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Pseudoscience Flashcards

1
Q

Give the DSM5 definition of major depressive disorder

A

Presence of >5 defining symptoms, during the same two-week period, where >1 of the symptoms is depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure.
Plus four or more of the following:
* Disturbed sleep (decreased / increased compared to usual)
* Decreased / increased appetite / weight
* Fatigue / loss of energy
* Agitation / slowing down of movements and thoughts.
* Poor concentration / indecisiveness.
* Feelings of worthlessness or excessive / inappropriate guilt.
* Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideas, or a suicide attempt or specific plan.

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2
Q

Give the NICE classification of depression severity according to the PHQ9

A

Less severe depression (subthreshold / mild): less than 16 on the PHQ-9 scale.
More severe depression (moderate / severe): 16 or more on the PHQ-9 scale.

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3
Q

List the items in PHQ9 scale

A

Nearly every day 3 points
More than half the days 2 points
Several days 1 point
Not at all 0 point

  1. Little interest or pleasure in doing things
  2. Feeling down, depressed, or hopeless
  3. Trouble falling or staying asleep, or sleeping too much
  4. Feeling tired or have little energy
  5. Poor appetite or overeating
  6. Feeling bad about yourself or that you are a failure or have let yourself or your family down
  7. Trouble concentrating on things, such as reading the newspaper or watching television
  8. Moving or speaking so slowly that other people could have noticed. Or the opposite - being so fidgety or restless that you have been moving around a lot more than usual
  9. Thoughts that you would be better off dead, or of hurting yourself
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4
Q

List the criteria for chronic depressive symptoms

A

Symptoms which continually meet the criteria for the diagnosis of a major depressive episode for >2 years
Have persistent subthreshold symptoms for >2 years
Have persistent low mood with or without concurrent episodes of major depression for >2 years

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5
Q

Give the first line treatment for depression

A

SSRI

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6
Q

When may electroconvulsive therapy be used in depression?

A

Depression with psychotic symptoms, suicidality, or catatonia
Later in treatment for people with refractory depression or intolerance to antidepressants

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7
Q

When should hospitalisation be considered in severe depression?

A

Significant suicidal ideation/intent + inadequate safeguards in family environment
Intent to hurt others
Unable to care for themselves/adhere to treatment
Psychotic symptoms
Uncontrolled agitation + impulsive behaviour

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8
Q

List the differences between mood disorders with psychotic features vs primary psychotic disorders

A

Mood disorder with psychotic features - Psychotic symptoms occur exclusively during mood episodes.
Schizophrenia - Mood symptoms, if present, are brief and not prominent.

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9
Q

List the features of Schizoaffective disorder

A

Mood episodes occur concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia.
Lifetime history of delusions/hallucinations for 2 weeks outside of a mood episode.
Mood episodes are prominent and recur throughout illness.

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10
Q

List the SSRIs

A

Sertraline
Fluvoxamine
Fluoxetine
Paroxetine
Citalopram
Escitalopram

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11
Q

List contraindications for SSRI

A

Maniac phase of bipolar disorder
Poorly controlled epilepsy
Long QT syndrome
Concurrent with other drugs that cause QT prolongation
Severe hepatic impairment (sertraline)

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12
Q

List the adverse effects of SSRI

A

Sexual dysfunction
Headache
QT prolongation

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13
Q

List the SNRIs

A

Venlafaxine
Desvenlafaxine
Duloxetine
Milnacipran
Levomilnacipran

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14
Q

List the SNRI contraindications

A

Uncontrolled hypertension.
Hepatic impairment (duloxetine).
Severe renal impairment - creatinine clearance < 30 mL/min (duloxetine)

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15
Q

List the SNRI adverse effects

A

Hypertension
Headache
Diaphoresis
Bone resorption

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16
Q

List the TCA contraindications

A

Acute porphyria (lofepramine)
Arrhythmias, Heart block
During the immediate recovery period after MI
Severe hepatic/renal impairment (lofepramine)
During the manic phase of bipolar disorder
Taking a MAOi

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17
Q

List the TCA adverse effects

A

drowsiness (antagonism of histamine receptors)
antagonism of muscarinic receptors:
* dry mouth
* blurred vision
* constipation
* urinary retention
postural hypotension (antagonism of adrenergic receptors)
lengthening of QT interval

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18
Q

List the TCAs

A

Ami/Nor/Protriptyline
Doxepin
Clomi/Imi/Trimi/Desipramine
Maprotiline
Amoxapine

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19
Q

List the atypical antidepressants

A

Bupropion
Mirtazapine
Agomelatine

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20
Q

List the atypical antidepressant adverse effects

A

Bupropion- Seizures
Mirtazapine - Sedation, Weight gain
Agomelatine - hepatotoxicity

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21
Q

List the serotonin modulators

A

Nefazodone
Trazodone
Vilazodone
Vortioxetine

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22
Q

List the Serotonin Modulators adverse effects

A

Nefazodone - Hepatotoxicity (acute hepatitis with cholestasis and variable degrees of centrilobular necrosis)
Trazodone - Sedation, Priapism
Vilazodone - Diarrhoea
Vortioxetine - Nausea

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23
Q

List the Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)

A

Selegiline
Moclobemide
Tranylcypromine
Isocarboxazid
Phenelzine

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24
Q

List the MAOIs adverse effects

A

Potential for serotonin syndrome
Sexual dysfunction

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25
Q

List the TCA overdose effects

A

Fatal cardiovascular effects
* Tachycardia
* Postural hypotension
* Slowed cardiac conduction
Sedation
Coma
Seizures

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26
Q

List the Moclobemide (MAOI) overdose effects

A

Long QT syndrome
Hypertensive crisis
Serotonin and noradrenaline toxicity
Agitation, aggressiveness, and behavioural changes

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27
Q

List the Venlafaxine overdose effects

A

Vomiting
Sedation
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Seizures

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28
Q

List the Duloxetine overdose effects

A

Somnolence
Coma
Serotonin syndrome
Seizures
Vomiting
Tachycardia

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29
Q

List the triad in serotonin syndrome

A

Neuromuscular excitation
Autonomic effects
Altered mental status

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30
Q

List the clinical features in persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

A

Chronic depressed mood >2 years (1 year if children/adolescents)
No symptom-free period for >2 months
Presence of >2 of the following:
* Poor appetite / overeating
* Insomnia / hypersomnia
* Low energy / fatigue
* Low self-esteem
* Poor concentration / difficulty making decisions
* Feelings of hopelessness

