Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

List the four key developmental milestones and their features

A

Gross motor
* Sits unsupported
* Walks around furniture
* Walks unaided

Fine motor and vision
* Follows a face
* Reaches for toys
* Grasps with palmar grip
* Picks up small objects

Speech, language, and hearing
* Startles to loud noises
* Coos and babbles
* Turns head to sounds
* Says ‘mama’, ‘dada’, etc
* Understands commands
* Says words
* Talks in sentences

Social, emotional, and behavioural
* Smiles
* Feeds him/herself solid food
* Drinks from a cup
* Helps with tasks like dressing
* Toilet-trained

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2
Q

What should be enquired regarding development in older children?

A

Concerns or contact with health or education support services
Toilet training
Temperament, behaviour and sleep
Concerns and progress at nursery/school/college
Languages spoken at home

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3
Q

What should be enquired regarding development in adolescence?

A

STEP

Sexual maturation and growth – Is the intellectual, pubertal and growth stage appropriate for their chronological age?

Thinking – Is the young person using concrete or abstract constructs? Do they have sufficient self-esteem and/or sense of purpose?

Education – What education is the young person attending?

Peers/parents – How connected is the young person to their peers and parents? Who is responsible for the young person’s healthcare decisions?

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4
Q

List the signs of respiratory distress

A

Nasal flaring
Tracheal tug
Recession (retraction)
See-sawing
Grunting
Difficulty with feeds/speech

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5
Q

List the 4S of innocent murmurs

A

aSymptomatic
Soft, blowing, murmur
Systolic only
Left Sternal edge

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6
Q

Describe Gower’s sign and what does it indicate?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Beyond 3 years, the need to turn prone to rise and subsequently to use their hands to walk up the legs to stand

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7
Q

Define developmental delay

A

Used only in the 0–5 age group
Slow acquisition of skills but in the correct order.
May be global (affecting two or more skill areas) or specific (affecting only one skill area).

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8
Q

Define developmental disorder

A

Developmental skills are both delayed and acquired in the incorrect order.d

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9
Q

List the prenatal causes of abnormal development and learning disability

A

Genetic - Chromosome/DNA disorders
* Down syndrome
* Fragile X syndrome
* Chromosomal microdeletions or duplications
Neurocutaneous syndromes
* Tuberous sclerosis
* Neurofibromatosis
* Sturge–Weber
* Ito syndrome
Structural brain problems
* Cerebral dysgenesis (microcephaly, absent corpus callosum, neuronal migration disorder)
* Hydrocephalus
Stroke
Metabolic
* Hypothyroidism
* Phenylketonuria
Teratogenic - Alcohol or drug abuse
Congenital infection
* Rubella
* Cytomegalovirus
* Toxoplasmosis
* HIV
* Zika

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10
Q

Define learning/intellectual disability

A

School-aged children with significantly reduced ability to
* Understand new or complex information
* Learn new skills
* Cope independently with everyday life

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11
Q

List the perinatal causes for abnormal development and learning disability

A

Intraventricular haemorrhage/periventricular leukomalacia
Hypoxic–ischaemic encephalopathy
Metabolic
* Symptomatic hypoglycaemia
* Hyperbilirubinaemia

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12
Q

List the postnatal causes for abnormal development and learning disability

A

Infection
* Meningitis
* Encephalitis
Anoxia
* Suffocation
* Near drowning
* Seizures
Trauma - Traumatic brain injury
Metabolic
* Hypoglycaemia
* Inborn errors of metabolism
Cerebrovascular - stroke
Nutritional deficiency
* Malnutrition
* Vitamin deficiency
Other
* Chronic illness
* Child maltreatment
* Neglect

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13
Q

List the signs of abnormal motor development

A

Abnormal gait, balance
Asymmetry of hand use
Involuntary movements

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14
Q

List the causes of abnormal motor development

A

Cerebral palsy
Spina bifida
Neuropathy
Congenital myopathy
Global developmental delay, may be associated with a syndrome

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15
Q

List the prenatal risk factors for cerebral palsy

A

Multiple gestations.
Chorioamnionitis.
Maternal respiratory / GU infection
Maternal illnesses
* Thyroid disease
* Iodine deficiency
* TORCH (toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex) infections
* Factor V Leiden mutations - neonatal emboli from placental thrombosis.
Teratogen exposure (eg. warfarin).
Foetal genetic and metabolic disorders.
Foetal brain malformations.
Placental abruption.

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16
Q

List the perinatal factors for cerebral palsy

A

Preterm birth
Low birth weight.
Respiratory distress.
Birth asphyxia
Intraventricular haemorrhage.
Hyperbilirubinemia.
Neonatal sepsis
Neonatal encephalopathy.

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17
Q

List the postnatal factors for cerebral palsy

A

Head injuries prior to 3 years (including child abuse).
Meningitis.

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18
Q

List the four types of cerebral palsy

A

Spastic
Dyskinetic
* Chorea
* Athetosis
* Dystonia
Ataxic
Mixed

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19
Q

List the motor features in cerebral palsy

A

Unusual fidgety movements
Abnormalities of movement - asymmetry / paucity
Abnormalities of tone
* Hypotonia
* Spasticity
* Dystonia
Abnormal motor development
* Late head control
* Rolling
* Crawling
* Persistent toe-walking
Feeding difficulties

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20
Q

List the most common delayed motor milestones in children with cerebral palsy

A

Not sitting by 8 months
Not walking by 18 months
Early hand preference before 1 year

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21
Q

List the three core features of autism spectrum disorders

A

Persistent impairments in social communication
Persistent impairments in social interaction
Restricted and repetitive patterns of behaviours, interests and activities including sensory sensitivities

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22
Q

List the risk factors in autism spectrum disorders

A

Chromosomal and genetic anomalies
* Down’s syndrome
* Fragile X syndrome
* Muscular dystrophy
* Neurofibromatosis type 1
* Tuberous sclerosis
Preterm birth
Parental schizophrenia-like psychosis / affective disorder.
Sodium valproate during pregnancy.
Birth complications resulting in CNS malformation or dysfunction eg. cerebral palsy.
Neonatal or epileptic encephalopathy, including infantile spasms.
A learning disability
Neurodevelopmental disorders eg. ADHD
Family history

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23
Q

List the three core criteria for a learning disability diagnosis

A

Lower intellectual ability (IQ <70).
Significant impairment of social or adaptive functioning.
Onset in childhood.

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24
Q

What does learning difficulty include

A

Dyslexia (reading)
Dyspraxia (affecting physical coordination)
Dyscalculia (difficulties in learning and comprehending numbers)
Dysgraphia (difficulties with writing skills)

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25
Q

List the International Classification of Diseases 11th Revision (ICD-11) grading for learning disabilities

A

Mild — IQ 50 ~ 69
Moderate — IQ 35 ~ 49
Severe — IQ 20 ~ 34
Profound — IQ <20

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26
Q

List the risk factors for learning disabilities

A

Chromosomal and genetic anomalies
* Down’s syndrome
* Turner syndrome
* Williams syndrome
* Rett’s syndrome
* Fragile X syndrome
Non-genetic congenital malformations
* Spina bifida
* Hydrocephalus
* Microcephaly
Prenatal exposures
* Alcohol
* Sodium valproate
* Congenital rubella infection
* Zika virus infection
Birth complications
* Hypoxic brain injury
* Cerebral palsy
Very premature birth (<33 weeks gestation)
Childhood illness
* Meningitis
* Encephalitis
* Measles
* Epilepsy
Childhood brain injury
Childhood neglect and/or lack of stimulation in early life.
Neurodevelopmental disorders
* Autism
* ADHD

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27
Q

Give the diagnostic criteria for ADHD

A

Persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development.
The symptoms should:
* Start before 12 years of age
* Occur in two or more settings
* Present for at least 6 months.
* Interfere/reduce the quality of social, academic or occupational functioning.
* Do not occur exclusively during the course of a psychotic disorder and are not better explained by another mental disorder.

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28
Q

List the signs of inattention in ADHD

A

Wandering off task
Lacking persistence
Having difficulty sustaining focus
Being disorganised

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29
Q

List the adult and children signs of hyperactivity in ADHD

A

Children - excessive motor activity when it is not appropriate (such as running around), or by excessive fidgeting, tapping, or talkativeness.

Adult - extreme restlessness or wearing others out with their activity.

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30
Q

List the risk factors for ADHD

A

Genetics
Environmental factors
* Low birth weight
* Maternal smoking, alcohol during pregnancy
* Adverse maternal mental health
Preterm delivery
Epilepsy
Acquired brain injury
Lead exposure
Iron deficiency
Psychosocial adversity

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31
Q

List the psychiatric or neurodevelopmental comorbidities in ADHD

A

Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)
Conduct disorder
Substance use disorder
Mood disorders eg. depression, mania
Autism spectrum disorder
Dyslexia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia

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32
Q

List the first line and alternative medications in ADHD for school-age children and young people

A

First line: Methylphenidate
Alternatives: Lisdexamfetamine, dexamfetamine, and atomoxetine
Melatonin (insomnia)

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33
Q

List the first line and alternative medications in ADHD for adults with ADHD

A

First line: Lisdexamfetamine or methylphenidate
Alternatives: Dexamfetamine or atomoxetine

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34
Q

List the monitoring requirement for ADHD treatment

A

Weight
* Every 3 months in children <10 years
* Every 6 months in >10 years and adults

Height - every 6 months

Blood pressure and heart rate
* Before and after each dose change
* Routinely every 6 months

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35
Q

Give the mechanism of methylphenidate

A

Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor

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36
Q

List the adverse effects of methylphenidate

A

Gastrointestinal - abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, dyspepsia, dry mouth, anorexia.
Cardiovascular - tachycardia, palpitation, arrhythmias, blood pressure changes.
CNS - insomnia, nervousness, asthenia, depression, irritability, aggression, headache, drowsiness, dizziness, dysphemia, movement disorders.
Dermatological - pruritus and rash
Reduced weight gain, Growth restriction
Cough
Nasopharyngitis
Fever
Arthralgia
Alopecia

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37
Q

List the adverse effects of amfetamine

A

Metabolic - decreased appetite with moderately reduced weight and growth during prolonged use
Psychiatric - insomnia, anxiety, aggression, agitation, lability, mood swings, and depression.
CNS - dizziness, dyskinesia, tremor, psychomotor hyperactivity, confusion, irritability, and headache
Cardiovascular - hypertension, tachycardia, QTc interval prolongation, cardiomyopathy, and myocardial infarction
Gastrointestinal - diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting.
Urogenital - sexual dysfunction
Ophthalmological - mydriasis

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38
Q

When should hearing be formally tested in a child?

A

Any child with
* Delayed speech or language
* Learning difficulties
* Behavioural problems

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39
Q

List the causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A

Genetics
Antenatal and perinatal:
* Congenital cytomegalovirus
* Prematurity
* Hyperbilirubinemia
Postnatal:
* Meningitis/encephalitis
* Head injury
* Drugs (aminoglycosides and furosemide)
* Neurodegenerative disorders

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40
Q

List the causes of conductive hearing loss

A

Chronic secretory otitis media
Eustachian tube dysfunction
* Down syndrome
* Cleft palate
* Pierre Robin sequence
* Midfacial hypoplasia
External auditory canal atresia
Perforation of tympanic membrane

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41
Q

List the presentations of visual impairment in children

A

Anophthalmia
Absent red reflex or white reflex (leukocoria)
Not smiling responsively by 6 weeks post-term
Poor visual responses eg. poor eye contact
Roving eye movements
Nystagmus
Squint (strabismus)

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42
Q

What may be absent red reflex or white reflex (leukocoria) be due to

A

Cataract
Corneal abnormalities
Retinoblastoma

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43
Q

List two types of strabismus in children

A

Concomitant (non-paralytic) - due to refractive error in one or both eyes.
Paralytic - paralysis of the orbital muscle nerves (III, IV, VI)

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44
Q

Describe the corneal light reflex test for strabismus

A

Pen torch held at a distance to produce reflections on both corneas simultaneously
Squint is present if the light reflection does not appear in the same position in the two pupils

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45
Q

Describe the cover test for strabismus

A

The child is encouraged to look at a toy/light.
If the fixing eye is covered, the squinting eye will move to take up fixation
The test should be performed with near (33 cm) and distant (at least 6 m) objects

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46
Q

List the causes of severe visual impairment in children

A

Genetic
Cataract
Albinism
Retinal dystrophy
Retinoblastoma

Antenatal and perinatal
Congenital infection
Retinopathy of prematurity
Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy
Cerebral dysgenesis
Optic nerve hypoplasia

Postnatal
Trauma
Infection
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

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47
Q

List the clinical manifestations in Down syndrome

A

Typical craniofacial appearance
Round face and flat nasal bridge, short neck
Upslanted palpebral fissures
Epicanthic folds (a fold of skin running across the inner edge of the palpebral fissure)
Brushfield spots in iris (pigmented spots)
Small mouth and protruding tongue
Small ears
Flat occiput and third fontanelle

Other anomalies
Single palmar creases, incurved and short fifth finger, and wide ‘sandal’ gap between first and second toes
Hypotonia
Congenital heart defects (40%)
Duodenal atresia (or other intestinal atresias)
Hirschsprung disease (<1%)

Later medical problems
Delayed motor milestones
Learning difficulties
Short stature (special growth chart for children with Down Syndrome)
Increased susceptibility to infections
Hearing impairment from secretory otitis media (75%)
Visual impairment from cataracts (15%), squints, myopia (50%)
Increased risk of hypothyroidism (15%)
Increased risk of leukaemia and solid tumours (<1%)
Increased risk of coeliac disease
Acquired hip dislocation and atlantoaxial instability
Obstructive sleep apnoea (50% to 75%)
Epilepsy
Early-onset Alzheimer disease

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48
Q

List the three cytogenetic mechanisms in Down syndrome

A

Meiotic nondisjunction
Robertsonian Translocation (The entire long arms of two different chromosomes become fused to each other, usually 14 and 21)
Mosaicism

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49
Q

List the clinical features of Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

A

Low birthweight
Prominent occiput
Small mouth and chin
Short sternum
Flexed, overlapping fingers
‘Rocker-bottom’ feet
Cardiac and renal malformations

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50
Q

List the clinical features of Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

A

Structural defect of brain and scalp
Small eyes (microphthalmia) and other eye defects
Cleft lip and palate
Polydactyly
Cardiac and renal malformations

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51
Q

List the pathognomonic features in Turner syndrome (45, X)

A

Short stature
Delayed puberty
Neck webbing
High arched palate
Widely spaced nipples with shield chest
Low posterior hairline
Wide carrying angle (cubitus valgus)
Short fourth metacarpal
Low-set / malrotated ears
Peripheral lymphoedema
Madelung deformity
Down-sloping eyes, ptosis, or hooded eyes
Multiple melanocytic naevi
Dystrophic, hyper-convex nails
Scoliosis

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52
Q

List the comorbidities and complications in Turner syndrome (45, X)

A

Congenital heart defects
* Bicuspid aortic valve
* Aortic coarctation
* Dilated ascending aorta
Hypertension
Renal anomalies
* Horseshoe kidney
* Renal agenesis
* Duplicated collecting ducts
Thyroid disorders
* Hypothyroid
* Autoimmune thyroid disease
Liver disorders
* Fatty liver
* >10% elevation of ALT and/or AST
Hearing loss

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53
Q

List the investigations and findings in Turner syndrome (45, X)

A

Antenatal ultrasound:
* Oedema of the neck, hands, or feet
* Cystic hygroma

Bone age - Mild delay (2 years less than chronological age)

Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)
* Elevated FSH
* Very low / undetectable AMH

Pelvic ultrasound
* Immature uterus and small streak ovarian morphology
* Accelerated oocyte death and ovarian degeneration into fibrous streaks

Skeletal survey
* Wrist deformities
* Scoliosis
* Madelung deformity (prominent distal ulna)

Baseline blood tests to screen for: comorbidities/complications
Thyroid function tests
Liver function tests (Turner hepatitis)
Fasting glucose and HbA1c - diabetes
Serum lipids - hypercholesterolemia
IgA level and tissue transglutaminase - coeliac disease
Vitamin D

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54
Q

List the management options for poor growth in Turner syndrome (45, X).
When is the treatment initiated?

A

Recombinant human growth hormone (GH)
* From when drop off the normal growth curve until growth velocity is less than 2 cm/year

Oxandrolone (non-aromatizable oral androgen)
* For girls diagnosed very late with only a small time window for treatment

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55
Q

List the adverse effects from recombinant human growth hormone (GH)

A

Intracranial pressure
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Scoliosis
Pancreatitis

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56
Q

List the management options for puberty delay in Turner syndrome (45, X).
When is the treatment initiated?

A

Oestrogen replacement - transdermal estradiol
* Started when no spontaneous breast development has occurred by the age of 11-12 years and serum FSH is elevated

Cyclic progesterone - Oral micronized progesterone
* The last 10 days of each month to induce menstruation

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57
Q

Give the ovarian hormone replacement therapy approach in Turner syndrome (45, X).

A

Oral / transdermal oestrogen therapy
Combined with continuous / cyclic progestogen therapy
* Prevent endometrial hyperplasia and cancer

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58
Q

Why is oestrogen therapy initiated in Turner syndrome (45, X)?

A

reduce
* osteoporosis
* cardiovascular disease
* urogenital atrophy
improve quality of life

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59
Q

List the clinical features in Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)

A

Infertility
Hypogonadism, small testes
Gynaecomastia in adolescence
Tall stature
Pubertal development may appear normal
Intelligence usually normal, but some have educational and psychological problems

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60
Q

Give the chromosomal deletion in Cri du Chat syndrome and list its clinical features

A

5p microdeletion

High pitched cry in infancy
Hypotonia
Microcephaly
Intellectual disability

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61
Q

Give the chromosomal deletion in DiGeorge syndrome and list its clinical features

A

22q11.2 microdeletion

Abnormal facies
Cleft palate (posterior, may be submucosal)
Cardiac anomalies
Hypoplasia of thymus gland
Immune dysfunction
Intellectual disability
Autism/ADHD

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62
Q

Give the chromosomal deletion in Williams syndrome and list its clinical features

A

7q11 microdeletion including the elastin gene

Characteristic facies
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Mild-to-moderate learning difficulties
Short stature

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63
Q

Give the chromosomal abnormality in Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease type 1A

A

Duplication of the PMP22 gene at 17p12

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64
Q

List four trinucleotide repeat disorders

A

Fragile X syndrome
Myotonic dystrophy
Huntington disease
Friedreich ataxia

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65
Q

List 11 autosomal dominant disorders

A

Achondroplasia
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (mostly)
Huntington disease
Marfan syndrome
Myotonic dystrophy
Neurofibromatosis
Tuberous sclerosis
Noonan syndrome
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Otosclerosis
Polyposis coli

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66
Q

List 12 autosomal recessive disorders

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Cystic fibrosis
Friedreich ataxia
Galactosaemia
Glycogen storage diseases
Hurler syndrome
Oculocutaneous albinism
Phenylketonuria
Sickle cell disease
Tay–Sachs disease
Thalassaemia
Werdnig–Hoffmann disease (SMA1)

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67
Q

List 6 X-linked recessive disorders

A

Colour blindness (red–green)
Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies
Fragile X syndrome
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Haemophilia A and B
Hunter syndrome (mucopolysaccharidosis II)

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68
Q

Give the genetic abnormality in Fragile X syndrome

A

Trinucleotide repeat expansion in the gene FMR1 (Fragile X messenger ribonucleoprotein 1)

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69
Q

List the clinical features in Fragile X syndrome

A

Characteristic facies
* Long face
* Large everted ears
* Prominent mandible
* Broad forehead
Macrocephaly
Moderate–severe learning difficulty (IQ 20–80, mean 50)
Autism, ADHD
Postpubertal macroorchidism
Mitral valve prolapse
Joint laxity, Scoliosis

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70
Q

Give the genetic abnormality in Prader–Willi syndrome

A

Loss of paternally expressed genes on chromosome 15q11-q13 (bands 11 to 13 on the long arm of chromosome 15)

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71
Q

Give the genetic abnormality in Angelman syndrome

A

No maternal (but two paternal) copies of chromosome 15q11–13.
Point mutation within the UBE3A gene

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72
Q

List the clinical features in Prader–Willi syndrome

A

Characteristic facies
Weight gain and hyperphagia
Difficulty feeding
Hypotonia
Hypogonadism
Developmental delay
Faltering growth in infancy
Learning difficulties
Sleep abnormalities
Characteristic behaviours
* Temper tantrums
* Skin picking
Psychiatric disorders
* Psychosis
* Mood disorders

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73
Q

List the physical features in Prader–Willi syndrome

A

Short stature
Small hands and feet
Hypopigmentation
Ocular problems (e.g., strabismus, myopia)
Spinal deformities
Developmental dysplasia of the hip in neonates

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74
Q

List the prenatal signs of Prader–Willi syndrome

A

Polyhydramnios
Decreased foetal movements

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75
Q

Define Stillbirth

A

infant born with no signs of life ≥24 weeks of pregnancy

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76
Q

Define Preterm, Term, and Post-term

A

Preterm – gestation <37 weeks of pregnancy
Term – 37–41 weeks of pregnancy
Post-term – gestation ≥42 weeks of pregnancy

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77
Q

Define low birthweight, very low birthweight, and extremely low birthweight

A

Low birthweight – <2500 g
Very low birthweight – <1500 g
Extremely low birthweight – <1000 g

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78
Q

Define small for gestational age and large for gestational age

A

Small for gestational age – birthweight <10th centile for gestational age
Large for gestational age – birthweight > 90 th centile for gestational age

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79
Q

List the parameters for maternal blood screening

A

Blood group and antibodies – for Rh and other red cell incompatibilities
Hepatitis B
Syphilis
HIV infection
Neural tube defects
Down syndrome (trisomy 21), Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18) and Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

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80
Q

Describe the screening process in Down syndrome (trisomy 21), Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18) and Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

A

Risk estimate calculated from maternal age and maternal and fetoplacental hormones.
Combined with ultrasound screening of nuchal translucency
Confirmed with amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling

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81
Q

List the causes for oligohydramnios

A

Reduced foetal production (dysplastic / absent kidneys, obstructive uropathy)
Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes
Severe intrauterine growth restriction

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82
Q

List the causes for polyhydramnios

A

Maternal diabetes
Structural gastrointestinal abnormalities, e.g. oesophageal alatresia

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83
Q

List the main structural malformations detectable by ultrasound

A

Central nervous system
Neural tube defects – anencephaly, spina bifida, encephalocele
Ventriculomegaly, hydrocephalus
Microcephaly

Intrathoracic
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)
Esophageal atresia

Facial
Cleft lip
Micrognathia

Gastrointestinal
Bowel obstruction, e.g. duodenal atresia
Abdominal wall defects - exomphalos and gastroschisis

Genitourinary
Dysplastic or cystic kidneys
Obstructive disorders of kidneys or urinary tract (hydronephrosis, distended bladder)

Skeletal - Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia and limb reduction deformities

Hydrops - Oedema of the skin, pleural effusions, and ascites

Chromosomal- trisomies (Down, Edwards, Patau)

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84
Q

Define Pre-eclampsia

A

New onset of hypertension (>140 mmHg systolic or >90 mmHg diastolic) after 20 weeks of pregnancy and the coexistence of 1 or more of the following new-onset conditions:
Proteinuria
Renal insufficiency (creatinine >90 micromol/litre, >1.02 mg/100 ml).
Liver involvement (elevated ALT and AST >40 IU/litre] with or without right upper quadrant or epigastric abdominal pain).
Neurological complications
* Eclampsia
* Altered mental status
* Blindness
* Stroke
* Clonus
* Severe headaches
* Persistent visual scotomata.
Haematological complications
* Thrombocytopenia
* Disseminated intravascular coagulation
* Haemolysis.
Uteroplacental dysfunction
* Foetal growth restriction
* Abnormal umbilical artery doppler waveform analysis
* Stillbirth

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85
Q

List three scenarios neonates may be born preterm

A

spontaneous labour with intact membranes (40%–50%)
preterm premature rupture of the membranes (25%–30%)
labour induction or caesarean delivery for maternal or foetal indications (35%–40%)

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86
Q

List the main causes for preterm delivery

A

Idiopathic
Intrauterine stretch
* Multiple gestation
* Polyhydramnios
* Uterine anomaly
Intrauterine infection
* Chorioamnionitis
* Bacterial vaginosis
* Preterm premature rupture of membranes
Intrauterine bleeding
* Abruption
* Antepartum haemorrhage
Endocrine maturation - premature onset of labour
Cervical weakness
Fetus
* IUGR
* Congenital anomalies
* Chromosomal anomalies
Maternal medical conditions
* Pre-eclampsia, hypertension
* Chronic medical conditions
* Urinary tract infection
* Asymptomatic bacteriuria
* Malaria
* Psychological stress

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87
Q

List the investigations to predict premature labour

A

Cervical length - cervical lengths <2 cm are associated with higher risks of delivery
Foetal fibronectin - detected in cervico-vaginal secretions
Insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 (IGFBP-1) test
Placental alpha microglobulin-1 (PAMG-1) test

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88
Q

List the management approaches in preterm delivery

A

Antenatal corticosteroids - reduce rates of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular haemorrhage and neonatal death

Antibiotics - reduce risk of chorioamnionitis and neonatal infection for preterm premature rupture of the membranes

Progesterone - prophylactically to reduce risk of preterm birth in those at high risk of preterm labour

Tocolysis - suppress uterine contractions to suppress labour and allow completion of antenatal steroids and transfer to a centre with the appropriate neonatal services.

