Protozoa - Tryp., Leish., Giardia, Trichom., Histo. Flashcards

1
Q

Which diagnostic methods are used to detect the presence of trypanosomes in
dried blood smears?

A: Gram-staining
B: Giemsa staining
C: Lugol-solution
D: PAS-reaction

A

B: Giemsa staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is found in giardiasis?

A: Trypomastigotes
B: Promastigotes
C: Oocytes
D: Others

A

D: Others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main difference for detection of intestinal Trichomonas or Giardia
infection?

A: Giardia turn to cyst, Trichomonas not
B: No important difference
C: Trichomonas turn to cyst, Giardia not
D: Giardia much smaller

A

A: Giardia turn to cyst, Trichomonas not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an adequate method to detect Giardia cysts in the fresh feces?

A: Impossible
B: Sedimentation
C: Baermann´s method D: Flotation

A

D: Flotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which forms of Thrichomonas can be found in the outer environment?

A: Cyst
B: Flagellated
C: Ameboid
D: Not any forms

A

D: Not any forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is the non-cyclic Trypanosoma species among the next ones?

A: T. evansi
B: T. congolense
C: T. vivax
D: T. brucei brucei

A

A: T. evansi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which morphological form of the Leishmania can be found in the vertebrate?

A: Promastigote
B: Trypomastigote
C: Amastigote
D: Epimastigote

A

C: Amastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the morphs of leishmanias that appear in macrophages?

A: Trypomastigotes
B: Amastigotes
C: Promastigotes
D: Epimastigotes

A

B: Amastigotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What species are susceptible for the disease of “mal de caderas”?

A: Ruminants
B: Camel and dog
C: Horse and donkey D: Man and dog

A

C: Horse and donkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Trypanosoma that infects host without vectors?

A: T. evansi
B: T. congolense
C: T. equiperdum
D: T. brucei brucei

A

C: T. equiperdum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many flagellums does a Giardia trophozite have?

A: Four
B: Eight
C: Three
D: Two pairs

A

B: Eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which method of staining can be applied to detect Histomonas in tissues?

A: PAS
B: Giemsa
C: Gram
D: Hematoxylin-eosin

A

A: PAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which has the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?

A: T. vivax
B: T. brucei brucei
C: T.congolense
D: T. brucei evansi

A

B: T. brucei brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?

A: Heart failure
B: Renal failure
C: Pneumonia
D: Spleen rupture

A

A: Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which species does the causative agent of dourine belong to?

A: T. brucei
B: T. equiperdum
C: T. evansi
D: T.equinum

A

B: T. Equiperdum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name of parasite found in closely related species

A

Stenoxenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which has cutaneous and visceral forms?

A

Leishmaniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the animal obligatory for the completion of life cycle?

A

Definitive host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parasite of cycle involves one species?

A

Monoxenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which does not cause nagana?

A

T. equiperdum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which cysts can be found in the faeces of the animal?

A

Giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is monomorphic?

A

T. vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do the clinical signs of Dourine follow each other?

A

Genital, skin, nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which host is not needed to complete life cycle?

A

Paratenic host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Test used in dourine?
Complement fixation test
26
Which animal species have the general form of histomonosis?
Guinea fowl
27
What is the name of the Trichomoniasis species found in cattle?
Tritrichomonas foetus
28
Parasite can only be established in one host:
Stenoxenous
29
Can be detected in giardiasis?
Trophozoites
30
Which is not zoonotic?
Histomonosis
31
Flagellate form can be found in the caecal lumen?
Histomonosis
32
Who is pleomorphic?
T. brucei
33
In which faecal sample can you find cysts?
Giardiasis
34
What can you find in the blood smear of dourine?
Trypomastigotes
35
Which of these parasites can infect more than one host?
Euryxenous
36
Which species is found in old/new world America?
T. vivax
37
What is the vector of leishmaniasis?
Sandfly
38
What is the vector of nagana?
Tsetse fly
39
What is the number of nuclei in infected cysts, of entamoebosis?
4
40
What can be detected in leishmaniasis?
Amastigotes
41
Which form of Histomonas is found in the caecum?
Flagellate
42
Which Trypanosoma needs a mechanical vector?
T. evansi
43
What species is primarily affected by Histomonas meleagridis?
Turkey
44
Which parasite species causes Black head?
Histomonas meleagridis
45
Which is the clinical form of leishmaniasis in dogs?
Cutaneous form
46
How do you detect leishmaniasis?
Smear with Giemsa staining. Detection of amastigotes
47
Which test can you use to detect Dourine?
Complement fixation test x2 with 3-week interval
48
Cellular organelle of leishmaniasis consists of?
Nucleus, kinetoplast, axoneme, or basal body
49
Which species is primarily affected by Histomonas meleagridis?
3-12 week old turkeys
50
Which parasites are pleomorphic?
T. brucei, Histomonas meleagridis
51
What can we detect in giardiasis?
Trophozoites (vegetative form) in the faecal smear | Cysts (infectious form) in faecal smear
52
Which cells carry leishmaniasis?
Macrophages
53
Which trypanosome is not involved in nagana?
T. cruzei, T. evansi
54
Which cellular organelle is present in Trypanosoma?
Kinetoplast
55
Which parasite release cysts into the faeces of animals?
Giardia duodenalis
56
What is the mechanical vector of nagana?
Stomoxys and Tabanu
57
Trypanosoma spp. having undulating membrane
T. brucei brucei, T. congolense | T. vivax – Inconspicuous undulating membrane'
58
Stages of Tryponosoma spp. having undulating membrane:
Trypomastigote | Epimastigote
59
Which trypanosome stage is intracellular?
Amastigote
60
Which has flagellum, but no undulating membrane?
Promastigote
61
Which does not have flagellum? (Trypanosoma)
Amastigote
62
Which phenotype of trypanosomes has the kinetoplast anteriorly next to the nucleus, and is also provided with short undulating membrane?
Epimastigote
63
Which cells do Trypanosomes invade?
WBCs, macrophages
64
Trypanosoma found in old world and new world.
Trypanosoma vivax (South America only)
65
For how long does Trypanosoma have…?
Many years
66
Salivaria vs. Stercocaira; which occur in South America?
Both. These are the Trypanosomes group.
67
What is the size range of trypanosomes?
8-39um
68
Name of the cutaneous inflammation after an infection / infiltration with Trypanosoma:
Chancre
69
Nagana caused by:
Trypanosoma vivax, T. congolense, T. brucei
70
Spp. not effected by Nagana:
``` Wild animals (reservoir role) and certain breeds of cattle (N’Dama, zebu are resistant. Ru. Eq. Sus. Ca. effected ```
71
Which is the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?
T.brucei brucei (15-39 um)
72
Largest Trypanosoma from the following:
Trypanosoma brucie brucie (15-39 um)
73
Which Trypomastigote has a large undulating membrane?
Tryponosoma brucei brucei
74
What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?
Congestive heart failure
75
Which region of Africa does the acute, more rapid form of sleeping sickness (T. rhodensiense) occur?
Eastern
76
Trypanosoma evansi causes:
Mal de caderas / Surra
77
The causative agent of Surra (mal de caderas):
Has broad host spectrum – Horse, dog, camel, elephant, humans.
78
Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma evansi infection?
Cattle
79
Surra caused by which parasite?
Trypanosoma evansi
80
Surra is found where in the world?
North Africa, Asia, Central and South America
81
The vector of T. brucei evansi plays a role as:
Mechanical vector
82
Mal de Caderas symptoms
Oedema of limbs
83
Which animal has asymptomatic T. brucei evansi infection:
Cattle, water pig (since these are reservoirs)
84
Trypanosoma cruzi causes:
Chagas’ disease
85
The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs?
In mesenchymal cells Amastigote (mesenchymal cells) – Infected cells rupture, disintegrating amasitgotes elicit an inflammatory response - Epimastigote – Trpomastigote (infect new cells and tissues, muscle, nerves)
86
How can dogs be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?
Eating bugs
87
The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs where?
Mesenchymal cells
88
Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruszi?
Promastigote | See amastigote, epimastigote, and (in the blood stream) trypomastigote.
89
What is not caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Megalomania
90
Which has the biggest kinetoplast or soma from the 4 Trypanosoma?
T. Cruzi
91
How can the kissing bugs inoculate Trypanosoma cruzi in a host?
With their faeces
92
Trypanosoma brucei equiperdum causes
Dourine (exanthema coitale paralyticum
93
Which trypanosoma species causes asymptomatic infection in dogs?
