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Parasitology > Protozoans > Flashcards

Protozoans Flashcards

1
Q

entamoeba:
1. drug of choice
2. disease
3. diagnostic technique for fresh and frozen stool
4. diagnostic technique that’s quick and easy

A
  1. metronidazole or diloxanide furoate (for asymptomatic cyst passer)
  2. amebiasis
  3. enzyme immunoassay
  4. rapid immunochromatographic assay
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2
Q

Giardia:
1. drug of choice
2. disease
3. gold standard diagnostic technique
4. diagnostic technique does not rely on microscopy and used for screening large numbers of specimen

A
  1. metronidazole
  2. Giardiasis
  3. Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) assay
  4. Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)
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3
Q

Plasmodium:
1. drug of choice give 1
2. disease
3. gold standard diagnostic technique
4. what 3 stains are used in the gold standard, which among is preferred?

A
  1. Prophylactic, Blood Schizonticidal, gametocytocidal, hypnozoitocidal, sporonticidal
  2. Malaria
  3. microscopy
  4. Giemsa, Wright, or Wright-Giemsa stain; Giemsa = preferred for detection of certain morphologic features
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4
Q

what smear is used to detect parasites? and what is for species-level identification

A

detection = thick smear
species-level identification = thin smear

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5
Q

Sarcocystis:
1. drug of choice then explain the 2
2. disease
3. what are the 5 diagnostic techniques
4. what is observed in intestinal and muscular sarcocystosis?

A
  1. Albendazole = muscular sarcocystosis, corticosteroids = symptomatic muscular sarcocystosis,
  2. sarcocystosis
  3. wet mount
    wet mount in UV microscopy
    negative staining according to Heine (use: carbolfuchsin stain)
    PCR = to identify species
    Hematoxylin and eosin stain → Periodic Acid schiff or PAS confirmatory
  4. intestinal = oocyst and sporocyst
    muscle = sporocyst
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6
Q

true or false: in sarcocystosis both sporulated oocyst and individual sporocyst can be found in feces? Which of these will autofluoresce in UV?

A

true

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7
Q

whats the life cycle of sarcocysts? 5 steps

A

Sporozoites → schizonts → merozoites (penetrate muscle cell) → cyst with bradyzoites → sporocyst / thin walled oocyst in feces

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8
Q

Trypanosoma:
1. drug of choice for 1st stage (for brucei and Gambian), CNS, and Hemolymphatic stage
2. disease
3. what are the 4 diagnostic techniques

A
  1. 1st brucei spp. = intravenous suramin sodium
    1st gambian form = intravenous pentamidine
    cns = intravenous melarsoprol
    hemolymphatic = nitrofurazone (if melarsoprol fails)
    eflornithine = for gambiense only
  2. trypanosomiasis / african sleeping sickness
  3. thin smear, antibody detection (card agglutination, dipstick method) , molecular detection
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9
Q

diseases caused by
t.brucei gambiense
t.b. rhodesiense
t.b. brucei
t. cruzi

A

gambiense = chronic african trypanosomiasis (west african sleeping sickness)
rhodiense = acute african trypanosomiasis (east african sleeping sickness)
brucei = nagana
cruzi = chagas (vector - triatoma spp or bed bug

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10
Q

what protozoans are inside RBC (2) , and outside RBC or extra erythrocellular

A

inside = plasmodium and babesia
outside = trypanosoma

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11
Q

vector of trypanosoma

A

tsetse fly (genus Glossina)

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12
Q

trypanosomiasis mammalian and tsetsefly stage

A

mammalian =
tsetse fly bites = inject (1) metacyclic trypomastigote –> (2) bloodstream trypomastigote –> multiply in body fluids thru binary fission = circulate

another tsetse fly bites

tsetse=
taken (1) bloodstream trypomastigote = (2) procyclic trypomastigote = binary fission = (3) epimastigote = multiply in salivary gland = (4) metacyclic trypomastigote

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13
Q

reservoir for tb rhodiense

A

cattle

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14
Q

trypanosoma what are the vectors:
t. suis
t. evansi (7)
t equinum

A

suis = pig
evansi = horse, pig,
camel,
carabao, cattle,
cat , dog

equinum = equines or horse

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15
Q

Naegleria:
1. drug of choice then explain the 2
2. disease
3. what are the 3 diagnostic techniques and 5 stains

A
  1. amphotericin B + Clotrimazole
  2. Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis
  3. (1) direct visualization (CSF smears: H&E, PAS, trichrome, giemsa, wright-giemsa)
    direct visualization (tissue) –> trophozoite
    (2) immunohistochemical staining (indirect immunofluorescent or IIF , and immune alkaline phosphatase staining–> trophozoite
    (3) PCR
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16
Q

symptoms of PAM are indistinguishable from what disease

A

bacterial meningitis

17
Q

naeleria spp. how it enters human body and its life cycle

A

trophozoite replicate by promitosis –> temporary non-feeeding flagellated forms –> trophozoite –> nose or sinus –> brain (via olfactorny nerves) –> PAM

18
Q

3 stages of naegleria fowlerii, and 2 forms of trophozoite

A

cyst, trophozoite (ameboid, ameboflagellate), flagellated

19
Q

true or false: naegleria cyst can be found in brain tissue

A

false:

trophozoite = in CSF and tissue
flagellated = CSF
cyst = not in brain

20
Q

Leishmania :
1. drug of choice then explain the 3 and what type of leishmaniasis its for
2. disease
3. what are the 4 diagnostic techniques and 2 stains
4. among diagnostic which is conventional diagnostic approach, which is sensitive and rapid

A
  1. sodium stibogluconate & n-methyl-glucamine = for AIDS patient
    amphotericin b = if stibogluconate fails
    pentamidine = cutaneous and visceral = partient will have high drug resistance
  2. Leishmaniasis
  3. microscopy (giemsa and H&E stain), isoenzyme analysis , serology (for antibody detection) , molecular diagnosis
  4. conventional = isoenzyme analysis (uses biphasic medium = blood agar + defribinated (no fibrin = no blood clot) rabbit blood –> identification using electrophoresis
    sensitive and rapid = molecular diagnostic (PCR)
21
Q

Leishmania life cycle

A

sand fly injects promastigotes –> macrophage phagocytize promastigote –> amastigote –> infect phagocytic cells

in sandfly:
amastigote –> promstigote in gut –> migrate to sand fly proboscis

22
Q

2 types of leishmaniasis and their symptoms:

A
  1. cutaneous :
    - one or more cutaneous lesions on areas where sandflies have fed.
    - Have one or more sores on their skin. The sores can change in size and appearance over time.
    - sores = like a volcano, with a raised edge and central crater.
  2. visceral
    - fever, weight loss, and an enlarged spleen and liver (usually the spleen is bigger than the liver).
    - Some patients have swollen glands.
    - Certain blood tests are abnormal: low RBC, WBC, and platelets
23
Q

leishmaniasis:
1. infective stage and diagnostic and what they look like, where they’re found
2. transmission
3. definitive, intermediate host, vector

A
  1. infective = promastigote in sandflies = with flagella that arise from kinetoplast
    diagnostic = amastigote found in macrophage = no tail, large nucleus, kinetoplast, short axoneme
  2. infected sand fly bite, blood transfusion, etc.
  3. Dh = humans
    IH = sand flies
    vector = female phlebotomine sandflies
    or sand fly = Phlebotomus papatasi
24
Q

all types of lesihmaniasis and what body part it affects:

A
  1. cutaneous = most comon = volcano like crater
  2. diffuse cutaneous = facial area, initial diagnosis for lepromatous leprosy
  3. mucocutaneous = in mucus membrane of nasal and oral cavities
  4. visceral = spread of parasite in bone marrow, spleen, liver
25
Q

differentiate old world and new world leishmaniasis

A
  1. old = asia, middle east, africa, india,
    vector = phlebotomus sand fly
  2. new = america, central or south america
    vector = lutzomyia sand fly
26
Q

what can invade and multiply in macrophages (3)

A

Leishmania spp., Toxoplasma gondii, and
Trypanosoma cruzi,

27
Q

primary reservoir of leishmania in urban and rural

A

urban = dogs and rodents
rural = rodents

28
Q

how to prevent leishmanisis

A

use insect repellent with DEETS and permethrin
use fine mesh bed and screens

Parasitology (3 decks)

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