Magnesium sulphate - reduces the incidence of cerebral palsy

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89
Q

List the foetal problems in maternal diabetes

A

Congenital malformations
* Cardiac malformations
* Sacral agenesis (caudal regression syndrome)
* Hypoplastic left colon
IUGR
Macrosomia

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90
Q

List the complications of macrosomia

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion
Birth asphyxia
Shoulder dystocia
Brachial plexus injury

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91
Q

Give the pathophysiology of macrosomia in maternal diabetes

A

Maternal hyperglycemia causes foetal hyperglycemia
Foetus responds with increased secretion of insulin as insulin does not cross the placenta
Insulin promotes growth by increasing both cell number and size

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92
Q

List the neonatal problems in maternal diabetes

A

Hypoglycemia (foetal hyperinsulinism)
Respiratory distress syndrome (delayed surfactant maturation)
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Polycythaemia

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93
Q

List the signs of foetal hyperthyroidism

A

Foetal tachycardia
Foetal goitre on ultrasound

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94
Q

List the signs of neonatal hyperthyroidism

A

Tachycardia
Heart failure
Vomiting, Diarrhoea
Poor weight gain (despite good intake)
Jitteriness
Goitre
Exophthalmos

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95
Q

Give the effect of maternal SSRI use on the foetus

A

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

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96
Q

Give the effect of maternal radioactive iodine use on the foetus

A

Hypothyroidism

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97
Q

Give the effect of maternal valproate/carbamazepine/hydantoin use on the foetus

A

Midfacial hypoplasia
CNS, limb and cardiac malformations
Developmental delay

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98
Q

Give the effect of maternal lithium use on the foetus

A

Congenital heart disease

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99
Q

Give the effect of maternal tetracycline use on the foetus

A

Enamel hypoplasia of the teeth
Yellow-brown staining

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100
Q

Give the effect of maternal thalidomide use on the foetus

A

Limb shortening (phocomelia)

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101
Q

Give the effect of maternal Vitamin A and retinoids use on the foetus

A

Increased spontaneous abortions
Abnormal facies

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102
Q

Give the effect of maternal Warfarin use on the foetus

A

Interferes with cartilage formation (nasal hypoplasia and epiphyseal stippling)
Ocular, skeletal abnormalities

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103
Q

Give the classification of foetal alcohol spectrum disorder

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
Partial FAS
Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder
Alcohol-related birth defects
FASD with and without sentinel facial features

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104
Q

Give the presentation of foetal alcohol spectrum disorder

A

Delayed developmental milestones
Infants: poor feeding, growth retardation, irritability, developmental delay
Children: growth retardation, problems with language, speech, hearing, vision, learning, behaviour, attention, and academic achievement
Adolescents: drug and alcohol abuse, poor educational performance, poor social skills, contact with juvenile justice or incarceration

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105
Q

List the facial dysmorphologies in FASD

A

Short palpebral fissure
Thin upper lip
Smooth philtrum
Flat midface
Large ears with ‘railroad-track’ ear abnormality
Epicanthic folds, Hypertelorism (wide-spaced eyes), Ptosis, Microphthalmia
Micrognathia (undersized jaw)
Cleft lip and/or palate

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106
Q

List the musculoskeletal anomalies in FASD

A

Hypoplastic nails
Shortened fifth fingers
Radioulnar synostosis
Flexion contractures
Camptodactyly
Clinodactyly of the fifth finger
Pectus excavatum or carinatum
Klippel-Feil syndrome
Hemivertebrae
Scoliosis
Hockey-stick palmar creases

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107
Q

List the renal anomalies in FASD

A

Aplastic, dysplastic, or hypoplastic kidneys
Ureteral duplication
Hydronephrosis
Horseshoe kidneys

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108
Q

List the ocular anomalies in FASD

A

Strabismus
Retinal vascular anomalies
Refractive problems

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109
Q

List the ear anomalies in FASD

A

Conductive and/or sensorineural hearing loss
Structural ear abnormalities (e.g., ‘railroad-track’ ear)

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110
Q

List six common congenital infections

A

Rubella
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Toxoplasma gondii
Parvovirus
Varicella zoster
Syphilis

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111
Q

List the clinical features of congenital Rubella infections

A

CataRacts
Congenital heart disease
Deafness

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112
Q

List the clinical features of congenital CMV infections

A

HepatosplenoMegaly
Petechiae
Neurodevelopmental disabilities
* Sensorineural hearing loss
* Cerebral palsy
* Epilepsy
* Cognitive impairment

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113
Q

List the clinical features of congenital Toxoplasmosis infections

A

Retinopathy, acute fundal chorioretinitis
Cerebral calcification
Hydrocephalus

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114
Q

List the clinical features of congenital parvovirus B19 infections

A

Foetal anaemia (aplastic anaemia), causing
* foetal hydrops (oedema and ascites from heart failure)
* intrauterine death

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115
Q

List the clinical features of congenital Varicella zoster infections

A

(Foetal varicella syndrome)
Severe scarring of the skin
Ocular and neurological damage
Digital dysplasia

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116
Q

When is Apgar score measured?

A

at 1 minute and 5 minutes after delivery

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117
Q

List the components in Apgar score

A

Heart rate
2: >100 BPM
1: <100 BPM
0: absent

Respiratory effort
2: regular, strong cry
1: grasping / irregular
0: absent

Muscle tone
2: well flexed, active
1: some flexion of limbs
0: flaccid

Reflex irritability
2: cry, cough
1: grimace
0: none

Colour
2: pink
1: body pink, extremities blue
0: pale/blue

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118
Q

What does the Newborn blood spot screening screen for?

A

Congenital hypothyroidism
Haemoglobinopathies (sickle cell and thalassaemia)
Cystic fibrosis
Six inherited metabolic diseases:
* phenylketonuria
* MCAD (medium-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase deficiency)
* maple syrup urine disease
* isovaleric acidaemia
* glutaric aciduria type 1
* homocystinuria

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119
Q

List the Potential medical problems in a preterm infant

A

Need for resuscitation and stabilisation at birth
Respiratory:
* respiratory distress syndrome
* pneumothorax
* apnoea and bradycardia
* Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
Hypotension
Patent ductus arteriosus
Anaemia of prematurity
Retinopathy of prematurity
Temperature control
Metabolic:
* hypoglycaemia
* hypocalcaemia
* electrolyte imbalance
* osteopenia of prematurity
Difficulty establishing feeding
Extra-uterine growth impairment
Intraventricular haemorrhage/periventricular leukomalacia
Jaundice
Necrotizing enterocolitis
Inguinal hernias
Infection

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120
Q

Give the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome

A

Surfactant lowers surface tension
Surfactant deficiency leads to widespread alveolar collapse and inadequate gas exchange.

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121
Q

Where is surfactant excreted?

A

type II pneumocytes of the alveolar epithelium

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122
Q

List the clinical signs in respiratory distress syndrome

A

Tachypnoea >60 breaths/minute
Increased work of breathing - chest wall recession and nasal flaring
Expiratory grunting
Cyanosis

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123
Q

Give the X ray sign in respiratory distress syndrome

A

Diffuse granular or ‘ground glass’ appearance of the lungs

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124
Q

List the managements for respiratory distress syndrome

A

Antenatal glucocorticoids to stimulate foetal surfactant production
Supplemental oxygen
Non-invasive respiratory support
* CPAP
* High-flow nasal cannula therapy
Surfactant therapy
Mechanical ventilation

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125
Q

Define Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Infants who still have an oxygen requirement at a corrected gestational age of 36 weeks

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126
Q

List the causes of Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Delay in lung maturation
Infection
Oxygen toxicity
Pressure and volume trauma from artificial ventilation

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127
Q

List the X ray signs of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Widespread areas of opacification
Cystic changes
Fibrosis, lung collapse

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128
Q

Give the management in bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Corticosteroid therapy

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129
Q

List the complications of hypothermia in a preterm infant

A

Hypoxia
Hypoglycemia
Failure to gain weight

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130
Q

Why are preterm infants particularly vulnerable to hypothermia

A

Large surface area relative to mass
Skin is thin and heat permeable
Little subcutaneous fat for insulation
Nursed naked

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131
Q

List four ways of preventing heat loss in newborn infants

A

Convection
* Raise temperature of ambient air in incubator
* Clothe, including covering head
* Avoid draughts.
Radiation
* Cover baby
* Double walls for incubators.
Evaporation
* Dry and wrap at birth
* If extremely preterm, place baby’s body directly into plastic bag at birth without drying
* Humidify incubator
Conduction
* Nurse on a heated mattress

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132
Q

Define Necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Ischaemic injury and bacterial invasion of the bowel wall and altered gut microbiome

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133
Q

Give one risk factor for Necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Intrauterine growth restriction

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134
Q

List the early signs of necrotising enterocolitis

A

Feed intolerance
Vomiting, maybe bile stained
Distended abdomen
Fresh blood in stool
Shock, requiring mechanical ventilation
May progress to bowel perforation

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135
Q

List the X ray signs of necrotising enterocolitis

A

Distended loops of bowel
Thickening of the bowel wall with intramural gas
Gas in portal venous tract
Air under diaphragm from bowel perforation

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136
Q

List the management for necrotising enterocolitis

A

Stop oral feeding
Broad-spectrum antibiotics

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137
Q

List the complications for necrotising enterocolitis

A

Bowel strictures
Malabsorption if extensive bowel resection
Poor neurodevelopmental outcomes

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138
Q

List the reasons of physiological jaundice

A

marked physiological release of haemoglobin from the breakdown of red cells because of the high haemoglobin concentration at birth
the red cell lifespan of newborn infants (70 days) is markedly shorter than that of adults (120 days)
hepatic bilirubin metabolism is less efficient in the first few days of life

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139
Q

Give the inheritance of Crigler-Najjar syndrome

A

autosomal recessive

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139
Q

List the causes of neonatal jaundice within 24 hours

A

Rh (rhesus) incompatibility
ABO incompatibility
G6PD deficiency
Spherocytosis, pyruvate kinase deficiency
Congenital infection (Parvovirus B19)

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140
Q

List the causes of neonatal jaundice between 24 hours to 2 weeks of age

A

Physiological jaundice
Breast milk jaundice
Infection, e.g. urinary tract infection
Haemolysis, e.g. G6PD deficiency, ABO incompatibility
Bruising
Polycythaemia
Crigler-Najjar syndrome (autosomal recessive)

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141
Q

List the causes of jaundice more than 2 weeks of age

A

Unconjugated:
* Physiological or breast milk jaundice
* Urinary tract infection
* Hypothyroidism
* Haemolytic anaemia, e.g. G6PD deficiency
* High gastrointestinal obstruction, e.g. pyloric stenosis
Conjugated (>25 μmol/l):
* Bile duct obstruction
* Neonatal hepatitis

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142
Q

Define kernicterus

A

encephalopathy from the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei.

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143
Q

List the acute manifestations of kernicterus

A

Lethargy
Poor feeding

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144
Q

List the severe signs of kernicterus

A

Irritability
Opisthotonos
Seizures
Coma

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145
Q

List the long term complications of kernicterus

A

Choreoathetoid cerebral palsy (damage to basal ganglia)
Learning difficulties
Sensorineural hearing loss

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146
Q

List the classification of Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding

A

Early VKDB <24 hours of birth
Classic VKDB 1~7 days
Late VKDB week 2~12

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147
Q

List the risk factors for Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding

A

Early form - Maternal drugs
* Isoniazid
* Rifampicin
* Anticoagulants
* Anticonvulsants
Classic form
* Idiopathic
* Low placental transfer of vitamin K
* Low concentration in breast milk
* Lack of gastrointestinal flora in the newborn gut
* Poor oral intake
Preterm infants
* Delayed feeding and delayed colonisation of gastrointestinal system with vitamin K producing microflora
* Immature hepatic and haemostatic function
Late form
* Warm environmental temperatures
* Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
* Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins - diarrhoea, coeliac disease or cystic fibrosis

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148
Q

List the symptoms in early VKDB

A

Bleeding from the scalp monitor site
Cephalhematoma
Intracranial bleeding after a traumatic delivery - irritability and convulsions
Intrathoracic bleeding - blood-stained sputum, with or without respiratory distress
Intra-abdominal bleeding - melaena
Tachycardia - exsanguination

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149
Q

List the symptoms of classic VKDB

A

Gastrointestinal bleeding
Bleeding from the skin and mucous membranes
Prolonged bleeding following circumcision.
Bleeding from the umbilical stump

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150
Q

List the symptoms of late VKDB

A

Typically intracranial haemorrhage

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151
Q

Give the management in VKDB

A

Subcutaneous vitamin K supplement
Fresh frozen plasma in severe bleeding / intracranial haemorrhage

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152
Q

List the causes of respiratory distress in term infants

A

Pulmonary causes
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (common)
Meconium aspiration
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Respiratory distress syndrome
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Diaphragmatic hernia
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Milk aspiration
Airways obstruction, e.g. choanal atresia
Pulmonary haemorrhage

Non-pulmonary
Congenital heart disease
Hypoxic–ischaemic/neonatal encephalopathy
Severe anaemia
Metabolic acidosis
Sepsis

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153
Q

List the causes for Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

A

Hypoxic–ischaemic encephalopathy
Meconium aspiration
Septicaemia
Respiratory distress syndrome
Oligohydramnios
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Maternal diabetes
In utero closure of ductus arteriosus
Small and large for gestational age status
Congenital anomalies
* Transposition of great arteries
* Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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154
Q

List the maternal risk factors for Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

A

Obesity
Diabetes
Pre-eclampsia
Chorioamnionitis
Smoking
SSRI and NSAID use

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155
Q

List the managements for Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

A

Mechanical ventilation
Inhaled nitric oxide
Sildenafil

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156
Q

List the clinical features of neonatal meningitis

A

Tense / bulging fontanelle
Opisthotonos

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157
Q

List the clinical features of neonatal sepsis

A

Respiratory distress
Fever, temperature instability, hypothermia
Poor feeding
Vomiting
Apnoea and bradycardia
Abdominal distension
Jaundice
Neutropenia
Hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia
Shock
Irritability
Seizures
Lethargy, drowsiness

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157
Q

List the risk factors for Group B streptococcal (S. agalactiae) infection

A

Preterm prolonged rupture of the membranes
Prolonged (>18 hours) or prelabour rupture of the membranes
Intrapartum fever >38°C
Chorioamnionitis
Previous child with GBS infection
GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy

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158
Q

How may L. monocytogenes be transmitted to the mother?

A

Unpasteurised milk
Soft cheese
Undercooked poultry

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159
Q

List the complications of maternal L. monocytogenes infection

A

Spontaneous abortion
Preterm delivery
Foetal/neonatal sepsis

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160
Q

List the characteristic features for L. monocytogenes infection

A

Meconium staining of the amniotic liquor in preterm infants
Widespread rash
Septicaemia
Pneumonia
Meningitis

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161
Q

List the causes for HIE

A

Failure of gas exchange across the placenta
* excessive / prolonged uterine contractions
* placental abruption
* ruptured uterus
Cord compression
* shoulder dystocia
* cord prolapse
Inadequate maternal placental perfusion – maternal hypo/hypertension
Compromised foetus
* intrauterine growth restriction
* anaemia
Failure of cardiorespiratory adaptation at birth – failure to breathe

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162
Q

List the clinical features and grading in HIE

A

Mild (grade 1)
Irritable
Responds excessively to stimulation
May have staring of the eyes
Hyperventilation

Moderate (grade 2)
Marked abnormalities of movement
Hypotonic
Cannot feed as cannot suck
Brief apnoeas
Seizures

Severe (grade 3)
No normal spontaneous movements or response to pain
Hypotonic
Prolonged, refractory seizures
Multi-organ failure

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163
Q

When may brachial nerve palsy occur in?

A

Breech deliveries
Shoulder dystocia

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164
Q

Which nerve roots are injured in Erb palsy?

A

C5/6

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165
Q

Give the clinical sign in Erb palsy

A

‘waiter’s tip hand’.
The arm hangs limply from the shoulder with internal rotation of the forearm plus wrist and finger flexion.

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166
Q

Give the clinical sign in phrenic nerve palsy

A

Elevated diaphragm

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167
Q

List the causes of neonatal seizures

A

Hypoxic–ischaemic encephalopathy
Intracranial haemorrhage
Cerebral anomalies
Infection
* Septicaemia
* Meningitis
* Encephalitis
* Congenital infection
Metabolic:
* Hypoglycaemia
* Hypocalcaemia
* Hyponatraemia/hypernatraemia
* Inborn errors of metabolism
Drugs: neonatal abstinence syndrome
Kernicterus
Other
* Pyridoxine dependency
* Genetic epilepsy syndrome

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168
Q

List the investigations in neonatal seizures

A

Continuous single-channel EEG (amplitude-integrated EEG)
Cerebral ultrasound - identify haemorrhage / cerebral anomaly
MRI - cerebral ischaemic lesions

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169
Q

Where does the Neonatal arterial ischaemic stroke most often affect?

A

MCA

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170
Q

List the complications of Pierre Robin sequence

A

Difficulty feeding
Cyanotic episodes (obstruction of the upper airways as the tongue falls back)
Growth faltering

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171
Q

Give the presentation of perinatal stroke

A

Seizures at 12~48 hours

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172
Q

What is oesophageal atresia associated with?

A

89% atresia with tracheo-oesophageal fistula
10% atresia without fistula
<1% H-type fistula without atresia

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173
Q

List the pre-natal signs of oesophageal atresia

A

Polyhydramnios during pregnancy
Absent stomach bubble on antenatal ultrasound screening

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174
Q

List the presentation of oesophageal atresia

A

Persistent salivation and drooling from the mouth
Cough and choke when fed
Cyanotic episodes
Aspiration

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175
Q

List the complications of oesophageal atresia

A

gastro-oesophageal reflux
chronic cough
esophageal dilation

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176
Q

List the clinical features in small bowel obstruction

A

Persistent vomiting - Bile stained unless obstruction is above the ampulla of Vater
Abdominal distention

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177
Q

List the causes for small bowel obstruction

A

Duodenal atresia / stenosis
* ⅓ have Down syndrome
Atresia / stenosis of the jejunum or ileum
Malrotation with volvulus
Meconium ileus (cystic fibrosis)

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178
Q

List the causes for large bowel obstruction

A

Meconium plug
Hirschsprung disease
Anorectal malformation

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179
Q

List the items in VACTERL

A

Vertebral
Anorectal
Cardiac
Tracheo-oesophageal
Renal
Radial limb anomalies

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180
Q

List the surgical causes of acute abdominal pain

A

Acute appendicitis
Intussusception
Malrotation and volvulus
Peritonitis
Inflamed Meckel diverticulum
Inguinal hernia
Trauma

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181
Q

List the medical causes of acute abdominal pain

A

Constipation
Gastroenteritis
Urinary tract
* UTI
* Acute pyelonephritis
* Hydronephrosis
* Renal calculus
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Sickle cell disease
Hepatitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Pancreatitis
Functional abdominal pain disorders
Gynaecological in pubertal females
Psychological
Lead poisoning
Acute porphyria
Unknown

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182
Q

List the extra-abdominal causes of acute abdominal pain

A

URTI
Lower lobe pneumonia
Torsion of the testis
Hip and spine

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183
Q

List the clinical features in acute appendicitis

A

Anorexia
Vomiting
Fever
Abdominal pain
* Initially central and colicky, then localises to the right iliac fossa
* Aggravated by movement
Persistent tenderness with guarding in the right iliac fossa (McBurney’s point)

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184
Q

Give the aetiology of intussusception

A

hyperplasia of Peyer’s patches and lymphoid tissue act as the lead point

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185
Q

Give the most common anatomical location of intussusception

A

ileocaecal valve

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186
Q

What age does intussusception most commonly occur

A

Most commonly occurs in infants aged 3-12 months, with a peak at the age of approximately 9 months.

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187
Q

List the causes of Intussusception in older children and adults

A

(Pathological lead point)
Luminal polyps
Malignant tumours
Benign mass lesions
* Lipomata
* Meckel’s diverticulum
* Henoch-Schonlein purpura
* Enteric duplication cysts
Rotavirus vaccine

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188
Q

Give the pathophysiology of intussusception

A

Mesentery is dragged alongside the proximal bowel wall into the distal lumen resulting in obstruction of venous return, causes:
* Oedema
* Mucosal bleeding
* Increased pressure
If arterial flow becomes compromised, causes
* Ischaemia
* Necrosis
* Perforation

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189
Q

List the presentations in intussusception

A

Colicky abdominal pain
Flexing of the legs
Fever
Lethargy
Vomiting
Redcurrant jelly stool or rectal bleeding
Sausage shaped mass - often palpable in the abdomen
Abdominal distension, shock

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190
Q

List the ultrasound signs in intussusception

A

3 to 5 cm mass deep to the right-sided abdominal wall
Doughnut sign

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191
Q

List the Plain-film abdominal x-ray signs in intussusception

A

Soft tissue mass
Empty right lower quadrant
Air in dislocated appendix
Signs of small-bowel obstruction

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192
Q

List the management in intussusception

A

Fluid resuscitation
Antibiotics
Contrast enema reduction

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193
Q

List the contraindications for contrast enema reduction in intussusception

A

Peritonitis
Perforation
Toxic colitis
Hypovolemic shock
Prolonged symptoms
Intestinal ischaemia / trapped fluid
Bowel obstruction

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194
Q

List the rule of 2s in Meckel diverticulum

A

2% prevalence
2:1 male:female ratio for symptomatic presentations
Location most commonly 2 feet (60 cm) proximal to ileocaecal valve in adults
2 types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic)
Commonly 2 inches (5 cm) long
½ of those symptomatic are <2 age

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195
Q

Give the embryology of Meckel diverticulum

A

Failure of obliteration of the vitelline duct.
In the 3-week-old embryo, the yolk sac communicates with the gut through the vitelline duct, which receives its blood supply from paired vitelline arteries.
During week 8, the duct is normally obliterated when the placenta replaces the yolk sac as the source of foetal nutrition.
The left vitelline artery usually involutes and the right one forms the superior mesenteric artery.

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196
Q

List the presentations of Meckel diverticulum

A

Acute, episodic, painless GI bleeding
Small bowel obstruction
* Obstipation, crampy abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
* Palpable abdominal mass (intussusception)
Meckel’s diverticulitis
* Abdominal pain in the periumbilical area that radiates to the right lower quadrant
* Inflammation, necrosis, and perforation

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197
Q

List the investigations for Meckel diverticulum presenting with bleeding

A

FBC
Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan (Meckel’s scan)
Mesenteric angiography
Surgical abdominal exploration

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198
Q

List the investigations for Meckel diverticulum presenting with obstruction

A

CT scan
Ultrasound
Contrast enema if intussusception
Urgent abdominal exploration if intestinal ischaemia / perforation

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199
Q

List the investigations for Meckel diverticulum presenting with inflammation

A

CT scan

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200
Q

Give the aetiology of Intestinal malrotation

A

Lack of intestinal fixation to the retro-peritoneum and a narrow midgut mesenteric base that predisposes to a twisting of the small bowel
Predisposes to a risk of midgut volvulus.

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201
Q

What may Intestinal malrotation present with Obstruction with ischaemia

A

Acutely ill with severe abdominal pain
Sudden onset bilious vomiting
Tachycardia, Tachypnoea
Abdominal tenderness
Acidosis
Signs of peritoneal catastrophe (rebound and guarding)

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202
Q

What may Intestinal malrotation present with Obstruction without ischaemia

A

Bilious vomiting
Crampy abdominal pain in waves
Non-tender abdomen
Non-distended abdomen
No severe physiological perturbation

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203
Q

What may Intestinal malrotation present with Intermittent or partial volvulus or obstructing Ladd’s bands

A

Intermittent vomiting
Intermittent abdominal pain (typically post-prandial)
Weight loss
No signs of acute illness

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204
Q

List the investigations for intestinal malrotation

A

Upper GI contrast series
CT abdomen with contrast
Abdominal plain x-rays
FBC

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205
Q

Describe the Ladd’s procedure

A

Detorsion of the volvulus
Lysis of Ladd’s bands
Separation of the duodenum and caecum by broadening the mesenteric base
Once the duodenum and caecum are separated, the small bowel is placed in the right peritoneal cavity and the colon on the left.

