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PSA > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What drug may be given in an anaphylactoid reaction?

A

Chlorphenamine

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2
Q

MOA of chlorphenamine

A

Antihistamine

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3
Q

What drug may be given in an anaphylactoid reaction with significant bronchospasm?

A

Salbutamol

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4
Q

How would a patient with repeated anaphylactoid reactions to acetylcysteine be managed?

A

Prophylactic antihistamines (chlorphenamine and ranitidine)

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5
Q

First line drug for anaphylaxis, with dose and administration

A

Adrenaline 0.5mL 1 in 1000 IM

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6
Q

Anti-hypertensives in pregancy

A

Labetalol, Methyldopa, Nifedipine

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7
Q

Advice to women on antihypertensive who are planning pregnancy

A

Risk of congenital malformations so consider switching to a safer drug

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8
Q

Drugs that cause hyperkalaemia

A

ACEi
ARB
Spironolactone / Eplerenone / Amiloride
Co-amilofruse

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9
Q

Drugs that cause hypokalaemia

A

Bendroflumethiazide / Indapamide

Furosemide

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10
Q

What vitamin should be prescribed in pregnancy (and dose)

A

Folic acid 5mg PO OD

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11
Q

Vitamin C name

A

Ascorbic acid

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12
Q

Vitamin K drug name

A

Menadiol

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13
Q

Advice for patients taking long term steroids

A

Don’t stop suddenly

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14
Q

Drugs that cause hyponatraemia

A 
PPIs
SSRIs
ACEi
Diuretics
Carbamazepine
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15
Q

Tests before starting amiodarone

A

CXR, U&Es, TFTs

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16
Q

Concerning ADR of statins

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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17
Q

Tests before adalimumab

A

CXR, CRP, FBC

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18
Q

ADRs of thiazides

A 
Common adverse effects:
dehydration
postural hypotension
hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia*
gout
impaired glucose tolerance
impotence
Rare adverse effects:
thrombocytopaenia
agranulocytosis
photosensitivity rash
pancreatitis
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19
Q

Indication for mycophenolate mofetil

A

Prevention of transplant rejection

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20
Q

MOA of dipyrimadole

A

Anti-platelet

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21
Q

MOA of ticagrelor

A

Anti-platelet

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22
Q

MOA of prasugrel

A

Anti-platelet

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23
Q

What drug is used in scabies?

A

Permethrin

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24
Q

MOA of metoclopramide

A

Dopamine receptor antagonist (anti-emetic)

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25
Q

Contraindication of metoclopramide

A

Parkinson’s

Children

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26
Q

Indications for metoclopramide

A

Nausea
GORD
Gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy / migraine

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27
Q

ADRs of metoclopramide

A

Parkinsonism / tardive dyskinesia

Prolonged QT

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28
Q

ADRs of digoxin

A

GI upset
Arrhythmias
Yellow vision
Gynaecomastia

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29
Q

MOA of cetuximab

A

Monoclonal antibody against epidermal growth factor receptor

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30
Q

Indications of cetuximab

A

Metastatic colorectal or head and neck cancer

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31
Q

MOA of infliximab

A

Anti-TNF antibody

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32
Q

Indications for infliximab

A

RA and Crohns

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33
Q

MOA of rituximab

A

Anti-CD20 antibody

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34
Q

Indications for rituximab

A

RA and non-Hodgkin lymphoma

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35
Q

MOA of trastuzumab

A

HER2 receptor antagonist

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36
Q

Indications for trastuzumab

A

HER2 positive breast cancer

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37
Q

ADRs of beta-2 agonists

A

Angioedema, arrhythmias, tremor, rash, hypokalaemia

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38
Q

Contraindications for beta-2 agonists

A

Cardiovascular disease, arrhythmias, hypokalaemia

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39
Q

ADRs of muscarinic antagonists

A

Constipation, cough, dry mouth, GI disturbance, headache

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40
Q

Contraindications of muscarinic antagonists

A

Arrhythmias, heart failure, recent MI

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41
Q

MOA of ondansetron

A

Serotonin receptor antagonist (anti-emetic)

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42
Q

Indication for ondansetron

A

Nausea

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43
Q

MOA of mycophenolate

A

Immunosuppressant

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44
Q

Indications for mycophenolate

A 
Prevention of transplant rejection
Inflammatory arthritis (off label)
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45
Q

Drug that reduces desire to drink

A

Naltrexone

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46
Q

ADRs of PPIs

A

Short term: Diarrhoea, Nausea

Long term: increased risk of pneumonia and hip fractures

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47
Q

ADRs of histamine antagonists

A

Headache, Diarrhoea, Dizziness, Tolerance

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48
Q

Indication for cabergoline

A

Prolactinoma

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49
Q

Indication for tolvaptan

A

SIADH

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50
Q

Contraindication of carbimazole

A

First trimester of pregnancy

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51
Q

How often is methotrexate taken?

A

Weekly

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52
Q

What should be co-prescribed with methotrexate?

A

Folic acid 5mg once per week (taken on a different day to the methotrexate)

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53
Q

Indications for methotrexate

A

Inflammatory arthritis
Crohn’s disease
Come leukaemia chemotherapy

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54
Q

ADRs of methotrexate

A 
mucositis
myelosuppression
pneumonitis
pulmonary fibrosis
liver fibrosis
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55
Q

Pregnancy advice with methotrexate

A

women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped
the BNF also advises that men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment

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56
Q

Methotrexate monitoring

A

FBC and renal and LFTs before starting treatment and repeated weekly until therapy stabilised, thereafter patients should be monitored every 2-3 months

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57
Q

Methotrexate interactions

A

Trimethoprim

Aspirin

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58
Q

Treatment of methotrexate toxicity

A

Folinic acid

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59
Q

ADRs of dapagliflozin

A

urinary and genital infection (secondary to glycosuria)
normoglycaemic ketoacidosis
increased risk of lower-limb amputation: feet should be closely monitored

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60
Q

MOA of syntocinon

A

Synthetic oxytocin

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61
Q

Use of ergometrine

A

Can be used as alternative to oxytocin in the third stage of labour

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62
Q

Drugs used in medical termination of pregnancy

A

Mifepristone and misoprostol

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63
Q

Contraindication of pethidine

A

Renal failure

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64
Q

First line in neuropathic pain

A

Amitriptyline OR pregabalin

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65
Q

Second line in neuropathic pain

A

Amitriptyline AND pregabalin

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66
Q

First line in diabetic neuropathic pain

A

Duloxetine

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67
Q

Metformin ADRs

A

gastrointestinal upsets are common (nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea), intolerable in 20%
reduced vitamin B12 absorption - rarely a clinical problem
lactic acidosis with severe liver disease or renal failure

