Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

The Scientific Practitioner Model > PSYC4121 Quiz 2 > Flashcards

PSYC4121 Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the full name for 16PF? What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire
  2. Personality (non-clinical)
  3. Adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the full name for CBCL?

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Child Behaviour Checklists
  2. Problem behaviour
  3. Children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the full name for D-KEFS?

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Delis-Kaplan Executive Function System
  2. Executive function
  3. All
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the full name for EPI?

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Eysenck’s Personality Inventory
  2. Personality (non-clinical)
  3. All (adult and junior versions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the full name for Hayling and
Brixton tests?
What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Hayling and Brixton Clinical Assessment of Executive Functioning
  2. Executive function
  3. Adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the full name for MMPI

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
  2. Personality (clinical)
  3. Adults only (MMPI-A
    available for adolescents)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the full name for Neale

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Neale Analysis of Reading
  2. Reading
  3. All (mainly children)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the full name for NEO

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. NEO-PI-3 (covers the Big Five)
  2. Personality (non-clinical)
  3. Adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the full name for Peabody

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
  2. Vocabulary
  3. All (mainly children)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the full name for RPM

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Raven’s Progressive Matrices (also: Raven’s or Raven’s Matrices)
  2. Intelligence
  3. All
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the full name for Stanford Binet

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales
  2. Intelligence
  3. All
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the full name for TEA

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Test of Everyday Attention
  2. Attention
  3. Adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the full name for TEACH

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Test of Everyday Attention for Children 2. Attention

3. Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the full name for WAIS

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
  2. Intelligence
  3. Adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the full name for WASI

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Wechsler Abbreviated Scale of Intelligence (short version of Wechsler tests)
  2. Intelligence
  3. All
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the full name for WIAT

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Wechsler Individual Achievement Test
  2. Academic achievement
  3. All
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the full name for WISC

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children 2. Intelligence

3. Primary to high school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the full name for WPPSI

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
  2. Intelligence
  3. Pre-school to primary school
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the full name for WRAML

What does it measure? Who is their main target population?

A
  1. Wide Range Assessment of Memory and Learning
  2. Memory & attention
  3. All
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Statement 1 : The 16PF is a test of personality
Statement 2 : The CBCL is a test of academic achievement
a) Both statements are true
b) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
c) Both statements are false
d) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.

A

d) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The five groups of tests used in Stanford Intelligence Scale (5th edition) are

a) Fluid intelligence, Crystallised intelligence, Quantitative reasoning, Visual-spatial reasoning, Working memory
b) Fluid intelligence, processing speed, working memory, perceptual reasoning, verbal comprehension
c) working memory, fluid reasoning, knowledge, verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning.
d) quantitative reasoning, verbal comprehension, working memory, fluid reasoning, crystallised intelligence

A

a) Fluid intelligence, Crystallised intelligence, Quantitative reasoning, Visual-spatial reasoning, Working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Factors analysis of the Stanford Binet Intelligence Scale (5th edition) suggests that, at most ages, the test has five factors just as underlying theory predicts. This represents evidence for :

a) Test-retest reliability
b) Incremental validity
c) construct validity
d) internal consistency

A

c) construct validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The five groups of tests used in the WISC

-V Intelligence test are …

A
  1. Verbal comprehension
  2. Visual-spatial
  3. Fluid reasoning
  4. Working memory
  5. Processing Speed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following has been claimed for Ravens Progressive Matrices test?

a) It requires verbal skills to complete.
b) It is an example of an achievement test.
c) It correlates highly with academic ability.
d) It allows the intelligence of people who speak different languages to be compared.

A

d) It allows the intelligence of people who speak different languages to be compared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test :

a) is a picture based test for reading
b) can be used with people who have significant (but not total) motor impairment.
c) is appropriate for people with significant visual impairment.
d) is considered an excellent measure of intelligence

A

b) can be used with people who have significant (but not total) motor impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Statement 1 : The 16 PF is an example of a comprehensive personality measure designed for normal population.
Statement 2 : The 16PF was created using the lexical approach.
a) Both statements are true
b) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
c) Both statements are false
d) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.

A

a) Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

One of the Big Five Personality traits is :

a) Compliance
b) Competence
c) Agreeableness
d) Assertiveness

A

c) Agreeableness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The theoretical basis of Eysenck’s personality theory is at the_____ level.

a) Evolutionary
b) Cognitive
c) biological
d) Eysenck’s model does not have a theoretical model.

