PSY 150: Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Principal Contributors of behavioral perspective

A

John B. Watson
Ivan Pavlov
B.F. Skinner

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2
Q

Effects of environment on the overt behavior of humans and animals

A

behavioral perspective

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3
Q

Principal Contributors of psychoanalytic theory

A

Sigmund Freud
Carl Jung
Alfred Adler

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4
Q

Subject Matter of cognitive theory

A

thoughts, mental processes

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5
Q

Only observable events (stimulus-response relations) can be studied scientifically

A

basic premise of behavioral

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6
Q

Humans are free, rational beings with the potential for personal growth, and they are fundamentally different from animals

A

basic premise of humanistic theory

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7
Q

unconscious determinants of behavior

A

subject matter of psychoanalytic theory

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8
Q

physiological bases of behavior in humans in animals

A

subject matter of biological theory

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9
Q

evolutionary bases of behavior in humans and animals

A

subject matter of evolutionary theory

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10
Q

Principal contributors of biological theory

A

James Olds
Roger Sperry
David Hubel
Torsten Wiesel

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11
Q

Principal contributors of humanistic theory

A

Carl Rogers

Abraham Maslow

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12
Q

unconscious motives and experiences in earl childhood govern personality and mental disorders

A

basic premise of psychoanalytic theory

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13
Q

humans are free, rational beings with potential for personal growth, and they are fundamentally different from animals

A

basic premise of humanistic theory

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14
Q

principal contributors of cognitive theory

A

Jean Piaget
Noam Chomsky
Herbert Simon

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15
Q

principal contributors of evolutionary theory

A
David Buss
Martin Daly
Margo Wilson
Leda Cosmides
John Tooby
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16
Q

psychological bases of behavior in humans and animals

A

subject matter of biological theory

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17
Q

evolutionary bases of behavior in humans and animals

A

subject matter of evolutionary theory

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18
Q

an organism’s functioning can be explained in terms of the bodily structures and biochemical processes that underlie behavior

A

basic premise of biological theory

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19
Q

behavior patterns have evolved to solve adaptive problems; natural selection favors behaviors that enhance reproductive success.

A

basic premise evolutionary theory

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20
Q

unique aspects of human experience

A

subject matter of humanistic theory

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21
Q

looks at human development across the life span. developmental psychology once focused primarily on child development, but today devotes a great deal of research to adolescence, adulthood, and old age.

A

developmental psychology

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22
Q

focuses on interpersonal behavior and the role of social forces in governing behavior. Typical topics include attitude formation, attitude change, prejudice, conformity, attraction, aggression, intimate relationships, and behavior in groups.

A

social psychology

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23
Q

studies how people learn and the best ways to teach them. Examines curriculum design, teacher training, achievement testing, student motivation, classroom diversity, and other aspects of the educational process.

A

educational psychology

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24
Q

focuses on how psychological factors relate to the promotion and maintenance of physical health and the causation, prevention, and treatment of illness

A

health psychology

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25
Q

examines the influence of genetic factors on behavior and the role of the brain, nervous system, endocrine system, and bodily chemicals in the regulation of behavior.

A

physiological psychology

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26
Q

encompasses the traditional core of topics that psychology focused on heavily in the first half-century as a science; sensation, perception, learning, conditioning, motivation, and emotion.

A

experimental psychology

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27
Q

focuses on “higher” mental processes, such as memory, reasoning, information processing language, problem solving, decision making, and creativity

A

cognitive psychology

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28
Q

is concerned with the measurement of behavior and capacities, usually through the development of psychological tests. Psychometrics is involved with the design of tests to assess personality, intelligence, and a wide range of abilities. It is also concerned with development of new techniques for statistical analysis.

A

psychometrics

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29
Q

is interested in describing and understanding individuals’ consistency in behavior, which represents their personality. This area of interest is also concerned with the factors that shape personality and with personality assessment.

A

personality

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30
Q

Most popular focus of research

A

developmental

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31
Q

Least popular focus of research

A

personality

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32
Q

Second most popular focus of research

A

social

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33
Q

Focuses of professional practice

A

clinical psychology
counseling psychology
industrial and organization psychology
school psychology

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34
Q

psychologists that are concerned with the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of individuals with psychological disorders, as well as treatment of less severe behavioral and emotional problems. Principal activities include interviewing clients, psychological testing, and providing group or individual psychotherapy

A

clinical psychology

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35
Q

this psychology overlaps with clinical psychology in that specialists in both areas engage in similar activities - interviewing, testing, and providing therapy. However, these psychologists usually work with a somewhat different clientele, providing assistance to people struggling with everyday problems of moderate severity. Thus, they often specialize in family, marital, or career counseling.

A

counseling psychology

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36
Q

psychologists in this area perform a wide variety of tasks in the world of business and industry. these tasks include running human resources departments, working to improve staff morale and attitudes, striving to increase job satisfaction and productivity, examining organizational structures and procedures, and making recommendations for improvements.

A

industrial and organizational psychology

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37
Q

these psychologists strive to promote the cognitive, emotional, and social development of children in schools. They usually work in elementary or secondary schools, where they test and counsel children having difficulties in school and aid parents and teachers in solving school-related problems.

A

school psychology

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38
Q

Largest psychology professional practice focus

A

clinical

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39
Q

a research method in which the investigator manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether any changes occur in a second variable as a result.

A

experiment

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40
Q

a condition or event that an experimenter varies in order to see its impact on another variable

A

independent variable

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41
Q

the variable that is thought to be affected by manipulation of the independent variable

A

dependent variable

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42
Q

consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable.

A

experimental group

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43
Q

consists of similar subjects who do not receive the special treatment given to the experimental group

A

control group

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44
Q

any variables other than the independent variable that seem likely to influence the dependent variable in a specific study

A

extraneous variables

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45
Q

when two variables are linked in a way that makes it difficult to sort out their specific effects

A

confounding of variables

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46
Q

random assignment of subjects occurs when all subjects have an equal chance of being assigned to any group or condition in the study

A

random assignment

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47
Q

consist of differing approaches to the observation measurement, manipulation, and control of variables in empirical studies.

A

research methods

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48
Q

exists when two variables are related to each other

A

correlation

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49
Q

______ methods permit investigators to see only whether there is a link or association between the variables of interest.

A

descriptive or correlational

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50
Q

the results of descriptive research are often summarized with a statistic called _____.

A

the correlation coefficient

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51
Q

a _____ correlation indicates that two variables co-vary (change together) in the same direction.

A

positive

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52
Q

a _____ correlation indicates that two variables co-vary in the opposite direction.

A

negative

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53
Q

a numerical index of the degree of relationship between two variables

A

correlation coefficient

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54
Q

The _____ of a correlation depends only on the size of the coefficient.

A

strength

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55
Q

A correlation of -.60 reflects a _____ relationship than a correlation of +.30.

A

stronger

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56
Q

A coefficient near zero indicates _____ relationship.

A

no

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57
Q

As a correlation increases in strength (gets closer to +1.00 or -1.00) the ability to predict one variable based on knowledge of the other variable _____.

A

increases

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58
Q

Correlation is ______ to causation.

A

not equivalent

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59
Q

the repetition of a study to see whether the earlier results are duplicated

A

replication

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60
Q

______ combines the statistical results of many studies of the same question, yielding an estimate of the size and consistency of a variable’s effects

A

meta-analysis

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61
Q

the collection of subjects selected for observation in an empirical study

A

sample

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62
Q

the much larger collection of animals or people (from which the sample is drawn) that researchers want to generalize about.

A

population

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63
Q

______ exists when a sample is not representative of the population from which it was drawn

A

sampling bias

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64
Q

_____ occur when participants’ expectations lead them to experience some change even though they receive empty, fake, or ineffectual treatment.

A

placebo effects

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65
Q

Placebo effects tend to be weak effects.

True or False

A

False

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66
Q

One of the most problematic of these distortions is the _____, which is a tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about oneself.

A

social desirability bias

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67
Q

The ____, which occurs when someone’s overall evaluation of a person, object, or institution spills over to influence more specific ratings.

A

halo effect

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68
Q

______ occurs when a researcher’s expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results obtained.

A

Experimenter bias

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69
Q

The ______ procedure is a research strategy in which neither subjects nor experimenters know which subjects are in the experimental or control groups.

A

double-bling

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70
Q

precise control over variables can eliminate alternative explanations for findings. researchers are able to draw conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships between variables.

A

advantages of experiment research method

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71
Q

This research method is well suited for study of psychological disorders and therapeutic practices. Individual cases can provide compelling illustrations to support or undermine a theory.

A

advantages of case studies

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72
Q

This research method can be good place to start when little is known about the phenomena under study and unlike other descriptive/correlational methods, it can be used to study animal as well as human behavior.

A

advantages of naturalistic observation

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73
Q

artificiality that can be a problem in laboratory studies is minimized with this research method.

A

naturalistic observation

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74
Q

Data collection can be relatively easy, saving time and money. Researchers can gather data on difficult to observe aspects of behavior. Questionnaires are well suited for gathering data on attitudes, values, and beliefs from large samples.

A

advantages of surveys

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75
Q

contrived laboratory situations are often artificial, making it risky to generalize findings to the real world.

A

disadvantage of experiments

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76
Q

ethical concerns and practical realities preclude _____ on many important questions.

A

experiments

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77
Q

it can be difficult to remain unobtrusive; even animal behavior may be altered by the ____ process.

A

observation

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78
Q

researchers are unable to draw causal conclusions which this method

A

case studies

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79
Q

self report data are often _____, due to intentional deception, social desirability bias, response sets, memory lapses, and poor wording of questions.

A

unreliable

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80
Q

individual cells in the nervous system that receive, integrate, and transmit information

A

neurons

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81
Q

____ or the cell body that contains the cell nucleus and much of the chemical machinery common to most cells

A

soma

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82
Q

____ are the parts of a neuron that are specialized to receive information.

A

dendrites

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83
Q

The ____ is a long, thin fiber that transmits signals away from the soma to other neurons or to the muscles or glands.

A

axon

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84
Q

In humans, many axons are wrapped in cells with a high concentration of a white, fatty substance called ____.

A

myelin

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85
Q

The ____ is insulating material that encases some axons.

A

myelin sheath

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86
Q

the axon ends in a cluster of terminal buttons, which are small knobs that secrete chemicals called ______.

A

neurotransmitters

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87
Q

a ____ is a junction where information is transmitted from one neuron to another.

A

synapse

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88
Q

released by motor neurons controlling skeletal muscles that contributes to the regulation of attention, arousal, and memory. some of these receptors stimulated by nicotine.

A

Acetylcholine (ACH)

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89
Q

neurotransmitter contributes to control of voluntary movement

A

dopamine (DA)

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90
Q

resemble opiate drugs in structure and effects and play role in pain relief and response to stress

A

endorphins

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91
Q

contribute to regulation of eating behavior

A

endorphins

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92
Q

serves as widely distributed inhibitory transmitter, contributing to regulation of anxiety and sleep/arousal

A

GABA

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93
Q

valium and similar antianxiety drugs work at ____ synapses

A

GABA

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94
Q

involved in regulation of sleep and wakefulness, eating, aggression

A

serotonin

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95
Q

prozac and similar antidepressant drugs affect ____ circuits

A

serotonin

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96
Q

contributes to modulation of mood and arousal

A

norepinephrine (NE)

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97
Q

cocaine and amphetamines elevate activity at ____ synapses

A

norepinephrine (NE)

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98
Q

_____ circuits in medial forebrain bundle characterized as “reward pathway”

A

dopamine

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99
Q

part of limbic system involved in emotion and aggression

A

amygdala

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100
Q

responsible for regulating basic biological needs; hunger, thirst, temperature control

A

hypothalamus

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101
Q

“master” gland that regulates other endocrine glands

A

pituitary gland

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102
Q

part of limbic system involved in learning and memory

A

hippocampus

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103
Q

involved in sleep and arousal

A

pons

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104
Q

responsible for regulating largely unconscious functions such as breathing and circulation

A

medulla

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105
Q

responsible for transmitting information between brain and rest of body; handles simple reflexes

A

spinal cord

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106
Q

group of fibers that carry stimulation related to sleep and arousal through brainstem

A

reticular formation

107
Q

structure that coordinates fine muscle movement, balanace

A

cerebellum

108
Q

responsible for sensing, thinking, learning, emotion, consciousness, and voluntary movement

A

cerebrum

109
Q

bridge of fibers passing information between the two cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

110
Q

relay center for cortex handles incoming and outgoing signals

A

thalamus

111
Q

includes the cerebellum and two structures found in the lower part of the brainstem: the medulla and the pons

A

hindbrain

112
Q

“little brain”

A

cerebellum

113
Q

the segment of the brainstem that lies between the hindbrain and the forebrain

A

midbrain

114
Q

the largest and most complex region of the brain, encompassing a variety of structures, including the thalamus, limbic system, and cerebrum

A

forebrain

115
Q

the convoluted outer layer of the cerebrum

A

cerbral cortex

116
Q

the cortical area where most visual signals are sent and visual processing is begun

A

occipital lobe

117
Q

“primary visual cortex”

A

occipital lobe

118
Q

Near its top it contains an area devoted to auditory processing

A

temporal lobe

119
Q

“primary auditory cortex”

A

temporal lobe

120
Q

the largest lobe in the human brain

A

frontal lobe

121
Q

“primary motor cortex”

A

frontal lobe

122
Q

principal areas that control the movement of muscles

A

frontal lobe

123
Q

specialized visual receptors that play a key role in daylight vision and color vision

A

cones

124
Q

handles daytime vision

A

cones

125
Q

Cones provide better _____ than rods.

A

sharpness and precise detail

126
Q

cones are concentrated most heavily in the center of the ___ and quickly fall off in density toward its sides.

A

retina

127
Q

specialized visual receptors that play a key role in night vision and peripheral vision.

A

rods

128
Q

rods handle night vision because they are up to ___ times more sensitive than cones to dim light.

A

100

129
Q

the two types of receptors contained in the retina

A

rods and cones

130
Q

Axons leaving the back of each eye form the ___, which travel to the optic chiasm.

A

optic nerves

131
Q

the point at which the axons from the inside half of each eye cross over and then project to the opposite half of the brain

A

optic chiasm

132
Q

left visual field

A

the right side of each retina

133
Q

right visual field

A

the left side of each retina

134
Q

the optic nerve fibers split along two pathways

A

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

the superior colliculus

135
Q

the major visual pathway projects through the ____ pathway into the ____ onto the primary visual cortex

A

LGN

thalamus

136
Q

A second pathway detours through the ______ and then projects through the _____ and on to the primary visual cortex

A

superior collicuus

thalamus

137
Q

left visual field to what hemisphere

A

right hemisphere

138
Q

right visual field to what hemisphere

A

left hemisphere

139
Q

visual signals are processed in the LGN and then distributed to areas in the _____ lobe that make up the primary visual cortex.

A

occipital

140
Q

After the initial cortical processing of visual input takes place here, signals are typically sent to the ____ and ____ lobes for additional processing.

A

temporal and parietal

141
Q

the second pathway appears to be the _____ or visual input with other sensory input.

A

coordination

142
Q

Sound is conducted differently in each ____.

A

section

143
Q

The external ear depends on the _______.

A

vibration of air molecules

144
Q

The middle ear depends on the _____.

A

vibration of movable bones

145
Q

The inner ear depends on _____, which are finally converted into a stream of neural signals sent to the brain.

A

waves in a fluid

146
Q

The external ear consists mainly of the _____, a sound-collecting cone.

A

pinna

147
Q

sound waves collected by the pinna are funneled along the auditory canal toward the, ______, a taut membrane that vibrates in response.

A

eardrum

148
Q

In the middle ear, the vibrations of the eardrum are transmitted inward by a mechanical chain made up of the three tiniest bones in the body known as the ____.

A

ossicles

149
Q

the three bones that make up the ossicles

A

the hammer
the anvil
the stirrup

150
Q

The ossicles form a three-stage lever system that converts relatively large movements with little force into smaller motions with ____ force.

A

greater

151
Q

the ossicles serve to _____ tiny changes in air pressure.

A

amplify

152
Q

The inner ear consists largely of the ______.

A

cochlea

153
Q

a fluid-filled, coiled tunnel that contains the receptors for hearing

A

cochela

154
Q

Sound enters the cochlea through the _____, which is vibrated by the ossicles.

A

oval windows

155
Q

The ear’s neural tissue, which is functionally similar to the retina in the eye, lies with the _____.

A

cochlea

156
Q

the ear’s neural tissue sits on the _____ that divides the cochlea into upper and lower chambers.

A

basilar membrane

157
Q

runs the length of the spiraled cochlea, holds the auditory receptors, called hair cells.

A

basilar membrane

158
Q

Waves in the fluid of the inner ear stimulate the hair cells that convert the physical stimulation into neural impulses that are sent to the ____.

A

brain

159
Q

The signals from the ear are routed through the _____ to the auditory cortex, which is located mostly in the temporal lobes of the brain.

A

thalamus

160
Q

the receptors for pain are mostly free nerve endings in the ____.

A

skin

161
Q

Pain messages are transmitted to the brain via two pathways that pas through different areas in the _____.

A

thalamus

162
Q

One pain pathway is referred to as the ______ that registers localized pain and relays it to the cortex in a fraction of a second.

A

fast pathway

163
Q

When you feel sharp pain it comes through what pathway

A

fast pathway

164
Q

Pain messages are transmitted through the ____ pathway, routed through the limbic system, that lags a second or two behind the fast system.

A

slow pathway

165
Q

this pathway conveys the less localized, longer-lasting aching or burning pain that comes after an initial injury

A

slow pathway

166
Q

There is a series of ___ distinct stages of sleep

A

5

167
Q

The onset of sleep is _____, with no obvious transition point between wakefulness and sleep.

A

gradual

168
Q

The length of time it takes people to fall asleep varies considerably, but the average is ____ minutes.

A

25

169
Q

The time it takes you to fall asleep depends on quite an array of factors including (8)

A
the person is in his or her circadian cycle
the amount of noise or light in the sleep environment
person's age
desire to fall asleep
boredom level
recent caffeine 
drug intake
stress level
170
Q

Stage 1 of sleep is a brief transitional stage of ___ sleep that usually lasts only ____ to ____ minutes.

A

light

10 to 12 minutes

171
Q

During the 1st stage of sleep the breathing and heart rate slow as your ______ and body temperature decline.

A

muscle tension

172
Q

The alpha waves that probably dominated your EEG activity just before you fell asleep give way to _____ EEG activity.

A

lower-frequency

173
Q

Theta waves are prominent in this stage.

A

stage 1 of sleep

174
Q

As you descend through stages 2, 3, and 4 of the sleep cycle, your respiration rate, heart rate, muscle tension, and body temperature ____.

A

continue to decline.

175
Q

Gradually, your brain waves become higher in amplitude and _____ in frequency, as you move into a deeper form of sleep called ______.

A

slower

slow wave sleep

176
Q

consists of sleep stages 3 and 4, during which low-frequency delta waves become prominent in EEG recordings.

A

slow-wave sleep

177
Q

You reach slow-wave sleep in _____ and stay there for roughly a half-hour then the sleep cycle reverses itself and you gradually move upward through lighter stages of sleep.

A

less than an hour

178
Q

When you reach what should be stage 1 once again, you usually go into the ___ stage of sleep known as ___.

A

fifth

REM

179
Q

REM is the abbreviation for _____, which are prominent during this stage.

A

rapid eye movements

180
Q

In a sleep lab, researchers use an ____ to monitor these lateral movements (REM) that occur beneath the sleeping person’s closed eyelids.

A

electrooculograph

181
Q

The REM stage tends to be a _____ stage of sleep in the conventional sense that is relatively ____ to awaken a person from it.

A

deep

hard

182
Q

The REM stage is also marked by ____ breathing and ____.

A

irregular

pulse rate

183
Q

Muscle tone is _____ that bodily movements are minimal and the sleeper is virtually ____.

A

extremely relaxes

paralyzed.

184
Q

Although REM is a relatively deep sleep stage, EEG activity is dominated by ______ waves that resemble those observed when people are alert and awake.

A

high-frequency beta

185
Q

The EEG activity is dominated by high-frequency beta waves that resemble those observed when people are ____ and ____.

A

alert and awake

186
Q

During the various stages of sleep, most dream reports come from awakenings during the ___ stage.

A

REM

187
Q

Most research has revealed that some dreaming occurs in the non-REM stages, dreaming is most ____, ___, and ___ during REM sleep.