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31
Q

List the drugs associated with serotonin toxicity

A

SSRI/SNRI/MAOI
Serotonin-releasing agents
* Fenfluramine
* Amphetamines
L-tryptophan - increase serotonin synthesis
Serotonin receptor agonists
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Lithium

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32
Q

List the Hunter serotonin toxicity criteria

A

Serotonergic agent - increased dose, overdose, interaction
1. Spontaneous clonus
2. Inducible / Ocular clonus + Agitation OR Diaphoresis OR Hypertonia AND Hyperthermia
3. Tremor AND Hyperreflexia

If all null, not significant serotonin toxicity

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33
Q

List the serotonin syndrome severity grading

A

Mild toxicity
* Hyperreflexia
* Inducible clonus
* Tremor
* Myoclonic jerks
* Diaphoresis
* Headache
* Do not meet the HSTC

Moderate toxicity
* Anxiety and agitation
* Tachycardia
* Meets the HSTC, but no hyperthermia or hypertonia

Severe toxicity - Meet the HSTC and have hyperthermia and hypertonia

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34
Q

Give the characteristic for bipolar disorder

A

episodic depressed and elated moods and increased activity (hypomania / mania)

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35
Q

Define manic episode

A

Abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, irritable mood lasting >7 days, with >3 additional symptoms:
* Abnormally elevated mood, extreme irritability, sometimes aggression.
* Increased energy/activity, restlessness, decreased need for sleep
* Pressure of speech/incomprehensible speech.
* Flight of ideas/racing thoughts.
* Distractibility, poor concentration.
* Increased libido, disinhibition, sexual indiscretions.
* Extravagant/impractical plans
* Psychotic symptoms: delusions (grandiose), hallucinations (voices).
And which:
* Is severe enough to cause marked impairment in social/occupational functioning/hospitalisation
* Includes psychotic features: delusions/hallucinations.

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36
Q

Define Hypomanic episode

A

Symptoms of mania that are:
* have lasted for at least 4 days
* not severe enough to cause marked impairment in social/occupational functioning/necessitate hospitalisation
* no psychotic features

Presentation
* Mild elevation of mood, irritability.
* Increased energy and activity, may lead to increased performance at work/socially.
* Feelings of well-being, physical mental efficiency.
* Increased sociability, talkativeness, over-familiarity.

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37
Q

Define Depressive episode

A

A period of at least 2 weeks during which there is either
* Depressed mood or
* Loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities (irritability in children and adolescents)

Accompanied by at least four additional symptoms:
* Disturbed sleep (decreased / increased compared to usual)
* Decreased / increased appetite / weight
* Fatigue / loss of energy
* Agitation / slowing down of movements and thoughts.
* Poor concentration / indecisiveness.
* Feelings of worthlessness or excessive / inappropriate guilt.
* Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideas, or a suicide attempt or specific plan.

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38
Q

List the symptoms and signs that may help distinguish bipolar disorder from unipolar depression

A

Hypersomnia, lability, weight instability
Earlier age of onset (peak age 15-19 years), abrupt onset (possibly triggered by stressor).
More frequent episodes of shorter duration.
Comorbid substance misuse.
Higher postpartum risk.
Psychosis, psychomotor retardation, catatonia.
Lower likelihood of somatic symptoms.
Family history of bipolar disorder

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39
Q

State the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorder in children and young people

A

Mania must be present.
Euphoria must be present on most days and for most of the time, for at least 7 days.
Irritability is not a core diagnostic criterion.

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40
Q

Define rapid-cycling bipolar disorder

A

At least four depressive, manic, hypomanic, or mixed episodes within a 12-month period.

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41
Q

Define Bipolar I disorder

A

> 1 manic episode with/without history of major depressive episodes.

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42
Q

Define Bipolar II disorder

A

One or more major depressive episodes and by at least one hypomanic episode, but no evidence of mania.

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43
Q

List the risk factors for bipolar disorder

A

Genetics - first-degree relatives
Environmental
* Early life stress, maternal death before a child reaches five years of age, childhood trauma, childhood abuse, emotional neglect/abuse.
* Toxoplasma gondii exposure.
* Cannabis use, cocaine exposure.

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44
Q

List the complications for bipolar disorder

A

Suicide / self-harm
Consequences of disinhibition and impaired social functioning
Associated psychological and physical illness
* Anxiety disorder, alcohol and other substance misuse disorders, personality disorders, ADHD
* Cardiovascular disease, hypertension
* Type 2 diabetes, dyslipidaemia, metabolic syndrome, obesity
* Chronic kidney disease
* COPD

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45
Q

Give the management for acute episode of mania and mixed episodes

A

First line: haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone
If not effective: add lithium/sodium valproate

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46
Q

Give the management for acute episode of depressive episodes

A

Quetiapine
Fluoxetine + olanzapine
Olanzapine
Lamotrigine

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47
Q

Give the long term management plan for bipolar disorder

A

4 weeks after the acute episode has resolved:
Continue current treatment for mania
Start long-term treatment with lithium to prevent relapses
If lithium is not effective, add sodium valproate
If lithium poorly tolerated, use sodium valproate or olanzapine

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48
Q

Define Cyclothymia

A

Chronic disturbance of mood, consisting of periods of depression and hypomania, where the depressive symptoms do not meet the criteria for a depressive episode.

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49
Q

How is antipsychotic use monitored?

A

BMI - weekly for the first 6 weeks, then at 3 months, thereafter annually
FBC, U&E, eGFR, LFT, CK - annually
Blood lipids, HbA1c - 3 months after starting treatment, then every 12 months
Prolactin - 6 months after starting treatment, then every 12 months
ECG, blood pressure - during dose titration and change

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50
Q

List the adverse reactions related to clozapine

A

Neutropenia / agranulocytosis
Impairment of intestinal peristalsis (constipation, paralytic ileus)

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51
Q

List the contraindications for IM olanzapine

A

Unstable angina, Acute myocardial infarction.
Bradycardia.
Severe hypotension.
Sick sinus syndrome.
Recent heart surgery.