A

c) biological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is a major criticism of the MMPI-2?

a) Lack of minority group members in the standardisation samples.
b) Lack of a nationally representative CONTROL sample.
c) The MMPI-2 scales are related to demographic variables as well as personality dimensions.
d) Has no reversed scored items.

A

c) The MMPI-2 scales are related to demographic variables as well as personality dimensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is the closet description of someone who scores high on the MMPI scale known as psychasthenia?

a) They have compulsive obsessive disorder.
b) They exaggerate health problems.
c) They have a sensory/ motor disorder for which no organic basis can be established
d) They are in the early stages of a manic episode of manic depressive disorder.

A

a) They have compulsive obsessive disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between ethics and moral ?

A

Ethics
- Guiding principles promoting fairness and expectations, which help us to decide what is good or evil.

Morals
- rules and standards made by the society or culture which is to be followed by us while deciding what is right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List the three ethical theories

A
  1. Utilitarianism / Consequentialism
  2. Deontology
  3. Virtue Ethics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the three basic principles to ethics 101

A

the principles of respect of persons,
beneficence and
justice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the ethical guidelines in psychology (APS)?

A

promotes ethical principles, and sets specific standards

to a clear understanding and expectation of what is considered ethical professional conduct by a psychologist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List the three code of ethics (APS)

A

A: Respect for the rights and dignity of people and peoples

B. Propriety

C. Integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why do we need to have the National Statement on Ethical Conduct in Human Research ?

A
  1. Promote ethically good human research
  2. Clarify responsibilities of ethical review
    bodies in ethical review of research
    - Deliberate potential issues
    - Justify decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is human research ?

A

People
Data
tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the ethics committee responsible for?

A

establishing procedures for the ethical review of human research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many members should be considered in the ethics committee?
Who are they? what are their roles ?

A

eight
equal men and women
1/3 of the members should be outside theinstitution

minimum membership
chairperson
two lay people : no affiliation with the institution or does not do any academic work
1 person : knowledge + current experience professional care, counselling ortreatment of people
1 person : pastoral care role [ minister of religion]
1 person : lawyer
2 person : research experience that is relevant to research proposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

List a few examples of psychological harm

A

feelings of worthlessness, distress, guilt, anger, or fear related,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List a few examples of physical harm

A

injury, illness, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

List a few examples of social harm

A

damage to social networks

43
Q

List examples of Devaluation of personal worth

A

humiliated, manipulated

44
Q

Which is less severe harm or discomfort? what are the examples of that?

A

discomfort < less serious < harm
It involves of the body and/or mind.
minor side-effects of medication

45
Q

When a person’s reaction exceeds discomfort and feels distress, what does it call ?

A

harm

46
Q

Which is less serious discomfort or inconvenience ?

A

inconvenience

participating in a street survey

47
Q

What should a participant know of when giving an informed consent to a researcher?

A

Voluntary choice
Based on sufficient information
Adequate understanding of both the proposed research and implications of participation in it
Written, verbal or other means
Consent and Assent (continuous and ongoing agreement) and withdrawal

48
Q

What must a psychologist do when obtaining informed consent from the participants?

A

purpose of the research, expected duration, and procedures
right to decline to participate and to withdraw
foreseeable consequences of declining or withdrawing
Participants may fear of discomfort or potential risks or adverse effects
prospective research benefits
Limits of confidentiality
Incentives for participation;
Whom to contact for questions

49
Q

Under which circumstance do you consider limited disclosure about the aims of the research to the participants justifiable?

A

When you are studying of the human behaviour, the aims of the research cannot be achieved if those aims and/or the research method are fully disclosed to participants.

50
Q

What if participants cannot give informed consent? Vulnerable individuals? Children?
People with a cognitive impairment, dementia?
How do we ensure that the research that they are participating is safe?

A

Any research that uses fear-evoking stimuli, no psychologically vulnerable person can participate.

Inform the participants in advance that the research that they are participating might be physically and mentally stress

Under any circumstances, the research that all subjects are involved in should not cause severe distress.

If the research does cause severe distress, then the researcher should terminate the investigation and alleviate participant’s reaction.

When participants are not fully inform on the purpose of the research, researcher must avoid them from experiencing stress during the research.

At any time possible, participants must be fully aware and informed of the nature and purpose of the investigation at an appropriate stage of the investigation.

51
Q

List a few examples of informed consent that is related to deception

A 
Milgram and Zimbardo studies
Facebook study (2012) manipulating positive versus negative emotions
52
Q

how do we manage deception when obtaining informed consent from participants?