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68
Q

Metformin contraindications

A

chronic kidney disease: review if eGFR <45 and stop if eGFR < 30
Recent MI / sepsis / stroke / AKI
iodine-containing x-ray contrast media (day of and two days after procedure due to risk of renal impairment
alcohol abuse is a relative contraindication

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69
Q

How to start metformin

A

metformin should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects

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70
Q

How does sotalol work

A

Blocks K+ channels

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71
Q

Route of administration of heparin and LMWH

A

Heparin: IV
LMWH: SC

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72
Q

Duration of action of heparin and LMWH

A

Heparin: Short
LMWH: Long

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73
Q

Reversal agent for heparin

A

Protamine sulphate

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74
Q

ADRs of heparin

A

Bleeding
Heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis
(lower risk with LMWH)

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75
Q

Three drugs given acutely in anaphylaxis

A

Adrenaline, hydrocortisone, cholrphenamine

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76
Q

Adrenaline dose in anaphylaxis in adults

A

500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) IM. Repeat every 5 minutes if necessary

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77
Q

Adrenaline dose in anaphylaxis in children 6-12

A

300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000) IM. Repeat every 5 minutes if necessary

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78
Q

Adrenaline dose in anaphylaxis in children under 6

A

150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000) IM. Repeat every 5 minutes if necessary

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79
Q

Indication for letrozole

A

Breast cancer in post-menopausal women

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80
Q

MOA of letrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor

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81
Q

ADRs of letrozole

A

Osteoporosis
Flushing
Night sweats

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82
Q

Indication for tamoxifen

A

Breast cancer in pre-menopausal women

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83
Q

MOA of tamoxifen

A

Oestrogen receptor blocker

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84
Q

First line in Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

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85
Q

ADRs of pioglitazone

A

weight gain
liver impairment (monitor LFTs)
fluid retention (therefore contraindicated in heart failure)
increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer

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86
Q

Common ADRs of beta blockers

A

bradycardia
dizziness
syncope

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87
Q

Common ADRs of digoxin

A

arrhythmias
diarrhoea
skin reactions

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88
Q

Common ADRs of ACE inhibitors

A

cough
angioedema
hyperkalaemia

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89
Q

Common ADRs of furosemide

A

dizziness
electrolyte imbalance
muscle spasms

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90
Q

Common ADRs of spironolactone

A

electrolyte imbalance
malaise
skin reactions

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91
Q

Cautions of ACE inhibitors

A

pregnancy and breastfeeding - avoid
renovascular disease - may result in renal impairment
aortic stenosis - may result in hypotension
hereditary of idiopathic angioedema
potassium >= 5.0 mmol/L - seek specialist advice

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92
Q

Monitoring of ACE inhibitors

A

urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose
(a rise in the creatinine and potassium may be expected after starting ACE inhibitors
acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine, up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l)

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93
Q

How to start allopurinol

A

Start 2 weeks after attack of gout has settled
Start on a low dose and titrate up every few weeks
Consider colchicine cover

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94
Q

ADRs of allopurinol

A

The most significant adverse effects are dermatological and patients should be warned to stop allopurinol immediately if they develop a rash

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95
Q

Allopurinol interactions

A

Azathioprine
Cyclophosphamide
Theophylline

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96
Q

First line in severe malaria

A

Artesunate

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97
Q

Follow-up therapy in severe malaria

A

Riamet

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98
Q

First line in non-severe plasmodium malaria

A

Riamet or malarone

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99
Q

Main treatment for non falciparum malaria

A

Quinines

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100
Q

Indication for rasburicase

A

Tumour lysis syndrome

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101
Q

Indication for colchicine

A

Gout / pseudogout

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102
Q

Treatment for pseudogout

A 
Joint injection (corticosteroid and lidocaine) useful if symptoms limited to ≤2 joints. 
Medications (NSAIDS / colchicine) useful if multiple joints affected or joint injection not possible. Corticosteroids second line
Recurrent episodes (≥3 annually) may require prolonged treatment with colchicine
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103
Q

Drugs to avoid in G6PD deficiency

A
  • Quinines (for malaria)
  • Nitrofurantoin (an abx)
  • Quinolones (abx)
  • Chloramphenicol (abx)
  • Sulfonamides (abx)
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104
Q

Indications for mycophenolate mofetil

A

Organ transplants

Autoimmune conditions

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105
Q

What drug may be used to close a patent ductus arteriosus

A

Ibuprofen (reduces prostaglandin)

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106
Q

Symptoms of Meniere’s disease

A

vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and aural fullness

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107
Q

Indication for tolvaptan

A

PCKD

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108
Q

MOA of tolvaptan

A

ADH antagonist

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109
Q

What is Augmentin?

A

Brand name for co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin and clavulanic acid)

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110
Q

MOA of leflunomide

A

DMARD

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111
Q

What is co-trimoxazole?

A

sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

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112
Q

Common side effect of amlodipine

A

Ankle swelling

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113
Q

Drug to treat HSV / VZV

A

Aciclovir

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114
Q

Drug to treat Hep C / RSV

A

Ribavirin

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115
Q

Drug to treat influenza

A

Oseltamivir

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116
Q

Screening for osteoporosis in steroid use (who should be screened and how?)

A

Screen people under 40 on high-dose steroids or under 50 on lower or frequent steroid
DEXA scan

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117
Q

First line antibiotic in a pregnant woman with a UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin

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118
Q

Tests needed before starting amiodarone

A

CXR, U&Es, TFTs, LFTs

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119
Q

Monitoring amiodarone

A

LFTs and TFTs every 6 months

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120
Q

Gentamicin ADRs

A

Ototoxicity

Nephrotoxicity

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121
Q

Monitoring gentamicin

A

Peak and trough levels

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122
Q

MOA of ranolazine

A

Inhibits late inward sodium channels, which reduces calcium overload in cardiomyocytes

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123
Q

Indication for ranolazine

A

Second line in angina

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124
Q

Drug used in benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

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125
Q

Drug used in amphetamine or cocaine overdose

A

Benzodiazepines

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126
Q

Drug used to manage opioid overdose

A

naloxone

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127
Q

MOA of naloxone

A

Opioid antagonist

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128
Q

Indication for disulfiram

A

Chronic alcohol use

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129
Q

What does disulfiram do?