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206
Q

List the causes of recurrent abdominal pain

A

Gastrointestinal
* Constipation
* Peptic ulceration/gastritis
* Eosinophilic oesophagitis
* Inflammatory bowel disease
* Malrotation
Heapatobiliary/pancreatic
* Hepatitis
* Gall stones
* Pancreatitis
Urinary tract
* Urinary tract infection
* Pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction
* Renal calculi
Gynaecological
* Dysmenorrhoea
* Ovarian cysts
* Pelvic inflammatory disease
Functional abdominal pain disorders
* Irritable bowel syndrome
* Abdominal migraine
* Functional dyspepsia
* Functional abdominal pain

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207
Q

List the red flag symptoms of recurrent abdominal pain suggesting organic disease

A

Persistent pain away from the umbilicus
Persistent vomiting
Family history of inflammatory bowel disease, coeliac disease, or peptic ulcer disease
Epigastric pain at night
Haematemesis – duodenal ulcer
Diarrhoea, weight loss, growth faltering, blood in stool – inflammatory bowel disease
Dysphagia – eosinophilic oesophagitis
Dysuria, secondary enuresis – urinary tract infection
Night time waking
Gastrointestinal blood loss
Peri-anal disease
Delayed puberty

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208
Q

List the screening tests in recurrent abdominal pain to identify organic disorders

A

FBC with differential
ESR, CRP for inflammation
Coeliac serology
Amylase – for pancreatitis
Urea and electrolytes
Liver function tests
Ultrasound abdomen
Thyroid function tests
Urinalysis / urine culture – urinary tract infection / haematuria from renal calculi
Faecal calprotectin – inflammatory bowel disease

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209
Q

List the entities of Functional abdominal pain disorders

A

Irritable bowel syndrome
Abdominal migraine
Functional dyspepsia
Functional abdominal pain

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210
Q

List the contributing factors in Functional abdominal pain disorders

A

Genetic predisposition
Sensitising psychosocial events
* Depression
* Anxiety
* Family stress
* Coping style
* Secondary gains
* Maltreatment history
* Stress
Sensitising medical events
* Distension (infection, allergies)
* Inflammation
* Altered gut microbiome
* Motility disorder

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211
Q

List the presentation of Irritable bowel syndrome

A

Periumbilical pain related to
* Defecation
* Alteration in stool frequency
* Change in appearing of stool (diarrhoea / constipation)

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212
Q

Give the management in Irritable bowel syndrome

A

low FODMAP diets – Fermentable Oligo-saccharides, Di-saccharides, Mono-saccharides And Polyols

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213
Q

List the presentations in Abdominal migraine

A

Paroxysms of intense, acute periumbilical, midline or diffuse abdominal pain.
Lasts at least an hour, interferes with normal activities.
Anorexia
Nausea and vomiting
Headaches, Photophobia
Pallor
Personal / family history of migraine
Similar triggers to migraine - Stress, Fatigue, Travel
Similar relieving factors - Rest and sleep

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214
Q

List the presentations of Functional dyspepsia

A

Postprandial fullness or early satiety
Abdominal bloating
Nausea, excessive belching
Severe pain, burning in epigastric area
Pain not relieved by defecation

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215
Q

Give the management in functional dyspepsia

A

Histamine receptor antagonists
Proton pump inhibitors

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216
Q

List the causes of vomiting in infants

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Feeding problems
Infection
* Gastroenteritis
* Respiratory tract/otitis media
* Whooping cough (pertussis)
* Urinary tract
* Meningitis
Food/milk allergy / intolerance
Intestina obstruction
* Pyloric stenosis
* Duodenal atresia
* Intussusception
* Malrotation
* Volvulus
* Duplication cysts
* Strangulated inguinal hernia
* Hirschsprung disease
Inborn errors of metabolism
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Renal failure

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217
Q

List the causes of vomiting in preschool children

A

Gastroenteritis
Infection
* Respiratory tract/otitis media
* Urinary tract
* Meningitis
* Whooping cough (pertussis)
Appendicitis
Intestinal obstruction
* Intussusception
* Malrotation
* Volvulus
* Adhesions
* Foreign body
Raised ICP
Coeliac disease
Eosinophilic oesophagi’s
Renal failure
IEM
Testicular torsion

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218
Q

List the causes of vomiting in school age and adolescents

A

Gastroenteritis
Infection
* Pyelonephritis
* Sepsis
* Meningitis
Peptic ulceration
Appendicitis
Migraine
Raised ICP
Coeliac disease
Eosinophilic oesophagi’s
Renal failure
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Alcohol/drug
Cyclical vomiting syndrome
Bulimia/anorexia nervosa
Pregnancy
Testicular torsion

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219
Q

List the causes for bile-stained vomit

A

Intestinal obstruction

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220
Q

List the causes for Haematemesis in children

A

Oral/nasal bleeding
Oesophagitis
Oesophageal variceal bleeding
Peptic ulceration

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221
Q

Give the cause of Projectile vomiting

A

Pyloric stenosis

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222
Q

List the cause of Vomiting at the end of paroxysmal coughing

A

Whooping cough (pertussis)

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223
Q

List the causes of vomiting with hepatosplenomegaly

A

Chronic liver disease
Inborn error of metabolism

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224
Q

List the causes of vomiting with abdominal distension

A

Intestinal obstruction
Ascites

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225
Q

List the causes of vomiting with blood in the stool

A

Intussusception
Bacterial gastroenteritis
Inflammatory bowel disease

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226
Q

List the causes of vomiting with severe dehydration/shock

A

Severe gastroenteritis
Systemic infection (urinary tract infection, meningitis)
Diabetic ketoacidosis

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227
Q

List the causes of vomiting with bulging fontanelle / seizures

A

Raised intracranial pressure
Meningitis

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228
Q

List the causes of vomiting with Faltering growth

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Coeliac disease
Chronic gastrointestinal conditions

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229
Q

List the complications of Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease in children

A

Faltering growth from severe vomiting
Dystonic neck posturing (Sandifer syndrome)
Oesophagitis
* Haematemesis
* Discomfort on feeding or heartburn
* Iron-deficiency anaemia
Recurrent pulmonary aspiration
* Recurrent pneumonia
* Cough / wheeze
* Apnoea in preterm infants

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230
Q

What is Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease commonly associated with

A

Cerebral palsy / other neurodevelopmental disorders
Preterm infants
Following surgery for esophageal atresia or diaphragmatic hernia
Obesity
Hiatus hernia

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231
Q

List the clinical features of pyloric stenosis

A

Non-bilious vomiting (eventually projectile)
* Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
* Hyponatraemia
Feeds normally after vomiting until dehydration leads to loss of interest in feeding
Weight loss if delayed presentation
Visible gastric peristalsis from left to right

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232
Q

List the managements in pyloric stenosis

A

Correct acid-base electrolyte balance
IV fluid rehydration
Polymyotomy

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233
Q

List the presentations in Eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Bolus dysphagia (‘food getting stuck’)
Discomfort on swallowing
Heartburn, Regurgitation
Vomiting
Abdominal pain

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234
Q

What is Eosinophilic oesophagitis associated with

A

Other atopic conditions:
Asthma
Atopic dermatitis
Allergic rhinitis/sinusitis
Food allergies

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235
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Th2-mediated allergic process

Th2 cytokines (IL5, 4,13) cause eosinophilic infiltration
Eosinophilic activation causes:
1. Direct cellular injury by degranulation - compromises the normal barrier function of the oesophageal mucosa, making it leaky
2. Recruiting other inflammatory cells, eg. mast cells, and perpetuating ongoing inflammation
3. Producing profibrotic factors (e.g., transforming growth factor beta) that can lead to smooth muscle dysfunction and collagen deposition - Clinically swallowing dysfunction and oesophageal stricture formation

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236
Q

Give the investigation in eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy

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237
Q

List the macroscopic and microscopic signs of eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Macroscopically:
Fixed oesophageal rings
Focal oesophageal strictures
Diffuse oesophageal narrowing
Oedema / congestion of the mucosa with loss of normal vascular markings
Linear furrows
White plaques or exudates (histologically eosinophilic microabscesses)
Crêpe-paper mucosa (a sign of mucosa fragility where the oesophageal mucosa tears from insufflation or passage of the scope).

Microscopically:
eosinophilic infiltration of the oesophageal epithelium
≥15 eosinophils per high-power microscopy field

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238
Q

List the management in eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Swallowed corticosteroids
* Fluticasone
* Budesonide

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239
Q

List the causes of gastroenteritis in children

A

Viruses
Norovirus
Enteric adenovirus
Astrovirus

Bacteria - presence of blood in stools
Dysentery - blood and pus in stool, abdominal pain, tenesmus
* Campylobacter jejuni
* Shigella (may be accompanied by high fever)
* Samonella
Clostridium difficile (diarrhoea with chronic diseases)
Profuse, rapidly dehydrating diarrhoea:
* Cholera
* Enterotoxigenic E Coli

Protozeoan parasite
Giardia
Cryptosporidium

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240
Q

List the classification of dehydration

A

No clinically detectable dehydration (<5% loss of body weight)
Clinical dehydration (5%–10% loss of body weight)
Shock (>10% loss of body weight)

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241
Q

Give the clinical management of dehydration

A

Oral rehydration therapy - sodium and glucose
(Increase active sodium and passive water absorption)
IV fluids

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242
Q

Who may be at increased risk of dehydration from gastroenteritis

A

infants, <6 months/low birthweight
passed five or more diarrhoeal stools in the previous 24 hours
vomited more than twice in the previous 24 hours
unable to tolerate supplementary fluids
malnutrition / immune deficiency

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243
Q

Define postgastroenteritis syndrome

A

Following an episode of gastroenteritis, the introduction of a normal diet results in a return of watery diarrhoea.

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244
Q

List the presentations of malabsorption

A

Abnormal stools
Poor weight gain / faltering growth
Specific nutrient deficiencies

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245
Q

List the causes of malabsorption in children

A

Cholestatic liver disease / biliary atresia
Lymphatic leakage / obstruction
Short bowel syndrome
Crohn disease
Cystic fibrosis (exocrine pancreatic dysfunction)
Coeliac disease
Transient lactase deficiency following gastroenteritis
Glucose-galactose malabsorption
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (zinc malabsorption, erythematous rash around mouth and anus)

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246
Q

List the symptoms and signs of coeliac disease

A

Diarrhoea – intermittent or chronic
Nausea / vomiting / abdominal pain / abdominal distension / constipation
Faltering growth or weight loss
Delayed puberty
Short stature
Unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia resistant to treatment
Unexplained liver disease
Lethargy / weakness
Arthritis / arthralgia
Neuropathy
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Osteoporosis / pathological fractures
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
Dental enamel defects

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247
Q

List the investigations for coeliac disease

A

IgA anti-tTG
IgA EMA
Duodenal biopsy

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248
Q

List the signs of coeliac disease on duodenal biopsy

A

Villous blunting
Crypt hyperplasia
Intraepithelial lymphocytosis

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249
Q

List the secondary causes of lactase deficiency

A

(Injury to the small intestine mucosa)
Small bowel causes
* Viral gastroenteritis (rotavirus)
* Giardiasis
* HIV enteropathy
* Coeliac disease
* Whipple’s disease (intestinal lipodystrophy)

Multisystem causes
* Carcinoid syndrome
* Cystic fibrosis
* Diabetic gastropathy
* Kwashiorkor
* Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Iatrogenic
* Chemotherapy
* Colchicines
* Radiation enteritis

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250
Q

List the classifications of lactase deficiency

A

Primary
Secondary
Congenital hypolactasia
Developmental hypolactasia

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251
Q

Give the inheritance of Congenital hypolactasia

A

autosomal recessive

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252
Q

List the GI symptoms for lactase deficiency

A

Abdominal pain (cramping in periumbilical area)
Bloating
Borborygmi (‘tummy rumbling’)
Flatulence
Diarrhoea (explosive, bulky, frothy, watery)
Constipation
Nausea and vomiting

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253
Q

List the systemic symptoms of lactase deficiency

A

Headache and light-headedness
Loss of concentration and poor short-term memory
Long-term severe tiredness
Muscle pain
Joint pain, and/or swelling and stiffness
Allergy
* Eczema
* Pruritus
* Rhinitis
* Sinusitis
* Asthma
Heart arrhythmia
Mouth ulcers
Increased frequency of micturition
Sore throat

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254
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by HIV enteropathy

A

Skin rashes
Kaposi sarcoma

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255
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by eosinophilic enteritis

A

Anaemia
Weight loss

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256
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by coeliac disease

A

Short stature
Anaemia
Weight loss

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257
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by tropical sprue

A

Steatorrhoea
History of residence in endemic areas

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258
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by Whipple’s disease

A

Joint pain
Arthritis

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259
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by gastroenteritis

A

Fever

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260
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by carcinoid syndrome

A

Flushing and palpitations

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261
Q

List the additional symptoms in secondary lactase deficiency cause by Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Steatorrhoea
Peptic ulcer disease
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disorder

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262
Q

List the investigation and findings in lactase deficiency

A

Trial of dietary lactose elimination
FBC (anaemia in coeliac disease)
Lactose hydrogen breath test
* Given lactose at a dose of 2 g/kg after overnight fasting
* Breath hydrogen >20 ppm
Stool studies
* Faecal reducing substance (monosaccharide by-products of carbohydrate metabolism)
* Faecal pH - reduced in hypolactasia due to volatile fatty acids formed from carbohydrate malabsorption
Lactose tolerance test
Small bowel biopsy

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263
Q

List the management for primary lactase deficiency

A

Lactose-free diet
* Live-culture yoghurts, curds, and cheeses are better tolerated
* Lactose-free and lactose-reduced milks
Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Lactase preparation

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264
Q

List the presentations for Crohn disease in children and young people

A

Classic presentation
* Abdominal pain
* Diarrhoea with/without blood
* Weight loss
Growth failure
Puberty delayed
Fever, lethargy
Extra-intestinal
* Oral lesions / perianal skin tags
* Uveitis
* Arthralgia
* Erythema nodosum

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265
Q

List the histology findings in Crohn’s disease

A

Mucosal inflammation
Crypt damage (cryptitis, architectural distortion, abscesses and crypt loss)
Ulceration

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266
Q

Define constipation

A

Presence of two or more of the clinical features:
* Fewer than three complete stools per week
* Hard, large stool
* ‘rabbit dropping’ stool
* Overflow soiling

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267
Q

List the Contributing factors to constipation

A

Pain
Fever
Inadequate fluid intake
Reduced dietary fibre intake
Toilet training issues
Drugs
* Sedating antihistamines
* Opiates
Psychosocial issues
Family history
Immobility eg. cerebral palsy
Neurodevelopmental disorder

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268
Q

What may constipation, abdominal distension with vomiting suggest

A

Hirschsprung disease
Intestinal obstruction

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269
Q

What may constipation with Ribbon stool pattern suggest

A

Anal stenosis

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270
Q

What may constipation with abnormal lower limb neurology / deformity suggest

A

neurological or spinal cord abnormality
Spina bifida occulta

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271
Q

What may constipation with perianal fistulae, abscesses, or fissures suggest

A

Perianal Crohn disease

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272
Q

What may constipation with faltering growth suggest

A

Hypothyroidism
Coeliac disease

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273
Q

List the management for constipation

A

Laxatives
* Macrogol (first-line)
* Senna
* Docusate
Balanced diet with sufficient fibre - fruit, vegetables, high-fibre bread, baked beans, and wholegrain breakfast cereals
Sufficient fluid intake

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274
Q

List the classification of laxatives

A

Osmotic laxatives - increase the amount of fluid in the large bowel, thereby softening the stool and stimulating peristalsis.
* Macrogol (Polyethylene glycol 3350 plus electrolytes)
* Lactulose
Stimulant laxatives - cause peristalsis by stimulating the colonic and rectal nerves
* Senna
* Docusate (also stool softening properties)
* Bisacodyl
* Sodium picosulfate

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275
Q

List the contraindications for laxatives

A

Intestinal obstruction or perforation
Paralytic ileus
Toxic megacolon
Inflammatory bowel disease
Galactosaemia (lactulose only)

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276
Q

List the classification of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Typical (rectosigmoid)
Long-segment - extend to any level between the hepatic flexure and the descending colon
Total colonic aganglionosis
Ultrashort aganglionosis or short-segment

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277
Q

List the pathological features in Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Aganglionosis
Hypertrophied nerves
Increase in the enzyme acetylcholinesterase

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278
Q

Give the pathophysiology of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Due to aganglionosis, the lumen is tonically contracted, causing a functional obstruction.

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279
Q

List the presentation in Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Abdominal distension
Delayed passage of meconium (not occurring in the first 24 to 48 hours of life)
Vomiting
Eneterocolitis (prolonged abdominal distension and faecal stasis)

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280
Q

Give the first line investigation for Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Contrast enema

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281
Q

Give the gold standard investigation for Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Rectal biopsy and histology

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282
Q

Give one plain abdominal x-ray sign of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Dilated colon

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283
Q

Define stridor

A

Louder, constant-pitch sound over central airways

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284
Q

Define wheezing

A

Musical sound produced primarily during expiration

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285
Q

List the causes of an inspiratory stridor

A

(Supraglottic causes)
Extraluminal compression
* Goitre
* Retropharyngeal abscess
Intraluminal compression
* Malignancy
* Foreign body
Inflammatory
* Anaphylaxis
* Angioedema
* Epiglottitis

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286
Q

List the causes of a biphasic stridor

A

(Glottic/Subglottic)
Function
* Vocal fold paralysis
* Paradoxical vocal fold motion
Extraluminal compression
* Malignancy
* Vascular ring, aneurysm
Foreign body
Endotracheal intubation

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287
Q

List the causes of an expiratory stridor

A

(Tracheal)
Extraluminal compression
* Malignancy
* Mediastinal mass
* Vascular ring, aneurysm
Foreign body
Iatrogenic
* Endotracheal intubation
* Tracheostomy
Structural
* Tracheomalacia
* Connective tissue disorder
* GORD
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

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288
Q

List the causes of wheeze

A

Bronchoconstriction
* Asthma
* COPD
* Anaphylaxis
* Carcinoid
Peribronchial pulmonary oedema
Infectious
* Bronchitis
* Bronchiolitis
* Parasite
Focal
* Mass
* Foreign body
* Consolidation

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289
Q

List the signs of impending respiratory failure

A

Cyanosis persistent grunting
Reduced oxygen saturation despite oxygen therapy
Rising pCO2 on blood gas
Exhaustion, confusion, reduced conscious level

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290
Q

List the causes of chronic / recurrent cough

A

Recurrent respiratory infections
Persistent bacterial bronchitis (persistently wet)
Respiratory infections
* Pertussis
* Respiratory syncytial virus
* Mycoplasma
Tuberculosis
Asthma (accompanied by wheezing)
Persistent lobar collapse following pneumonia
Suppurative lung diseases
* Cystic fibrosis
* Ciliary dyskinesia
* Immune deficiency
Recurrent aspiration (gastro-oesophageal reflux)
Inhaled foreign body
Cigarette smoking (active or passive)
Habit cough

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291
Q

Give the most common cause of common cold (coryza) in children

A

Rhinoviruses

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292
Q

List the causative organisms for common cold (coryza) in children

A

Viral
Rhinoviruses (majority)
Coronavirus
Influenza
Parainfluenza
Respiratory syncytial virus
Metapneumovirus

Bacterial
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

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293
Q

List the symptoms in common cold (coryza) in children

A

Sore throat
Sneezing
Blocked / runny nose
Headache
Cough
Malaise
Low-grade fever

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294
Q

List the physical examination findings in common cold (coryza) in children

A

Elevated temperature
Oropharynx
* Non-specific erythematous inflammation
* Purulent drainage in the posterior pharynx
* Pus on the tonsils - streptococcal infection
Nares
* Erythema and oedema
* Purulent drainage

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295
Q

Give the management in common cold (coryza) in children

A

Paracetamol

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296
Q

Give the differential for sore throat being the main symptom

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis / tonsillitis

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297
Q

Give the differential for illness started suddenly with fever, chills, and severe muscle aches

A

Influenza
Pneumonia

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298
Q

Give the differential for pleuritic pain, large amounts of sputum, blood in the sputum

A

Pleurisy
Pneumonia

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299
Q

Give the differential for otalgia

A

Otitis media

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300
Q

Give the differential for facial pain with respiratory symptoms

A

Sinusitis

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301
Q

What age range is acute GAS pharyngitis most common in

A

5~15 years

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302
Q

When in the year is acute GAS pharyngitis most frequent

A

Winter in temperate climates

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303
Q

Give the most common cause of sore throat (pharyngitis) in children

A

group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)

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304
Q

List the common causes of viral pharyngitis

A

Epstein-Barr virus (mononucleosis)
* Lymphadenopathy
* Splenomegaly
Adenoviruses
Enteroviruses
Influenza A and B
Parainfluenza

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305
Q

List the causes of sore throat (pharyngitis) in sexually active adolescents or sexually abused children

A

HIV
Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea

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306
Q

Give the presentation of diphtheria

A

Sore throat
Grey membrane in nose and throat that bleeds when dislodged

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307
Q

Give the pathognomonic feature of Measles

A

Koplik spots (bluish-white, raised lesions on an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa)

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308
Q

What may ingestion of undercooked meat from non-domestic animals present with

A

Tularaemia
* Ulcerations and exudates in pharynx
* Grey membrane
* Penicillin resistant

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309
Q

List the physical examination findings in GAS pharyngitis

A

Pharyngeal exudates
Painful anterior cervical adenopathy
Fever
Lack of cough or rhinorrhoea
Scarlet fever rash

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310
Q

List the presentations of viral pharyngitis

A

Rhinorrhoea
Nasal congestion
Cough

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311
Q

List the symptoms of GAS pharyngitis

A

Sore throat
Fever
Headache
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain

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312
Q

List the investigations in GAS pharyngitis

A

GAS rapid antigen detection test
Throat culture - when rapid antigen tests are negative

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313
Q

List the management options for GAS pharyngitis

A

Oral phenoxymethylpenicillin 10 days
IM benzylpenicillin
Oral amoxicillin

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314
Q

List the penicillin allergy alternatives for GAS pharyngitis

A

Macrolide
Cephalosporin
Clindamycin

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315
Q

Why are children more likely to develop acute otitis media?

A

Acquire viral infections more often
Shorter and more horizontal eustachian tubes

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316
Q

List the complications for acute otitis media

A

Persistent otitis media with effusion.
Recurrence
Hearing loss (usually conductive and temporary).
Tympanic membrane perforation.
Labyrinthitis.
(Rare)
Mastoiditis
Meningitis, Intracranial abscess
Sinus thrombosis
Facial nerve paralysis

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317
Q

List the causative organisms for acute otitis media

A

Bacterial
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis
Streptococcus pyogenes

Viral
Respiratory syncytial virus
Rhinovirus
Adenovirus
Influenza
Parainfluenza

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318
Q

List the symptoms in acute otitis media

A

Earache
Holding, tugging, or rubbing of the ear
Fever
Crying
Poor feeding
Restlessness
Behavioural changes
Cough
Rhinorrhoea

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319
Q

List the findings on otoscopic examination in acute otitis media

A

Distinctly red, yellow, or cloudy tympanic membrane
Bulging of the tympanic membrane
Loss of normal landmarks
Air-fluid level behind the tympanic membrane (middle ear effusion)
Perforation of the tympanic membrane and/or discharge in the external auditory canal

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320
Q

Give the first and second line antibiotics for acute otitis media

A

First: Amoxicillin 5-7 days
Second: Co-amoxiclav 5-7 days

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321
Q

List the penicillin allergy alternatives for acute otitis media

A

clarithromycin / erythromycin 5-7 days

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322
Q

Define Otitis media with effusion (glue ear)

A

Collection of fluid within the middle ear space without signs of acute infection

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323
Q

List the causes of otitis media with effusion (glue ear)

A

> 50% following an episode of acute otitis media
Impaired eustachian tube
Low-grade viral or bacterial infection
Persistent local inflammatory reaction
Adenoidal infection or hypertrophy

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324
Q

What co-morbidities may otitis media with effusion ‘glue ear’ be associated with?