A

cost-benefit (utilitarian) terms + appropriate debriefing

using deceptive techniques are justified by the study’s significant value

not increase the risk of harms

fully aware of the true nature of the study during debrief session

right to discontinue at anytime

permission to retain data

53
Q

Name the four things that we would like to see / not to see in honesty /dishonesty in science

A

Plagiarism
Falsifying or misrepresenting data
Authorship
Predatory journals

54
Q

What is the rules of plagiarism in APA and APS?

A

not present substantial portions or elements of another’s work or data as their own

55
Q

What are the rules of Falsifying, Distorting or Misrepresenting data?

A

Not giving false results in their research publication

56
Q

define p-hacking

A

misuse of data-analysis to find patterns in data that can be presented as statistically significant, when in fact there is no real underlying effect

57
Q

When does p-hacking occur?

A

collect or select data or statistical analyses until nonsignificant results become significant.

58
Q

What is data fudging ?

A

Clearly inventing data to fit the curve or trend

59
Q

What is the order of authorship ?

A

dependent on the relative contribution of the researchers/authors

60
Q

What factors are included in the relative contribution of the researchers/authors?

A
  1. Conception of the idea for the study;
  2. Development of the design;
  3. Collection of the data;
  4. Analysis of the data;
  5. Conduct of the literature review; and
  6. Drafting and revising the article.
61
Q

What is the rule for authorship in APA?

A

take credit only for work they have actually performed

Principal authorship reflects the relative scientific contributions of the individuals involved

62
Q

define predatory journal

A

prioritize self-interest at the expense of scholarship

false or misleading information

deviation from best editorial and publication practices

lack of transparency

63
Q

How do you know if research article that you are sending to is a predatory journal?

A

Accept articles for publication along with author’s fees

without providing peer-review

not follow the proper academic standards for publishing

64
Q

How do you spot if the journal article that you are reading comes from a predatory journal ?

A

Always check the website thoroughly. …
Check if the journal is a member of DOAJ, COPE, OASPA or STM. …
Check the journal’s contact information. …
Research the editorial board. …
Take a look at their peer review process and publication timelines. …
Read through past issues of the journal.

65
Q

What are the six steps in evidence based practice ? Explain what are the steps involved in great detail

A

Assess the client’s clinical problem
Ask – Expressing the problem as a clinical question, also know as the PICO question
Access the evidence – Finding evidence-based resources that can answer the question
Appraise the evidence for validity
Apply the evidence – e.g. intervention, activity or assessment tool
Assess its effectiveness – re-evaluate the evidence and its application in practice

66
Q

What is the purpose for critically appraising evidence?

A

to understand the strengths, weaknesses, and potential for bias in research before you apply it (e.g. in practice)

67
Q

what are the different types of critical appraisal guides that you might see in clinical research or any other kind of research?

A

RCT, quantitative, qualitative, systematic review

68
Q

List all 6 biases that you might encounter in research. Explain in great detail what they are.

A 
Design bias
Failure to account for inherent biases 
Selection bias/Sampling bias
Non representative 
Measurement bias 
An inaccurate or poorly designed measure
Response bias 
Consciously or subconsciously responding according to what the experiments ‘wants’ or ‘expects to find’ 
Performance bias
when participants or researchers act differently because of allocation in control or experimental group 
Reporting bias
Errors, or bias toward publication of positive results
69
Q

what are the three factors that you need to take note of in critically appraising evidence?

A

validity
clinical importance
applicability

70
Q

what is the difference between clinical significance and statistical significance?

A

clinical significance = clinical practice

statistical practice = reliability of the study result

71
Q

What are the six factors in clinical significance?

A 
Extent of change
Whether change makes a real difference
Duration of treatment effects
Consumer acceptability 
Cost-effectiveness 
Ease of implementation
72
Q

define effect size

A

provides indication of the size of treatment effects.

73
Q

what are the three different interpretation for effect size ?

  1. 2 =
  2. 5 =
  3. 8 =
A
  1. 2= small statistical and clinical difference between two groups
  2. 5= moderate statistical and clinical difference between two groups
  3. 8= large statistical and clinical difference between two groups
74
Q

Where and how can effect size be widely used in research?

A

quantitatively compare the results of studies done in a different setting

meta-analysis.

75
Q

define event rate

A

a measure of how often a statistical event is observed in treatment in comparison to control conditions

76
Q

define absolute risk

A

To allow comparison between control and treatment conditions

77
Q

define numbers needed to be treat

A

The number you need to treat to prevent a bad outcome

78
Q

what is the difference between absolute risk and relative risk?