A

frequent, vivid, and memorable

188
Q

consists of sleep stages 1 through 4, which are marked by an absence of rapid eye movements, relatively little dreaming, and varied EEG activity.

A

non-REM sleep

189
Q

During the course of a night, people usually repeat the sleep cycle about ___ times.

A

four

190
Q

REM periods get progressively ______, peaking at around ____ minutes through the night.

A

longer

40- 60 minutes

191
Q

the first REM period is relatively short only lasting ____

A

a few minutes

192
Q

non-REM intervals tend to get _____ and descents into non-REM stages usually become more ____ as the night progresses.

A

shorter

shallow

193
Q

Most slow-wave sleep occurs ____ in the sleep cycle.

A

early

194
Q

REM sleep tends to pile up in the ____ of the sleep cycle.

A

second half

195
Q

Young adults typically spend about 15%-20% of their sleep time in _____ and another 20 to 25% in ____ sleep.

A

slow wave sleep

REM

196
Q

the last REM period of the night has the ____ eye movements and may be the period from which dreams are best remembered.

A

fastest

197
Q

newborns will sleep __ to ___ times in a 24 hour period often exceeding a total of 16 hours of sleep.

A

6 to 8 times

198
Q

Infants spend much more of their sleep time than adults do in the ____ stage.

A

REM

199
Q

REM accounts for about ___% of babies sleep, as compared to ___% of adults.

A

50%

20%

200
Q

During the remainder of the year, the REM portion of infants sleep declines gradually to roughly ___% until it levels on to ___% in adolesence.

A

30%

20%

201
Q

During adulthood, gradual, age-related changes in sleep continue and the percentage of ____ declines and the percentage of time spent in stage one ___ causing increased frequency of nighttime awakening among the elderly.

A

slow wave sleep

increases

202
Q

chronic problems in getting adequate sleep

A

insomnia

203
Q

Insomnia occurs in three basic patterns

A

difficulty in falling asleep initially
difficulty in remaining asleep
persistent early-morning awakening

204
Q

associated with day time fatigue, impaired functioning, and elevated risk for accidents, reduced productivity, absenteeism at work, depression, and increased health problems.

A

insomnia

205
Q

Sedatives are a ___ long range solution for insomnia.

A

poor

206
Q

a disease marked by sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking periods

A

narcolepsy

207
Q

____ is the most common difficulty associated with sleep.

A

insomnia

208
Q

A person suffering from narcolepsy goes directly from wakefulness to ____ sleep, usually for a short period (10 - 20 minutes).

A

REM

209
Q

frequent, reflexive gasping for air that awakens a person and disrupts sleep.

A

sleep apnea

210
Q

Apnea occurs when a person literally stops breathing for a minimum of ___ seconds.

A

10 seconds

211
Q

_____ it increases vulnerability to hypertension, coronary disease, and stroke.

A

insomnia

212
Q

occurs when a person arises and wanders about while remaining asleep.

A

somnambulism or sleepwalking

213
Q

____ tends to occur during the first 3 hours of sleep, when individuals are in slow wave sleep.

A

sleep walking or somnambulism

214
Q

a type of learning in which a stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus

A

classical conditioning

215
Q

a stimulus that evokes an unconditioned response without previous conditioning.

A

unconditioned stimulus (US)

216
Q

an unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning

A

unconditioned response (UR)

217
Q

a previously neutral stimulus that has, through conditioning acquired the capacity to evoke a conditioned response.

A

conditioned stimulus (CS)

218
Q

a learned reaction to a conditioned stimulus that occurs because of previous conditioning

A

conditioned response (CR)

219
Q

in classical conditioning consists of any presentation of a stimulus or pair of stimuli

A

trial

220
Q

Before Conditioning

A

NS (neutral stimulus) —–> no response

US (unconditioned stimulus) meat powder —->
UR (unconditioned response) salivation

221
Q

During Conditioning

A

NS (neutral stimulus) tone AND
US (unconditioned stimulus) meat powder ——>

UR (unconditioned response) salivation

222
Q

After conditioning

A

CS (conditioned stimulus) tone ——>

CR (conditioned response) salivation

223
Q

Summary

A

an originally neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response that it did not previously elicit

224
Q

a form of learning in which voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences.