A

Produces unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed (decreasing desire to drink)

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130
Q

Reversal of warfarin

A

Vitamin K, prothrombin complex concentrate

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131
Q

Management of lithium overdose

A

Volume resuscitation

Dialysis if severe

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132
Q

Management of digoxin toxicity

A

Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

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133
Q

Second line meds in tonic clonic epilepsy

A

Levetiracetam, Clobazam and Topiramate

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134
Q

First line in focal epilepsy

A

Carbamazepine

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135
Q

Monitoring when starting clozapine

A

FBC weekly for 18 weeks (risk of agranulocytosis)

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136
Q

Drugs that can be used in hypercalcaemia

A

Bisphosphonates

Calcitonin

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137
Q

Length of action of bisphosphonates

A

Long term (weeks)

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138
Q

ADRs of baclofen

A

GI side-effects (constipation/diarrhoea), confusion, low mood, dry mouth, headache, paraesthesia or rarely bradyarrhythmias and hypothermia

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139
Q

Indication for baclofen

A

spasticity

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140
Q

Medication to consider stopping in gout

A

Thiazides

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141
Q

ADRs of sodium valproate

A

drug-induced liver injury, pancreatitis, agranulocytosis, severe cutaneous reactions, confusion, abnormal behaviour and increased suicide risk

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142
Q

Administration method of aminophylline

A

Loading dose followed by slow IV injection

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143
Q

Tests before starting biologics

A

Bloods and CXR to check it’s safe e.g. check there’s no latent TB

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144
Q

MOA of celecoxib

A

NSAID

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145
Q

Indication for densosomab

A

Osteoporosis, prevention of pathological fractures in patients with bony mets

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146
Q

Method of administration of densusomab

A

SC injection

Either every 6 months (for osteoporosis) or every 4 weeks (for bony mets)

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147
Q

First line in osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates e.g. alendronate

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148
Q

Side effects of bisphosphonates

A

GI disturbance
Oesophagitis
Headache
Osteonecrosis of the jaw

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149
Q

Patient advice for taking bisphosphonates

A

All patients should be advised to swallow tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing, which should be done on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast. They should then remain stood or sat upright for 30 minutes post dose.

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150
Q

First line in myasthenia gravis

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g. pyridostigmine

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151
Q

Meds that can precipitate worsening myasthenia gravis

A

Abx
Cardiac meds
Neuromuscular meds
Steroids

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152
Q

What drug is usually given with levodopa and why?

A

dopa decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent break down of levodopa

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153
Q

Alternative to levodopa in younger adults with parkinsons

A

Dopamine agonists

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154
Q

ADRs of older dopamine agonists

A

Fibrotic disease e.g. lung / kidney fibrosis

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155
Q

MOA of tamsulosin

A

alpha blocker

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156
Q

ADRs of tamsulosin

A

Postural hypotension

Ejaculatory dysfunction

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157
Q

MOA of finasteride

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor (reduces DHEA, an androgen)

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158
Q

Indications for finasteride

A

BPH

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159
Q

ADRs of finasteride

A

Can result in reduced libido, erectile dysfunction and less commonly ejaculatory dysfunction

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160
Q

How long does finasteride take to work?

A

Up to 6 months

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161
Q

Length of treatment in a UTI

A

3 days in females

7 days in pregnancy, catheterised patients or males

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162
Q

Trade name of viagra

A

sildenafil

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163
Q

First line in erectile dysfunction

A

sidenafil

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164
Q

Contraindications for sildenafil

A

patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
hypotension
recent stroke or myocardial infarction (previous 6 months)

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165
Q

ADRs of sildenafil

A 
visual disturbances
nasal congestion
flushing
gastrointestinal side-effects
headache
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166
Q

Drugs associated with agranulocytosis

A

antiepileptics e.g.g carbamazepine
antithyroid drugs e.g. carbimazole
antibiotics e.g. penicillin, chloramphenicol
antipsychotics e.g. clozapine

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167
Q

Drugs associated with anaemia

A

causing bleeding e.g. NSAIDs
myelosuppression e.g. cytotoxic drugs
inducing haemolysis e.g. methyldopa, high-dose penicillin

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168
Q

Monitoring of lithium

A

Serum-lithium monitoring should be performed weekly after initiation and after each dose change until concentrations are stable, then every 3 months for the first year, and every 6 months thereafter.

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169
Q

Indication for lithium

A

Mood stabiliser

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170
Q

Symptoms of lithium toxicity

A 
coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
hyperreflexia
acute confusion
polyuria
seizure
coma
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171
Q

MOA of pyridostigmine

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

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172
Q

ADRs of pyridostigmine

A

cholinergic side-effects including excess secretions, diarrhoea, GI upset, bronchospasm, sweating and urinary incontinence.

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173
Q

Indication for memantine

A

Moderate to severe alzheimers

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174
Q

Contraindication of statins

A

Acute liver failure or decompensated cirrhosis

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175
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in DVT

A

DOAC first line

If not suitable then LMWH

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176
Q

ADRs of isoniazid

A

Polyneuropathy

Hepatotoxic

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177
Q

ADRs of rifampicin

A

Pink secretions

Hepatotoxicity

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178
Q

ADRs of pyrazinamide

A

Gout

Hepatotoxicity

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179
Q

ADRs of ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis

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180
Q

Monitoring of TB meds

A

Baseline LFTs then routine LFT monitoring

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181
Q

What should be co-prescribed with isoniazid?

A

pyridoxine (reduce risk of neuropathy)

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182
Q

Second line to statins

A

Ezetimibe

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183
Q

MOA of ezetimibe

A

Reduces bile secretion to minimise fat absorption

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184
Q

MOA of ivabradine

A

Inhibits funny current to reduce heart rate

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185
Q

MOA of nicorandil

A

Calcium channel blocker

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186
Q

MOA of ransolazine

A

Sodium channel blocker

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187
Q

Medication following an MI

A

Beta-blocker
ACE inhibitor
Statin
Anti-platelet for a year

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188
Q

What is entresto?

A

a combination of sacubitril and valsartan which acts as a diuretic and ARB

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189
Q

Medication to treat prolactinoma

A

Cabergoline

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190
Q

MOA of cabergoline

A

Dopamine agonist

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191
Q

MOA of tolvaptan

A

ADH inhibitor

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192
Q

Medication to treat SIADH

A

tolvaptan

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193
Q

First line medication in hyperthyroidism

A

Carbimazole

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194
Q

Second line medication in hyperthyroidism

A

Propylthiouracil

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195
Q

Contraindication to carbimazole

A

First trimester

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196
Q

What allergies are contraindications to naseptin?

A

Peanut and soya

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197
Q

First line in Wilson’s disease

A

D-penicillamine

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198
Q

MOA of D-penicillamine

A

Copper chelating agent (increases excretion)

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199
Q

Contraindication of ramipril

A

Severe renal failure

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200
Q

Test prior to starting ramipril

A

U&Es

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201
Q

Monitoring of ramipril

A

U&Es 1-2 weeks after initiation or increasing dose (check for renal damage)

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202
Q

MOA of phenobarbital

A

Anti-convulsant

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203
Q

First line in most epilepsy

A

Sodium valroate

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204
Q

First line in focal epilepsy

A

Carbamazepine

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205
Q

Second line anti-epileptics

A

carbamazepine, lamotrigine, levetiracetam and phenytoin

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206
Q

MOA of carbamazepine

A

Anti-epileptic

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207
Q

MOA of phenytoin

A

Anti-epileptic

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208
Q

MOA of levetiracem

A

Anti-epileptic

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209
Q

MOA of lamotrigine

A

Anti-epileptic

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210
Q

What is in tazocin?

A

Penicillin and tazobactam

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211
Q

What is in co-amoxiclav?

A

Amoxicillin and cluvanic acid

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212
Q

Pre-eclampsia medication to avoid around birth

A

Methyl-dopa

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213
Q

Second line meds in pre-eclampsia

A

Nifedipine or methy-dopa

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214
Q

Indication for Hydroxycarbamide/Hydroxyurea

A

Sickle cell (various indications)

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215
Q

Medication for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis

A

Aspirin

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216
Q

What meds should be given prior to anticipated pre-term labour?

A

Steroids or magnesium sulphate (helps with lung maturation)

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217
Q

Abx used in bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

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218
Q

Abx used in siphilis

A

Single dose IM penicillin

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219
Q

Abx used in gonorrhoea

A

Single dose of IM ceftriaxone

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220
Q

First line in manic episode

A

Antipsychotic

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221
Q

Medication to reduce intraocular pressure

A

IV acetazolamide

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222
Q

Indications for denosumab

A

Osteoporosis

Hypercalcaemia of malignancy

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223
Q

Diuretic of choice in ascites

A

Aldosterone antagonist e.g. spironolactone

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224
Q

ADRs of sulphonamides

A

hyperkalaemia
headache
rash

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225
Q

MOA of bivalirudin

A

Anticoagulant

226
Q

MOA of paclitaxel

A

Microtubule modifier

227
Q

MOA of irinotecan

A

Topoisomerase inhibitor

228
Q

MOA of cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating agent / immunosuppressant

229
Q

Monitoring of letrozole

A

Bone density monitoring before and during treatment

230
Q

Serious ADR of tamoxifen

A

Endometrial cancer

231
Q

MOA of flourouracil

A

Antimetabolite

232
Q

MOA of imatinib

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

233
Q

Indication for imatinib

A

CML

234
Q

Indication for trastuzumab

A

HER2 positive breast cancer

235
Q

MOA of trastuzumab

A

Monoclonal antibody against HER2 receptor

236
Q

MOA of sipuleucel-T

A

Dendritic cell therapy

237
Q

Anti-epileptic safest in pregnancy

A

Lamotrigine

238
Q

Route of administration of fentanyl

A

Patch / tablet / spray / lozenge

239
Q

Indication for oxycodone (over morphine)

A

Renal failure

Hallucinations / itching with morphine

240
Q

Adjustment of morphine dose for oxycodone

A

Halve morphine dose

241
Q

Typical starting prescription for morphine

A

10mg oramorph PO 4 hourly (5 if frail or not previously on opioid)
10mg hourly PRN breakthrough doses

242
Q

Conversion of morphine dose to sustained release morphine (MST / zomorph)

A

Total morphine in 24 hours divided by 2 = MST dose BD

243
Q

What is MST?

A

Modified release morphine

244
Q

What is zomorph?

A

Modified release morphine

245
Q

Typical dose titration in morphine

A

Increase baseline and breakthrough dose by 30 - 50% (typically 10mg -> 15mg -> 20mg)

246
Q

Conversion of oral morphine dose to SC dose

A

Halve oral morphine dose

247
Q

Early signs of opioid toxicity

A

Sleepiness
Hallucinations
Myoclonic jerks
Confusion or mental clouding

248
Q

Management if bony pain in oncology

A

Analgesic ladder
Radiotherapy typically very effective after a couple of weeks
Consider bisphosphonates or surgical fixation

249
Q

Effect of metoclopramide on gastric emptying

A

Speeds up gastric emptying

250
Q

MOA of donperidone

A

Anti-emetic

251
Q

MOA of cyclizine

A

Histamine antagonist and anticholinergic (anti-emetic)

252
Q

First line in “chemical” nausea

A

Haloperidol

253
Q

First line in nausea due to raised ICP

A

Cyclizine (and dexamethasone to reduce ICP)

254
Q

First line in vestibular nausea

A

Cyclizine

255
Q

First line in cortical (anxiety) nausea

A

Lorazepam

256
Q

First line in obstructed bowel nausea

A

Buscopan (reduce gut motility)

Haloperidol (anti-emetic)

257
Q

First line in delayed gastric emptying nausea

A

metoclopramide

258
Q

Indication for pirfenidone

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

259
Q

Medications associated with hyopnatraemia

A

Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, amitriptyline, anti-psychotics, anti-epileptics, chemotherapy, PPIs

260
Q

Medications associated with hypercalcaemia

A

Thiazides, lithium, vitamin D, vitamin A, calcium

261
Q

Medications associated with hypokalaemia

A

Loop diuretics, thiazide diuretics, insulin, salbutamol

262
Q

Medications associated with hyperkalamia

A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, NSAIDs, aspirin, K+ sparing diuretics, beta blockers

263
Q

Symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A

Neuromuscular excitation e.g. tremor / hypertonia
Autonomic symptoms e.g. sweating
Psychiatric symptoms e.g. agitation

264
Q

Contraindications for COCP

A 
Over 50
Migraine with aura
Smoker over 30
Within 6 weeks of birth
More than 1 risk factors for heart disease (e.g. HTN, smoking, diabetes, obesity)
History of clots
265
Q

MOA of amphotericin

A

Anti-fungal

266
Q

ADRs of hyoscine butyl bromide

A

constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention

267
Q

MOA of hyoscine butyl bromide

A

Anti muscarinic

268
Q

Indication for hyoscine butyl bromide

A

Abdominal cramping

269
Q

MOA of prochlorperazine

A

Anti emetic

270
Q

Route of administration of triptans in adults

A

Oral

271
Q

Route of administration or triptans in under 18s

A

Nasal

272
Q

MOA of pentoxifylline

A

Peripheral vasodilator

273
Q

Indication for oral pentoxifylline

A

Venous ulcer

274
Q

ADRs of azathioprine

A

bone marrow depression
nausea/vomiting
pancreatitis
increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer

275
Q

What drug seriously interacts with azathioprine?

A

Allopurinol

276
Q

Drug used in general anaesthesia

A

Propofol

277
Q

First line in anti phospholipid syndrome

A

Heparin

278
Q

What anticoagulant is used in pregnancy

A

Heparin

279
Q

Indication for methylphenidate

A

ADHD

280
Q

Medication co-prescribed with levodopa

A

Carbidopa

281
Q

MOA of disodium pamidronate

A

Bisphosphonate

282
Q

MOA of zolendronic acid

A

Bisphosphonate

283
Q

Serious ADR of tamoxifen

A

Blood clots

284
Q

Contraindications of benzodiazepines

A

Severe renal / liver failure
CNS / respiratory depression
Sleep apnoea

285
Q

Indication for zopiclone

A

Short term insomnia

286
Q

Contraindications of zopiclone

A

Severe renal / liver failure
CNS / respiratory depression
Sleep apnoea

287
Q

Risks of rapid tranquilisation

A
  • Over-sedation causing loss of consciousness
  • Loss of airway
  • Cardiovascular collapse:
  • Arrhythmias / Hypotension / Sudden death
  • Respiratory depression
  • Acute dystonia
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
  • Interaction with medication (prescribed or illicit including alcohol)
  • Damage to the therapeutic relationship
  • Underlying coincidental physical disorders
288
Q

First line for rapid tranquilisation

A

IM lorazepam

289
Q

Second line in rapid tranquilisation if no response

A

IM haloperidol / olanzapine

290
Q

Second medication in rapid sedation if partial response

A

Repeat IM lorazepam

291
Q

MOA of procyclidine

A

Anti cholinergic

292
Q

Pain meds in palliative care

A

SC Morphine first line

SC Oxycodone second line

293
Q

Anxiety medications in palliative care

A

SC midazolam

294
Q

Nausea medications in palliative care

A

SC cyclizine
SC levomepromazine
SC haloperidol

295
Q

Respiratory secretions medications in palliative care

A

SC glycopyrronium

SC hyoscine butyl bromide

296
Q

Ibandronic acid MOA

A

Bisphosphonate

297
Q

Prothrombin complex concentrate dosing

A

Based on INR and weight

298
Q

Dalteparin MOA

A

Anticoagulant

299
Q

Tinzaparin MOA

A

Anticoagulant

300
Q

Monitoring of heparin

A

Potassium levels at least once per week

Platelets at least once per week

301
Q

ADRs of heparin

A

Hyperkalaemia
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
Bleeding

302
Q

Management of anticoagulants prior to surgery

A

Discussion with haematology. Consider cover with a shorter acting anticoagulant

303
Q

Management of insulin prior to surgery

A

Hold on morning of surgery and use sliding scale

304
Q

Management of oral hypoglycaemics prior to surgery

A

Hold on day of surgery. Consider if sliding scale is necessary

305
Q

Management of anti-platelets prior to surgery

A

Hold for 7 days prior to surgery

306
Q

Management of diuretics prior to surgery

A

Hold on day of surgery

307
Q

Management of ACEi / ARBs prior to surgery

A

Hold on day of surgery

308
Q

MOA of teicoplanin

A

Glycopeptide antibiotic

309
Q

MOA of vancomycin

A

Glycopeptide antibiotic

310
Q

Mirtazepine MOA

A

Antidepressant

311
Q

Indication for bromocriptine

A

Prolactinoma

312
Q

Drugs affected by acetlyator status

A 
isoniazid
procainamide
hydralazine
dapsone
sulfasalazine
313
Q

MOA of Adalimumab

A

Anti-TNF antibody

314
Q

Indication for adalimumab

A

Crohns

RA

315
Q

MOA of etanercept

A

Anti-TNF

316
Q

Indication of etanercept

A

Crohns

RA

317
Q

MOA of bevacizumab

A

Anti VEGF antibody

318
Q

Indications of bevacizumab

A

Colorectal cancer

Some renal cancer

319
Q

Amiloride MOA

A

Potassium soaring diuretic

320
Q

Bumetanide MOA

A

Loop diuretic

321
Q

Misoprostol MOA

A

Prostaglandin analogue

322
Q

Misoprostol ADRs

A

Diarrhoea

Abdo pain

323
Q

Effect of progesterone only pill on mensturation

A

Can cause irregular bleeding

324
Q

ADRs of mifepristone

A

Abdo pain

Diarrhoea

325
Q

Tranexamic acid MOA

A

Anti fibrinolytic

326
Q

At what level of HbA1c is metformin started?

A

56

327
Q

What level of HbA1c with metformin indicates adding another drug

A

58

328
Q

Criteria for starting GLP-1 mimetic

A

3 other drugs not controlling diabetes
BMI over 35
Or BMI under 35 and insulin would have occupational implications

329
Q

Criteria for continuing a GLP-1 mimetic

A

HbA1c fall by at least 11 and 3% weight loss in 6 months

330
Q

Indications for cytarabine

A

AML

331
Q

Indication for hydroxycarbamide

A

Sickle cell

332
Q

MOA of bleomycin

A

Antibiotic

333
Q

MOA of doxorubicin

A

Antibiotic

334
Q

ADRs of methotrexate

A

Myelosuppression, mucositis, liver and lung fibrosis

335
Q

ADRs of cyclophosphamide

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, transitional cell carcinoma

336
Q

ADRs of fluorouracil

A

Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis

337
Q

MOA of cytarabine

A

Anti metabolite

338
Q

MOA of vincristine

A

Microtubule inhibitor

339
Q

MOA of vinblastine

A

Microtubule inhibitor

340
Q

MOA of docetaxel

A

Microtubule inhibitor

341
Q

Azathioprine ADRs

A

Bone marrow depression
N&V
Pancreatitis
Non melanoma skin cancer

342
Q

Enzyme to test before starting azathioprine

A

Thiopurinemethyltransferase test (TPMT) as deficiency in this enzyme increases risk of toxicity

343
Q

Use of thiopental

A

Anaesthetic

344
Q

Use of etomidate

A

Anaesthetic

345
Q

First line in maturity onset diabetes of the young

A

Sulfonylurea

346
Q

Sulfonylureas ADRs

A

Hypoglycaemia
Weight gain
Less commonly, hyponatraemia, myelosuppression, hepatotoxicity, neuropathy

347
Q

ADRs of erythromycin

A

GI side effects

Cholestatic jaundice

348
Q

Indication for stemetil

A

Vertigo / sickness

349
Q

Indication of cholestryramine

A

Itch in patients with liver disease

350
Q

MOA of felodipine

A

Calcium channel blocker

351
Q

Indication of felodipine

A

HTN

352
Q

Medication to treat iron overload in haemochromatosis

A

Desferrioxamine

353
Q

MOA of desferrioxamine

A

Iron cheating agent

354
Q

Medication used in Wilson’s disease

A

Trientine

355
Q

MOA of trientine

A

Copper chelating agent

356
Q

ADRs of metoclopromide

A

extrapyramidal effects: oculogyric crisis. This is particularly a problem in children and young adults
hyperprolactinaemia
tardive dyskinesia
parkinsonism

357
Q

Contraindications of tetracyclines

A

Children under 12
Pregnancy women
(Due to risk of tooth discolouration)

358
Q

ADRs of tetracyclines

A

discolouration of teeth: therefore should not be used in children < 12 years of age
photosensitivity
angioedema
black hairy tongue

359
Q

Management of hepatotoxicity in patients being treated for TB

A

Stop all TB meds

Once LFTs have stabilised re-start meds with a reintroduction or alternate regime

360
Q

Felodipine MOA

A

Calcium channel blocker

361
Q

What is septrin?

A

Cotrimoxazole

362
Q

Cisplatin MOA

A

Damages DNA

363
Q

Propofol MOA

A

Potentiates GABA receptors

364
Q

Propofol ADRs

A

Pain on injection

Hypotension

365
Q

Why might bupivacaine be chosen over lidocaine?

A

Longer duration of action

366
Q

What drug is often added to bupivacaine to improve the action

A

Diamorphine

367
Q

What is xylocaine?

A

Combination of lidocaine and adrenaline

368
Q

What type of anaesthetic is ketamine?

A

General

369
Q

Cautions / contraindications for contrast

A

Asthma
Renal impairment
Metformin
Iodine allergy

370
Q

MOA of carbocysteine

A

Mucolytic

371
Q

MOA of pigvisomant

A

Growth hormone antagonist

372
Q

MOA of bromocriptine

A

Dopamine agonist

373
Q

ADR of chloramphenicol

A

Aplastic anaemia

374
Q

MOA of solifenacin

A

Anticholinergic

375
Q

MOA of tolterodine

A

Anticholinergic

376
Q

MOA of oxybutynin

A

Anticholinergic

377
Q

MOA of mirabegron

A

Beta agonist

378
Q

Drugs associated with agranulocytosis

A

Antithyroid drugs - carbimazole, propylthiouracil
Antipsychotics - atypical antipsychotics (CLOZAPINE)
Antiepileptics - carbamazepine
Antibiotics - penicillin, chloramphenicol, co-trimoxazole
Antidepressant - mirtazapine
Cytotoxic drugs - methotrexate

379
Q

MOA of dasatinib

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

380
Q

MOA of nilotinib

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

381
Q

MOA of bosutinib

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

382
Q

First line in ITP

A

Steroids

383
Q

Common ADRs of hydroxyurea

A

Myelosuppression

384
Q

Medications that interact with warfarin

A

Amiodarone

Many antibiotics and antiepileptics

385
Q

Foods that can interact with warfarin

A

Green leafy veg

Fruit juices eg cranberry / grapefruit/ green tea

386
Q

Management of major bleeding in patient on warfarin

A

ABCDE, stop warfarin, commence IV vitamin K and IV prothrombin complex concentrate

387
Q

Management of INR >8 in patient with no bleeding or minor bleeding

A

Vitamin K. Stop warfarin, restart once INR < 5.0. The INR should be rechecked in 24 hours and if still high then repeat vitamin K

388
Q

Management of INR 5-8 with no bleeding or minor bleeding

A

stop warfarin and recommence when INR < 5.0

389
Q

ADRs of warfarin

A

Jaundice, hepatic necrosis, haemorrhage, hypersensitivity, rash, diarrhoea, and skin necrosis.

390
Q

Contraindications of warfarin

A

Pregnancy, bacterial endocarditis, severe hypertension, peptic ulcer

391
Q

What pain medication may be used in severe renal failure?

A

Alfentanil

392
Q

ADRs of aromatase inhibitors

A

Joint aches

Bone thinning

393
Q

ADRs of tamoxifen

A 
Hot flushes
Weight gain
Fatigue
Increased risk of VTE
Increased risk of endometrial cancer
394
Q

ADRs of trastuzumab

A

Cardiac toxicity

395
Q

MOA and indication for strontium ranelate

A

Inhibitor bone resorption so used in oesteoporosis

396
Q

MOA and indication for teriparatide

A

Synthetic PTH used in osteoporosis

397
Q

Administration method of densusomab

A

SC injection every 6 months

398
Q

Denosumab ADRs

A

Dyspnoea

Diarrhoea

399
Q

Indication for olaparib

A

Some patients with BRCA mutations

400
Q

MOA of methodone

A

Mu receptor agonist

401
Q

MOA of naloxone

A

Mu receptor antagonist

402
Q

MOA of flumazenil

A

GABA antagonist

403
Q

MOA of memantine

A

NMDA antagonist

404
Q

MOA of benzodiazepines

A

GABA agonist

405
Q

First line drug option in urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin

406
Q

Medication option in stress incontinence

A

Duloxetine

407
Q

Medication to add after ICS in childhood asthma

A

Montelukast

408
Q

MOA of quetiapine

A

Antipsychotic

409
Q

MOA of venlafaxine

A

Antidepressant

410
Q

MOA of mirtazepine

A

Antidepressant

411
Q

Effect of POP on periods

A

Lighter

412
Q

Effect of IUS on periods

A

Lighter but may be irregular

413
Q

ADRs of NSAIDs

A

Bronchospasm
Renal complications
Dyspepsia
Skin reactions

414
Q

First line antibiotic in C.diff

A

Vancomycin (oral)

415
Q

Antibiotic of choice for prophylaxis against group B strep in neonates of colonised mothers

A

Benzyl penicillin

416
Q

MOA of exenatide

A

SC

417
Q

Is warfarin safe in pregnancy?