A

Absolute riskof a disease is your risk of developing the disease over a time period.

Relative riskis used to compare the risk in two different groups of people.

79
Q

what is the ideal number that needs to be measured in clinical trial?

A

1

80
Q

what is a randomised controlled trial ?

A

A study in which people are allocated to conditions at random (by chance) to receive one of several clinical interventions

81
Q

When you are executing your randomised controlled trial, what are the things that you need to take into consideration of?

A

detailed study protocol and manual of operations
Follow Consort protocols
Register a trial

82
Q

What is a Consort statement?

A

protocol

It consists of a checklist and flow diagram that authors can use for reporting an RCT.

83
Q

why do we need a consort statement?

A

to improve the quality of reporting of RCTs.

84
Q

What is a systematic review?

A

summarises the results of available carefully designed healthcare studies (controlled trials)

high level of evidence on the effectiveness of healthcare interventions

85
Q

what is a meta-analyses?

A

pool numerical data about effects of the treatment

86
Q

what are the things that are involved when doing a meta-analyses?

A

availability of clinical trials

how they were carried out

healthcare outcome measures

87
Q

what are the steps in achieving a meta -analyses?

A

Determine the research question
Assemble the research team
Determine if there are any registered (in process) or published systematic reviews on your topic
Develop and register the protocol of your study
Develop a comprehensive search strategy, informed by your inclusion and exclusion criteria
Select studies for inclusion based on the predefined criteria
Extract and analyse the data
Interpret and synthesize results for publication
Update review as required

88
Q

When applying the evidence, what must you take into consideration?

A

individual baseline risk
evidence can be extrapolated to your client
factors that may increase the benefits > harm their experience
values and preferences
context based relevant

89
Q

what does a qualitative research do?

A

provide insights into a problem
individuals’ experiences
fill a gap or complement [quantitative studies]
gain a rich understanding of underlying reason, opinions and motivations
It reflects whether if the intervention that the client is effective or not. If it is not effective, then will impact on the treatment uptake.

90
Q

How is the efficacy of a study being determined in a clinical research ?

A

variables are carefully controlled to demonstrate that the relationship between the treatment and outcome are relatively unambiguous.

91
Q

How does efficacy of a study design act as internal validity in research?

A

Controlling the types of patients included in the study (e.g. limiting comorbidity)
Using manuals to standardise treatment delivery
Training and monitoring therapists
Controlling the number of treatment sessions
Random assignment to conditions and the use of blinding procedures for raters.

92
Q

How is effectiveness being considered in research ?

A

when the intervention is implemented without the same level of internal validity

93
Q

what does effectiveness seeks to examine in research ?

A

to examine the outcomes of interventions under circumstances that more closely approximate the real world

94
Q

Why do we need to have the scientific practitioner model ?

A

Gold Standard - research methodology
Training in a set of core competencies
applied to evidence based formulation and treatment

95
Q

List the events that has occurred before the scientific practitioner model has been established.

A

WWII and returned servicemen
Originated at the 1949 Boulder Conference
Conceived as a model for graduate student training
Graduates should be trained with an equal emphasis in research and practice

96
Q

What were the changes that have been made after WWII in lead to the conference? Why ?

A

WWII 670,000+ injured U.S. servicemen and women’
Survivor’s guilt and ‘shell-shock’
Govt introduced ‘GI Bill’
Psychological and psychiatric casualties of war
Increased demands for trained psychologists

97
Q

What is the scientific pracitioner model?

A

an integrative approach to science and practice wherein each must continually inform the other

98
Q

What are the advantageous of having a scientific pracitioner model?

A

critical thinking : understand the latest development of a research which aids to implement best practices in our client.

Avoid harm, reduce unnecessary treatment

better efficiency in treatment.

Use empirical studies to make justification for the treatment and intervention that they use.

99
Q

Define evidence based practice

A

The conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of the individual patient

100
Q

What are the three factors that you need to consider when it comes to evidence based practice?

A

clinical expertise
patient values and preferences
best research evidence

101
Q

Which of the following evidence is considered one of the best evidence within the hierarchy of research?

A

randomised controlled trial
Meta analyses
systematic reviews

102
Q

How are participants randomly assigned into groups based on Randomised Controlled trial?

A

assigned to either control or intervention
May be exposed to one or several treatment/interventions
assigned to either control or intervention
May be assigned to either control or intervention
May be exposed to one or several treatment/interventions
manualised intervention

103
Q

Is the evidence at the top of the hierarchy considered to be the best?

A

No.

The Scientific Practitioner Model (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions