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PSYC*2410 > PSYC*2410 Chpater 9: Development of the Nervous System > Flashcards

PSYC*2410 Chpater 9: Development of the Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three things that cells of the developing nervous system must do?

A
  • Differentiate
  • Travel and align themselves to form structures
  • Establish appropriate functional relations with other cells
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2
Q

What are the five stages of early neural development?

A
  • Induction of the neural plate
  • Neural proliferation
  • Migration and aggregation
  • Axon growth and synapse formation
  • Neuron death and synapse rearrangement
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3
Q

What are totipotent cells?

A

Cells that can develop into any type of body cell

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4
Q

T or F: A fertilized egg is pluripotent.

A

False. It’s totipotent.

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5
Q

What are pluripotent cells?

A

Cells that can develop into many, but not all, classes of body cells

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6
Q

When do cells become pluripotent?

A

After the totipotent cells have divided

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7
Q

What are multipotent cells?

A

Cells that can can only develop into different cells of one type

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8
Q

What are unipotent cells?

A

Cells that can develop into only one type of cell

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9
Q

Which type of cell has an almost unlimited capacity for self renewal and the ability to develop into many types of cells?

A

Stem cells

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10
Q

Which three types of cells created during early development are considered embryonic stem cells?

A
  • Totipotent
  • Pluripotemt
  • Multipotent
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11
Q

What two properties of stem cells play a critical role in nervous system development?

A
  • They have an almost unlimited capacity for self-renewal if maintained in an appropriate cell culture
  • They have the ability to develop into many different kinds of cells
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12
Q

What is the mechanism by which stem cells divide?

A

Asymmetric cell division

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13
Q

What is asymmetric cell division?

A

Cell division that produces two daughter cells with different characteristics

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14
Q

What are the two products of stem cell division?

A
  • One daughter cell that remains a stem cell
  • One daughter cell that develops into a more specific cell type
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15
Q

When does the neural plate become recognizable?

A

Three weeks after conception

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16
Q

What is the first major stage of neurodevelopment in all vertebrates?

A

The development of the neural plate

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17
Q

What is the neural plate, and where is it located?

A

A small patch of ectodermal tissue on the dorsal surface of the vertebrate embryo

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18
Q

What are the three layers of embryonic cells?

A
  • The ectoderm
  • The mesoderm
  • The endoderm
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19
Q

Which layer of embryonic cells releases the chemicals that induce the development of the neural plate?

A

The mesoderm layer

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20
Q

What would happen if tissue was taken from the dorsal mesoderm of one embryo and implanted beneath the ventral ectoderm of another embryo?

A

It would induce the development of an extra neural plate on the ventral surface of the host

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21
Q

What is the tube formed in vertebrate embryos that eventually develops into the central nervous system?

A

The neural tube

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22
Q

What occurs to the neural plate before fusing to form the neural tube?

A

It folds to form the neural groove

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23
Q

During which week of embryological development does the neural tube form?

A

The third or fourth week

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24
Q

What does the inside of the neural tube eventually become?

A

The cerebral ventricles and spinal canal

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25
Q

About 40 days after conception, what is visible at the anterior end of the neural tube?

A

Three swellings

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26
Q

What is neural proliferation?

A

The rapid increase in the number of neurons following the formation of the neural tube

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27
Q

T or F: Proliferation occurs simultaneously and equally in all parts of the neural tube.

A

False

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28
Q

Where does most cell division in the neural tube occur?

A

The ventricular zone and subventricular zone

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29
Q

In terms of early neural development, what is the ventricle?

A

The fluid-filled centre of the neural tube

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30
Q

What is the ventricular zone?

A

The region adjacent to the ventricle in the developing neural tube

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31
Q

What is the subventricular zone?

A

The region adjacent to the ventricular zone

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32
Q

The pattern of proliferation is controlled in part by chemical signals from which two organizer areas in the neural tube?

A
  • The floor plate
  • The roof plate
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33
Q

Which organizer area in the neural tube runs along the midline of the ventral surface of the tube?

A

The floor plate

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34
Q

Which organizer area in the neural tube runs along the midline of the dorsal surface of the tube?

A

The roof plate

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35
Q

What are radial glial cells?

A

Cells that exist in the neural tube during the period of neural migration

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36
Q

The stem cells created in the developing neural tube are virtually always what type of cell?