A

No it’s teratogenic

418
Q

Is LMWH safe in pregnancy and breastfeeding?

A

Yes but caution if the mother may go into Labour (as it’s difficult to reverse)

419
Q

Drugs used in medical miscarriage

A

Mifepristone and misoprostol

420
Q

Medication for pre eclampsia prophylaxis

A

Aspirin

421
Q

Drugs to avoid in pregnancy

A 
antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides
psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines
aspirin
carbimazole
methotrexate
sulfonylureas
cytotoxic drugs
amiodarone
422
Q

Ipratropium length of action

A

Short acting

423
Q

Length of action of tiotropium

A

Long

424
Q

First line in uterine hyperstimulation

A

Terbutaline

425
Q

First line to delay delivery in preterm labour

A

Nifedipine

426
Q

Monitoring of methylphenidate

A

Growth

Pulse and BP

427
Q

Next step in management of COPD with symptoms on salbutamol and no asthmatic features

A

Add LAMA and LABA

428
Q

First line in DVT

A

DOAC

429
Q

What medication is contraindicated in gout?

A

Thizides

430
Q

Treatment of scabies in close contacts

A

2 doses permethrin a week apart

431
Q

Can ACE inhibitors be used in pregnancy?

A

No

432
Q

Can ACE inhibitors be used in breastfeeding?

A

No

433
Q

Can statins be taken in pregnancy?

A

No

434
Q

Drug that interacts with statins

A

Clarithromycin / erythromycin

435
Q

Indication for statin

A

Established cardiovascular disease
QRISK2 score indicates over 10% risk of CVD in the next 10 years
T1DM diagnosed over 10 years ago

436
Q

What time of day to take statins

A

Night

437
Q

Indication for isotretinoin

A

Severe acne

438
Q

Drugs to stop in AKI

A 
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
NSAIDs
Diuretics
Aminoglycosides
Lithium
Metformin
439
Q

First line pharmacological cardioversion in AF

A

Amiodarone

440
Q

Antidepressants contraindicated in patients on alteplase

A

SSRIs or SNRIs

441
Q

ADRS of SSRIs

A 
GI upset
Prolonged QT
Sexual dysfunction
Insomnia
Headache
442
Q

Test before starting SSRIs

A

ECG to look for long QT

443
Q

ADRs of SNRIs

A 
GI upset
Sexual dysfunction
Insomnia
Headache
HTN
444
Q

What patients typically benefit from mirtazapine as an antidepressant?

A

Patients with sleep problems or poor appetite

445
Q

ADRs of mirtazapine

A

Increased appetite and weight gain
Sedative
Sexual dysfunction

446
Q

Indication for procyclidine

A

ADRs from antipsychotics (e.g. oligouric crisis)

447
Q

First line in hypomania

A

Quetiapine

448
Q

first line mood stabiliser

A

Lithium

449
Q

Second line mood stabiliser

A

Sodium valproate

450
Q

What does disulfiram do?

A

Causes vomiting with alcohol to act as a deterrent

451
Q

Treatment of local anaesthetic reaction

A

Lipid emulsion

452
Q

Contraception options in woman after childbirth

A

POP, IUD, IUS

453
Q

Drug that may be used alongside insulin in T1DM

A

Dapagliflozin

454
Q

How long for POP to be effective?

A

48 hours

455
Q

What is filgrastim?

A

A granulocyte-colony stimulating factor used in neutropaenia

456
Q

What anaesthetic is good in haemodynamically unstable patients?

A

Ketamine

457
Q

Dose of adrenaline in cardiac arrest

A

1mg

458
Q

EPO ADRs

A

Bone ache, skin rash, flu-like symptoms

459
Q

Adenosine ADRs

A

Chest pain
Bronchospasm
Flushing

460
Q

First line in patients with angina and heart failure

A

Atenolol

461
Q

What shouldn’t be prescribed with verapamil?

A

Beta blocker

462
Q

What drug should be held for 48 hours prior to contrast

A

Metformin

463
Q

Which beta blocker is used first line in thyrotoxicosis prophylaxis?

A

Propanolol

464
Q

Medication that may be used in stress incontinence

A

Duloxetine

465
Q

Levodopa ADRs

A

N&V, hypotension, sleep disturbance, confusion, hallucinations, delusions, dyskinesias, dystonia, tolerence

466
Q

What is co-careldopa?

A

Levodopa and carbidopa

467
Q

What is co-beneldopa?

A

Levodopa and benserazide

468
Q

What class of drugs are often second line in Parkinsons

A

Dopamine agonists

469
Q

What routes can dopamine agonists be administered via?

A

Oral, patch, injections

470
Q

ADRs of dopamine agoinsts

A

nausea, constipation, hypotension, headache, dyskinesias, sudden sleep, hallucinations, impulse control disorders

471
Q

Pamiprexole MOA

A

Dopamine agonist

472
Q

Ropinerole MOA

A

Dopamine agonist

473
Q

Rotigotine MOA

A

Dopamine agonist

474
Q

Apomorphine MOA

A

Dopamine agonist

475
Q

Interactions of monoamine oxidase B inhibitors

A

Antidepressants, decongestants

476
Q

ADRs of MAO-B inhibitors

A

GI disturbance, hypotension, urinary frequency, mood changes

477
Q

MOA of rasagiline

A

MOA-B inhibitor

478
Q

MOA of selegiline

A

MOA-B inhibitor

479
Q

MOA of safinamind

A

MOA-B inhibitor

480
Q

MOA of entacapone

A

COM-T inhibitor (potentiates levodopa)

481
Q

MOA of opicapone

A

COM-T inhibitor (potentiates levodopa)

482
Q

MOA of tolcapone

A

COM-T inhibitor (potentiates levodopa)

483
Q

What medication is COM-T inhibitors taken with?

