is body integrity dysphoria?
delusion the part of body does not belong to them and they want to remove it
276
what is binge eating disorder?
characterised by episodes where a person excessively overeats and feels as though they have lost control - likely to be overweight binges may involve eating very quickly, unrelated to feelings of hunger, being uncomfortably full, eating in dazed state, feelings of guilt/disgust marked distress regarding binges at least once a week for 3 months
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what is tolerance?
loss of effect when taking the same dose - person may have to increase dose to get same effect
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what is dependence?
psychological and psychosocial need to keep using a drug may occur due to physiological changes and psychological factors
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what are benzos withdrawal symptoms?
Anxiety, irritability, tremmors, insomnia, seizures due to reduced natural production of GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)
280
what pathway of the brain is involved in psychological addiction?
mesolimbic pathway involves ventral tegmental area, nucleus accumbens, amygdala and prefrontal cortex
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what is the mechanism of psychological addiction?
substances lead to dopamine release within mesolimbic pathway leading to pleasurable reward. Repeat dopamine exposure reduces number and sensitivity of dopamine receptors leading to a need for increasingly stronger stimuli to produce same reward
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what is the MOA of cocaine?
Blocks reuptake of dopamine by presynaptic membrane
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what is the MOA of MDMA?
stimulates release of serotonin and blocks reuptake
284
what is the MOA of methamphatamines?
Stimulates release of dopamine and blocks reuptake
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what is the MOA of alcohol and benzos?
stimulate GABA receptors
286
what is the MOA of hallucinogens?
stimulate serotonin receptors, particularly 5-HT2A receptors
287
what are the rules surrounding driving and alcoholsim?
must inform DVLA - licence revoked until extended period of abstinence
288
what is the management of alcoholic ketoacidosis?
infusion of saline and thiamine
289
what is the diagnostic criteria for alcoholism?
3+ of Compulsion to drink difficulties controlling alcohol consumption physiological withdrawal tolerance neglect of alternative activities to drinking persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm
290
what is phenomenology is psychiatry?
the scientific study of subjective experiences
291
what is insomnia?
difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep or early morning waking that leads to dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality
292
what is classed as chronic insomnia?
difficulty sleeping at least 3 nights per week for >3 months
293
what are 6 risk factors for insomnia?
female increased age lower educational attainment unemployment economic inactivity widowed, divorced, separated status alcohol and substance abuse, corticosteroids, poor sleep hygiene, chronic pain or illness
294
what is the MOA of benzodiazepines?
enhace effect of inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA by increasing frequency of chloride channels
295
how long should benzos be given for?
no more than 2-4 weeks
296
what are 3 examples of z-drugs?
zopiclone zolpidem zaleplon
297
what are 3 concerning side effects of hypnotics?
daytime sedation poor motor coordination cognitive impairment
298
what monitoring is needed for antipsychotics?
FBC, U+E, LFT - initiation, annually - clozapine FBC initially weekly Lipids, weight - initiation, 3 months, annually Fasting blood glucose, prolactin - initiation, 6 mon, anual BP - Initiation, dose titration ECG - baseline CVD risk - annually
299