A

Radial glial cells

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37
Q

Where do the cell bodies of radial glial cells lie?

A

In the ventricular or subventricular zones

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38
Q

Which type of cell migration occurs along radial glial cells?

A

Radial migration

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39
Q

What type of cell division do radial glial cells undergo?

A

Asymmetric cell division

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40
Q

T or F: During early neural development, cells only begin to migrate once they are fully mature.

A

False. During migration, cells are still immature and lack the processes of mature neurons

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41
Q

What are the two major factors that govern migration in the developing neural tube?

A
  • Time
  • Location
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42
Q

What are the two types of cell migration in the developing neural tube?

A
  • Radial
  • Tangential
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43
Q

In which type of migration do cells in the developing neural tube move from the ventricular zone in a straight line outward toward the outer wall of the tube?

A

Radial migration

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44
Q

In which type of migration do cells in the developing neural tube move in a direction parallel to the tube’s walls?

A

Tangential migration

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45
Q

What are the two mechanisms for neural migration?

A
  • Somal translocation
  • Radial-glia-mediated migration
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46
Q

How do neural cells migrate via somal translocation?

A

An extension/process extends from the body of the undeveloped neuron and is guided by chemical signals and once a suitable environment is found, the cell body moves along the process

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47
Q

Which type of neural migration allows cells to migrate either radially or tangentially?

A

Somal translocation

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48
Q

How doe neural cells travel via radial-glia-mediated migration?

A

The undeveloped neurons use the processes extending from each radial-glia cell as a rope to pull themselves along

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49
Q

Which type of neural migration allows cells to only migrate radially?

A

Radial-glia-mediated migration

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50
Q

T or F: The patterns of proliferation and migration are different depending on the area of the developing cortex.

A

True

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51
Q

Which structure is situated just dorsal to the neural tube?

A

The neural crest

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52
Q

Where do the cells that form the neural crest come from?

A

They break off the neural tube as it’s being formed

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53
Q

What do neural crest cells develop into?

A

The neurons and glial cells of the peripheral nervous system and other cell types in the body

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54
Q

What is aggregation?

A

The process in which neurons align during the development of the nervous system to form its structures

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55
Q

Aggregation is thought to be mediated by what three non-exclusive mechanisms?

A
  • Cell-adhesion molecules
  • Gap junctions
  • Interactions between glial cells and neurons
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56
Q

What are cell-adhesion molecules?

A

Molecules on the surface of cells that are able to recognize and adhere to molecules on other cells

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57
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Points of communication between adjacent cells

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58
Q

What are the narrow tubes that bridge gap junctions?

A

Connexions

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59
Q

What occurs after neurons have migrated to their appropriate positions and aggregated into neural structures?

A

Axons and dendrites begin to grow from them

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60
Q

What are the amoeba-like structures at the tip of each growing axon and dendrite that guide growth to the appropriate target?

A

Growth cones

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61
Q

T or F: Most growth cones reach their correct target.

A

True

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62
Q

What are the fingerlike cytoplasmic extensions that extend and retract from growth cones?

A

Filopodia

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63
Q

What are retinal ganglion cells?

A

Retinal neurons whose axons leave the eyeball and form the optic nerve

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64
Q

What is the main destination of retinal ganglion cells in non-mammalian vertebrates?

A

The optic tectum

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65
Q

What is the mammalian equivalent of the optic tectum?

A

The superior colliculus

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66
Q

In Roger Sperry’s study, what evidence supported the conclusion that, after the optic nerves were cut and the eyeballs rotated, each retinal ganglion cell grew back to the same point of the optic tectum where it was originally connected ?

A

Frogs whose eyes had been rotated, but whose optic nerves had not been cut, responded the same as the frogs whose eyes were rotated after their optic nerves were cut

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67
Q

What is the chemoaffintiy hypothesis of axonal development?

A

The hypothesis that each postsynaptic surface in the nervous system releases a specific chemical label that attracts the growing axons to their correct targets

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68
Q

What does the chemoaffinity hypothesis fail to account for?

A

The discovery that some growing axons follow the same circuitous route to reach their target rather than growing directly to it

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69
Q

What is different about the revised version of the chemoaffinity hypothesis?

A

Growth cones are influenced by a series of chemical and physical signals along the route, rather than just being drawn in by a single attractant

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70
Q

What are pioneer growth cones?

A

The first growth cones to travel along a particular route in the developing nervous system

71
Q

How are pioneer growth cones believed to follow the correct trail?

A

By interacting with guidance molecules along the route

72
Q

What is fasciculation?

A

The tendency of developing axons to grow along the paths established by preceding axons

73
Q

Which hypothesis was proposed as an explanation for accurate axonal growth, involving topographic mapping in the developing brain rather than by point-by-point chemoaffinity?

A

The topographic gradient hypothesis

74
Q

What is a topographic map?

A

The ordered projection of a sensory surface or effector system to one or more structures of the CNS

75
Q

What is the key point of the topographic gradient hypothesis?

A

Growing axons are guided to their destination by two intersecting signal gradients

76
Q

What are the two intersecting signal gradients that guide growing axons to their destination?

A
  • The anterior-posterior gradient
  • The medial-lateral gradient
77
Q

When half the retina is destroyed and the optic nerve is cut, how are the retinal ganglion cells from the remaining half of the retina projected when they grow back?

A

Systematically over the entire optic tectum

78
Q

When half the optic tectum is destroyed and the optic nerve is cut, how are the retinal ganglion cells from the remaining retina projected when they grow back?

A

Systematically over the remaining half of the optic tectum

79
Q

What is synaptogenesis?

A

The formation of new synapses

80
Q

T or F: Spontaneous neurotransmitter release is harmful for synapse formation?

A

False, it’s important

81
Q

T or F: Cell surfaces have shown to interact prior to synapse formation.

A

True

82
Q

Synaptogenesis depends on the presence of what type of cell?

A

Glial cells

83
Q

What do early theories suggest as the reason for why astrocytes promote synaptogenesis?

A

Astrocytes supply the cholesterol needed during synapse formation

84
Q

What is current research on synaptogenesis focused on?

A

Determining chemical signals that must be exchanged between presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons for a synapse to be created

85
Q

What is a complication faced when studying synaptogenesis?

A

The promiscuity displayed by developing neurons

86
Q

What is meant when describing developing neurons as promiscuous?

A

Any type of neuron will form synapses with other types of neurons, then when it doesn’t function appropriately, it is eliminated

87
Q

T or F: About 50% more neurons than needed are produced.

A

True

88
Q

T or F: Large-scale neuron death only occurs in the prefrontal cortex during adolescence.

A

False, waves of large-scale neuron death occur in various parts of the brain throughout development

89
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Passive cell death

90
Q

What is active cell death called?

A

Apoptosis

91
Q

Is cell death during development typically active or passive?

A

Active

92
Q

T or F: Apoptosis is safer than necrosis.

A

True

93
Q

T or F: Some developing neurons appear to be genetically programmed for an early death.

A

True

94
Q

What two observations indicate that some developing neurons seem to die because they fail to obtain life-preserving chemicals from their targets?

A
  • Grafting an extra target structure (ex. An extra limb) to an embryo before synaptogenesis reduces the death of neurons growing into that area
  • Destroying some of the neurons growing into an area before cell death increases the survival rate of remaining neurons
95
Q

What is the most prominent class of chemical supplied to developing neurons by their targets that promote their survival?

A

Neurotrophins

96
Q

What were the first two neurotrophins discovered?

A
  • Nerve growth factor (NGF)
  • Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)
97
Q

What are three things that neurotrphins do?

A
  • Promote the growth and survival of neurons
  • Function as axon guidance molecules
  • Stimulate synaptogenesis
98
Q

T or F: Cell death results in a massive rearrangement of synaptic connections.

A

True

99
Q

During the period of cell death, which neurons are particularly likely to die?

A

Neurons that have established incorrect connections

100
Q

As neurons die, what fills the space they leave vacant on postsynaptic membranes?

A

The sprouting axon terminals of surviving neurons

101
Q

T or F: Microglia play a role in synapse rearrangement.

A

True

102
Q

During the synapse rearrangement, the output of each neuron is focused on a smaller of postsynaptic cells. This leads to what?

A

An increase in the selectivity of transmission

103
Q

What part of the human brain to reaches full maturity last?

A

The prefrontal cortex

104
Q

What is the prenatal period?

A

The period of development before birth

105
Q

What is the postnatal period?

A

The period of development after birth

106
Q

What are three major technical advances that have allowed the examination of prenatal human neural tissue?

A
  • The development of three-dimensional brain organoids in culture
  • The ability to image the brains of prenatal humans
  • The characterization of cell-level transcriptomes
107
Q

What is functional connectivity?

A

The correlated activity between different brain regions over time

108
Q

What is a transcriptome?

A

A catalogue of all proteins transcribed in a particular cell

109
Q

How much does the human brain change in volume between birth and adulthood?

A

It doubles

110
Q

T or F: The size increase in the human between birth and adulthood is caused by the development of additional neurons.

A

False

111
Q

What are the three kinds of growth that cause an increase in postnatal brain size?

A
  • Synaptogenesis
  • Axon myelination
  • Increased branching of dendrites
112
Q

T or F: Synaptogenesis occurs at the same rate across cortical regions.

A

False

113
Q

When do the primary visual and auditory cortices achieve maximum synapse density?

A

The seventh or eighth postnatal month

114
Q

When is maximum synapse density in the prefrontal cortex reached?

A

During the second postnatal year

115
Q

What does myelination of various brain areas roughly parallel?

A

The function development of those areas

116
Q

An increase in the speed of axonal conduction is the result of what?

A

Myelination

116
Q

Myelination of ________ areas occurs in the first few months after birth, followed shortly thereafter by myelination of ________ areas.

A

Sensory, Motor

117
Q

T or F: Myelination of the prefrontal cortex stops around age 13.

A

False, myelination of the prefrontal cortex continues into adulthood

118
Q

T or F: Myelination is an ongoing process that changes with experience throughout one’s lifespan.

A

True

119
Q

T or F: In general, the pattern of dendritic branching in the cortex duplicates the inside-out pattern of neural migration.

A

True

120
Q

T or F: Dendritic spines can change their shapes in response to experience and current environment very quickly.

A

True

121
Q

What occurs once maximum synaptic density and gray matter volume have been achieved?

A

There are periods of decline

122
Q

In what order does cortical thinning typically occur in the brain areas?

A
  • First occurs in the primary sensory and motor areas
  • Progresses to secondary areas
  • Culminates in association areas
123
Q

Are adult levels of gray matter more or less than infant levels?

A

Less than infant levels

124
Q

What is a proteome?

A

A catalogue of the proteins in different cell types

125
Q

The development of which brain area develops over the same as human cognitive development?

A

The prefrontal cortex

126
Q

What are the four cognitive functions linked to the prefrontal cortex?

A
  • Working memory
  • Planning and carrying out sequences of actions
  • Inhibiting inappropriate responses
  • Following rules for social behaviour
127
Q

What is perseveration?

A

The tendency to continue making a formerly correct response that is currently incorrect

128
Q

During which age range do children tend to make perseveration errors?

A

7-12 months

129
Q

What causes perseveration errors?

A

A lag in prefrontal cortex development

130
Q

When does the number of synapses in the prefrontal cortex reach its maximum?

A

The second postnatal year

131
Q

What is an important feature of the effects of experience on development?

A

They are time-dependent

132
Q

What is the difference between a critical period and a sensitive period?

A
  • Critical period: A period during development in which an experience must occur to influence subsequent development
  • Sensitive period: A period during development in which an experience will have a greater effect on development, but that same experience will still have an effect if it occurs outside the interval
133
Q

Early research on the effects of experience on brain development focused on which two general manipulations of experience?

A
  • Sensory deprivation
  • Sensory enrichment
134
Q

What were the consequences of rearing rats in the dark from birth?

A

They had fewer synapses and dendritic spines in their primary visual cortex and as adults had deficits in depth and pattern vision

135
Q

What happened when human babies with cataracts in both eyes had it removed between 1 and 6 weeks after birth?

A

Some aspects of vision quickly improved, but some visual deficits persisted into adulthood

136
Q

T or F: Rats raised in enriched environments had a thicker cortex, and more dendritic spines and axons per neuron than rats alone in empty cages.

A

True

137
Q

What happens to ocular dominance columns if one eye is blindfolded for just a few days during the first few months of life?

A

The width of the columns from the deprived eye decreased and the width of the columns in the non-deprived eye increased

138
Q

Are the effects of monocular deprivation on ocular dominance columns an example of critical periods or sensitive periods?