A

Cleft palate (eustachian dysfunction) or other craniofacial malformation
Down’s syndrome (impaired immunity and mucosal abnormality)
Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Allergic rhinitis

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325
Q

List the presentations of Otitis media with effusion ‘glue ear’

A

Hearing loss
Mild intermittent ear pain with fullness/’popping’
Tinnitus
Aural discharge
Recurrent AOM infections, URTIs, nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea
Paroxysmal sneezing/nasal itching
Snoring

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326
Q

List the otoscopic examination findings in Otitis media with effusion ‘glue ear’

A

Abnormal colour of the drum, eg. yellow, amber, or blue.
Loss of light reflex
Opacification of the drum
Air bubbles or an air/fluid level
A retracted, concave, or indrawn drum

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327
Q

What is a surgical management option for Otitis media with effusion ‘glue ear’?

A

Myringotomy and insertion of grommets (ventilation tubes)

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328
Q

List the causes in feverish children

A

Infections
* Meningococcal disease
* Herpes simplex encephalitis
* Pneumonia
* UTI
* Septic arthritis / osteomyelitis
Inflammatory/vasculitic disorders
* Systemic lupus erythematosus
* Kawasaki disease
* Rheumatic fever
* Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
* Sarcoidosis
Childhood malignancies
* Leukaemia
* Hodgkin’s lymphoma
* Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Thyroid storm
Autonomic disorders - hereditary sensory autonomic neuropathy
Medication-hypersensitivity
* Salicylates
* Anticonvulsants
* Sulphonamides
* Beta-lactam antibiotics
* Anticholinergics
* Drugs of abuse
Medications with alterations of thermoregulation
* Thyroid hormones
* Antihistamines
Serotonin syndrome

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329
Q

List the presentations of herpes simplex encephalitis

A

Fever
Focal neurological signs.
Focal seizures.
Decreased level of consciousness.

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330
Q

List two most common causes of stridor in children

A

Viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)
Foreign body

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331
Q

Which age group of children does viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) typically occur in?

A

Between 6 months and 3 years

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332
Q

What time of the year does viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) usually peak?

A

Late autumn

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333
Q

Give the most common cause of viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

A

Parainfluenza

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334
Q

List the common causes of viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) in children

A

Parainfluenza
Rhinovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Influenza

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335
Q

List the characteristic features in viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

A

Sudden-onset seal-like barky cough
Voice hoarseness
Stridor
Respiratory distress
Intercostal or sternal indrawing
Prodromal, non-specific URT symptoms
* Cough
* Rhinorrhoea
* Coryza
* Fever

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336
Q

List the presentation in retropharyngeal / peritonsillar abscess

A

Dysphagia
Drooling
Stridor
Dyspnoea
Tachypnoea
Neck stiffness
Unilateral cervical adenopathy

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337
Q

List the presentation in angioneurotic oedema

A

Dyspnoea
Stridor
Swelling of face, tongue, or pharynx

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338
Q

List the differential diagnosis for viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

A

Bacterial tracheitis
Epiglottitis
Foreign body in upper airway
Retropharyngeal/peritonsillar abscess
Angioneurotic oedema
Allergic reaction

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339
Q

List the presentation in bacterial tracheitis

A

Fever
Sudden onset stridor
Respiratory distress

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340
Q

List the presentation in foreign body in upper airway

A

Sudden onset dyspnoea and stridor
No prodrome of viral illness
No fever

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341
Q

Give the first line and alternative management in viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

A

Oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg)

Alternatives:
* Nebulised budesonide
* IM dexamethasone

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342
Q

Give the management option in moderate / severe croup

A

nebulised epinephrine

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343
Q

Give the most common causative organism for acute epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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344
Q

List the presentations in acute epiglottitis

A

Rapid onset of high fever
Sore throat
Dysphagia
Drooling
Breathing difficulty
Decreased oral intake
Difficulty in controlling secretions

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344
Q

List the causative organisms in acute epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
MRSA

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345
Q

List the physical signs of acute epiglottitis

A

Appear toxic
Acute distress
Tripod position
Stridor

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346
Q

Give the investigation in acute epiglottitis

A

Laryngoscopy - confirm diagnosis and therapeutic

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346
Q

Give the lateral neck radiograph findings in acute epiglottitis

A

thumbprint sign

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347
Q

List the management options in acute epiglottitis

A

Empirical antibiotics
* Cefotaxime
* Vancomycin / clindamycin
Dexamethasone

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348
Q

Give the most common causative organism in bronchiolitis

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

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349
Q

List the causative organisms in bronchiolitis

A

Respiratory syncytial virus
Rhinovirus
Bocavirus
Adenovirus
Metapneumovirus
Parainfluenza
Influenza
Coronavirus
Enterovirus

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350
Q

List the presentations in bronchiolitis

A

Preceded by URT symptoms
* Rhinitis
* Cough
* Low-grade fever
Followed by LRT symptoms
* Retractions
* Wheezing
* Laboured breathing
Systemic signs
* Irritability
* Malaise
* Poor feeding

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351
Q

List the physical examination findings in bronchiolitis

A

Tachypnoea
Retractions
Wheezes
Crackles
Thoracoabdominal asynchrony

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352
Q

List the chest X ray signs in bronchiolitis

A

Hyperinflation
Interstitial inflammation
Atelectasis

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353
Q

List the causes of pneumonia in children

A

Viral - respiratory syncytial virus

Bacterial
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Group A stretococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophilus influenzae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae

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354
Q

List the presentations of pneumonia in children

A

Fever, cough, shortness of breath
Lethargy
Poor feeding
Pleural irritation - localised chest, abdominal, neck pain

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355
Q

List the physical examination findings of pneumonia in children

A

Tachypnoea
Localised dullness on percussion
Decreased breath sounds
Bronchial breathing
End-inspiratory coarse crackles

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356
Q

List the investigations for pneumonia in children

A

Chest x-ray
Pulse oximetry
Arterial blood gas

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357
Q

List the chest x-ray signs in pneumonia in children

A

Consolidation

Complicated pneumonia:
* Cavitation
* Pleural effusion
* Multifocal consolidation

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358
Q

Give the first line and alternative antibiotics for pneumonia in children

A

Oral amoxicillin 5 days
Co-amoxiclav, cefaclor, clarithromycin

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359
Q

Give the causative organism in Pertussis

A

Bordetella pertussis

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360
Q

List the presentations of pertussis

A

Prolonged cough illness
Inspiratory whoop
Post-tussive emesis
Apnoea or cyanosis in infants

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361
Q

List the presentations in the three stages of Pertussis

A

Stage 1: catarrhal stage
Symptoms - nonspecific URTI
Rhinorrhoea
Sneezing
Mild cough

Stage 2: paroxysmal stage
Coughing spells gradually become more severe during the first 1-2 weeks, plateau for 2-3 weeks, and then gradually decrease in frequency.
Paroxysms of coughing associated with
* inspiratory whoop
* post-tussive emesis

Stage 3: convalescent stage
Cough becomes less paroxysmal and slowly resolves, but recurrent cough may be triggered by new URTIs.

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362
Q

Give the typical duration of catarrhal stage in pertussis

A

1-2 weeks

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363
Q

Give the typical duration of paroxysmal stage in pertussis

A

1-6 weeks

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364
Q

Give the typical duration of convalescent stage in pertussis

A

2-3 weeks

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365
Q

Which stage of pertussis is the patient most infectious

A

Stage 1: catarrhal stage

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366
Q

List the investigations in pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal aspirate culture / posterior nasopharynx swab
Nucleic acid amplification test
Serology
FBC

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367
Q

List the first and second line antibiotics for pertussis

A

Macrolides (first line)
* Azithromycin/Clarithromycin (preferred)
* Erythromycin

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (second line)

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368
Q

List the symptoms in asthma in children

A

Cough
Wheeze
Breathlessness
Chest tightness

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369
Q

Describe the characteristics of asthma symptom

A

Episodic
Diurnal
Triggered / exacerbated by exercise, infection, exposure to cold or allergens

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370
Q

List the risk factors for asthma in children

A

Personal or family history of atopic disease
* Asthma
* Eczema
* Allergic rhinitis
* Allergic conjunctivitis
Respiratory infections in infancy
Exposure to tobacco smoke (including prenatally)
Premature birth and associated low birth weight
Obesity
Social deprivation
Exposure to inhaled particulates
Exposure to flour dust, isocyanates from paint

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371
Q

List the complications from asthma in children

A

Respiratory complications
* Pneumonia
* Pneumothorax
* Pulmonary collapse (atelectasis caused by mucus plugging of the airways)
* Respiratory failure
* Status asthmaticus
Impaired quality of life
* Fatigue
* Underperformance and time off school or work
Death

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372
Q

List the investigations for asthma in children

A

Spirometry - FEV1/FVC < 70%
Bronchodilator reversibility - Improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more in response to beta-2 agonists or corticosteroids
Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) testing - Confirm eosinophilic airway inflammation
Variable peak expiratory flow readings - >20% variability after monitoring at least twice daily for 2-4 weeks

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373
Q

List the presentations of Bronchiectasis in children

A

Chronic wet cough
Coarse crackles
Finger clubbing

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374
Q

List the causes of Bronchiectasis in children

A

Cystic fibrosis
Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Chronic aspiration
Immunodeficiency

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375
Q

Give the chest CT finding in Bronchiectasis

A

Bronchial dilatation

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376
Q

Give the pathophysiological mechanism in cystic fibrosis

A

CFTR7 gene mutation (Most frequently F508del)
Mutations in CFTR result in abnormal salt transport by epithelial cells - thick, sticky secretions.

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377
Q

List the clinical features of CF in newborn

A

Diagnosed through newborn screening
Meconium ileus

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378
Q

List the clinical features of CF in infants

A

Prolonged neonatal jaundice
Growth faltering
Recurrent chest infections
Malabsorption, steatorrhoea

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379
Q

List the clinical features of CF in young child

A

Bronchiectasis
Rectal prolapse
Nasal polyp
Sinusitis

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380
Q

List the clinical features of CF in older child and adolescent

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Pneumothorax / recurrent haemoptysis
Cirrhosis and portal hypertension
Diabetes mellitus (CF-related diabetes)
Distal intestinal obstruction (meconium ileus)
Male infertility (absence of vas deferens)

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381
Q

List the physical signs of cystic fibrosis in children

A

Malabsorption
* Lack of subcutaneous fat stores
* Protuberant abdomen
* Below normal weight-for-height / BMI
Nasal polyps
Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
Crackles at auscultation
Digital clubbing
In males, bilateral absence of the vas deferens

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382
Q

List the gold standard investigation for cystic fibrosis in children

A

Sweat test - sweat chloride >60 mmol/L

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383
Q

List the investigations for cystic fibrosis in children

A

Newborn blood spot screening
Sweat test (gold standard) - sweat chloride >60 mmol/L
Immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) test - positive
Genetic testing

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384
Q

List the management for cystic fibrosis in children

A

Airway clearance
SABA - salbutamol
Inhaled mucolytic: dornase alfa, hypertonic saline
Inhaled antibiotic in chronic infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Tobramycin / aztreonam
Anti-inflammatory agent - Azithromycin / ibuprofen
Inhaled corticosteroid
CFTR modulator - Ivacaftor
Non-invasive ventilation oxygen
Pancreatic insufficiency
* Pancreatic enzyme replacement - Pancreatin
* Fat soluble vitamin supplementation ADEK
Live diseases - Ursodeoxycholic acid
Gastro-oesophageal reflux - Antacid, H2 antagonist, PPI

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385
Q

Give the inheritance in primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Autosomal recessive

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386
Q

Give the presentations in primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Recurrent infection of the upper and lower respiratory tracts
* Recurrent productive cough
* Purulent nasal discharge
* Chronic ear infections
Bronchiectasis

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387
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia associated with?

A

Kartagener syndrome with dextrocardia and situs inversus (major organs are in the mirror position of normal)

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388
Q

Define hip dysplasia

A

a radiographic finding alone showing an imperfect degree of coverage of the femoral head by the acetabulum

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389
Q

Define hip subluxation

A

Partial articulation of the joint surfaces. Hip has a greater degree of laxity than normal with provocative testing, reflecting greater than normal movement of the femoral head within the acetabulum, but is not fully dislocated or dislocatable.

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390
Q

Define hip dislocation

A

the femoral head sits fully outside of the acetabulum, either at rest or with provocative testing.

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391
Q

Define fixed antenatal dislocation (teratological)

A

typically associated with multiple deformation, neurological conditions, or other syndromes (e.g., arthrogryposis), where more invasive intervention is usually required to attempt a reduction.

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392
Q

List the presentations of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Restricted abduction
Abnormal positioning of the leg
Delayed crawling/walking
Pain / abnormal gait

393
Q

How is developmental dysplasia of the hip typically identified

A

Physical examination using the Barlow and Ortolani tests

394
Q

Give the management for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

spica cast

395
Q

Define scoliosis

A

Lateral curvature in the frontal plane of the spine

396
Q

List the causes of scoliosis

A

Idiopathic
Congenital
* Hemivertebra
* Spina bifida
* VACTERL anomalies
Secondary
* Spinal muscular atrophy
* Cerebral palsy
* Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia of the axial skeleton
* Marfan’s syndrome

397
Q

List the physical signs in scoliosis

A

Shoulder height, waist asymmetry, asymmetry of the thoracic cavity, ribs and breasts
Truncal decompensation
Leg-length discrepancy
Skin lesions suggestive of other causes
* Neural tube defects - hair patches, sinuses, and dimples
* Neurofibromatosis - café au lait spots and axillary spotting

398
Q

Give the inheritance in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant

399
Q

List the characteristics of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Joint hypermobility
Skin hyperextensibility
Tissue fragility

400
Q

List the diagnostic criteria for Joint hypermobility

A

Beighton 9-point score - Generalised hypermobility if > 5

Dorsiflex the 5th metacarpophalangeal joint to 90° or greater (1 point for each side)
Oppose the thumb to the volar aspect of the ipsilateral forearm (1 point for each side)
Hyperextend the elbow to 10° or greater (1 point for each side).
Hyperextend the knee to 10° or greater (1 point for each side).
Place the hands flat on the floor with the knees fully extended (1 point).

401
Q

List the presentations in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Musculoskeletal manifestations:
Joint hypermobility
Joint pains
Joint dislocation or subluxation
Impaired joint proprioception
Muscle spasm
Chronic pain syndrome
Marfanoid habitus
Weakness of supporting structures

Skin manifestations:
Soft and silky skin
Easy bruising
Stretch marks (striae atrophicae)
Delayed / incomplete wound healing
Atrophic scars

Autonomic abnormalities:
Cardiovascular
* Orthostatic hypotension
* Orthostatic intolerance
* Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome
* Neurally mediated hypotension (vasovagal syncope)
Gastrointestinal
* Gastritis/GORD
* Gastroparesis
* Irritable bowel syndrome
* Rectal evacuatory disorder

Gynaecological manifestations:
Abnormal bleeding
Dysmenorrhoea
Dysparenunia
Endometriosis

402
Q

List the Marfanoid habitus features

A

High arched palate
Arachnodactyly
Pectus excavatum or carinatum
Scoliosis
Arm span to height ratio >1.05
Tall stature with reduced upper segment to lower segment (US/LS) ratio of <0.85
Foot length (heel to first toe) to height ratio >0.15
Hand length (wrist crease to third finger) to height ratio >0.11

403
Q

Define Orthostatic hypotension

A

Blood pressure decrease of >20/10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing

404
Q

Define Orthostatic intolerance

A

Development of symptoms (acrocyanosis, swollen legs) within 10 minutes of upright posture that improve upon lying down.

405
Q

Define Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome

A

> 30 bpm increase in pulse on standing or >120 bpm within 10 minutes of head-up tilt-table testing, both in the absence of orthostatic hypotension that might trigger a normal tachycardic response.

406
Q

List the differential diagnosis for an acute painful limp in 1–3 year olds

A

Infection
* septic arthritis
* osteomyelitis of hip or spine
Transient synovitis
Trauma
Malignant disease
* Leukaemia
* Neuroblastoma

407
Q

List the differential diagnosis for a Chronic and intermittent limp in 1–3 year olds

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Neuromuscular - cerebral palsy
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

408
Q

List the differential diagnosis for an acute painful limp in 3–10 year olds

A

Transient synovitis
Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
Trauma and overuse injuries
Perthes disease (acute)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
Leukaemia
Complex regional pain syndrome

409
Q

List the differential diagnosis for a Chronic and intermittent limp in 3–10 year olds

A

Perthes disease (chronic)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
Tarsal coalition

410
Q

List the differential diagnosis for an acute painful limp in 11–16 year olds

A

Mechanical
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (acute)
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Reactive arthritis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
Osteochondritis dissecans of the knee
Bone tumours and malignancy
Complex regional pain syndrome

411
Q

List the differential diagnosis for a Chronic and intermittent limp in 11–16 year olds

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (chronic)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
Tarsal coalition

412
Q

Define transient synovitis (‘irritable hip’)

A

Self-limiting inflammatory disorder of the hip that commonly affects young children between 2 and 12 years of age.

413
Q

List the presentations in Transient synovitis (‘irritable hip’)

A

Mild to moderate hip pain, may be referred to the knee
Limp
Usually afebrile

414
Q

List the X-ray signs of transient synovitis (‘irritable hip’)

A

Typically normal
Capsular distention
Joint space widening
Diminution of the definition of soft-tissue planes around the hip joint
Slight demineralisation of the bone of the proximal femur

415
Q

Give an ultrasound finding in transient synovitis (‘irritable hip’)

A

Effusions

416
Q

List the criteria that differentiates septic arthritis from transient synovitis in a child with irritable hip

A

Kocher criteria:
Non-weight-bearing on the affected side
Fever >38.5°C
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate >40
White blood cell count >12,000

Score - Likelihood of septic arthritis
1 - 3%
2 - 40%
3 - 93%
4 - 99%

417
Q

Define Perthes’ disease

A

Self-limiting disease of the femoral head comprising necrosis, collapse, repair, and re-modelling.

418
Q

Which gender is Perthes’ disease more common in

A

Boys

419
Q

List the pathophysiology in Perthes’ disease

A

Single or multiple vascular events, followed by re-vascularisation
Stage 1 - ischaemia
Stage 2 - resorption, fragmentation, re-vascularisation, and repair
Stage 3 - re-ossification and resolution
Stage 4 - re-modelling

420
Q

List the risk factors in Perthes’ disease

A

Passive smoking / maternal smoking during pregnancy
Low socio-economic status
Family history of skeletal dysplasias / thrombotic disease

421
Q

List the presentations in Perthes’ disease

A

Limping gait
Hip pain radiating into the thigh, knees, groin, buttocks.
* Typically unilateral
* Pain worsens during activities.
Short stature
Delayed bone age
Hyperactivity

422
Q

Give the investigation and findings in Perthes’ disease

A

Bilateral hip x-rays
* Femoral head collapse and fragmentation
* Subchondral fracture

423
Q

List the risk factors for Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Obesity
Endocrine disorders:
* Panhypopituitarism
* Hypothyroidism
* Renal osteodystrophy

424
Q

List the complications for Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Avascular necrosis
Chrondrolysis

425
Q

Give the pathophysiology of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Weakness in the proximal femoral growth plate allows displacement of the capital femoral epiphysis.

426
Q

Give the presentation of slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Medial knee, hip, groin, and/or thigh pain.

427
Q

List the physical examination findings in slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Features of panhypopituitarism
Growth hormone deficiency
Renal osteodystrophy
Hypothyroidism
Trendelenburg’s test positive

428
Q

List the investigations for slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Metabolic panel
Thyroid function tests
Pituitary hormones
Plain x-rays AP and lateral views

429
Q

List the X-ray signs in slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Klein line not intersecting the femoral head
Bloomberg’s sign positive - blurred / widened physis

430
Q

List the causes of polyarthritis in children

A

Infection
* Bacterial – septicaemia/septic arthritis, TB
* Viral – rubella, mumps, adenovirus, coxsackie B, herpes, hepatitis, parvovirus
* Other – Mycoplasma, Lyme disease, rickettsia
* Reactive – gastrointestinal infection, streptococcal infection
* Rheumatic fever
Inflammatory bowel disease
Vasculitis
* Henoch–Schönlein purpura
* Kawasaki disease
Haematological disorders
* Haemophilia
* Sickle cell disease
Malignant disorders
* Leukaemia
* Neuroblastoma
Connective tissue disorders
* Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
* Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
* Dermatomyositis
* Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)
* Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
Cystic fibrosis

431
Q

List the classification in juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Oligoarthritis (≤4 joints)
Polyarthritis (>4 joints) (RF-negative)
Polyarthritis (>4 joints) (RF-positive)
Systemic (fever and rash)
Psoriatic arthritis
Enthesitis
Undifferentiated

432
Q

List the presentations in juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Joint pain during motion / on palpation
Joint swelling
Limp
Morning stiffness
Enthesitis
Systemic-onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis
* Fever
* Rash (elicited by scratching the skin - Koebner’s phenomenon)

433
Q

List the complications in juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Anterior uveitis
Micrognathia
Leg length discrepancy
Joint erosion
Macrophage activation syndrome

434
Q

List the management in juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

NSAIDs and analgesics
Intra-articular corticosteroids
Methotrexate
Cytokine modulators

435
Q

Give the inheritance in Achondroplasia

A

Autosomal dominant

436
Q

Give the genetic mechanism in Achondroplasia

A

Mutations in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 gene

437
Q

Give the presentation in Achondroplasia

A

Short stature, shortening of the limbs
Large head
Frontal bossing
Depression of the nasal bridge

438
Q

Give the inheritance in Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Autosomal dominant

439
Q

Which type of collagen does Osteogenesis imperfecta affect?

A

type 1 collagen

440
Q

List the presentation in Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Bone fragility
Blue sclerae
Hearing loss

441
Q

Give the inheritance in Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

A

Autosomal recessive

442
Q

List the presentations in Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

A

Faltering growth
Hypocalcaemia
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
Recurrent infection

443
Q

List the red - high risk features in a feverish children (NICE traffic light system)

A

Colour - pale/mottled/ashen/blue
Activity
* No response to social cues
* Appears ill to a healthcare professional
* Does not wake / if roused does not stake awake
* Weak, high-pitched / continuous cry
Respiratory
* Grunting
* Tachypnoea >60 breaths/minute
* Chest indrawing
Circulation and hydration - reduced skin turgor
Other
* Age < 3 months, temperature > 38C
* Non-blanching rash
* Bulging fontanelle
* Neck stiffness
* Status epilepticus
* Focal neurological signs
* Focal seizures

444
Q

What is Scarlet fever caused by

A

toxin-producing strains of the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS)

445
Q

What is Scarlet fever transmitted through

A

Aerosol
Contaminated surfaces

446
Q

When is Scarlet fever infectious

A

2–3 weeks after the onset of symptoms, unless treated

447
Q

Which age group does Scarlet fever most commonly affect

A

2~8 years old

448
Q

How long is the incubation period for scarlet fever?

A

2~3 days

449
Q

Define a scarlet fever outbreak

A

a credible report of two or more probable or confirmed scarlet fever cases attending the same school or nursery or other childcare setting, notified within 10 days of each other (two maximum incubation periods), with an epidemiological link between cases

450
Q

List the complications from scarlet fever

A

Suppurative complications (early)
Otitis media
Throat infection and abscess
* Peritonsillar cellulitis
* Peritonsillar abscess
* Retropharyngeal abscess
Acute sinusitis and mastoiditis

Non-suppurative (immune-mediated) complications (late)
Acute rheumatic fever
* Endocarditis
* Reactive arthritis
Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (2 weeks after)

Life threatening complications
Streptococcal pneumonia
Meningitis and cerebral abscess
Endocarditis, septic arthritis, and liver abscess
Cellulitis, necrotizing fasciitis, and streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
Sepsis
Death

451
Q

List the clinical features in scarlet fever

A

Sore throat.
Fever >38.3°C
Headache, fatigue, nausea/vomiting
Blanching rash
* sandpaper-like texture
* red, generalized, pinpoint
* accentuated in the skin folds
* palms and soles are typically spared
* skin may peel after the rash resolves
Flushed face, with marked circumoral pallor
Pharyngitis and petechiae on the hard and soft palate (Forchheimer spots)
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy

452
Q

List the investigations for scarlet fever

A

Throat swab for culture of GAS
Serum anti-streptolysin O (ASO) antibody titres

453
Q

List the differential diagnoses for scarlet fever

A

Rubella
Parvovirus B19
Measles
Roseola infantum (herpesvirus type 6)
Enterovirus and adenovirus infections
Kawasaki disease
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
Tropical viruses, including alphaviruses and flaviviruses (for example Dengue fever)

454
Q

List the differential diagnoses for rash with lymphadenopathy

A

Rubella
Brucellosis
Cytomegalovirus
Toxoplasmosis
HIV
Syphilis
Mononucleosis reaction to amoxicillin

455
Q

List the differential diagnoses for rash without lymphadenopathy

A

Adverse drug reactions
Echovirus
Coxsackievirus
Viral hepatitis

456
Q

Give the first line management in scarlet fever

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin 10 days

457
Q

List the management options in scarlet fever for penicillin allergy

A

Birth to 6 months - clarithromycin 10 days.
Non-pregnant adults and children 6 months to 17 years:
* azithromycin 5 days, or
* clarithromycin 10 days.
Pregnant or postpartum (within 28 days of childbirth) - erythromycin 10 days

458
Q

List the risk factors for Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

tampon use
the postpartum period
staphylococcal skin / soft tissue infections
comorbid influenza infection

459
Q

List the features of Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

fever
headache
skin rash
confusion
vomiting, or diarrhoea

460
Q

Give the feature in Roseola infantum (herpesvirus type 6)

A

Generalised pink papular / maculopapular rash
Starts on the trunk before spreading to the face and limbs

461
Q

Give the skin features in Parvovirus B19

A

Diffuse erythematous facial rash appearing on one or both cheeks (‘slapped cheek’)
Erythematous maculopapular rash on the trunk, back, and limbs a few days after

462
Q

Give the skin features in Rubella

A

Non-confluent, maculopapular rash that starts behind the ears, spreads to the face and neck, and then to the trunk and extremities
Transient, lasting between 3–5 days
Associated cervical lymphadenopathy

463
Q

Give the skin features in Measles

A

Erythematous maculopapular rash that becomes confluent as it progresses
Appears on the face and behind the ears first before spreading to the trunk and limbs over 3–4 days
Accompanied by severe symptoms of viraemia (malaise, fever, loss of appetite, cough, rhinorrhoea, and conjunctivitis)

464
Q

List the symptoms and signs of hepatic dysfunction in children

A

Encephalopathy
Jaundice
Epistaxis
Cholestasis
* Fat malabsorption
* Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins
* Pruritus
* Pale stools
* Dark urine
Ascites
Hypotonia
Peripheral neuropathy
Rickets secondary to vitamin D deficiency
Varices with portal hypertension
Spider naevi
Muscle wasting from malnutrition
Bruising and petechiae
Splenomegaly with portal hypertension
Hypersplenism
Hepatorenal failure
Palmar erythema
Clubbing
Loss of fat store secondary to malnutrition

465
Q

List the congenital heart lesions with left to right shunts

A

(breathless)
Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus

466
Q

List the congenital heart lesions with right to left shunts

A

(blue)
Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the great arteries

467
Q

List the congenital heart lesions with common mixing

A

(breathless and blue)
Atrioventricular septal defect
Pulmonary stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Outflow obstruction in a well child (asymptomatic with a murmur)

468
Q

List the congenital heart lesions with outflow obstruction in a sick neonate

A

(collapsed with shock)
Coarctation of the aorta

469
Q

List the risk factors for congenital heart disease

A

Maternal disorders
* Rubella infection
* SLE
* Diabetes mellitus

Maternal drugs
* Warfarin
* Foetal alcohol syndrome

Chromosomal abnormality
* Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
* Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)
* Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
* Turner syndrome (45XO)
* Chromosome 22q11.2 deletion
* Williams syndrome (7q11.23 microdeletion)
* Noonan syndrome (PTPN11 mutation)
* Duchenne muscular dystrophy

470
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with maternal Rubella infection

A

Peripheral pulmonary stenosis
Patent ductus arteriosus

471
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with maternal SLE

A

complete heart block (anti-Ro and anti-La antibody)

472
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with maternal Wafarin

A

Pulmonary valve stenosis
Patent ductus arteriosus

473
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with foetal alcohol syndrome

A

Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot

474
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

A

Arterioventricular septal defect
Ventricular septal defect

475
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with Turner syndrome (45XO)

A

Aortic valve stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta

476
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with Chromosome 22q11.2 (DiGeorge syndrome) deletion

A

Tetralogy of Fallot
Aortic arch anomalies
Common arterial trunk

477
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with Williams syndrome (7q11.23 microdeletion)

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis

478
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with Noonan syndrome (PTPN11 mutation)

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Atrial septal defect
Pulmonary valve stenosis

479
Q

List the congenital heart defect associated with Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Cardiomyopathy

480
Q

List the presentations for a congenital heart disease

A

Antenatal cardiac ultrasound diagnosis
Detection of a heart murmur
Heart failure
Shock
Cyanosis

481
Q

Give the murmur heard in pulmonary stenosis

A

Ejection systolic murmur

482
Q

List the symptoms and signs of heart failure in children

A

Symptoms
* Breathlessness (particularly on feeding or exertion)
* Sweating
* Poor feeding
* Recurrent chest infections

Signs
* Poor weight gain or faltering growth
* Tachypnoea
* Tachycardia
* Heart murmur, gallop rhythm
* Enlarged heart
* Hepatomegaly
* Cool peripheries

483
Q

List the causes of heart failure in neonates

A

(obstructed duct-dependent systemic circulation)
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Critical aortic valve stenosis
Severe coarctation of the aorta
Interruption of the aortic arch

484
Q

List the causes of heart failure in infants

A

(high pulmonary blood flow)
Ventricular septal defect
Atrioventricular septal defect
Large persistent ductus arteriosus

485
Q

List the causes of heart failure in older children and adolescents

A

Eisenmenger syndrome (right heart failure only)
Rheumatic heart disease
Cardiomyopathy

486
Q

List the causes of cyanosis in a newborn infant with respiratory distress (>60 breaths/min)

A

Cyanotic congenital heart disease
Respiratory disorders
* Respiratory distress syndrome (surfactant deficiency)
* Meconium aspiration
* Pulmonary hypoplasia
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
Group B strep sepsis
Inborn error of metabolism - metabolic acidosis and shock

487
Q

Give the pathophysiology in atrial septal defect

A

L to R shunt
R heart volume overload
RA and RV dilation
Raised pulmonary pressure

488
Q

List the classification of atrial septal defect based on location

A

Secundum - in the region of the fossa ovalis
Ostium primum - anterior to the fossa ovalis and superior to the atrioventricular valves
Sinus venosus - superior and posterior to the fossa ovalis
Unroofed coronary sinus - near the orifice of the coronary sinus
Vestibular defects - in the muscular antero-inferior rim of the fossa ovalis

489
Q

List the presentations in atrial septal defect

A

Usually asymptomatic
Dyspnoea
Fatigue
Failure to thrive
Recurrent lower respiratory infections
Heart failure

490
Q

List the physical examination findings in atrial septal defect

A

Hyperdynamic right ventricular impulse by palpation
Fixed split second heart sound
Systolic ejection murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border and radiating to the back

491
Q

Give the gold standard investigation in atrial septal defect

A

Transthoracic echocardiography

492
Q

List the CXR findings in atrial septal defect

A

Cardiomegaly
Enlarged pulmonary arteries
Increased pulmonary vascular markings

493
Q

List the ECG signs in atrial septal defect

A

Partial right bundle branch block
Right axis deviation due to right ventricular enlargement

494
Q

When may corrective closure be indicated in ASD?

A

Ratio of pulmonary vascular to systemic blood flow ≥1.5
Evidence of right atrial enlargement
Pulmonary vascular resistance <5 Wood units (WU)

495
Q

What chromosomal disorders are congenital VSDs often associated with

A

Down’s syndrome
Edward’s syndrome
Patau syndrome

496
Q

List the acquired causes of VSD

A

Acute myocardial infarction (2~5 days after)
Penetrating trauma

497
Q

List the signs in Eisenmenger’s syndrome

A

Cyanosis
Clubbing

498
Q

List the pathophysiology in VSD

A

Large volume of blood shunts into pulmonary vasculature
Pulmonary hypertension
RV pressure becomes suprasystemic, shunts blood right to left
Cyanosis

499
Q

List the presentations in VSD

A

Shortness of breath on exertion
Heart failure
* Tachypnoea
* Tachycardia
* Hepatomegaly
Failure to thrive
Recurrent chest infections

500
Q

List the physical examination signs in VSD

A

Holosystolic murmur at the lower left parasternal border
Palpable thrill
Loud pulmonic component of S2
Signs of cardiomegaly
* Downward and lateral displacement of apical impulse
* Parasternal heave (RVH)
Tachypnoea

501
Q

Give the gold standard investigation in VSD and its finding

A

Transthoracic echocardiography with colour Doppler
* High-velocity systolic jet

502
Q

List the CXR findings in VSD

A

Cardiomegaly
Enlarged pulmonary arteries
Increased pulmonary vascular markings
Pulmonary oedema

503
Q

List the ECG signs in VSD

A

Bi-ventricular hypertrophy

504
Q

When is surgical closure of VSD contraindicated?

A

Severe pulmonary hypertension
Eisenmenger’s syndrome

505
Q

When does Ductus arteriosus close

A

In the first 48 hours after birth

506
Q

List the pathophysiology in patent ductus arteriosus

A

Persistent communication between proximal L pulmonary artery and descending aorta
L to R shunt
Dilation of pulmonary artery, LA, LV
Overtime, Eisenmenger’s syndrome develops

507
Q

List the symptoms in Patent ductus arteriosus

A

Tachypnoea
Irritability
Diaphoresis
Poor feeding
Failure to gain weight

508
Q

List the auscultation signs in Patent ductus arteriosus

A

Continuous machinery murmur below left clavicle in the 1st intercostal space
* Turbulent aortic and pulmonary shunting in systole and diastole

509
Q

Give the gold standard investigation in PDA

A

transthoracic echocardiogram

510
Q

List the CXR signs in PDA

A

Cardiomegaly
Increased pulmonary markings

511
Q

List the ECG signs in PDA

A

LV dilation and hypertrophy - Deep Q waves and tall R waves in leads II, III, AVF, V5, and V6.
LA enlargement - P Mitrale

512
Q

List the components of tetralogy of Fallot

A

Overriding aorta
RV outflow obstruction (pulmonary stenosis)
RV hypertrophy
VSD

513
Q

What genetic syndromes are Tetralogy of Fallot associated with

A

DiGeorge syndrome
Down’s syndrome

514
Q

List the symptoms and signs for tetralogy of Fallot

A

Symptoms
* Murmur
* Cyanosis
* Hypercyanotic spells - typically crying and breathing deeply and rapidly
* Squatting on exercise

Signs
* Clubbing
* Loud harsh ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge
* Increased parasternal impulse (RVH)

515
Q

Give the gold standard investigation in tetralogy of Fallot

A

transthoracic echocardiography

516
Q

Give the CXR sign in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Boot-shaped heart

517
Q

List the ECG signs in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

RVH with a rightwards axis
R in V1 and S in V6 above age-appropriate normals

518
Q

Give the pathology in transposition of the great arteries

A

The aorta is connected to the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery is connected to the left ventricle.

519
Q

List the clinical features in Transposition of the great arteries

A

Cyanosis
Loud and single S2
Systolic murmur from increased flow or stenosis within the left ventricular (pulmonary) outflow tract

520
Q

List the CXR signs in Transposition of the great arteries

A

Narrow upper mediastinum with an ‘egg on string’ appearance
Increased pulmonary vascular markings

521
Q

Which genetic syndrome is AVSD most commonly seen in

A

Down syndrome

522
Q

List the presentations of AVSD

A

Presentation on antenatal ultrasound screening
Cyanosis at birth or heart failure at 2-3 weeks of life
No murmur
Superior axis on the ECG

523
Q

List the duct-dependent systemic circulation lesions

A

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Critical aortic stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta

524
Q

List the duct-dependent pulmonary circulation lesions

A

Pulmonary atresia
Critical pulmonary stenosis
Tricuspid atresia
Severe Tetralogy of Fallot

525
Q

List the Duct dependent systemic and pulmonary circulation lesions

A

Transposition of the great arteries

526
Q

List other CHDs associated with aortic stenosis

A

mitral valve stenosis
coarctation of the aorta

527
Q

List the symptoms and signs of aortic stenosis

A

Clinical features
Asymptomatic murmur
Reduced exercise tolerance
Chest pain on exertion
Syncope

Physical signs
Small volume, slow rising pulses (Pulsus tardus et parvus)
Carotid thrill
Ejection systolic murmur maximal at the upper right sternal edge radiating to the neck
Delayed and soft aortic second sound
Apical ejection click

528
Q

List the CXR signs in aortic stenosis

A

Prominent left ventricle
Post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta

529
Q

List the ECG signs in aortic stenosis

A

LVH: deep S wave in V2 and tall R wave in V6 (>45 mm total)
Downgoing T wave

530
Q

List the symptoms and signs of pulmonary stenosis

A

Clinical features
Mostly asymptomatic
Duct-dependent pulmonary circulation - cyanosis

Physical signs
Thrills, ejection systolic murmur best heard at the upper left sternal edge
Prominent right ventricular heave

531
Q

List the CXR sign in pulmonary stenosis

A

post-stenotic dilatation of the pulmonary artery

532
Q

List the ECG sign in pulmonary stenosis

A

Right ventricular hypertrophy (upright T wave in V1)

533
Q

List the clinical features in coarctation of the aorta

A

Systemic hypertension in the right arm
Ejection systolic murmur at upper sternal edge
Collaterals heard with continuous murmur at the back
* Intercostal arteries
* Internal thoracic artery
Radio-femoral delay

534
Q

List the presentations of coarctation of aorta in neonates

A

Acute circulatory collapse:
* Severe heart failure
* Absent femoral pulses
* Severe metabolic acidosis

535
Q

List the CXR signs in coarctation of aorta

A

‘Rib notching’ due to the development of large collateral intercostal arteries running under the ribs posteriorly to bypass the obstruction
‘3’ sign, with visible notch in the descending aorta at site of the coarctation

536
Q

List the ECG signs in coarctation of aorta

A

LVH: Deep S wave in V2 and tall R wave in V6
Left ventricular strain (lateral leads I, aVL, V5-6)
Upright T wave
T wave inversion originating from a depressed ST segment

537
Q

List the management for outflow obstruction in the sick infant

A

Resuscitate (ABC)
Prostaglandin
* Alprostadil
* Dinoprostone
Surgical intervention

538
Q

List the adverse effects of prostaglandins

A

Apnoea
Bradycardia
Severe hypotension
Hyperthermia

539
Q

List the classification of interruption of the aortic arch

A

Type A: The discontinuity is distal to the left subclavian artery (approximately in the same region as coarctation of the aorta).
Type B (most common): The discontinuity is more proximal, between the left carotid and subclavian.
Type C: The discontinuity is between the brachiocephalic artery and the left common carotid artery.

540
Q

List the presentation of Interruption of the aortic arch in neonates

A

Shock

541
Q

List the genetic syndrome associated with Interruption of the aortic arch

A

DiGeorge syndrome (chromosome 22q11.2 microdeletion)

542
Q

List the presentations in hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

Detected antenatally at ultrasound screening
Profound acidosis
Rapid cardiovascular collapse
All peripheral pulses absent

543
Q

List the presentations for supra ventricular tachycardia

A

Heart failure
Hydrops fetalis
Intrauterine death

544
Q

List ECG signs in supraventricular tachycardia

A

Narrow complex tachycardia of 250~300 bpm
Retrograde P wave (after QRS complex)
Severe heart failure: T-wave inversion in the lateral precordial leads

545
Q

Give the gold standard treatment in supraventricular tachycardia

A

IV adenosine

546
Q

List the non-pharmacological management in supra ventricular tachycardia

A

Circulatory and respiratory support
* Correct tissue acidosis
* Positive pressure ventilation
Vagal stimulation manoeuvres
* Carotid sinus massage
* Cold ice pack to face

547
Q

Give the pathophysiology for congenital complete heart block

A

Anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies in maternal serum
Prevent normal development of the electrical conduction system
Atrophy and fibrosis of the atrioventricular node

548
Q

List the complications for congenital complete heart block

A

Hydrops fetalis
Death in utero
Heart failure

549
Q

Give the ECG sign in congenital complete heart block

A

Dissociated P waves and QRS complexes

550
Q

List the cardiac causes for syncope in children

A

Arrhythmic
* Heart block
* Supraventricular tachycardia
* Ventricular tachycardia eg. long QT syndrome
Aortic stenosis
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

551
Q

List the diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever

A

Evidence of a recent group A streptococcal infection with at least 2 major manifestations or 1 major plus 2 minor manifestations present.

552
Q

List the major and minor manifestations in rheumatic fever

A

5 major manifestations
Carditis
Migratory arthritis
Sydenham chorea
Erythema marginatum
Subcutaneous nodules

4 minor manifestations
Fever
Polyarthralgia
Elevated ESR/CRP
Prolonged PR interval on ECG

553
Q

Give the complication in rheumatic fever

A

Rheumatic heart disease - scarring and fibrosis of cardiac valves

554
Q

List the investigations to order in rheumatic fever

A

Increased ESR, CRP
No increased leukocyte
Blood culture
ECG - PR interval lengthening
Chest X ray
Echocardiogram - acute carditis/RHD
Throat culture - Group A Streptococcus
Anti-streptococcal serology - anti-streptolysin O and anti-DNase B titres
Rapid antigen tests - Group A Streptococcus
Polymerase chain reaction assays - Group A Streptococcus

555
Q

How may antecedent group A streptococcal infection be demonstrated

A

Elevated or rising streptococcal antibody titre
Positive throat culture
Positive rapid antigen test for group A streptococci
Recent scarlet fever

556
Q

Give the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis

A

α-haemolytic streptococcus (Streptococcus viridans)

557
Q

List the groups with highest risks of infective endocarditis in children

A

VSD
Coarctation of aorta
PDA
Prosthetic material inserted at surgery

558
Q

List the presentations for infective endocarditis

A

Fever, malaise
Anaemia and pallor
Microscopic haematuria
Splinter haemorrhages in nail bed
Clubbing
Changing cardiac signs
Splenomegaly
Necrotic skin lesions
Neurological signs (cerebral infarction)
Retinal infarcts
Arthritis / arthralgia

559
Q

Give the most common vasculitis in the childhood

A

IgA vasculitis

560
Q

Give the second most common vasculitis in the childhood

A

Kawasaki’s disease

561
Q

Give the most serious sequelae in Kawasaki’s disease

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

562
Q

List the clinical stages in Kawasaki’s disease

A

Acute febrile stage (lasting weeks 1-2)
Subacute stage (lasting weeks 2-3)
Convalescent (lasting weeks 4-8)
Chronic stage (variable)

563
Q

List the investigations to order for Kawasaki’s disease

A

FBC - anaemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis
Raised ESR/CRP
Echocardiography
LFT - transaminitis
Urinalysis - mild to moderate sterile pyuria
Chest x-ray - exclude pericarditis / pneumonitis
Ultrasonography of the gallbladder - exclude hydrops of the gallbladder
Ultrasonography of the testes - exclude epididymitis
Lumbar puncture - exclude meningitis if nuchal rigidity and high fever

564
Q

List the echocardiography signs in Kawasaki’s disease

A

Left anterior descending coronary artery or right coronary artery Z score ≥2.5
Coronary artery aneurysm seen
Decreased left ventricular function
Mitral regurgitation
Pericardial effusion

565
Q

Give the management in Kawasaki’s disease

A

IVIG + Aspirin

566
Q

Give the second line options in Kawasaki’s disease

A

IV methylprednisolone
TNF-a antagonist (infliximab)
IL-1 inhibitors (anakinra)
Ciclosporin

567
Q

List the causes for pulmonary hypertension

A

Arterial
* Idiopathic: sporadic or familial
* Post-tricuspid shunts (VSD, AVSD, PDA)
* HIV infection
* Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

Venous
* Left-sided heart disease
* Pulmonary vein stenosis or compression

Respiratory disease
* Chronic obstructive lung disease / bronchopulmonary dysplasia in preterm infants
* Interstitial lung disease
* Obstructive sleep apnoea / upper airway obstruction

Pulmonary thromboembolic disease
Pulmonary inflammatory or capillary disease

568
Q

List the features of Potter sequence

A

Potter facies:
* Low-set ears
* Beaked nose
* Prominent epicanthic folds and downward slant to eyes
Pulmonary hypoplasia - respiratory failure
Limb deformities, joint contractures
Oligohydramnios

569
Q

What does ureteric bud give arise to embryologically

A

Urinary collecting system of the kidney:
* Collecting tubes
* Calyces
* Renal pelvis
* Ureter

570
Q

Give the pathophysiology in multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

Failure of the union of the ureteric bud with the nephrogenic mesenchyme

571
Q

List the pathologies in multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

The kidney consists of irregular cysts of varying sizes that resemble a bunch of grapes
Large fluid-filled cysts
No renal tissue
No connection with the bladder

572
Q

Describe the pathology in horseshoe kidney

A

Lower poles are fused in the midline

573
Q

List the pathologies in duplex kidneys

A

Ureter from the lower pole moiety often refluxes
Upper pole ureter may drain ectopically into the urethra / vagina / prolapse into the bladder (ureterocele)
Urine flow may be obstructed

574
Q

Define prune-belly syndrome

A

Absence / severe deficiency of the anterior abdominal wall muscles with
* Large bladder and dilated ureters (megacystis–megaureter)
* Cryptorchidism

575
Q

List the causes for unilateral hydronephrosis

A

Pelviureteric junction obstruction
Vesicoureteric junction obstruction

576
Q

List the causes for bilateral hydronephrosis

A

Bladder neck obstruction
Posterior urethral valves

577
Q

Give the structural anomaly in vesicoureteric reflux

A

The ureters are displaced laterally and enter directly into the bladder rather than at an angle.

578
Q

List the causes of vesicoureteric reflux

A

Renal dysplasia
Familial
Temporarily after UTI
Bladder pathology
* neuropathic bladder
* urethral obstruction

579
Q

List the complications of vesicoureteric reflux

A

UTI
Renal damage if high voiding pressures

580
Q

List the common causal organisms for UTI in children

A

Escherichia coli
Proteus mirabilis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus

581
Q

List the risk factors for UTI in children

A

Age <1 year
Female sex
White children
Previous UTI
Voiding dysfunction
* structural abnormalities
* neurogenic bladder
* voluntary withholding of urine (dysfunctional elimination syndrome)
* chronic constipation
* indwelling foreign bodies
Vesicoureteral reflux
Sexual activity
No history of breastfeeding
Immunosuppression

582
Q

Give the presentations for pyelonephritis

A

Unexplained fever of 38°C or more
Loin pain / tenderness

583
Q

List the presentations of lower UTI in infants

A

Fever
Vomiting
Lethargy or irritability
Poor feeding/faltering growth
Jaundice
Septicaemia
Offensive urine
Febrile seizure (>6 months)

584
Q

List the presentations of lower UTI in children

A

Dysuria, frequency and urgency
Abdominal pain or loin tenderness
Fever with or without rigours
Lethargy and anorexia
Vomiting, diarrhoea
Haematuria
Offensive/cloudy urine
Febrile seizure
Recurrence of enuresis

585
Q

List the investigations for UTI in children

A

Urine dipstick - positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite
Urine sample for microscopy and culture
* Bacteriuria confirms UTI
* Pyuria in the absence of bacteriuria may indicate UTI
* Absence of both bacteriuria and pyuria rules out UTI
Ultrasound of the urinary tract if atypical infection
* Structural abnormalities and urinary obstruction
* Renal defects
Dimercaptosuccinic acid scintigraphy (DMSA) - renal parenchymal defects

586
Q

List the management options for acute pyelonephritis/upper UTI

A

Oral cephalexin / co-amoxiclav 7–10 days

587
Q

List the management options for cystitis/lower UTI

A

First line: Trimethoprim / Nitrofurantoin 3 days
Second line: Amoxicillin / Cephalexin 3 days

588
Q

List the antibiotic prophylaxis options for recurrent UTI

A

First line: Trimethoprim / Nitrofurantoin
Second line: Amoxicillin / Cefalexin

589
Q

Define primary nocturnal enuresis

A

Nocturnal enuresis in which the child has never had a period of dryness longer than 6 months

590
Q

Define secondary nocturnal enuresis

A

Nocturnal enuresis recurring after a period of more than 6 months of the child being dry at night.