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52
Q

List the typical antipsychotics

A

(Dopamine receptor antagonists)

Phenothiazines
* trifluoperazine, prochlorperazine, perphenazine, acetophenazine, triflupromazine, mesoridazine
Haloperidol
Thioxanthenes
Loxapine
Molidone
Pimozide

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53
Q

List the atypical antipsychotics

A

(Serotonin-dopamine antagonists)

Risperidone
olanzapine
quetiapine
clozapine

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54
Q

List the adverse effects of antipsychotics

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms (typical antipsychotics)
* Dystonia and pseudoparkinsonism - alleviated by procyclidine (antimuscarinic)
* Akathisa (motor restlessness) - relieved by reducing the dose
* Tardive dyskinesia
* Oculogyric crisis
Weight gain (atypical antipsychotics)
* Greatest potential: clozapine, olanzapine
* Followed by: quetiapine, risperidone
Hyperprolactinaemia
* Galactorrhoea
* Amenorrhoea
* Gynaecomastia
* Hypogonadism
* Sexual dysfunction
* Increased risk of osteoporosis
Dyslipidemia
Impaired glucose tolerance
Sedation
Anticholinergic effects
* Dry mouth
* Blurred vision
* Urinary retention/Constipation
* Cutaneous flushing
Reduced seizure threshold
Diplopia
Cardiovascular
* Postural hypotension
* Hypertension
* Cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, cutaneous vasculitis
* QT interval prolongation
* Stroke risk
* Venous thromboembolism
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Pneumonia
Neutropenia
Abnormal LFT
* Hepatitis (transaminase 3x normal)
* Abnormal prothrombin time / albumin
Photosensitivity (chlorpromazine)
Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (olanzapine)
* High fever
* Morbilliform skin rash eruption
* Haematological abnormalities
* Lymphadenopathy
* Inflammation of one or more internal organs.

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55
Q

List the symptoms for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Within 72 hours of dopamine antagonist / agonist withdrawal:
Hyperthermia
Muscle rigidity (cardinal feature)
Altered mental status
Sympathetic nervous system lability
* BP elevation/fluctuation
* Sweating
* Urinary incontinence
Hypermetabolism
* 25% increase heart rate
* 50% increase respiratory rate

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56
Q

Give the key investigation in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Serum creatine kinase (CK) levels

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57
Q

Give the management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Remove causative drug
Rehydration - IV fluids
Cooling
Sedation - oral/IV benzodiazepine

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58
Q

List two DPA agonists

A

bromocriptine
amantadine

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59
Q

Give the definition for generalised anxiety disorder

A

Chronic, excessive worry for > 6 months that causes distress/impairment, and is hard to control.

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60
Q

Give the DSM-5-TR criteria for generalised anxiety disorder

A

> 3 out of 6 in adults, 1 in children:
Muscle tension
Sleep disturbance
Fatigue
Restlessness/sense of feeling ‘on edge’
Irritability
Poor concentration

Other symptoms:
Muscle aches
Sweating, Dizziness
Shortness of breath, Chest pain
Nausea, diarrhoea
Gastrointestinal complaints

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61
Q

Give the childhood risk factors in generalised anxiety disorder

A

Maltreatment
Parental mental health problems / substance use
Family disruption (e.g., divorce)
Overly harsh/protective parenting style
Bullying

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62
Q

Give the management options for generalised anxiety disorder

A

First line options:
* Psychological therapy - cognitive behavioural therapy
* SSRI - sertraline
* Alternative - Mirtazapine (atypical antidepressant)

Second line: SNRIs (duloxetine, venlafaxine)

Third line:
* Pregabalin (anticonvulsant)
* Buspirone (non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic)

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63
Q

Give the DSM5-TR criteria for panic disorders

A

Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks
>1 of the attacks followed by a period of >1 month of one or both of:
* persistent concern/worry about additional panic attacks/consequences (heart attack)
* a significant maladaptive change in behaviour related to the attacks (avoidance)
Panic symptoms must not be attributable to substance-related effects, other medical conditions, or other psychiatric disorders

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64
Q

Give the symptoms for panic attacks

A

Sudden onset intense physical + cognitive symptoms of anxiety
Peak within minutes
The need to do something urgently (e.g. escape to a safe place)

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65
Q

List other symptoms in panic attacks

A

Nocturnal panic attack
Heightened sympathetic nervous system activity
* Palpitations
* Increased SBP
* Hyperventilation
* Sweating
* Flushing
Chest pain and discomfort
Dizziness
Tingling or numbing sensations in the hands, feet, and facial areas
Nausea and vomiting

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66
Q

List the symptoms for phobias

A

Intense anxiety/panic during exposure to specific objects/situations
Sleep disruption
Depression
Extreme anticipatory anxiety may co-occur
Coping behaviours
* Avoidance
* Safety seeking
* Substance misuse

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67
Q

Give the classification for PTSD

A

Dissociative subtype - symptoms of depersonalisation (experience of being an outside observer) or derealisation (experience of unreality, distance, distortion) are present.

Delayed expression - full diagnostic criteria are not met until at least 6 months after the stressor.

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68
Q

Give the DSM-5-TR criteria for PTSD

A

Symptoms should
* Cause significant distress/functional impairment
* Not be caused by medication, substance use, or other illness.
* Be persistent for >1 month.

The person must have:
Been exposed to actual/threatened death/serious injury/sexual violence in >1 of the following ways:
* Directly experiencing
* Witnessing
* Learning that the traumatic event occurred to a close family member/friend.
* Experiencing repeated/extreme exposure to aversive details of the traumatic event

Persistently re-experience >1 of the following intrusive symptoms:
* Recurrent, involuntary, intrusive memories.
* Recurrent traumatic nightmares
* Dissociative reactions (e.g. flashbacks) in which the person feels or acts as if the traumatic event is recurring.
* Intense or prolonged distress after exposure to traumatic reminders.
* Marked physiologic reactivity after exposure to trauma-related stimuli.
Persistently avoid stimuli associated with the traumatic event

Experience >2 negative changes in mood or thoughts that began or worsened after the traumatic event:
* Unable to recall key features of the traumatic event.
* Persistent (usually distorted) negative beliefs and expectations about themselves or the world.
* Persistent distorted blame of self or others for causing the traumatic event or for resulting consequences.
* Persistent negative emotional state (e.g. fear, horror, anger, guilt or shame).
* Markedly diminished interest in (pre-traumatic) significant activities.
* Feelings of detachment or estrangement from others.
* Persistent inability to experience positive emotions (happiness, satisfaction, love).