A

Sensitive periods

139
Q

In general, what is the result of attaching the inputs of one sensory system to cortex that would normally develop into another system?

A

The cortex would develop many characteristics typical of the newly attached system

140
Q

T or F: Early music training expands the area of the auditory cortex that responds to complex musical tones.

A

True

141
Q

What is neurogenesis?

A

The growth of new neurons

142
Q

T or F: Neurogenesis does not occur in adults.

A

False

143
Q

In most nonhuman adult mammals, substantial neurogenesis seems to be restricted to which two areas?

A
  • The subventricular zone
  • The hippocampus
144
Q

T or F: In human adults, neurogenesis has been observed in the striatum and hippocampus, but not the subventricular zone.

A

True

145
Q

Prior to the early 1980s, what was believed to happen to neurons after early brain development?

A

After early brain development, neurons continually die throughout life, and once lost, are never replaced

146
Q

Where are new neurons continually generated?

A

The subventricular zone

147
Q

What two things may reduce or delay memory problems?

A
  • Enriching one’s environment
  • Engaging in regular exercise
148
Q

What did Freund et al., find had an even greater influence on adult hippocampal neurogenesis than physical activity?

A

Exploration

149
Q

What do adult-generated olfactory bulb and striatal neurons become?

A

Internerons

150
Q

Most research on the function of adult-generated neurons has focused on which brain region?

A

The hippocampus

151
Q

Adult hippocampal neurogenesis is said to be important in what four psychological and cognitive capacities?

A
  • Memory functioning and forgetting
  • Pattern separation
  • Mood and anxiety regulation
  • The flexibility to adapt to complex environments
152
Q

T or F: Experience in adulthood can lead to reorganization of sensory and motor cortical maps.

A

True

153
Q

Adult musicians who play string instruments with their left hand have an enlarged hand-representation in which cortex?

A

The right somatosensory cortex

154
Q

What is the most prevalent neurodevelopmental disorder?

A

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)

155
Q

T or F: ASD is almost always apparent before the age of 3 and typically does not increase in severity after that.

A

True

156
Q

What are the two core symptoms of ASD?

A
  • Reduced capacity for social interaction and communication
  • Restricted and repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities
157
Q

What are savants?

A

Individuals with developmental disabilities who display amazing and specific cognitive or artistic abilities

158
Q

Savant-like abilities can emerge in otherwise healthy individuals following damage or transient inactivation to which brain area?

A

The left anterior temporal lobe

159
Q

What seems to be the best predictor of ASD?

A

Transcription-related errors in the brain cells

160
Q

Did the fusiform face area of adolescents with ASD display more or less activation than typical in response to faces?

A

Less

161
Q

How did fusiform face area activation differ between adolescents with ASD and adults with ASD in response to faces?

A

Adults did not show lower activation than typical, but adolescence did

162
Q

Some evidence suggests that decreased synaptic pruning by glial cells during development, which in turn leads to larger than typical cerebral volumes during the first year of life, is implicated in which neurodevelopmental disorder?

A

Autism spectrum disorder

163
Q

Which neurodevelopmental disorder is characterized by intellectual disability, but preserved language and social skills?

A

Williams syndrome

164
Q

What are three cognitive strengths in individuals with Williams syndrome?

A
  • Remarkable language skills considering their low IQs
  • They are often musically gifted
  • Near-typical ability to recognize faces
165
Q

What are four cognitive deficits in individuals with Williams syndrome?

A
  • Severe attentional problems
  • Poor spatial abilities
  • Poor space-related speech
  • Unable to draw objects
166
Q

What is something that people with Williams syndrome show an excessive interest in?

A

Human faces

167
Q

T or F: Those with Williams syndrome have difficulty perceiving negative facial emotions.

A

True

168
Q

What do several of the health problems associated with Williams syndrome involve?

A

The heart

169
Q

95% of individuals with Williams syndrome are missing the gene involved in elastin production on one of the two copies of which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 7

170
Q

T or F: Williams syndrome is associated with a general thinning of the cortex and underlying white matter.

A

True

171
Q

Individuals with Williams syndrome show the greatest cortical thinning in which two areas?

A
  • The boundary of the parietal and occipital lobes
  • The orbitofrontal cortex
172
Q

Where do individuals with Williams syndrome often have a thicker cortex?

A

The superior temporal gyrus

PSYC*2410 (4 decks)

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