591
Q

List the causes for daytime enuresis

A

Lack of attention to bladder sensation
* developmental
* behavioural problem
Detrusor instability
Bladder neck weakness
Neuropathic bladder
* enlarged bladder fails to empty
* irregular thick wall
* associated with spina bifida
UTI
Constipation
Ectopic ureter

592
Q

List the causes for secondary nocturnal enuresis

A

Emotional upset
UTI
Polyuria
* Diabetes mellitus
* Renal concentrating disorder (sickle cell disease / CKD)
* Diabetes insipidus

593
Q

List the investigations for enuresis

A

Urine dipstick
Early morning urine osmolality
Ultrasound of the renal tract

594
Q

Give the definition of nephrotic syndrome

A

hypoalbuminaemia <30 g/L
proteinuria > 3.5g / day
hyperlipidaemia
peripheral oedema (salt and water retention)

595
Q

List the causes for nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change disease
Secondary to systemic diseases
* Henoch–Schönlein purpura
* SLE
* Malaria
* Allergens (bee sting)

596
Q

List the signs for nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Periorbital oedema
Scrotal / vulval, leg, ankle oedema
Ascites
Breathlessness (pleural effusions and abdominal distension)
Infections
* Peritonitis
* Septic arthritis
* Sepsis

597
Q

List the complications of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Hypovolemia
Thrombosis
Infection
Hypercholesterolaemia

598
Q

List the investigations in nephrotic syndrome

A

Urine PCR - heavy proteinuria ≥3+ protein
Urinalysis with microscopy
* Cellular casts
* Protein electrophoresis
Serological studies
* Auto-immune screen (ANA, dsDNA, ANCA, anti-phospholipase A2-receptor antibody, C3, C4, cryoglobulins)
* Protein electrophoresis, serum free light chains
* Syphilis serology
* Hepatitis B, C serology
* HIV

599
Q

Give the management for nephrotic syndrome

A

Oral prednisolone
Diuretic therapy
Salt restriction
ACEi
NSAIDs

600
Q

List the causes of steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis (membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis)
Membranous nephropathy

601
Q

What is the most common cause of steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

602
Q

List two specific features of mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis (membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis) in children

A

Haematuria
Low complement level

603
Q

Give the prognosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A

30% progress to stage 5 CKD
20% respond to tacrolimus or rituximab
Recurrence post-transplant is common

604
Q

How is mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis (membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis) in children treated

A

ACEi
Mycophenolate mofetil (immunosuppression)

605
Q

What virus is membranous nephropathy associated with?

A

Hepatitis B

606
Q

Contrast glomerular vs lower urinary tract haematuria

A

Glomerular haematuria
* Brown urine
* Abnormally shaped red cells
* Cellular casts
* Often accompanied by proteinuria

Lower urinary tract haematuria
* Red, occurs at the beginning or end of the urinary stream
* Not accompanied by proteinuria

607
Q

List the causes of haematuria

A

Acute glomerulonephritis
Non-glomerular causes:
* Infection (bacterial, viral, tuberculosis, schistosomiasis)
* Trauma
* Stones
* Hypercalciuria
* Tumours
* Sickle cell disease
* Bleeding disorders
* Renal vein thrombosis

608
Q

List the causes for acute glomerulonephritis

A

Postinfectious glomerulonephritis
Vasculitis
* Henoch–Schönlein purpura
* SLE
* Microscopic polyarteritis
* Polyarteritis nodosa
IgA nephropathy
Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
Anti-GBM disease (Goodpasture syndrome)
Alport syndrome

609
Q

Give the definition for acute glomerulonephritis

A

Haematuria
Proteinuria
Temporary oliguria and uraemia
Hypertension
Oedema (periorbital, leg or sacral)

610
Q

Give the onset of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

1–3 weeks after a group A β-haemolytic streptococcus infection eg. S. pyogenes

611
Q

Give the investigations and findings in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Blood culture
Raised antistreptolysin O/anti-DNAse B titres
Low complement C3 levels (return to normal after 3-4 weeks)

612
Q

List the renal biopsy features in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

acute, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
endothelial proliferation with neutrophils
e- microscopy: subepithelial ‘humps’ caused by lumpy immune complex deposits
immunofluorescence: granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance

613
Q

List the presentation for IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)

A

Palpable, non-blanching purpura on extensor surfaces
Arthralgia
Periarticular oedema
Abdominal pain
* Intussusception
* Haematemesis and melaena
Glomerulonephritis
Associated gastrointestinal features:
* Gastritis
* Duodenitis
* Gastrointestinal mucosal ulceration
* Purpura

614
Q

List the investigations for IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)

A

FBC
Serum IgA - elevated
Blood pressure
Early morning urinalysis
* Haematuria
* Urine PCR
* eGFR

615
Q

Give the first line management in IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)

A

Oral prednisolone

616
Q

Give the renal biopsy finding in IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)

A

IgA deposition in the mesangial region

617
Q

Give the management options in IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)

A

Oral prednisolone (first line)
Immunosuppressants
* Azathioprine
* Mycophenolate
* IV cyclophosphamide
ACEi - persistent proteinuria

618
Q

Give the underlying pathology for Alport’s syndrome

A

Type IV collagen abnormality
Loss of the normal permselectivity of the GBM

619
Q

Give the most common inheritance in Alport’s syndrome

A

X-linked dominant

620
Q

List the presentations in Alport’s syndrome

A

Rare hereditary nephritis with:
Haematuria
Proteinuria
Progressive kidney disease
High-frequency sensorineural hearing loss
Lenticonus
Retinal abnormalities (maculopathy)

621
Q

List the presentation of Alport’s syndrome with diffuse leiomyomatosis

A

(often in females)
Childhood history of:
* Cataracts
* Dysphagia (esophageal leiomyomas)
* Cough
* Altered bowel habit (diffuse leiomyomatosis of the bowel wall)
* Recurrent bronchitis (bronchial leiomyomas)

622
Q

List the presentation of Alport’s syndrome with learning disability

A

Nephropathy with learning disability
Midface hypoplasia
Elliptocytosis

623
Q

Give the diagnostic criteria for Alport’s syndrome

A

Positive family Hx of haematuria with/without progression to chronic renal failure
Progressive sensorineural hearing loss
Characteristic ocular changes
* anterior lenticonus
* maculopathy
Typical ultrastructural changes in the GBM

624
Q

List the causes for hypertension in children

A

Renal
* Renal parenchymal disease
* Renal artery stenosis
* Polycystic kidney disease
* Renal tumours
Coarctation of the aorta
Catecholamine excess
* Pheochromocytoma
* Neuroblastoma
Endocrine
* Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
* Cushing syndrome / corticosteroid therapy
* Hyperthyroidism
Essential hypertension

625
Q

How may hypertension present in children

A

Vomiting
Headaches
Facial palsy
Hypertensive retinopathy
Seizures
Proteinuria
Faltering growth
Cardiac failure

626
Q

List the causes for unilateral renal mass

A

Multicystic dysplastic kidney
Compensatory hypertrophy of normal kidney
Obstructive hydronephrosis
Renal tumour (Wilms tumour)
Renal vein thrombosis

627
Q

List the causes for bilateral renal masses

A

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidneys
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidneys
Tuberous sclerosis
Renal vein thrombosis

628
Q

List the predisposing causes for renal calculi

A

UTI (phosphate stones in Proteus infection)
Structural anomalies of the urinary tract
Metabolic abnormalities
* Idiopathic hypercalciuria - calcium-containing stones
* Nephrocalcinosis - hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and distal renal tubular acidosis

629
Q

List the presentations for renal calculi

A

Haematuria
Loin/abdominal pain
UTI
Passage of a stone

630
Q

List the renal tubular disorders of the proximal tubule

A

Glycosuria - reduced glucose reabsorption
Cystinuria - reduced cystine and dibasic amino acid reabsorption
Hyperuricosuria - reduced uric acid reabsorption
Hypercalciuria - reduced calcium reabsorption
Renal tubular acidosis type II - reduced bicarbonate reabsorption
Vitamin D resistant rickets - reduced phosphate reabsorption
Pseudohypoparathyroidism - increased phosphate reabsorption

631
Q

Give the pathophysiology in Bartter syndrome

A

Reduced chloride reabsorption in thick ascending limb loop of henle

632
Q

List the presentations in Bartter syndrome

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Hypercalciuria
Normal blood pressure with increased renin
Polydipsia and polyuria
Faltering growth

633
Q

Give the pathophysiology of Fanconi syndrome

A

Defect of proximal tubule leading to malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances
Excessive urinary loss of:
* Amino acids
* Glucose
* Phosphate
* Bicarbonate
* Sodium, calcium, potassium, magnesium

634
Q

List the causes of Fanconi syndrome

A

Idiopathic
Secondary to inborn errors of metabolism:
* Cystinosis (autosomal recessive, intracellular accumulation of cystine)
* Tyrosinemia
* Galactosaemia
* Fructose intolerance
* Glycogen storage disorders
* Lowe syndrome (oculocerebrorenal dystrophy)
* Wilson disease
Acquired
* Drugs and toxins, e.g. gentamicin, amphotericin
* Heavy metals

635
Q

Give the pRIFLE classification of AKI

A

Risk
* Est creatinine clearance decreased by 25%
* Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hr for 8 hours

Injury
* Est creatinine clearance decreased by 50%
* Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hr for 16 hours

Failure
* Est creatinine clearance decreased by 75% OR <35 ml/min/1.73m2
* Urine output <0.3 ml/kg/hr for 24 hours OR anuric for 12 hours

Loss - Persistent renal failure >4 weeks

End stage - Persistent renal failure >3 months

636
Q

Give the KDIGO classification of AKI

A

Stage 1
* Serum creatinine increase 1.5~1.9x baseline / >27 micromol/L
* Urine output < 0.5 ml/kg/hr for 6~12 hours

Stage 2
* Serum creatinine increase 2.5~2.9x baseline
* Urine output < 0.5 ml/kg/hr for >12 hours

Stage 3
* Serum creatinine increase 3x baseline / >354 micromol/L
* Initiation of RRT
* eGFR < 35ml/min/1.73m2
* Urine output < 0.5 ml/kg/hr for >24 hours / anuric for >12 hours

637
Q

Give the management for metabolic acidosis in AKI

A

Sodium bicarbonate

638
Q

Give the management for Hyperphosphataemia in AKI

A

Calcium carbonate
Dietary restriction

639
Q

Give the management for Hyperkalaemia in AKI

A

Calcium gluconate + Salbutamol (nebulized/IV)
Glucose and insulin

640
Q

When is renal replacement therapy indicated

A

failure of conservative management
hyperkalaemia
severe hypo/hypernatraemia
pulmonary oedema / severe hypertension (volume overload)
severe metabolic acidosis
multisystem failure

641
Q

Give the triad in haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (schistocytes)
Thrombocytopenia
Acute kidney injury

642
Q

Give the presentations of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Abdominal pain + Bloody diarrhoea
Nausea and vomiting
Fatigue, pallor
Bruising, petechiae
Oliguria, oedema

643
Q

Give the most common cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli

644
Q

Give one cause of infectious (non-Shiga toxin-related) haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

645
Q

List the secondary causes for haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Bone marrow transplant
Ciclosporin
Pregnancy

646
Q

List the investigations in haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopenia
Peripheral blood smear - schistocytes
Renal function - increased creatinine
Serum electrolytes
* Hyperkalaemia
* Hypo/hypernatraemia
* Acidosis (bicarbonate loss)
* Hyperphosphatemia
LDH - increased
Haptoglobin - decreased
Stool culture - Shiga toxin-producing E coli
PCR - Shiga toxin

647
Q

List the roles of haptoglobin in haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Haptoglobin binds free haemoglobin released by the haemolysed red blood cells.
Haptoglobin-haemoglobin complex is removed by the liver and spleen.

648
Q

Give the management of Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) HUS

A

Avoidance of antibiotics, antimotility (antidiarrhoeal) agents, and NSAIDs
Red cell transfusion, dialysis, and renal transplantation

649
Q

Give the pathophysiology of renal osteodystrophy

A
  1. Decreased activation of vitamin D
  2. Phosphate retention and hypocalcaemia
  3. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
  4. Results in osteitis fibrosa and osteomalacia of the bone.
650
Q

List the management in renal osteodystrophy

A

Phosphate restriction
* Reduce dietary intake of milk products
* Calcium carbonate (phosphate binder)
Activated vitamin D supplementation

651
Q

List the CKD grading

A

Stage 1 - eGFR >90
Stage 2 - eGFR 60–89
Stage 3 - eGFR 30–59
Stage 4 - eGFR 15–29
Stage 5 - eGFR <15

652
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia protrudes through the deep inguinal ring

A

Indirect

653
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia is more common in children

A

Indirect

654
Q

List the causes for inguinal hernia

A

Congenital - persistently patent processus vaginalis
Acquired
* Dilation of the internal ring
* Direct weakness of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal
Connective tissue disorders
* Marfan syndrome
* Ehler-Danlos syndrome

655
Q

List the presentations for inguinal hernia

A

Palpable swelling in the groin visible during straining/coughing
Intermittent bulge that disappears when lying flat
Dragging sensation in the groin
Discomfort during strenuous exercise/heavy lifting

656
Q

List the management for inguinal hernia

A

Gentle compression in the line of the inguinal canal with good analgesia
Surgery

657
Q

List the complications for inguinal hernia

A

Incarceration
Bowel obstruction
Strangulation

658
Q

List the definition of anaemia in neonate, 1~12 months, and 1~12 years

A

Neonate - Hb <140 g/L
1~12 months - Hb <100 g/L
1~12 years of age - Hb <110 g/L

659
Q

List the causes of anaemia in children

A

Red cell aplasia
* Parvovirus B19 infection
* Diamond-Blackfan anaemia (congenital red cell aplasia)
* Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood
* Fanconi anaemia
* Aplastic anaemia
* Leukaemia
Qualitatively abnormal erythropoiesis
* Iron deficiency
* Folic acid / vitamin B12 deficiency
* Chronic inflammation (juvenile idiopathic arthritis)
* Chronic renal failure
* Myelodysplasia
* Lead poisoning
Increased haemolysis
* Hereditary spherocytosis
* Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
* Thalassaemia, sickle cell disease
* Haemolytic disease of the newborn
* Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Blood loss
* Feto-maternal bleeding
* Meckel diverticulum
* von Willebrand disease

660
Q

List the complications of long-term blood transfusion in children

A

Iron deposition
* Heart – cardiomyopathy
* Liver – cirrhosis
* Pancreas – diabetes
* Pituitary gland – impaired growth and sexual maturation
* Skin – hyperpigmentation
Antibody formation
Infection
* Hepatitis A, B, C
* HIV
* Malaria
* Prions (e.g. new variant Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease)

661
Q

List the causes for anaemia of prematurity

A

inadequate erythropoietin production
reduced red cell lifespan
frequent blood sampling in hospital
iron and folic acid deficiency (after 2–3 months)

662
Q

What can reduce the risk of iron and folic acid deficiency in premature infants

A

Delayed cord clamping at birth

663
Q

List the main causes of iron deficiency in childhood

A

Inadequate intake
* Delayed mixed feeding beyond 6 months in breast-fed infants
* Insufficient iron-rich foods eg. cow’s milk
Malabsorption - Coeliac disease
Meckel diverticulum (Chronic blood loss)

664
Q

List the sources of iron during childhood

A

Breast milk (low iron content but 50% of the iron is absorbed)
Infant formula (supplemented with adequate amounts of iron)
Solids introduced at weaning, e.g. cereals (supplemented with iron but only 1% is absorbed)

665
Q

List the presentations for iron deficiency in childhood

A

Children tire easily
Young infants feed more slowly than usual
Pallor of the conjunctiva, tongue or palmar creases
Pica

666
Q

List the management options for iron deficiency in childhood

A

Dietary advice
Oral iron
* Sodium iron edetate
* Polysaccharide iron complex

667
Q

List the clinical presentation of congenital red cell aplasia (‘Diamond–Blackfan anaemia’)

A

Craniofacial abnormalities (webbed neck, cleft lip, shielded chest)
Triphalangeal thumb
Increased risks of malignancy

668
Q

What causes congenital red cell aplasia (‘Diamond–Blackfan anaemia’)

A

Mutations in ribosomal protein genes

669
Q

How is congenital red cell aplasia (‘Diamond–Blackfan anaemia’) inherited

A

Autosomal dominant

670
Q

List the management options for red cell aplasia

A

oral steroids
monthly red cell transfusion
stem cell transplantation

671
Q

What may transient erythroblastopenia of childhood be triggered by

A

Viral infections

672
Q

List the investigation findings in haemolytic anaemia

A

Anaemia with normal white cell count and platelet count
Raised reticulocyte count (polychromasia)
Abnormal blood film (spherocytes, sickle shaped, hypochromic)
Splenohepatomegaly (extramedullary haemopoiesis)
Unconjugated bilirubinemia and increased urinary urobilinogen
Positive direct antiglobulin test in immune cause
Increased red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow

672
Q

List the investigation findings in red cell aplasia

A

low reticulocyte count despite low Hb
normal bilirubin
negative direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test)
absent red cell precursors on bone marrow examination

673
Q

Give the pathophysiology of Hereditary spherocytosis

A

Defects in membrane structural proteins eg. spectrin, ankyrin
Loss of surface membrane area relative to volume
Alters the red-cell shape (spherical) and reduces flexibility
The spherocytes are fragile and are selectively destroyed in the spleen
Increased rate of red-cell destruction typically results in:
* Hyperbilirubinemia
* Elevated reticulocyte count
* Splenomegaly

674
Q

How is hereditary spherocytosis inherited

A

Autosomal dominant

675
Q

List the signs and symptoms for hereditary spherocytosis

A

Pallor
Jaundice
Splenomegaly
Fatigue
Aplastic crisis - caused by parvovirus B19 infection

676
Q

List the investigation findings in hereditary spherocytosis

A

Increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
Reticulocytosis ± anaemia
Spherocytes on the blood smear
Negative direct antiglobulin test
Increased osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test
Abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test

677
Q

List the management options for hereditary spherocytosis

A

RBC transfusion for symptomatic anaemia
Folic acid supplementation
Splenectomy (>6 yrs) with preoperative vaccination regimen
Post-splenectomy pneumococcal prophylaxis (penicillin 2/day for 3-5 years)
Cholecystectomy / cholecystostomy

678
Q

What should patients undergoing splenectomy be immunised against

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae type b
Meningitis ACWY, meningitis B

679
Q

What geographical regions is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency common in

A

Common where malaria is or was common:
* sub-Saharan Africa
* Asia
* Mediterranean region
* Middle East

680
Q

How is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency inherited

A

X-linked recessive

681
Q

Give the pathophysiology of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

G6PD is the rate-limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway.
Essential for preventing oxidative damage to red cells.
Red cells lacking G6PD are susceptible to oxidant-induced haemolysis.

682
Q

List the presentation for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Prolonged/severe neonatal jaundice
Acute haemolysis
* Fever
* Malaise
* Abdominal pain
* Dark urine

683
Q

List the precipitating factors for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Infection
Drugs
* Sulphonamides (eg. co-trimoxazole)
* Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)
* Nitrofurantoin
* Quinine
* Chloroquine
* Aspirin (high doses)
* Sulfonylureas
Food
* Fava beans
* Naphthalene in mothballs

684
Q

List the management options for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Folic acid supplementation
Erythropoietin
Blood transfusion
Dialysis

685
Q

List the investigations and findings in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

FBC and reticulocytes
* Normochromic, normocytic anaemia
* Increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
* Elevated reticulocyte count
Peripheral smear
* Anisocytosis with bite cells
* Heinz bodies (fragments of denatured haemoglobin)
Complete metabolic panel
* LFT: elevated unconjugated bilirubin, LDH, and transaminase
* Renal dysfunction due to dehydration, haemoglobinuria
* Low haptoglobin
Urinalysis
* Haemoglobinuria if intravascular haemolysis
* Urobilinogen and protein
Abdominal ultrasound
* Splenomegaly
* Gallstones

686
Q

What age group does transient erythroblastopenia of childhood occur?

A

In healthy children between 6 months and 5 years

687
Q

List the laboratory findings in congenital red cell aplasia (‘Diamond–Blackfan anaemia’)

A

Macrocytic anaemia
Reticulocytopenia
Normal platelets, white cells

688
Q

Give the presentations in aplastic anaemia. In which order do they occur?

A

Pancytopenia
* Bruising
* Infection
* Anaemia

  1. thrombocytopenia
  2. neutropenia
  3. anaemia
689
Q

Give the investigation and findings in aplastic anaemia

A

Bone marrow biopsy - hypocellular marrow with abundance of stromal and fat cells

690
Q

What is the most common inherited aplastic anaemia

A

Fanconi anaemia

691
Q

How is Fanconi anaemia inherited

A

Autosomal recessive
X-linked recessive (2%)

692
Q

Give the pathophysiology in Fanconi anaemia

A

Mutations in FANC genes, most commonly FANCA
Bone marrow failure due to selective destruction of CD34+ stem cells
Impairs DNA repair

693
Q

List the presentations of Fanconi anaemia

A

Bone marrow failure
Congenital anomalies
* Short stature, microcephaly
* Microphthalmia, strabismus
* Low set ears, middle ear abnormalities (haemorrhage, incomplete development, chronic infections, deafness)
* Abnormal radii and thumbs
* Hypo/hyperpigmented macules, cafe au lait spots, large freckles
* Renal malformations, hypogonadism

694
Q

List the complications from Fanconi anaemia

A

Death from bone marrow failure
Transformation to acute leukaemia

695
Q

List the laboratory findings in Fanconi anaemia

A

Pancytopenia
Increased chromosomal breakage of peripheral blood lymphocytes
Genetic analysis of FANC genes

696
Q

Give the management in Fanconi anaemia

A

Bone marrow transplant

697
Q

How is Shwachman–Diamond syndrome inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

698
Q

Give the classic triad in Shwachman–Diamond syndrome

A

Bone marrow failure (isolated neutropenia/mild pancytopenia)
Pancreatic exocrine failure
Skeletal abnormalities

699
Q

Give one complication of Shwachman–Diamond syndrome

A

Transforming to acute leukaemia

700
Q

List investigations for bleeding disorders

A

Full blood count and blood film
Prothrombin time (PT)
* extrinsic and common pathways
* elevated with deficiencies of factors II, V, X and VII
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
* intrinsic and common pathways
* elevated with deficiencies of factors II, V, X, VIII, IX, XI and XII
If PT or APTT prolonged, 50:50 mix with normal plasma will distinguish between factor deficiency or presence of inhibitor
* If correct - coagulation factor deficiency.
* If not correct - presence of an inhibitor eg. lupus anticoagulant.
Thrombin time - deficiency or dysfunction of fibrinogen
Quantitative fibrinogen assay
D-dimers – fibrin degradation products
Biochemical screen eg. renal and liver function tests

701
Q

Which coagulation factors and proteins are dependent on vitamin K?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X
Protein C
Protein S

702
Q

List the acquired causes of coagulation disorders

A

Vitamin K deficiency
Liver disease
Immune thrombocytopenia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

703
Q

How are haemophilia A and B inherited

A

X-linked recessive

704
Q

What clotting factors are deficient in haemophilia A and B

A

Haemophilia A: deficiency of clotting factor VIII
Haemophilia B: deficiency of clotting factor IX

705
Q

List the haemophilia staging by severity

A

Severe (<1% clotting factor level [CFL]):
* Frequent spontaneous bleeding, particularly into joints and muscles
* Severe bleeding with trauma and surgery
Moderate (1~5% CFL):
* Occasional spontaneous bleeding
* Severe bleeding with trauma and surgery
Mild (5~40% CFL) - Severe bleeding with trauma and injury

706
Q

What may acquired haemophilia occur in association with?