> 2 trauma-related alterations in arousal and reactivity that began/worsened after the traumatic event:
* Irritable/aggressive behaviour (with little or no provocation).
* Self-destructive or reckless behaviour.
* Hypervigilance.
* Exaggerated startle response.
* Problems in concentration.
* Sleep disturbance.

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69
Q

Give the severity grading in PTSD

A

Mild
Distress caused by the symptoms is manageable
Social and occupational functioning are not significantly impaired.

Moderate
Distress and impact on functioning lie somewhere between mild and severe
Not considered to be a significant risk of suicide, harm to self, or harm to others.

Severe
Distress caused by the symptoms is felt to be unmanageable
Significant impairment in social and/or occupational functioning
Considered to be a significant risk of suicide, harm to self, or harm to others.

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70
Q

Give the managements in PTSD

A

Psychological therapies
First line: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy
* Exposure therapy - the person confronts traumatic memories and is repeatedly exposed to situations which they have been avoiding that elicit fear.
* Trauma-focused cognitive therapy - identifies and modifies misrepresentations of the trauma and its aftermath that lead the person to overestimate the threat.
Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing

Antidepressants:
* Venlafaxine (SNRI)
* SSRI

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71
Q

List the symptoms of PTSD in adults

A

Re-experiencing the event
Avoidance of external reminders/thoughts/memories of the event.
Hyperarousal (hypervigilance, anger, irritability).
Negative alterations in mood and thinking.
Negative self-perception
Emotional numbing.
Emotional dysregulation.
Dissociation.
Interpersonal difficulties/problems in relationships

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72
Q

List the symptoms of PTSD in children

A

Dreams of the trauma, nightmares.
Re-living the trauma in their play.
Losing interest in things that they previously enjoyed.
Expressing the belief not live long enough to grow up.
Stomach aches and headaches.

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73
Q

List the mental health complications for PTSD

A

Depression
Anxiety disorders
Substance use disorders
Somatic symptom disorder
Psychoses
Suicidal ideation
In children
* ADHD
* Oppositional defiant disorder
* Conduct disorder

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74
Q

List the 5 stages of grief

A

Denial
Depression
Bargaining
Aggression
Acceptance

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75
Q

List the positive and negative symptoms in psychosis

A

Positive symptoms:
* Hallucinations (perceptions in the absence of stimulus)
* Delusions (fixed or falsely-held beliefs)
* Disorganised behaviour, speech, thought disturbance

Negative symptoms:
* Emotional blunting.
* Reduced speech.
* Loss of motivation.
* Self-neglect.
* Social withdrawal

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76
Q

List the medical causes of psychosis

A

Central nervous system
* Trauma
* Space-occupying lesions
* Infection
* Stroke
* Epilepsy
* Cerebral hypoxia
Metabolic disturbances
* Urea cycle disorders
* Acute intermittent porphyria
* Wilson disease
* Renal / liver failure
* Hypoglycemia
* Na+/Ca2+/Mg2+ disturbances
Systemic
* SLE
* Thyroiditis

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77
Q

Give the ICD10 criteria for schizophrenia

A

Symptoms present most of the time for >1 month

One or more of the following features:
Hallucinatory voices
Thought echo, thought insertion/withdrawal, thought broadcasting.
Delusions
Persistent delusions of other kinds that are culturally inappropriate and completely impossible

Or any two of the following criteria:
Persistent hallucinations in any form accompanied by
* fleeting or half-formed delusions without clear affective content
* persistent overvalued ideas (similar to preoccupations)
* when occurring every day for weeks or months on end
Breaks or interpolations in the train of thought, resulting in incoherence or irrelevant speech, or neologisms (invented words).
Catatonic behaviour
* Excitement, posturing, or waxy flexibility
* Negativism
* Mutism
* Stupor
Negative symptoms
A significant and consistent change in the overall quality of some aspects of personal behaviour

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78
Q

List the features of prodromal period for psychosis

A

Transient, low-intensity psychotic symptoms - intermittent, self-limiting episodes, typically lasting less than a week
* hallucinations/unusual perceptual experiences
* unusual thoughts
* unusual or uncharacteristic behaviour
Reduced interest in daily activities
* poor personal hygiene
* reduced performance at school or work
Problems with mood, sleep, memory, concentration, communication, affect, and motivation.
Anxiety, irritability, or depressive features.
Incoherent or illogical speech - thought disturbance.

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79
Q

List the risk factors for schizophrenia

A

Stressful life events (bereavement, job loss, eviction, relationship breakdown)
Childhood adversity (abuse, bullying, parental loss / separation)
Family heritage
Migration
Urban living
Cannabis
Substance use
* amphetamines, cocaine, ketamine, LSD
* inhaled substances eg. toluene and certain types of glue
High-dose corticosteroid
Early life factors
* exposures in utero to medication
* maternal stress
* nutritional deficiency
* Infection
* intrauterine growth restriction
* birth and postnatal trauma
Paternal age > 40 years and parental age < 20 years
Exposure to Toxoplasma gondii

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80
Q

List the complications for schizophrenia

A

Increased risks of
* Suicide
* Cardiovascular disease
* T2DM
* Smoking-related illness
* Cancer eg. breast
Social exclusion
Substance misuse

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81
Q

Give the management for acute psychosis

A

First line = de-escalation
Sedation
* IM lorazepam
* IM haloperidol + promethazine

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82
Q

List the antipsychotic treatment options

A

Aripiprazole, amisulpride, haloperidol, lurasidone, olanzapine, risperidone

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83
Q

Give the DSM5-TR criteria for schizoaffective disorder

A

An uninterrupted period of illness, during which there is a major mood episode (major depressive or manic) concurrent with a schizophrenia episode characterised by two or more of the following symptoms present for a considerable part of a 1-month period (at least one of these must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganised speech):
* Delusions
* Hallucinations
* Disorganised speech (e.g., frequent derailment or incoherence)
* Grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour
* Negative symptoms (i.e., diminished emotional expression or avolition).
During this time, there should be a period of at least 2 weeks with delusions and hallucinations, in the absence of a major mood episode (depressive or manic) during the lifetime duration of illness.
Symptoms that meet criteria for a major mood episode are present for the majority of the total duration of the active and residual period of illness.
Other possible etiologies or general medical conditions have been ruled out.