A

Levodopa

484
Q

How long after pregnancy before starting COCP

A

21 days

485
Q

First line in acute pericarditis

A

NSAID and colchicine

486
Q

Management of thyroxine in pregnancy

A

Increase dose (typically by up to 50% in first 4-6 weeks

487
Q

Which areas should emollients be applied to?

A

Whole skin

488
Q

ADRs of topical steroids

A

Skin thinning / striae

489
Q

Topical immunomudulators

A

Tacrolimus / pimecrilimus

490
Q

Topical treatments in mild acne (commedones)

A

Benzoyl peroxide, retinoin, abx

491
Q

When to use oral abx in acne

A

Papules / pustules not cleared with topical therapy

492
Q

Isotretinoin indication

A

Severe acne

493
Q

ADR of isotretinoin

A

Teratogenic, dry lips

494
Q

Indication for cyproterone acetate

A

Seborrhoea in women with acne

495
Q

Topical treatments considered in psoriasis

A

Emollients, Salicylic acid (helps other treatments), steroids, tar preparations, dithranol (specialist), vitamin D/A

496
Q

Who should be treated with permethrin?

A

All household contacts

497
Q

How to apply treatment for scabies / lice

A

Two courses a week apart

498
Q

First line in delirium

A

Haloperidol

499
Q

First line in delirium for patients with Parkinsons

A

Lorazepam

500
Q

Tests before IV acyclovir

A

renal function

501
Q

Donepezil MOA

A

Acetylcholine esterase inhibitor

502
Q

Rivastigmine MOA

A

Acetylcholine esterase inhibitor

503
Q

Galantamine MOA

A

Acetylcholine esterase inhibitor

504
Q

ADRs of Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors

A

GI upset

505
Q

Cautions for Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors

A

Asthma / COPD, some arrhythmias or conduction disorders

506
Q

Memantine ADRs

A

Dizziness, balance issues, headache, drowsiness

507
Q

What shouldn’t be co-prescribed with verapamil?

A

Beta blocker

508
Q

Anticoagulation after ablation of AF

A

Continue as per CHADsVASc

509
Q

Vancomycin moniotring

A

Trough levels and renal function

510
Q

What should be given with co-trimoxazole?

A

Anti-emetic

511
Q

Co-trimoxazole ADRs

A

N&V, rash, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity, hypoglycaemia

512
Q

Co-trimoxazole monitoring

A

FBC, U&Es, LFTs

513
Q

Digoxin toxicity symptoms

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, hallucination, visual disturbance, drowsiness

514
Q

Dose conversion codeine to morphine

A

Divide by 10

515
Q

Tamsulosin ADRs

A

dizziness, postural hypotension, dry mouth, depression

516
Q

Finasteride ADRs

A

Erectile dysfunction and ejaculation problems, reduced libido, gynaecomastia

517
Q

Budesonide MOA

A

ICS

518
Q

Dantrolene indication

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

519
Q

Phenytoin monitoring

A

Trough levels if dose change or concern of toxicity

520
Q

Paroxetine MOA

A

SSRI

521
Q

Venlafaxine MOA

A

SNRI

522
Q

Clomipramine MOA

A

TCA

523
Q

Clomipramine indication

A

OCD

524
Q

Monitoring of statins

A

LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

525
Q

Which antibiotic shouldn’t be mixed with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole

526
Q

Glimepiride MOA

A

Sulfonylurea

527
Q

Methylphenidate monitoring

A

Height and weight

528
Q

Methylphenidate key ADR

A

Growth restriction

529
Q

Important ADR of hydroxychloroqiune

A

Retinopathy

530
Q

Chlorpromazine MOA

A

Antipsychotic

531
Q

Mesalazine ADRs

A

GI upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis*, interstitial nephritis

532
Q

Which antipsychotic is less likely to cause weight gain?

A

Aripiprazole

533
Q

When to stop antidepressants

A

6 months after symptoms resolved

534
Q

Carbamazepine ADRs

A

rash, dizziness, hyponatremia, hair thinning. Also inhibits COCP.

535
Q

Lamotrigine ADRs

A

rash, flu-like symptoms and destruction/ulcers in mucous membranes (Stevens-Johnson syndrome)

536
Q

Gabapentin ADRs

A

drowsiness, abnormal eye movements, GI upset, dry mouth

537
Q

Valproate ADRs

A

tremor, weight gain and hair thinning, teratogenic

538
Q

Phenytoin ADRs

A

Gum hypertrophy and hirsutism, coarse face and acne. Also inhibits COCP

539
Q

Antibiotic associated with tendon rupture

A

Ciprofloxacin

540
Q

What medications to avoid with SSRI (as increases risk of serotonin syndrome)

A

Triptans

541
Q

Orlistat MOA

A

Lipase inhibitor

542
Q

Severe C diff treatment

A

Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole

543
Q

Strontium ranelate indication

A

Osteoporosis

544
Q

Strontium ranelate MOA

A

Inhibits osteoclasts

545
Q

Phenoxybenzamine MOA

A

Alpha blocker

546
Q

Colchicine ADRs

A

GI side effects

547
Q

Allopurinol ADRs

A

Rash

548
Q

What drug is antabuse?

A

Disulfiram

549
Q

Acamprosate indication

A

Reduces alcohol cravings

550
Q

What can be used as alternative to methadone?

A

Buprenorphine

551
Q

RA medication in pregnancy

A

Hydroxychloroquine

552
Q

Drugs to improve prognosis in MND

A

Riluzole, Edaravone

553
Q

Management of HRT prior to surgery

A

Stop 4 weeks prior to elective surgery to reduce risk of VTE

554
Q

Nifedipine MOA

A

Calcium channel blocker

555
Q

Medication to avoid in chickenpox

A

NSAIDs

556
Q

Solifenacin MOA

A

Anticholinergic

557
Q

Treatment of DVT in pregnancy

A

Enoxaparin

558
Q

What type of heparin does LMWH reverse?

A

Unfractionated

559
Q

Pyrazinamide ADRs

A

Gout, arthropathy, hepatotoxicity

560
Q

Medication to consider in warts

A

Topical salicylic acid

561
Q

Bupropion indication

A

Smoking cessation

562
Q

Second line mood stabiliser

A

Sodium valproate

PSA (2 decks)

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