A

autoimmune disorders
inflammatory bowel disease
diabetes
hepatitis
pregnancy and the postnatal period
malignancy
monoclonal gammopathies
certain drugs

707
Q

List the presentations for haemophilia

A

Recurrent or severe bleeding
Bleeding in joints or muscles
* warmth
* erythema
* limitation in range of motion
Minor mucocutaneous bleeding
* epistaxis
* bleeding from gums following minor dental procedures
* easy bruising
Severe bleeding following trauma, surgery, or dental procedures
GI bleeding
Haematuria

708
Q

Give the complication of recurrent hemarthrosis

A

Haemophilic arthropathy
Hemosiderin deposition in the joint triggers synovial inflammation, leads to fibrosis and destruction of cartilage and bone

709
Q

List the investigations for haemophilia

A

Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time
Factor VIII / IX assay - confirm diagnosis
Mixing study

710
Q

List the management options for haemophilia

A

Factor replacement
Desmopressin for mild haemophilia A

711
Q

List the functions of von Willebrand factor

A

link between platelets and exposed vascular subendothelium
binds and stabilises coagulation factor VIII

712
Q

Which chromosome is VWF gene located on

A

Chromosome 12

713
Q

Give the classification of vWF disease

A

Type 1: quantitative deficiency of VWF
Type 2: qualitative VWF defects
Type 3: complete deficiency of VWF (more severe)

714
Q

List the acquired causes of vWF disease

A

Malignancy
* Multiple myeloma
* Monoclonal gammopathy
* Lymphoma
Autoimmune diseases

715
Q

List the inheritance pattern of vWF disease

A

Type 1 AD
Type 2 AD
Type 3 AR

716
Q

List the presentations in vWF disease

A

Mucocutaneous bleeding
Joint bleeding
Menorrhagia
Postnatal haemorrhage

717
Q

List the management options for vWF disease

A

Type 1 - desmopressin
Type 2
* desmopressin
* antifibrinolytic therapy (Tranexamic acid, aminocaproic acid)
Type 3 - vWF-containing concentrates

718
Q

List the laboratory findings in vWF disease

A

Normal PT
Prolonged aPTT
Reduced
* factor VIII:C
* vWF antigen
* ristocetin cofactor activity
Abnormal ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation

719
Q

List the severity grading for thrombocytopenia

A

Severe thrombocytopenia (platelets <20 × 10^9 /L) – risk of spontaneous bleeding
Moderate thrombocytopenia (platelets 20–50 × 10^9 /L) – at risk of excess bleeding during operations or trauma but low risk of spontaneous bleeding
Mild thrombocytopenia (platelets 50–150 × 10^9 /L) – low risk of bleeding unless there is a major operation or severe trauma.

720
Q

List the causes of thrombocytopenia

A

(Increased platelet destruction/consumption)
Immune
* Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
* Systemic lupus erythematosus
* Alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia
Non-immune
* Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
* Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
* Disseminated intravascular coagulation
* Congenital heart disease
* Giant haemangiomas (Kasabach–Merritt syndrome)
* Hypersplenism

(Impaired platelet production)
Congenital
* Fanconi anaemia
* Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
* Bernard–Soulier syndrome
Acquired
* Aplastic anaemia
* Marrow infiltration (e.g. leukaemia)
* Drug-induced

721
Q

List the causes of purpura or easy bruising with normal platelet count

A

Acquired platelet dysfunction
* Uraemia
* Cardiopulmonary bypass
Congenital vascular disorders
* Ehlers-Danlos
* Marfan syndrome
* Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
Acquired vascular disorders
* Meningococcal sepsis
* Henoch–Schönlein purpura
* Trauma
* Scurvy

722
Q

Give the pathophysiology of immune thrombocytopenia

A

Formation of antiplatelet antibodies IgG against GPIIb/IIIa in the spleen

723
Q

List the causes of secondary immune thrombocytopenia

A

HIV
Hepatitis C
Helicobacter pylori
Immunodeficiencies
Immunological/autoimmune disorders
* SLE
* Evans’ syndrome
* Antiphospholipid syndrome
* Autoimmune thyroid disease
Lymphoproliferative disorders
Drug-induced
Vaccine exposure

724
Q

When does immune thrombocytopenia often present?

A

1 to 2 weeks after a viral infection or vaccination

725
Q

List the presentations for immune thrombocytopenia

A

(1~2 weeks after a viral infection or vaccination)
Abrupt onset
Bleeding
* Petechiae - primarily on the lower limbs
* Bruising
* Hemorrhagic bullae
* Bleeding gum
Fatigue
Intracranial bleeding

726
Q

Give the laboratory finding in immune thrombocytopenia

A

Isolated thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm^3)

727
Q

Give the emergency management for immune thrombocytopenia

A

Corticosteroids (prednisolone) + IVIG + platelet transfusion

728
Q

Give the initial treatment for immune thrombocytopenia in newly diagnosed adults

A

Corticosteroid (prednisolone)
IVIG
Anti-D immunoglobulin

729
Q

List the secondary causes of venous thromboembolic events

A

Severe sepsis
Dehydration
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Catheter-related thrombosis
Hypernatraemia
Polycythaemia (e.g. congenital heart disease)
Malignancy
SLE
Antiphospholipid syndrome

730
Q

List the congenital prothrombotic disorders (thrombophilias)

A

Protein C deficiency
Protein S deficiency
Antithrombin deficiency
Factor V Leiden
Prothrombin gene G20210A mutation

731
Q

List the presentations for thrombosis in children

A

Unanticipated / extensive venous thrombosis
Ischaemic skin lesions
Neonatal purpura fulminans (widespread haemorrhage and purpura into the skin)

732
Q

List the investigations for thrombosis in children

A

Assays for protein C and protein S
Antithrombin assay
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for factor V Leiden, and prothrombin gene mutation

733
Q

Give the pathophysiology of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

Absence of glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchored proteins on the membrane surface of blood cells.
Activation of complement on blood cells
Cause continuous low-grade haemolysis and is exaggerated at night
The resultant haemoglobinaemia readily binds nitric oxide in the tissues, resulting in smooth muscle contractions

734
Q

List the clinical presentations of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

Dark urine (haemoglobinuria) - often with infections or as paroxysms lasting 2 to 6 days
Anaemia
* Tiredness
* Shortness of breath
* Palpitations
Thrombosis
* Deep vein thrombosis
* Cerebral / arterial thrombosis
Budd-Chiari syndrome (hepatic venous thrombosis)
* RUQ tenderness
* Hepatomegaly
* Ascites
Nitric oxide deprivation
* Abdominal pain
* Oesophageal spasm - Odynophagia, Dysphagia
* Erectile dysfunction
* Pulmonary hypertension - Dyspnoea

735
Q

List the laboratory findings in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

FBC - anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
Intravascular haemolysis
* Haemoglobinuria
* Increased reticulocyte
* Increased plasma lactate dehydrogenase
* Increased unconjugated bilirubin
* Low haptoglobin
Negative Coombs test
Urine dipstick - Haemoglobinuria
Urine microscopy - Haemosiderinuria
Thrombosis - increased D dimer
Flow cytometry: >1~3% of anchor-deficient granulocytes

736
Q

Give the definitive diagnostic investigation for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

Flow cytometry

737
Q

List the treatments for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

Eculizumab and ravulizumab - C5 or C3 inhibition
Iron and folate supplementation

738
Q

List the risk factors for HIV in infancy

A

High maternal viral load
Breastfeeding by infected mother

739
Q

List the clinical features for HIV in pregnancy

A

Failure to thrive
Chronic diarrhoea
Lymphadenopathy
Pneumocystis pneumonia

740
Q

List the investigations for HIV in pregnancy

A

DNA polymerase chain reaction testing
Persistence of HIV antibody after age 18 months

741
Q

How is neonatal herpes simplex transmitted

A

Vertically transmitted

742
Q

List the clinical features for neonatal herpes simplex

A

Herpetic lesions (<2 weeks)
* Mucocutaneous vesicles
* Keratoconjunctivitis
Meningoencephalitis (3~4 weeks)
* Seizures, fever, lethargy
* Temporal lobe haemorrhage/oedema
Disseminated
* Sepsis
* Hepatitis
* Pneumonia

743
Q

List the investigations for neonatal herpes simplex

A

Viral surface cultures
HSV PCR

744
Q

List the treatments for neonatal herpes simplex

A

IV Acyclovir
Elective C section if active disease

745
Q

Give the risk factor for congenital CMV

A

Maternal contact with infected bodily fluids eg. saliva

746
Q

Give the investigation for congenital CMV

A

Urine/saliva CMV PCR

747
Q

Give the treatment for congenital CMV

A

Ganciclovir / valganciclovir

748
Q

List the maternal risk factors for congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Raw/undercooked meat
Unwashed produce (contaminated soil)
Handling of cat faeces

749
Q

Give the investigation for congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Toxoplasma serology / PCR

750
Q

List the treatments for congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine
Sulfadiazine
Folinic acid

751
Q

List the clinical presentations for phenylketonuria

A

Learning difficulties
Seizures
Microcephaly
Hypopigmented skin
Eczema
Musty body odour

752
Q

List the treatments for phenylketonuria

A

Phenylalanine restricted diet
Increase diet tyrosine (soy products, chicken, fish, milk)
Tetrahydrobiopterin supplementation
Avoid aspartame (artificial sweetener, contains phenylalanine)

753
Q

List the conditions detected by newborn blood spot screening

A

Cystic fibrosis
Congenital hypothyroidism
Haemoglobinopathies
Phenylketonuria
MCAD (medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency)
Glutaric aciduria type 1
Isovaleric acidaemia
Homocystinuria
Maple syrup urine disease

754
Q

List the clinical presentations for MCAD (medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency)

A

Rapidly progressive encephalopathy
Collapse after prolonged fast resulting in non-ketotic hypoglycemia and death if untreated

755
Q

Give the treatment for Phenylketonuria

A

Phenylalanine restricted diet
Avoid aspartame (artificial sweetener, contains phenylalanine)
Increase tyrosine in diet (soy products, chicken, fish, milk)
Tetrahydrobiopterin supplementation

756
Q

Give the treatment for MCAD (medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency)

A

Avoidance of fasting
Emergency regimen

757
Q

Give the clinical presentation for Glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)

A

Macrocephaly with encephalopathic crisis aged 6–18 months resulting in dystonic-dyskinetic movement disorder

758
Q

Gove the management options for Glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)

A

Specialist diet
Avoid fasting
Daily carnitine

759
Q

List the clinical presentations for Isovaleric acidaemia

A

Metabolic acidosis ± hyperammonemia

760
Q

List the treatments for isovaleric acidaemia

A

Low protein diet
Carnitine
Glycine

761
Q

How is phenylketonuria inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

762
Q

List the treatment options for homocystinuria

A

Low protein diet
Pyridoxine
Folic acid

763
Q

How is homocystinuria inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

764
Q

List the clinical presentations for maple syrup urine disease

A

Progressive encephalopathy in first week of life
Vomiting
Poor feeding
Urine smells like male syrup / burnt sugar

765
Q

List the management options for maple syrup urine disease

A

Low protein diet (restrict diet isoleucine, leucine, valine)
Thiamine supplementation

766
Q

Give the pathophysiology for phenylketonuria

A

Reduced phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)
Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4) deficiency (cofactor for PAH)
Increased phenylalanine cause increased phenyl ketones in urine

767
Q

Define phenylalanine embryopathy

A

Increased phenylalanine levels in pregnant patients with untreated PKU

768
Q

What does Phenylalanine embryopathy manifest as

A

foetal growth restriction
microcephaly
intellectual disability
congenital heart defects

769
Q

Give the pathophysiology of maple syrup urine disease

A

Blocked degradation of branched amino acids (isoleucine, leucine, valine) due to decreased branched-chain α-ketoacid dehydrogenase (B1).
Causes increased α-ketoacids in the blood

770
Q

What is the normal anion gap

A

10~16 mmol/L

771
Q

Give the formula for the calculation of anion gap

A

(Na+ + K+) - (Cl- + HCO3-)

772
Q

What conditions cause raised anion gap in children?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis
Renal failure
Inborn errors of metabolism
Poisoning with
* Salicylate
* Ethanol
* Methanol
* Paraldehyde

773
Q

List the clinical presentations for hyperammonemia

A

Encephalopathy
* Asterixis (flapping tremor)
* Speech slurring
* Vision blurring
* Somnolence
* Vomiting
* Seizures (cerebral oedema)
Respiratory alkalosis (ammonia is a respiratory stimulant)
Recurrent vomiting
Unexplained severe illness

774
Q

List the management options for hyperammonemia

A

Stop feeds (reduce protein intake)
Lactulose - acidify GI tract and trap NH4+ for excretion
IV ammonia scavengers (sodium phenylbutyrate) + arginine
Antibiotics (rifaximin) to reduce ammoniagenic bacteria
Haemodialysis

775
Q

What’s the most common urea cycle disorder

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

776
Q

How is Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency inherited

A

X-linked recessive

777
Q

List the laboratory findings in Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

A

Increased orotic acid in blood and urine
Decreased blood urea nitrogen
Hyperammonemia
No megaloblastic anaemia (vs orotic aciduria)

778
Q

Name the rate limiting enzyme in urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

779
Q

Which kind of staining can identify glycogen on histology?

A

Periodic acid-Schiff stain

780
Q

Give the definition of hypoglycaemia in children

A

blood glucose < 2.6 mmol/L

781
Q

How are glycogen storage diseases inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

782
Q

List the clinical presentations for Von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease type I)

A

Severe fasting hypoglycemia
Increased glycogen in liver and kidneys (hepatomegaly, renomegaly)
Increased blood lactate, triglycerides, uric acid (gout)

783
Q

What is the deficient enzyme in Von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease type I)

A

Glucose-6-phophatase

784
Q

List the treatment options for Von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease type I)

A

Frequent oral glucose/cornstarch
Avoid fructose and galactose

785
Q

List the clinical presentations for Pompe disease (glycogen storage disease type II)

A

Cardiomyopathy
Hypotonia
Exercise intolerance
Enlarged tongue
Early death

786
Q

What is the deficient enzyme in Pompe disease (glycogen storage disease type II)

A

Lysosomal acid α-1,4-glucosidase (acid maltase)

787
Q

List the clinical presentations in Cori disease (glycogen storage disorder type III)

A

Milder form of type I with normal blood lactate
Cardiomyopathy
Hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, hepatic adenomas

788
Q

List the clinical presentations for Andersen disease (glycogen storage disorder type IV)

A

Failure to thrive in early infancy
Hepatosplenomegaly, Infantile cirrhosis
Muscular weakness, Hypotonia
Cardiomyopathy
Early childhood death

789
Q

What are the deficient enzymes in Cori disease (glycogen storage disorder type III)

A

Debranching enzymes (α-1,6-glucosidase and 4-α-d-glucanotransferase)

790
Q

What are the deficient enzymes in Andersen disease (glycogen storage disorder type IV)

A

Branching enzyme

791
Q

List the clinical presentations for McArdle disease (glycogen storage disease type V)

A

Painful muscle cramps (increased glycogen in muscle but muscle cannot break it down)
Myoglobinuria (red urine) with strenuous exercise
Arrhythmia (electrolyte abnormalities)
Second-wind phenomenon

792
Q

What is the deficient enzyme in McArdle disease (glycogen storage disease type V)

A

Skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase (myophosphorylase)

793
Q

What are sphingolipidoses characterised by

A

accumulation of harmful quantities of glycosphingolipids and phosphosphingolipids

794
Q

Give the pathophysiology of mucopolysaccharidoses

A

enzymes needed to breakdown glycosaminoglycans are missing or don’t work properly

795
Q

List the lysosomal storage disorders

A

Sphingolipidoses
* Tay-Sachs disease
* Fairy disease
* Metachromatic leukodystrophy
* Krabble disease
* Gaucher disease
* Niemann-Pick disease
Mucopolysaccharidoses
* Hurler syndrome
* Hunter syndrome

796
Q

List the clinical findings in Tay-Sachs disease

A

Progressive neurodegeneration
Developmental delay
Hyperreflexia
Hyperacusis
Cherry red spot on macula (lipid accumulation in ganglion cell layer)
Lysosomes with onion skin on histology
No hepatosplenomegaly

797
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in Tay-Sachs disease

A

Hexoaminidase A

798
Q

Name the accumulated substrate in Tay-Sachs disease

A

GM2 ganglioside

799
Q

How is Tay-Sachs disease inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

800
Q

List the clinical presentations in Fabry disease

A

Early - triad
* episodic peripheral neuropathy
* angiokeratoma
* hyperhidrosis
Late
* progressive renal failure
* cardiovascular disease

801
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in Fabry disease

A

alpha-galactosidase A

802
Q

Name the accumulated substrate in Fabry disease

A

Ceramide trihexoside

803
Q

How is Fabry disease inherited

A

X-linked recessive

804
Q

Give the clinical presentation in metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

Central and peripheral demyelination with ataxia, dementia

805
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

Arylsulfatase A

806
Q

Name the accumulated substrate in metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

Cerebroside sulfate

807
Q

How is metachromatic leukodystrophy inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

808
Q

List the clinical presentations in Krabble disease

A

Peripheral neuropathy
Destruction of oligodendrocytes
Developmental delay
CN II atrophy
Globoid cells

809
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in Krabble disease

A

Galactocerebrosidase

810
Q

Name the accumulated substrate in Krabble disease

A

Galactocerebroside

811
Q

What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder

A

Gaucher disease

812
Q

How is Krabble disease inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

813
Q

List the presentations in Gaucher disease

A

Hepatosplenomegaly
Pancytopenia
Osteoporosis
Avascular necrosis of femur
Bone crises
Gaucher cells (lipid-laden macrophages resembling crumpled tissue paper)

814
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in Gaucher disease

A

Glucocerebrosidase (beta-glucosidase)

815
Q

Name the accumulated substrate in Gaucher disease

A

Glucocerebroside

816
Q

How is Gaucher disease inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

817
Q

List the clinical presentations of Niemann-Pick disease

A

Progressive neurodegeneration
Hepatosplenomegaly
Foam cells (lipid-laden macrophages)
Cherry-red spot on macula

818
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in Niemann-Pick disease

A

Sphingomyelinase

819
Q

Name the accumulated substrate in Niemann-Pick disease

A

Sphingomyelin

820
Q

How is Niemann-Pick disease inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

821
Q

List the clinical presentations in Hurler syndrome

A

Developmental delay
Hirsutism
Skeletal anomalies
Airway obstruction
Clouded cornea
Hepatosplenomegaly

822
Q

Name the deficient enzyme in Hurler syndrome

A

alpha-L-iduronidase

823
Q

Name the accumulated substrates in Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome

A

Heparan sulfate
Dermatan sulfate

824
Q

How is Hunter syndrome inherited

A

X-linked recessive

825
Q

List the clinical presentation of Hunter syndrome

A

Mild Hurler
* Developmental delay
* Hirsutism
* Skeletal anomalies
* Airway obstruction
* Hepatosplenomegaly
Aggressive behaviour
No corneal clouding

826
Q

List the clinical features of MERRF (Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres)

A

Progressive myoclonic epilepsy
Cerebellar ataxia
Sensorineural deafness
Short stature
Cutaneous lipomas
Myopathy
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
Cardiomyopathy

827
Q

When do MERRF and MELAS typically onset

A

5~15 years

828
Q

List the clinical features for MELAS (Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes)

A

Recurrent episodes of encephalopathy, myopathy, headache, and focal neurological deficits
Myopathy, migraine, vomiting, seizures, visual and hearing disturbance.

829
Q

Lise the clinical features for Alper’s disease

A

Intractable seizures and liver involvement

830
Q

List the causes of hypoglycaemia in children

A

Neonatal hypoglycaemia
Persistent hypoglycaemic hyperinsulinism of infancy
Ketotic hypoglycaemia of childhood
Inborn errors of metabolism
* Glycogen storage disorders
* Galactosaemia
* Fatty acid oxidation defects
Insulin excess
* Exogenous insulin: diabetes mellitus, maternal diabetes, insulin given surreptitiously
* Insulinoma
* Drug-induced (sulphonylurea)
* Autoimmune (insulin receptor antibodies)
* Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome
Liver disease
Hormonal deficiency
* GH↓
* ACTH↓
* Addison disease
* Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Drugs: alcohol, aspirin, beta blockers
Sepsis

831
Q

What does Persistent hypoglycaemic hyperinsulinism of infancy cause

A

Profound non-ketotic hypoglycaemia

832
Q

List the clinical features in Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome

A

Prenatal polyhydramnios
Macrosomia
Neonatal hypoglycemia (hyperinsulinemia)
Macroglossia
Cleft palate
Anterior earlobe creases / posterior helical ear pits
Facial nevus simplex
Hemihyperplasia
Cardiac anomalies
Nephromegaly on imaging
Kidney anomalies - medullary dysplasia, nephrocalcinosis, medullary sponge kidney
Omphalocele
Umbilical hernia / diastasis recti
Embryonal tumour
* Wilms tumour
* Hepatoblastoma
* Neuroblastoma
* Rhabdomyosarcoma

833
Q

List the causes of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Thyroid agenesis
Maldescent of the thyroid
Dyshormonogenesis
Maternal iodine deficiency
TSH deficiency

834
Q

List the clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Usually asymptomatic and identified on screening
Reduced feeding
Faltering growth
Prolonged jaundice
Constipation
Pale, cold, mottled dry skin
Coarse facies
Large tongue
Hoarse cry
Goitre (occasionally)
Umbilical hernia
Delayed development

835
Q

List the extra-pituitary features in congenital growth hormone deficiency

A

Optic nerve hypoplasia
Midline forebrain defects
Intellectual disability
Neck abnormalities
Cerebellar abnormalities
Holoprosencephaly (syndromic hypopituitarism)

836
Q

List the risk factors for congenital growth hormone deficiency

A

Prematurity
Gestational bleeding
Complicated delivery
Foetal distress
Asphyxia

837
Q

What is the most common cause of acquired growth hormone deficiency in children

A

Craniopharyngioma

838
Q

List the clinical presentation of growth hormone deficiency in children

A

Poor growth, short stature in childhood
Characteristic facial appearance and body habitus
* Large head with frontal bossing
* Small nose
* Truncal obesity
* Immature facies
* Midfacial hypoplasia
* Delayed dentition
Reduced lean body mass and increased total body fat

839
Q

List the growth assessment findings in growth hormone deficiency in children

A

Short stature
Proportionate (involving both the torso and the lower extremities equally)
Typically with a high weight-to-height ratio

840
Q

How to calculate a child’s target height

A

Girl = (height of mother in cm + height of father in cm)/2 - 6.5 cm
Boy = (height of mother in cm + height of father in cm)/2 + 6.5 cm

841
Q

List the investigations in growth hormone deficiency

A

Bone age - radiograph of the left wrist and hand
Thyroid function tests
IGF1 and IGFBP3 - Values below -2 SD corrected for age and sex
Pituitary function tests
* 8am ACTH
* cortisol
* luteinising hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone
* testosterone/oestradiol
* prolactin
Basic haematology and biochemistry screen
GH provocation tests: GH <7 micrograms/L on two occasions

842
Q

Give the management option for growth hormone deficiency

A

Somatropin (Recombinant human growth hormone (rhGH))
* A rapid short-term growth is followed by normalisation of long-term growth.
* Treatment should be continued until final height or epiphyseal closure is achieved

843
Q

List the indications for Somatropin (Recombinant human growth hormone (rhGH))

A

Growth hormone deficiency
Turner’s syndrome
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Chronic renal failure
Prader-Willi syndrome
Idiopathic short stature
SHOX deficiency

844
Q

List the causes for primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Addison’s disease (autoimmune)
Haemorrhage/infarction (Waterhouse–Friedrichson disease)
X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
Tuberculosis

845
Q

What is Waterhouse–Friedrichson disease caused by

A

Neonatal, meningococcal septicaemia

846
Q

List the presentations of primary adrenal insufficiency in infants

A

Salt-losing crisis
Hypotension
Hypoglycaemia

847
Q

List the presentation of primary adrenal insufficiency in older children

A

Vomiting
Lethargy
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hyperkalaemia
Dehydration
Postural hypotension
Metabolic acidosis
Pigmentation (gums, scars, skin creases)

848
Q

Give the investigation and finding for primary adrenal insufficiency

A

ACTH (Synacthen) test - Plasma cortisol concentrations remain low

849
Q

Give the management option for adrenal crisis

A

IV 0.9% saline, glucose and hydrocortisone
Stress doses of hydrocortisone during febrile illness, gastroenteritis, major trauma, surgery and endurance sport

850
Q

Give the long-term management in primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement

851
Q

Give the pathophysiology of 21-hydroxylase deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency causes insufficient cortisol production, stimulating increased production of CRH and ACTH.
High ACTH levels lead to adrenal hyperplasia and production of excess androgens (eg. delta-4-androstenedione), which do not require 21-hydroxylation for synthesis.