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84
Q

List the management options for schizoaffective disorder

A

Atypical antipsychotics
* Paliperidone
* Olanzapine
* Ziprasidone

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85
Q

Give the DMS5 TR criteria for brief psychotic disorder

A

> 1 psychotic symptoms, where >1 must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganised speech
Episodes lasts for >1 day, but <1 month, return to premorbid level of functioning.
No better accounted for by other conditions.

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86
Q

Give the first line management in brief psychotic disorder

A

Atypical antipsychotics
* Olanzapine
* Risperidone
* Quetiapine
* Ziprasidone
* Aripiprazole
* Paliperidone

87
Q

Give the definition for anorexia nervosa

A

Restriction of food intake/persistent behaviour which interferes with weight gain and leads to low body weight.
Associated with body image disturbance and intense fear of gaining weight.

88
Q

Give the definition for bullimia nervosa

A

Recurrent (>1/week for 3 months) episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviour eg. self-induced vomiting, laxative abuse, excessive exercise.

89
Q

Give the definition for binge eating disorder

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating in the absence of compensatory behaviours.
Episodes are marked by feelings of lack of control.

90
Q

Give the definition for atypical eating disorders (‘eating disorder not otherwise specified’)

A

Symptoms of an eating disorder such as anorexia nervosa, or bulimia nervosa, which do not meet the precise diagnostic criteria.

91
Q

List the clinical features of anorexia nervosa

A

Restriction of energy intake resulting in low body weight (BMI < 18.5)
Intense fear of gaining weight
Behaviour that interferes with weight gain
* Self-induced purging
* Excessive exercise
* Appetite suppressant medication / diuretics
Psychological disturbances
* Distortion of body image, with a dread of being overweight.
* Low self-esteem and a drive for perfection.
* Over-evaluation of self-worth in terms of body weight and shape.
Denial of seriousness of malnutrition and its impact on physical health
Hormonal disturbance
* Females: amenorrhoea, menstrual irregularities
* Males: loss of libido or potency
* Affects onset of puberty, growth, and physical development in children

92
Q

List the physical signs of anorexia nervosa

A

Dry skin, Hair loss
Bradycardia, Orthostatic hypotension
Hypothermia
Loss of muscle strength
Oedema
Constipation
Fainting, Dizziness
Fatigue

93
Q

List the clinical features of bulimia nervosa

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating occurring on average at least once a week for 3 months
Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain
* Vomiting, Purging
* Fasting
* Excessive exercise
* Laxative, diuretic use
Weight is often within normal limits or above weight range for age.
Psychological features
* Over-evaluation of self-worth in terms of body weight and shape.
* Fear of gaining weight, with a sharply defined weight threshold set by the person.
* Mood disturbance and symptoms of anxiety and tension.
* Persistent preoccupation and craving for food and feelings of guilt and shame about binge eating.
* Self-harm

94
Q

List the physical signs of bullimia nervosa

A

Bloating, fullness
Lethargy
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Abdominal pain
Sore throat (vomiting)
Russell’s sign (knuckle calluses from inducing vomiting)
Dental enamel erosion
Salivary gland enlargement

95
Q

List the differential diagnoses of weight loss

A

Malabsorption
* Coeliac disease
* Inflammatory bowel disease
* Peptic ulcer
Malignancy
Drug or alcohol misuse
Infection
* Tuberculosis
* HIV
* Infectious mononucleosis
Autoimmune diseases
Endocrine disorders
* Hyperthyroidism
* Diabetes mellitus
* Hypercortisolism
* Adrenal insufficiency

96
Q

List the clinical features for refeeding syndrome

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy
Fluid imbalances
Metabolic
* Hypo K+, Mg2+, PO₄³⁻
* Hyperglycaemia
Cardiac arrhythmias, Cardiac failure
Pulmonary oedema

97
Q

Give the definition for personality disorders

A

Manifest as problems in at least two of the:
* Cognitive-perceptual
* Affect regulation
* Interpersonal functioning
* Impulse control

98
Q

List the cluster A personality disorders

A

(odd/eccentric)

Schizoid
* detachment in social relationships
* restricted emotional expression in interpersonal interactions

Schizotypal
* acute discomfort/reduced capacity for close relationships
* cognitive/perceptual distortions
* eccentric behaviour

Paranoid
* Distrust and suspiciousness of others, whose motives are viewed as malevolent
* Suspicious and bears grudges

99
Q

List the cluster B personality disorders

A

(dramatic)

Borderline
* Instability of interpersonal relationships
* Intense anger and affective instability

Histrionic
* Excessive emotionality and attention-seeking

Antisocial
* Disregard/violation of rights of others occurring since age 15
* Impulsivity, deceitfulness, lack of remorse

Narcissistic
* Grandiosity
* Need for admiration
* Lack of empathy

100
Q

List the cluster C personality disorders

A

Avoidant
* Social inhibition
* Feelings of inadequacy
* Hypersensitivity to negative evaluation

Dependent
* Excessive need to be taken care of, submissive and clinging behaviour

Obsessive-compulsive
* Preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental/interpersonal control
* Lack of flexibility, openness, efficiency

101
Q

Give the DSM5 TR criteria for catatonia

A

> 3 symptoms present:
Decreased Behaviours
* Stupor
* Negativism
* Mutism
* Posturing
* Catalepsy
Abnormal Behaviours
* Stereotypy
* Mannerism
* Waxy flexibility
* Echolalia
* Echopraxia
Increased Behaviours
* Agitation
* Grimacing

102
Q

What psychiatric disorders is catatonia often secondary to

A

Bipolar disorder
Depression
Schizophrenia

103
Q

Give the management for catatonia

A

IV 2mg lorazepam challenge

104
Q

List the key elements in opioid dependence

A

Strong desire/compulsion to take opioids
Difficulty in controlling use
Physiological withdrawal state when opioid ceased/reduced.
Tolerance.
Neglect of alternative pleasures/interests.
Persistence despite overtly harmful consequences.

105
Q

List the clinical features of opioid intoxication

A

Pupil constriction
Itching, scratching
Sedation, somnolence
Lower blood pressure
Slower pulse
Hypoventilation

106
Q

List the presentations of acute opioid withdrawal syndrome

A

Watering eyes, rhinorrhoea, yawning, sneezing, cool and clammy skin, dilated pupils, cough.
Abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea.
Tremor, sleep disorder, restlessness, anxiety, irritability, hypertension.