A

operant conditioning

225
Q

when an event following a response increases an organism’s tendency to make that response

A

reinforcement

226
Q

The fundamental principle of operant conditioning is uncommonly simple: Skinner demonstrated that organisms tend to ____ those responses that are followed by _____.

A

repeat

favorable consequences

227
Q

A response is ____ because it leads to rewarding consequences.

A

strengthened

228
Q

an enclosure in which an animal can make a specific response that is sytematically recorded while consequences of the response are controlled.

A

a Skinner box

229
Q

Operant responses such as lever pressing and disk pecking are said to be ____ rather than elicited.

A

emitted

230
Q

to emit means to ___.

A

send forth

231
Q

Operant conditioning mainly governs ____ responses instead of reflex responses.

A

voluntary

232
Q

the circumstances or rules that determine whether responses lead to the presentation of reinforcers.

A

reinforcement contingencies

233
Q

the key dependent variable in most research on operant condition is the subjects’ _____

A

response rate over time.

234
Q

creates a graphic record of responding and reinforcement in a Skinner box as a function of time.

A

cumulative recorder

235
Q

is the formation of a new response tendency

A

acquisition in operant conditioning

236
Q

Operant responses are typically established through a gradual process called ___.

A

shaping

237
Q

the reinforcement of closer and closer approximations of a desired response

A

shaping

238
Q

the gradual weakening and disappearance of a response tendency because the response is no longer followed by reinforcement.

A

extinction

239
Q

A key issue in operant conditioning is how much ____ to extinction an organism will display when reinforcement is halted.

A

resistance

240
Q

when an organism continues to make a response after delivery of the reinforcer for it has been terminated.

A

resistance to extinction

241
Q

If a researcher stops giving reinforcement for lever pressing and the response tapers off slowly, the response show _____ to extinction.

A

high resistance

242
Q

If a researchers stops giving reinforcement for lever pressing and the response tapers off quickly, it shows _____ to extinction

A

little resistance

243
Q

are cues that influence operant behavior by indication the probable consequences (reinforcement or nonreinforcement) of a response

A

discriminative stimuli

244
Q

an organism’s responding to stimuli other than the original stimulus used in conditioning

A

stimulus generalization

245
Q

an organism’s lack of response to stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus used in conditioning

A

stimulus discrimination

246
Q

events that are inherently reinforcing because they satisfy biological needs

A

primary reinforcers

247
Q

reinforcers are events that acquire reinforcing qualities by being associated with primary reinforcers.

A

secondary or conditioned reinforcers.

248
Q

occurs when a response is strengthened because it is followed by the presentation of a rewarding stimulus

A

positive reinforcement

249
Q

occurs when a response is strengthened because it is followed by the removal of an aversive (unpleasant) stimulus

A

negative reinforcement

250
Q

an organism acquires a response that decreases or ends some aversive stimulation

A

escape learning

251
Q

a limited capacity store that can maintain unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds

A

short term memory (STM)

252
Q

the process of repetitively verbalizing or thinking about information

A

rehearsal

253
Q

a group of familiar stimuli stored as a single unit

A

a chunk

254
Q

a modular system for temporary storage and manipulation of information

A

working memory

255
Q

refers to one’s ability to hold and manipulate information in conscious attention

A

working memory capacity (WMC)

256
Q

an unlimited capacity store that can hold information over lengthy periods of time

A

long term memory (LTM)

257
Q

unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events

A

flashbulb memories

258
Q

The Atkinson and Shiffrin Model of Memory Storage

A

Sensory Memory
- a large amount of information just long enough for a small portion of it to be selected for longer storage
Short-term Memory
-limited capacity and unless aided by rehearsal, its storage duration is brief
Long-term Memory
- can store an apparently unlimited amount of information for indeterminate periods.

259
Q

the temporary inability to remember something you know. accompanied by a feeling that it’s just out of reach.

A

tip of the tongue phenomenon

260
Q

an organized cluster of knowledge about a particular object or event abstracted from previous experience with the object or event

A

schema

261
Q

occurs when participants recall of an event that they witnessed is altered by introducing misleading postevent information

A

misinformation effect

262
Q

the process of making inferences about the origins of memories

A

source monitoring

263
Q

occurs when a memory derived from one source is misattributed to another source

A

source monitoring error