852
Q

What provocative agents can be used in growth hormone provocation tests

A

Insulin
Glucagon
Arginine
Clonidine

853
Q

How is congenital adrenal hyperplasia inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

854
Q

Give the most and second most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Mostly common cause = 21-hydroxylase deficiency (>90%)
Second most common = 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

855
Q

List three types of presentations in 21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency

A

Classical phenotype (severe form, with a defect in cortisol and aldosterone biosynthesis, 75%)
Simple virilising (normal aldosterone biosynthesis, 25%)
Non-classical phenotype

856
Q

List the presentation for the classical phenotype in 21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency

A

Symptoms of excess androgen production
Infants present with renal salt-wasting
* Poor feeding
* Weight loss
* Failure to thrive
* Vomiting, dehydration, hypotension
* Hyponatraemia
* Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis progressing to adrenal crisis (azotaemia, vascular collapse, shock, and death)

857
Q

List the presentation for the simple virilising phenotype in 21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency

A

Without salt wasting
Diagnosis of a female made at birth - genital atypia
* Clitoral enlargement
* Partially fused labia majora
* Urogenital sinus
Diagnosis at birth in males usually depends on antenatal or newborn screening
* Differentiation of the external genitalia is unaffected in newborn males
* Hyperpigmentation (increased ACTH secretion)
Signs of hyperandrogenism in children - tall children short adults
* Early growth spurt:
* Precocious puberty / early onset of facial, axillary, pubic hair
* Adult body odour
* Rapid somatic growth
* Premature epiphyseal maturation and closure
Signs of hyperandrogenism in adolescence/adult
* Temporal balding
* Severe acne
* Hirsutism
* Infertility
Postmenarchal females
* Menstrual irregularity
* Secondary amenorrhoea with/without hirsutism

858
Q

List the presentation for the non-classical phenotype in 21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency

A

Positive family history
May present in a child as
* Acne
* Premature development of pubic hair
* Accelerated growth
* Advanced bone age
* Reduced adult stature (premature epiphyseal fusion)
Females are born with normal genitalia
Adolescent and adult females may present with
* Oligomenorrhea, amenorrhoea
* Polycystic ovaries
* Acne
* Hirsutism
* Temporal baldness
* Infertility

859
Q

List three aromatase inhibitors

A

Anastrozole
Letrozole
Exemestane

860
Q

List three 17-alpha-hydroxylase inhibitors

A

Spironolactone
Ketoconazole
Abiraterone

861
Q

List the clinical presentations of 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Hypertension (due to high 11-deoxycorticosterone) and hypokalaemia
Hyperandrogenism
* atypical genitalia in female infants
* premature adrenarche in both sexes

862
Q

List the clinical presentations of 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Hypertension and hypokalemia
Delayed puberty in females and under-virilisation in males
No salt-wasting occurs.

863
Q

List the hormonal abnormalities in 21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Low cortisol
Low aldosterone
Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone
Elevated testosterone

864
Q

List the hormonal abnormalities in 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Low cortisol
Low aldosterone
Elevated 11-deoxycorticosterone, 11-deoxycortisol
Elevated testosterone

865
Q

List the hormonal abnormalities in 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Low cortisol
Low androstenedione
Elevated corticosterone
Elevated mineralocorticoids

866
Q

List the management options for congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Lifelong glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone)
Stress dosing of glucocorticoids
Fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid)

867
Q

List the male sex development pathway

A

SRY gene positive

Sertoli cells produce anti-mullerian hormone
Cause mullerian duct regression

Leydig cells produce DHT from testosterone (5-alpha reductase)
DHT converts genital primordial, genital tubercle, urethral folds, labioscrotal swelling into penis, penile urethra, scrotum

Wolffian duct forms vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicles (testosterone)

868
Q

What does Mullerian duct give arise to in SRY negative?

A

Uterus
Fallopian tube
Upper 1/3 vagina

869
Q

List the secondary causes of disorders of sex development

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia - virilisation in 46XX
Gonadotropin insufficiency
* Prader–Willi syndrome
* Congenital pituitary dysfunction
Under-virilisation of 46XY male
* Androgen insensitivity syndrome
* 5α-reductase deficiency (inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone)
* Abnormalities of the synthesis of androgens from cholesterol
Ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)

870
Q

List the hormonal studies in disorders of sex development

A

21 hydroxylase deficiency - Elevated 17 hydroxyprogesterone levels + salt wasting
Testosterone and dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
* High testosterone:DHT ratio = 5 alpha-reductase deficiency
* Low testosterone:androstenedione ratio = 17 beta-hydroxysteroid-dehydrogenase deficiency
LH and FSH - Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
ACTH stimulation test
hCG stimulation test - ability of Leydig cells to respond to hCG (an LH receptor analogue) and produce testosterone.
Anti-mullerian hormone - assess Sertoli’s cell function in suspected 46,XY DSD

871
Q

List the childhood cancers by descending frequency

A

Leukaemia
Brain/spinal tumours
Lymphoma
Neuroblastoma
Soft tissue sarcoma
Wilm’s tumour
Bone tumours
Retinoblastoma

872
Q

List the brain tumour types in children by anatomical locations

A

Supratentorial - astrocytoma (cortex)
Midline - craniopharyngioma
Infratentorial
* Cerebellar - medulloblastoma, astrocytoma, ependymoma
* Brainstem - brainstem glioma
Spinal cord - astrocytoma, ependymoma

873
Q

List the clinical signs of a supratentorial tumour in children

A

Seizures
Hemiplegia
Focal neurological signs

874
Q

List the clinical signs of a midline tumour in children

A

Visual field loss - bitemporal hemianopia
Pituitary failure
* Growth failure
* Diabetes insipidus
* Weight gain

875
Q

List the clinical signs of a cerebellar/IV ventricle tumour in children

A

Truncal ataxia
Coordination difficulties
Abnormal eye movements

876
Q

List the clinical signs of a brainstem tumour in children

A

Cranial nerve defects
Pyramidal tract signs
Ataxia
Often NO raised intracranial pressure

877
Q

What is the most common malignant brain tumour of childhood

A

Medulloblastoma

878
Q

Where does medulloblastoma arise ?

A

Cerebellar vermis (primitive neuroepithelial cells)

879
Q

List the presentations of Medulloblastoma

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus - headaches and vomiting classically occur in the morning and get better during the day
Diplopia
Metastatic disease in the spinal cord
* Back pain
* Weakness
* Bowel / bladder dysfunction

880
Q

Describe the age incidence in craniopharyngioma

A

Bimodal age incidence - 50% in children aged 5~14 years and a second peak in adults 50~70 years.

881
Q

Where does craniopharyngioma arise from

A

The squamous remnant of Rathke’s pouch

882
Q

List the presentations for craniopharyngioma

A

Raised intracranial pressure with accompanying hydrocephalus
* Headache, nausea, vomiting
* Diplopia
* Decreased level of consciousness
Visual loss
Endocrine disturbance
* Growth hormone deficiency (growth failure)
* Diabetes insipidus (polyuria, polydipsia)
* Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (amenorrhoea, erectile dysfunction)
* Galactorrhoea
* Hypocortisolism (muscle weakness, fatigue)
* Hypothyroidism (fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation)

883
Q

Where does neuroblastoma arise from

A

Arises from the embryological neural crest element of the peripheral sympathetic nervous system
Can form anywhere that sympathetic nervous tissue is present, including paraspinal sympathetic ganglia in the chest and abdomen.
Most commonly arises from the adrenal gland

884
Q

What is the most common extra cranial solid tumour in children

A

Neuroblastoma

885
Q

Where is neuroblastoma most commonly found

A

Adrenal gland

886
Q

Which age is neuroblastoma most commonly diagnosed by

A

5 years

887
Q

What conditions are neuroblastoma associated with

A

(Associated with conditions related to aberrant neural crest development)
Turner’s syndrome
Hirschsprung’s disease
Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome
Neurofibromatosis type 1

888
Q

List the clinical presentations of neuroblastoma

A

Abdominal distention (large abdominal mass)
Hypertension
* mass effect to the renal vasculature
* tumour-associated catecholamine secretion
Constipation
Intractable secretory diarrhoea due to tumour secretion of vasoactive intestinal protein (VIP)
General systemic symptoms
* Decreased appetite
* Weight loss
* Fussiness (in infants)
* Fatigue
* Abdominal, bone, or back pain
Primary lesion in the upper portion of the thoracic outlet or cervical sympathetic chain:
* Horner’s syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)
* Superior vena cava syndrome (dyspnoea, facial swelling, cough, distended neck/chest veins, oedema of the upper extremities)

889
Q

List the common sites of metastasis in neuroblastoma

A

Lymph nodes
Bone marrow - pallor, infections, bleeding (pancytopenia)
Bone
Liver - hepatomegaly
Skin - palpable subcutaneous skin nodules
Orbits - periorbital ecchymosis (panda eyes)
Dura

890
Q

Name one paraneoplastic syndrome associated with neuroblastoma. What does it present with?

A

Opsoclonus-myoclonus ataxia

Rapid dancing eye movements
Rhythmic jerking of limbs/trunk
Ataxia

891
Q

List the investigations and findings in neuroblastoma

A

Catecholamine degradation products in the urine
* homovanillic acid (HVA)
* vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Abdominal ultrasound
Abdominal CT / MRI

892
Q

List the presentations of Wilms’ tumour (nephroblastoma)

A

Unilateral, painless, abdominal/flank mass
Pallor (anaemia from haemorrhage into mass)
Abdominal pain
Fever
Haematuria (visible / non-visible)
Poor appetite
Weight loss
Congenital syndromes
Congenital urogenital anomalies

893
Q

Give the first line investigation and findings for Wilm’s tumour

A

Abdominal ultrasound - intrinsic renal mass distorting the normal structure

894
Q

What is the most common site for soft tissue sarcoma

A

Head and neck

895
Q

List the causes of soft tissue sarcoma

A

Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8) infection, History of HIV infection - Kaposi’s sarcoma
Long-standing lymphoedema - Stewart-Treves angiosarcoma
Vinyl chloride - angiosarcoma
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (Rhabdomyosarcoma, Myxoma, Fibromas, Hamartomas)
Radiation exposure
Rare genetic syndromes
* Li-Fraumeni
* Retinoblastoma syndrome
* Neurofibromatosis
* Desmoid tumours

896
Q

List the presentations of head and neck sarcoma

A

Proptosis
Nasal obstruction
Blood-stained nasal discharge

897
Q

List the presentations of Genitourinary sarcoma

A

Dysuria and urinary obstruction
Scrotal mass
Blood-stained vaginal discharge

898
Q

List the presentations for Karposi sarcoma

A

Purplish macular-papular lesions
History of HIV infection

899
Q

What mutation is retinoblastoma associated with

A

germline mutation in the RB1 gene

900
Q

What age group does retinoblastoma most commonly present

A

Under 3 years

901
Q

List the presentations of retinoblastoma

A

Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex)
Hypopyon (tumour cells anterior to the iris)
Strabismus
Glaucoma
Ocular pain
Decreased vision
Pseudo-orbital cellulitis
Exudative retinal detachment with vitreous seeding

902
Q

List the presentations of 13q syndrome

A

Retinoblastoma
Mental and growth retardation
Cranio-facial dysmorphisms
Hand and foot anomalies
Defects of the brain, heart, and kidneys

903
Q

Give the fundoscopy finding in retinoblastoma

A

Chalky, white-grey retinal mass

904
Q

Give the genetic mechanism of Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

Activating mutations of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway, in particular BRAF V600E

905
Q

What are Langerhan cells

A

epidermal dendritic cells that present antigen to, and activate, antigen-specific T lymphocytes.

906
Q

List the cardinal features for Langerhans cell histocytosis

A

Lytic bone lesions (skull, jaw, femur)
Skin lesions (purplish papules, eczematous rash)
Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly
Pulmonary cysts / nodules
Central diabetes insipidus

907
Q

List the investigations for Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

Skeletal radiograph - Punched-out lytic lesion, most commonly in the skull
Chest X-ray
* Cysts may be visible within the infiltrates, predominating in the middle and upper lung fields, and sparing the costophrenic angles
* Pneumothorax
* Lytic lesion in a rib
CT/MRI
* Full-body (vertex to toes) fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography - disease staging
Tissue biopsy

908
Q

Define febrile seizures. What age group do they occur in?

A

Seizure accompanied by fever (temperature more than 38°C by any method), without central nervous system infection.
Occurs in infants and children aged 6 months to 6 years.

909
Q

Define simple and complex febrile seizures

A

Simple febrile seizures
Isolated, generalised, tonic-clonic seizures
Last less than 15 mins
Do not recur within 24 hours or within the same febrile illness
Complete recovery within 1 hour

Complex febrile seizures - one or more of:
Focal seizure (movement limited to one side of the body or one limb)
Duration of more than 15 minutes
Recurrence within 24 hours or within the same febrile illness
Incomplete recovery within 1 hour

910
Q

Define febrile status epilepticus

A

Febrile seizure lasts for 30 minutes or longer, or there are a series of seizures without full recovery in between that last for 30 minutes or longer.

911
Q

List the management options for febrile seizures

A

Buccal midazolam
* 6–11 months of age: 2.5 mg.
* 1–4 years of age: 5 mg.
* 5–9 years of age: 7.5 mg.

Rectal diazepam
* 6 months to 1 year of age: 5 mg.
* 2–11 years of age: 5–10 mg.

912
Q

How is spinal muscular atrophy inherited

A

Autosomal recessive

913
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy due to?

A

Mutations in SMN1 (survival motor neurone) gene

914
Q

List the presentations of spinal muscular atrophy

A

Diminished foetal movements during pregnancy
Arthrogryposis (positional deformities of the limbs with contractures of at least two joints) at birth
Alert expression
Fasciculation of the tongue
Symmetrical flaccid paralysis
Absent deep tendon reflexes
Intercostal recession
Weakness of bulbar muscles causing weak cry and poor suck with pooling of secretions

915
Q

How is dystrophia myotonica type 1 inherited

A

Autosomal dominant

916
Q

What is Dystrophia myotonica type I due to

A

Nucleotide triplet repeat expression CTG in the DMPK gene
Anticipation

917
Q

Define Myotonia

A

Delayed relaxation after sustained muscle contraction.

918
Q

What is death in Dystrophia myotonica type I usually due to

A

Cardiac conduction defects

919
Q

List the presentations for Dystrophia myotonica type I

A

Newborns
* Hypotonia
* Feeding and respiratory weakness
* Thin ribs
* Talipes at birth
* Oligohydraminos and reduced foetal movements during pregnancy

Old children
* Myopathic facial appearance
* Learning difficulties
* Myotonia

Adults
* Cataracts
* Baldness
* Testicular atrophy
* Type II diabetes

920
Q

List the causes for central hypotonia

A

Cerebral lesions
* Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy
* Intracranial haemorrhage
Metabolic disorders
* Hypothyroidism
* Inborn errors of metabolism
Chromosomal
* Trisomy 21
* Prader-Willi syndrome

921
Q

List the causes for peripheral hypotonia

A

Spinal muscular atrophy type 1
Neonatal myasthenia gravis
Congenital myopathies
Myotonic dystrophy

922
Q

List the clinical features for central hypotonia

A

Global hypotonia
Weak / absent antigravity movements (severe muscle weakness)
Reduced tendon reflexes

923
Q

List the clinical features in Friedreich ataxia

A

Worsening ataxia
Dysarthria
Distal wasting in the lower limbs
Absent reflexes
Pes cavus
Impairment of joint position and vibration sense (posterior-column impairment)
Extensor plantars (pyramidal involvement)
Optic atrophy
Kyphoscoliosis
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

924
Q

List the open and closed spina bifida defects

A

Open spina bifida
Myelomeningocele - herniation of both meninges and spinal cord.
Myeloschisis - herniation of meninges and spinal elements.
Meningocele - herniation of the meninges without involvement of spinal elements.

Closed spina bifida
Occult spinal dysraphism - spinal defects that are associated with a visible abnormality of the back
Spina bifida occulta - skin covered with no visible abnormalities of the back

925
Q

What is Myelomeningocele associated with

A

hydrocephalus and Chiari II malformation

926
Q

List the investigation findings in spina bifida and neural tube defects

A

Typically diagnosed by antenatal ultrasound in the second and third trimester
Antenatal triple/quadruple test - elevated
* AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)
* hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)
* uE3 (unconjugated estriol)
* inhibin A

927
Q

List the presentations of Myelomeningocele

A

variable paresis of the lower limbs with hypotonia
muscle imbalance, which may cause dislocation of the hip and talipes
sensory loss
bladder denervation (neuropathic bladder)
bowel denervation (neuropathic bowel)
scoliosis
hydrocephalus from the associated Chiari type 2 malformation

928
Q

List the causes of hydrocephalus in children

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus (obstruction in the ventricular system)
Congenital anomaly
* Aqueduct stenosis
* Chiari malformation
Posterior fossa neoplasm / vascular malformation
Intraventricular haemorrhage in preterm infant

Communicating hydrocephalus (failure to reabsorb CSF)
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Meningitis

929
Q

List 5 neurocutaneous syndromes

A

NF1
NF2
Tuberous sclerosis
Sturge–Weber syndrome
Von Hippel-Lindau disease

930
Q

What is the common embryological origin for the nervous system and the skin?

A

Ectoderm

931
Q

How is NF1 inherited. Describe the genetic defect

A

AD
Mutation in NF1 tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 17 - encodes neurofibromin, a negative RAS regulator

932
Q

List the cardinal features for NF1

A

Café au lait spots
Intellectual disability
Cutaneous neurofibromas
Lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas)
Optic pathway gliomas
Pheochromocytomas
Seizures / focal neurological signs
Bone lesions eg. sphenoid wing dysplasia

933
Q

How is NF2 inherited. Describe the genetic defect

A

Autosomal dominant
Mutation in NF2 tumour suppressor gene (merlin) on chromosome 22

934
Q

List the cardinal features in NF2

A

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas
Meningiomas
Ependymomas
Juvenile cataracts

935
Q

How is tuberous sclerosis inherited. Describe the genetic defect

A

Autosomal dominant
Mutations in either
* TSC1 gene, found on chromosome 9 (hamartin), or
* TSC2 gene, found on chromosome 16 (tuberin)

936
Q

List the clinical presentations in tuberous sclerosis

A

Neurocutaneous features
* Dental pits
* Hypopigmented macules (ash leaf spots)
* Facial angiofibromas
* Ungual fibromas
Epilepsy (infantile spasms)
Autism and cognitive impairment
Neonatal cardiac rhabdomyomas
Polycystic kidney disease
Renal angiomyolipoma
Cerebral subependymal calcified nodules or giant cell astrocytoma
Retinal hamartoma
Forehead plaques

937
Q

List the clinical features of Sturge–Weber syndrome

A

Port-wine stain in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
Ipsilateral leptomeningeal angioma with calcifications
Ipsilateral glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure from episcleral hemanioma)
Epilepsy
Intellectual disability
Contralateral hemiplegia

938
Q

How is Von Hippel-Lindau disease inherited. Describe the genetic defect

A

Autosomal dominant
Deletion of VHL gene on chromosome 3p.
pVHL ubiquitinates hypoxia- inducible factor 1a

939
Q

List the clinical features in Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

Hemangioblastomas (high vascularity with hyperchromatic nuclei) in retina, brainstem, cerebellum, spine
Angiomatosis
Bilateral Renal cell carcinomas
Pheochromocytomas

940
Q

Give the seizure pattern of infantile spasms (West syndrome) and age of onset.

A

Violent flexor spasms of the head, trunk, and limbs followed by extension of the arms, last 1–2 s, often multiple bursts of 20–30, often on waking or many times a day.

Onset: 3–12 months

941
Q

Give the seizure pattern of Lennox–Gastaut syndrome and age of onset.

A

Multiple seizure types, mostly atonic, subtle absences, and tonic seizures in sleep.

Onset: 1–3 years

942
Q

Give the seizure pattern of Epilepsy with centro-temporal spikes (childhood rolandic epilepsy) and age of onset.

A

Tonic–clonic seizures in sleep, or simple focal seizures with awareness of abnormal feelings in the tongue and distortion of the face.

Onset: 4–10 years

943
Q

Give the seizure pattern of Juvenile absence epilepsy and age of onset.

A

Absences, and generalised tonic–clonic seizures, often with photosensitivity.

Onset: 10–20 years

944
Q

Give the seizure pattern of Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and age of onset.

A

Myoclonic seizures, generalised tonic–clonic seizures, and absences may occur, mostly shortly after waking.

Typical history: throwing drinks or cereal about in the morning as myoclonus occurs at this time.

Onset: 10-20 years

945
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome classically associated with

A

Aspirin

946
Q

Give the pathophysiology for Reye’s syndrome

A

Hepatic mitochondrial injury causing elevated ammonia levels.
Hyperammonemia may induce astrocyte edema resulting in diffuse cerebral edema and subsequent elevated intracranial pressure.

947
Q

Give the diagnostic criteria for Reye’s syndrome

A

Acute, non-inflammatory encephalopathy with either
* sterile CSF containing <9 WBC/mL or
* cerebral oedema without inflammatory cell infiltrate
Hepatic dysfunction by either
* threefold elevation of serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) and/or serum ammonia, or
* liver biopsy demonstrating fatty infiltration
There is no other diagnosis to account for the cerebral and hepatic derangement.

948
Q

List the aetiologies for Reye’s syndrome

A

Aspirin
Viral infections (most common)
* Influenza A and B
* Varicella
* Coxsackie
* Epstein barr virus
* Adenovirus
* Gastroenteritis
Exogenous toxins
Drugs
Inborn errors of metabolism

949
Q

What’s the most common cause of Reye’s syndrome?

A

Viral infection

950
Q

List the presentations for Reye’s syndrome

A

Vomiting and confusion with rapid progression to coma and death

951
Q

When does signs and symptoms of Reye’s syndrome typically present after viral infections?

A

Typically develop 12 hours ~ 3 weeks after recovery from a viral illness eg. URTI or gastroenteritis.

Vomiting occurs between 3 and 6 days after a viral illness.

952
Q

Define Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

A collection of chronic paediatric inflammatory arthritides characterised by onset before 16 years of age and the presence of objective arthritis (in one or more joints) for at least 6 weeks.

953
Q

What can cause Potter sequence

A

Early obstruction of urinary tract (renal agenesis mostly)

954
Q

List the characteristics in orotic aciduria

A

Orotic acid in urine
Megaloblastic anaemia
Absence of hyperammonemia

955
Q

Give the pathophysiology in Kallman’s syndrome

A

Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
Failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.

956
Q

Give the inheritance in Kallman’s syndrome

A

X-linked recessive

957
Q

Give the stereotypical history in Kallman’s syndrome

A

lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty

958
Q

List the features in Kallman’s syndrome

A

Features
‘Delayed puberty’
Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism
Anosmia
Sex hormone levels are low
LH, FSH levels are inappropriately low/normal
Patients are typically of normal/above average height

959
Q

What causes Roseola infantum
Incubation period? Ages affected?

A

human herpes virus 6 (HHV6)
incubation period 5-15 days, typically affects children aged 6 months to 2 years.

960
Q

List the features of human herpes virus 6 (HHV6)

A

High fever lasting a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash
Nagayama spots: papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate
Febrile convulsions in ~10-15%
Diarrhoea, cough
aseptic meningitis
hepatitis

961
Q

What is hand, foot, and mouth disease most commonly caused by

A

(Picornaviridae family)
* Coxsackie A16
* Enterovirus 71

962
Q

What is the investigation of choice for reflux nephropathy

A

Micturating cystography

963
Q

What is the first line therapy for treatment of threadworm

A

Mebendazole

964
Q

List the clinical features in hand, foot, and mouth disease

A

Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
Oral ulcers
Followed by vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet

965
Q

What is parallel aorta and pulmonary trunk on echocardiography indicative of

A

Transposition of the great arteries

966
Q

What should be given in duct dependent congenital heart disease?

A

Prostaglandin E1

967
Q

What is early onset neonatal sepsis most commonly caused by

A

Group B streptococcus infection

968
Q

What is the number one cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in children between ages 1~2 years

A

Merkels diverticulum

969
Q

Describe the inheritance in G6PD

A

X linked recessive

970
Q

List the risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome

A

Prone sleeping
Parental smoking
Bed sharing
Hyperthermia and head covering
Prematurity

971
Q

Define neonatal death

A

babies dying between 0-28 days of birth

972
Q

What should be given for Meningitis in children < 3 months

A

IV amoxicillin + cefotaxime to cover for Listeria

973
Q

What may hand preference before 12 months indicate

A

cerebral palsy

974
Q

What is the most appropriate management of a neonate to reduce hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)?

A

Therapeutic cooling

975
Q

What complications are associated with undescended testicles

A

infertility
torsion
testicular cancer

976
Q

Give the algorithm in paediatric basic life support

A

15 compressions at a rate of 100 - 120 per minute and a depth of one-third of the chest : 2 breaths

977
Q

When is pure tone audiometry typically performed

A

School-age children on their entry to school around 3-4 years of age.

978
Q

What should be trailed if a formula-fed baby is suspected of having mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance

A

extensive hydrolysed formula

979
Q

What is the most common cause of childhood hypothyroidism in the United Kingdom?

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis

980
Q

What is the most common cause of paediatric arrest

A

Respiratory arrest (hypoxia)

981
Q

What is the commonest cause of stridor in children

A

Laryngomalacia

982
Q

When can a child with scarlet fever return to school

A

24 hours after commencing antibiotics

983
Q
A