107
Q

List the complications of opioid dependency

A

Death
Overdose
Infection
* S. aureus, Group A streptococci
* HIV
* Hepatitis B, C
* Clostridium infections
* Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
* Tuberculosis
DVT, PE, Superficial thrombophlebitis
Poor nutrition and dental disease
Psychosocial problems

108
Q

Give the management for opioid dependence

A

Opioid substitution therapy
* Methadone
* Buprenorphine - combined sublingual tablet (buprenorphine:naloxone 4:1)

Detoxification
Follows induction and stabilisation on opioid substitution therapy
Dose reduction for
* Methadone - 5mg every 1/2 weeks
* Buprenorphine - 2mg around every 2 weeks, with final reductions of 400micrograms

109
Q

List the strong and weak opioids

A

Strong opioids
Morphine
Buprenorphine
Dipipanone hydrochloride
Diamorphine hydrochloride (heroin)
Alfentanil, fentanyl, remifentanil (intraoperative analgesia)
Methadone hydrochloride
Oxycodone hydrochloride
Pentazocine
Pethidine hydrochloride
Tapentadol
Tramadol hydrochloride

Weak opioids
Codeine phosphate
Dihydrocodeine tartrate
Meptazinol

110
Q

List the drugs that cause anticholinergic poisoning

A

Antihistamines
TCA
Carbamazepine
Phenothiazine

111
Q

List the symptoms of anticholinergic poisoning

A

Tachycardia
Warm and dry skin
Hyperthermia
Loss of sweating
Mydriasis
Urinary retention
Agitation/delirium
Seizures

112
Q

List the drugs that cause cholinergic poisoning

A

Carbamates and organophosphate insecticides
Mushrooms

113
Q

List the symptoms of cholinergic poisoning

A

Miosis
Salivation, Lacrimation
Urination, Diarrhoea, Vomiting
Bronchorrhoea, Bronchospasm
Bradycardia, Hypotension
Muscle weakness

114
Q

List the causes for hallucinogenic poisoning

A

Amphetamines
Cocaine
MDMA

115
Q

List the symptoms of hallucinogenic poisoning

A

Hallucinations
Panic
Seizures
Hypertension
Tachycardia, Tachypnoea

116
Q

List the causes of opioid poisoning

A

Morphine
Heroin
Codeine
Methadone

117
Q

List the symptoms of opioid poisoning

A

Miosis
Sedation
Bradycardia
Hypoventilation
Hypotension

118
Q

List the causes of sedative/hypnotic poisoning

A

Anticonvulsants
Benzodiazepines
Ethanol

119
Q

List the causes of sympathomimetic poisoning

A

Amphetamines
Cocaine
MDMA

120
Q

List the symptoms of sympathomimetic poisoning

A

Tachycardia, Tachypnoea, Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Sweating
Mydriasis
Agitation
Tremor
Seizures

121
Q

List the symptoms of antimalarials (quinine, chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine) toxicity

A

Rapid onset of life-threatening arrhythmias
Intractable convulsions

122
Q

List the neurochemicals involved in sleep

A

Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Norepinephrine (locus coeruleus)
Serotonin (dorsal raphe nucleus)
Histamine (tuberomammillary nucleus of the posterior thalamus)
Hypocretin peptides (dorsolateral hypothalamus)

123
Q

List the five sleep stages

A

Wake
NREM (75%)
* N1
* N2
* N3
REM

124
Q

List the causes of short term insomnia

A

Stressful events
Changes in sleeping patterns

125
Q

List the causes of chronic insomnia

A

Mental health conditions
* Anxiety
* Depression
* Bipolar disorder
Substance misuse
COPD
Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome
Cardiovascular disease
Neurological conditions
* Stroke
* Parkinson’s disease
* Epilepsy
* Migraine
* Traumatic brain injury
Restless legs syndrome
Malignancy
Diabetes mellitus
Musculoskeletal conditions
Chronic pain

126
Q

Give the management for short term insomnia

A

Short course (3-7 days) non-benzodiazepine hypnotic (z-drug)
* Zopiclone 7.5mg once daily at bedtime
* Zolpidem 10mg once daily at bedtime

127
Q

Give the management for long term insomnia

A

First line: cognitive behavioural therapy

128
Q

Give the classic tetrad in narcolepsy

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness
Cataplexy (generalised muscle weakness leading to partial/complete collapse)
Hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations (visual/auditory perceptions on falling asleep or on awakening)
Sleep paralysis

129
Q

Give the secondary causes of narcolepsy

A

CNS disorders
* Head trauma
* Encephalomyelitis
* CNS tumours
* Multiple sclerosis
Myotonic dystrophy
Prader-Willi syndrome
Niemann-Pick type C
Norrie’s disease
Germ cell testicular tumours (paraneoplastic anti-Ma antibodies)

130
Q

Give the pathophysiology for narcolepsy

A

Hypocretin (orexin) deficiency is a clinical marker of narcolepsy type 1
Caused by the loss of hypocretin-producing neurons in the hypothalamus.

131
Q

List the investigations in narcolepsy

A

Polysomnography and multiple sleep latency test
HLA typing - HLA-DQB1*0602 positive
Low CSF hypocretin-1 levels

132
Q

List the management options for excessive daytime sleepiness in narcolepsy

A

Sodium oxybate
Pitolisant
Modafinil
Solriamfetol

133
Q

List the effects of long-term benzodiazepines

A

Cognitive effects
Anxiety
Depression
Agoraphobia
Emotional blunting
Reduced coping skills
Amnesia

134
Q

List the Benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms

A

(mimic anxiety disorder)
Sweating
Insomnia
Headache
Tremor
Nausea
Palpitations
Anxiety
Depression
Panic attacks
Psychosis/seizures (rare)

135
Q

List the Z-drug withdrawal symptoms

A

Insomnia, sleep disturbance
Anxiety, depression
Impaired concentration
Abdominal cramps
Palpitations
Hypersensitivity to physical, visual, auditory stimuli

136
Q

Define functional neurological disorder (conversion disorder)

A

Medically unexplained neurological symptoms that do not fit any clinical syndrome, and have arisen most likely in response to a traumatic experience.

137
Q

Define somatic symptom disorder

A

Repeated presentation with medically unexplained symptoms, and the associated distress and anxiety associated with these.

138
Q

List the typical comorbid diagnoses in functional neurological disorder

A

Mood disorders
Panic disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder
Dissociative disorders
Social or specific phobias
Obsessive-compulsive disorders
Personality disorders

139
Q

List the features in functional neurological disorder

A

Comorbid pain and fatigue
Psychiatric comorbidities
Active psychosocial stressors
Unhelpful behavioural responses
Unhelpful illness beliefs

140
Q

List the features in somatic symptom disorder

A

Vague/inconsistent history of illness
Worries are not alleviated in spite of medical care/reassuring investigation results
Patient describes frequently checking their own body
Patients attribute normal sensations to medical illness.

141
Q

List the physical features of functional limb weakness

A

Hoover’s sign - weakness of hip extension returns temporarily to normal during contralateral hip flexion against resistance.
Hip abductor sign - weakness of unilateral hip abduction returns to normal with attempt at bilateral hip abduction.

142
Q

List the physical features of functional tremor

A

‘Entrainment test’
Watch the other (patient’s left) hand while the patient copies the examiner’s rhythmic pincer movements with their right hand
The functional tremor in the left hand stops during the task

143
Q

List the physical features of functional dystonia

A

Usually presented as a fixed position, usually a clenched fist or inverted ankle (in contrast to other types of dystonia, which are usually mobile).
Functional facial dystonia usually presents with episodic contraction of the platysma or orbicularis.

144
Q

List the physical features of functional visual loss

A

Tubular (as opposed to conical) vision - the visual field at 150cm distance is the same width as at 50cm (expected to increase conically with distance)
‘Spiralling’ on Goldmann perimetry - the longer the test goes on, the more constricted the visual field becomes

145
Q

Define classical conditioning

A

Learning in which a natural response (salivation) is elicited by a conditioned, or learned, stimulus (bell) that previously was presented in conjunction with an unconditioned stimulus (food).
Usually elicits involuntary responses

146
Q

Define operant conditioning

A

Learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a punishment or reward. Usually elicits voluntary responses.

147
Q

Define reinforcement

A

Target behavior (response) is followed by desired reward (positive reinforcement) or removal of aversive stimulus (negative reinforcement).

148
Q

Define punishment

A

Repeated application of aversive stimulus (positive punishment) or removal of desired reward (negative punishment) to extinguish unwanted behavior.

149
Q

Define extinction

A

Discontinuation of reinforcement (positive or negative) eventually eliminates behavior. Can occur in operant or classical conditioning.

150
Q

Define transference

A

Patient projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto physician (eg, psychiatrist is seen as parent).

151
Q

List the mature defences

A

Sublimation - Replacing an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but socially acceptable (vs reaction formation).

Altruism - Alleviating negative feelings via unsolicited generosity, which provides gratification (vs reaction formation).

Suppression - Intentionally withholding an idea or feeling from conscious awareness (vs repression); temporary.

Humour - Lightheartedly expressing uncomfortable feelings to shift the internal focus away from the distress.

152
Q

List the immature defences

A

Acting out
Denial
Displacement
Dissociation
Fixation
Idealisation
Identification
Intellectualisation
Isolation of affect
Passive aggression
Projection
Rationalisation
Reaction formation
Regression
Repression
Splitting

153
Q

What is the most common form of child maltreatment

A

Neglect

154
Q

List the signs of child neglect

A

Poor hygiene
Malnutrition
Withdrawn affect
Impaired social/emotional development
Failure to thrive

155
Q

List the signs of child physical abuse

A

Non-accidental trauma
Injuries often in different stages of healing or in patterns resembling possible implements of injury.
Caregivers may delay seeking medical attention for the child or provide explanations inconsistent with the child’s developmental stage or pattern of injury.

156
Q

List the signs of sexual abuse in children

A

STIs, UTIs, genital, anal, oral trauma
Children often exhibit sexual knowledge/behavior incongruent with their age

157
Q

List the signs of emotional abuse in children

A

Young:
* lack bond with the caregiver
* overly affectionate with less familiar adults.
* aggressive towards children, animals/unusually anxious.

Older
* emotionally labile, prone to angry outbursts.
* distance from caregivers/other children.
* Vague somatic symptoms for which a medical cause cannot be found.

158
Q

Define adjustment disorder

A

Emotional/behavioral symptoms (anxiety, outbursts) that occur <3 months of an identifiable psychosocial stressor (eg, divorce, illness) lasting <6 months once the stressor has ended.

159
Q

Define malingering

A

Symptoms are intentional, motivation is intentional.
Patient consciously fakes, profoundly exaggerates, or claims to have a disorder in order to attain a specific 2° (external) gain (eg, avoiding work, obtaining compensation).
Poor compliance with treatment or follow-up of diagnostic tests.
Complaints cease after gain (vs factitious disorder).

160
Q

Define factitious disorders

A

Symptoms are intentional, motivation is unconscious.
Consciously creates physical/psychological symptoms to assume “sick role”/get medical attention and sympathy (1° [internal] gain).

161
Q

Define factitious disorder imposed on self (Munchausen syndrome)

A

Chronic factitious disorder with predominantly physical signs and symptoms.
History of multiple hospital admissions and willingness to undergo invasive procedures.

162
Q

What population is Münchausen syndrome most common in

A

Females and healthcare workers

163
Q

Define factitious disorder imposed on another (Münchausen syndrome by proxy)

A

Illness in an individual being cared for (most often a child, also seen in disabled or older adults) is directly caused (eg, physically harming a child) or fabricated (eg, lying about a child’s symptoms) by the caregiver.
Form of child/elder abuse.

164
Q

Define sleep terror disorder

A

Periods of inconsolable terror with screaming in the middle of the night.
Occurs during slow-wave/deep (stage N3) non-REM sleep with no memory of the arousal episode, as opposed to nightmares that occur during REM sleep (remembering a scary dream).

165
Q

List the triggers for sleep terror disorder

A

emotional stress
fever
lack of sleep

166
Q

List the stages in the transtheoretical model of change

A

Precontemplation - Denies problem and its consequences.
Contemplation - Acknowledges problem but is ambivalent or unwilling to change.
Preparation/determination - Committed to and planning for behavior change.
Action/willpower - Executes a plan and demonstrates a change in behavior.
Maintenance - New behaviors become sustained, integrate into personal identity and lifestyle.
Relapse - Regression to prior behavior (does not always occur).

167
Q

Give the presentation of acute dystonia

A

Sudden onset of:
* muscle spasms
* stiffness
* oculogyric crisis occurring hours~days after medication use
* can lead to laryngospasm requiring intubation

168
Q

List the causes for acute dystonia

A

Typical antipsychotics
Anticonvulsants

169
Q

Give the treatments for acute dystonia

A

Benztropine
Diphenhydramine

170
Q

List the presentation for lithium toxicity

A

Nausea, vomiting
Slurred speech
Hyperreflexia
Seizures
Ataxia
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

171
Q

Give the treatments for lithium toxicity

A

Discontinue lithium
hydrate aggressively with isotonic sodium chloride
consider hemodialysis

172
Q

Give the psychoactive mechanisms of alcohol

A

GABA-A receptor positive allosteric modulator.
Inhibits glutamate-induced excitation of NMDA.

173
Q

Give the symptom timeline of alcohol withdrawal

A

3-36 hours: tremor, insomnia, diaphoresis, agitation, GI upset
6-48 hours: withdrawal seizures
12-48 hours: alcoholic hallucinations (usually visual)
>48 hours: delirium tremens

174
Q

Give the mechanisms of alcohol withdrawal symptoms

A

Adaptation causes increased glutamate receptors
Symptoms results from unregulated excess excitation

175
Q

Give the mechanisms for barbiturates and benzodiazepines

A

GABA-A receptor positive allosteric modulator

176
Q

Give the symptom for barbiturate toxicity

A

Respiratory depression

177
Q

Give the symptoms for barbiturate withdrawal

A

Delirium
Life threatening cardiovascular collapse

178
Q

Give the symptoms for benzodiazepine withdrawal

A

ataxia
minor respiratory depression

179
Q

Give the treatment for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumazenil

180
Q

Give the symptoms for benzodiazepine withdrawal

A

Seizures
Sleep disturbance
Depression

181
Q

Give the treatment for opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

182
Q

Give the mechanisms for cocaine

A

Blocks dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine reuptake

183
Q

Give the symptoms for cocaine overdose

A

Mydriasis, diaphoresis
Impaired judgment
Hallucinations, paranoia
Angina, sudden cardiac death
Perforated nasal septum

184
Q

List the cocaine withdrawal symptoms

A

Restlessness
Hunger
Severe depression
Sleep disturbance

185
Q

Give the mechanism of nicotine

A

Stimulates central nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.

186
Q

Give the nicotine withdrawal symptoms

A

Irritability
Anxiety
Restlessness
Reduced concentration
Increased appetite / weight

187
Q

List the treatment for nicotine withdrawal

A

Nicotine replacement therapy (patch, gum, lozenge)
Bupropion / varenicline

188
Q

Give the mechanism of Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

A

5HT-2A receptor agonist

189
Q

Give the symptoms for LSD toxicity

A

Perceptual distortion (visual, auditory)
depersonalization
anxiety
paranoia
psychosis
flashbacks
mydriasis

190
Q

Give the symptoms for cannabis toxicity

A

Euphoria
anxiety
paranoid delusions
perception of slowed time
impaired judgment
social withdrawal
increased appetite
dry mouth
conjunctival injection
hallucinations

191
Q

Give the symptoms for cannabis withdrawal

A

Irritability
anxiety
depression
insomnia
restlessness
decreased appetite

192
Q

Give the symptoms of MDMA intoxication

A

Euphoria
hallucinations
disinhibition
hyperactivity
thirst
bruxism
distorted perceptions
mydriasis
life threatening - serotonin syndrome.

193
Q

Give the symptoms for MDMA withdrawal

A

Depression
Anxiety
Fatigue
Change in appetite
Difficulty concentrating

194
Q

List the symptoms for phencyclidine (angel dust) intoxication

A

Violence
nystagmus
impulsivity
psychomotor agitation
tachycardia, hypertension
analgesia
psychosis
delirium
seizures

195
Q

Which antipsychotic are the hyperprolactinemia side effects particularly common in

A

Risperidone

196
Q

List the first line and second line management for alcohol misuse disorder

A

Naltrexone and acamprosate (acamprosate preferred in liver disease / opioid use)
2nd line: disulfiram
Thiamine

197
Q

List the first line and second line management for Alcohol withdrawal syndrome

A

First line: long-acting benzodiazepines
* Chlordiazepoxide
* Diazepam
Lorazepam (preferred in hepatic failure)
Carbamazepine

198
Q

List the 5P formulation of biopsychosocial interventions

A

(1) Presenting problem
(2) Predisposing factors
(3) Precipitating factors
(4) Perpetuating factors
(5) Protective factors

199
Q

Give the triad in PTSD

A

Hypervigilance
Avoidance
Re-experiencing

200
Q

List the symptoms of sedative/hypnotic toxicity

A

Ataxia
sedation
hallucinations
blurred vision
slurred speech
hypotonia
hyporeflexia
hypotension
nystagmus

201
Q

Define tangentiality

A

The act of wandering from a topic without returning to it

202
Q

Define Circumstantiality

A

Individual includes excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, although there are discernible links between topics.

203
Q

Define Clang association

A

Ideas are connected through rhyme or similar sounds

204
Q

Define flight of ideas

A

answering a question relatively immediately but then digressing from this answer.

205
Q

What is flight of ideas associated with

A

Mania

206
Q

Define delusional parasitosis

A

Fixed, false belief that they are infected by bugs

207
Q

Define Capgras syndrome

A

belief that someone significant in their life, such as a spouse or a friend, has been replaced by an identical imposter.

208
Q

Define Fregoli syndrome

A

belief that multiple people are in fact all the same person, who is constantly changing their appearance.

209
Q

What should be given for patients with poor oral compliance to antipsychotics

A

Once monthly IM antipsychotic depot injections

210
Q

Define:
De Clerambault’s
Cotard syndrome
Othello syndrome
Capgras delusion
Charles Bonnet syndrome

A

De Clerambault’s = erotomania (excessive horniness)
Cotard syndrome = believing you’re dead
Othello syndrome = delusional jealousy (usually of a partner)
Capgras delusion = believing a (close) acquaintance has been replaced by an imposter
Charles Bonnet syndrome = recurring hallucinations in those with impaired vision

211
Q

What is the SSRI of choice in children and adolescents

A

Fluoxetine

212
Q

Define Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)

A

Persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, e.g. cancer

213
Q
A

Medicine (8 decks)

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