T.equiperdum (does not effect dogs)
94
Which species does the causative agent of Dourine belong to?
T.brucei
95
In scientific terms, what is a dollar spot?
Uritricia
96
Which ocular problem does Dourine not cause?
Nystagmus (strabism), lachrymation, mydriasis
97
Dourine caused by:
Trypanosome brucei subsp. Equiperdum
98
Dourine has been found where in the EU in the last 10 years?
Italy
99
What is the main sign seen towards the end of Dourine?
Paralysis, mainly in hindlimbs | Genitals → Skin → Nerves
100
Geographic locations and symptoms of following Trypanosoma diseases:
Nagana: Central Africa, south of the Sahara region - Haemorrhages on mucosal surfaces, inflammatory-necrotic changes, death due to congestive heart failure Sleeping Sickness: Africa - Leptomeningitis followed by cerebritis Surra / Mal de caderas: EU, North Africa, Asia, Central and South America - Oedema, neurological (Horse) and ocular (Dog) signs, etc. Chagas’ disease: South and Central America - “mega signs” like cardiomegaly, mega-oesophagus, megacolon Dourine: Third world countries, Italy - “dollar spots” Genitals – Skin – Nerves
101
Which of the following is detected by Giemsa staining of blood smear? MCQ
Theileria | Trypanosoma
102
What type of biological vector does Salivaria-type Trypanosoma have?
Biological vector - Glossina spp. (Tsetse flies) | Mechanical vector – Stomoxys and Tabanus spp. (blood-sucking flies)
103
Which phenotype/form is possible for the pathogenesis of Leishmania?
Amastigote | Amastigote host; intra-cellular in macrophages. Promastigote sand-fly; vector
104
Leishmania develops from:
Amastigote
105
Incubation period of Leishmania?
Several years | After an incubation period of 3 months to 7 years, chronic outcome.
106
Leishmaniosis vector is:
Sandfly (Phleobotomus)
107
The sandflies can be the vector of the pathogens of which disease?
Leishmaniosis
108
How can host be infected by Leishmania?
Female sand-fly. Vector disease. Via biting.
109
Leishmania transmission can be:
All | Vector borne. Trans-placental. Sand-fly.
110
What is/are characteristic of pathogenesis of leishmaniosis? (MCQ)
MPS killing amastigotes | Hyper-globulinemia
111
Visceral form of Leishmania?
Distended intestines, melena, conjunctiva problems, hyperaemic spleen, PU, PD
112
Symptoms of Leishmania?
Cutaneous form – Hair loss, hyper-keratosis, desquamation, seborrhoea, small papules, ulcers, crusts, excessive long clawa (onychogryphosis) Visceral form – Lymph nodes spleen and liver enlarge, fever, anaemia, emaciation, muscle atrophy, ataxia, somnolence, lethargy, anorexia, vomit, diarrhoea, cachexia, PU, PD, ocular signs, rhinitis, coughing, epistaxis, melena
113
Cause of death in Leishmania?
Renal insufficiency/failure (kidney insufficiency)
114
Which country lacks autochthonous cases (indigenous, native) of Leishmaniosis?
Germany
115
What is the approximate size of Giardia:
Trophozoite – 11-17 um | Cyst - 10-20um
116
How do humans get giardia?
Swimming, contaminated drinking water, washing food with water, surfaces
117
How do chickens get Giardiasis?
Infection per os. Infected water. Water-borne infection.
118
How Giardia infects?
Via contaminated water (swimming, drinking water, washing food), food, surfaces, caprophagy
119
Where can we find Giardia extra-intestinally?
Bile and pancreatic ducts; liver and pancreas
120
Giardia cyst location?
Environment (infectious form)
121
Giardia trophozoite location?
Host (vegetative form). In intestine, bile duct, pancreatic duct.
122
Which Giardia duodenalis occurs in dog?
Genotypes A-D (ABCD) (A-G genotypes exist)
123
Difference between Trichomonas and Tritrichomonas?
Trichomonas 4 flagella Birds | Tritrichomonas 3 flagella Cattle
124
If the following are present, more susceptible to Trichomonas: MCQ
Vitamin A deficiency
125
How do pigeons acquire Trichomonas?
``` Young pigeons (squabs) – Via feeding of regurgitated feed content Pigeons – Via kissing or from contaminated drinking water ```
126
General feature of Trichomonas in pigeons?
Penguin-like posture (birds stand upright with head high and neck straight)
127
What is the characteristic lesion in the hepatic form of pigeon Trichomonosis?
Pea-size necrosis
128
What is/are the worst consequences in Trichomonosis in Cows?
``` Early abortion (1st trimester, before 4th month) – Early abortion in 6-16th week via absorption or elimination Pyometra – Greyish-white, odourless fluid swarming with Trichomonas ```
129
Age when bulls are susceptible to Trichomonas spp.:
Above 3 years
130
How does Trichomonas gallinae reach the liver in birds?
From navel | Hepatic form – Through navel of squabs into the liver – Greyish-yellow, pea-sized necrotic foci
131
Geographical region with Tritrichomonas problems?
Certain states of America (e.g. Florida, Nevada, California, etc.)
132
How does Tritrichomonas foetus live in the genital tract?
Epi-cellularly
133
Which can be found in earthworms?
Histomonas meleagridis – Heterakis earthworm as a transport host.
134
Predisposing factor of Histomonosis:
Turkeys kept together with chickens (asymptomatic carriers, frequently Heterakis infected)
135
Liver of Histomonas infection pathologically seen as:
Dry cut surface Characteristic, greyish-yellow, circular, deep/sunken, necrotic foci 1-2cm or more in diameter. The border of the lesions shows sharp demarcation, and the dry-cut surface shows concentric structures due to expanding necrosis of the hepatocytes on the periphery. Pathognomic lesions!
136
Characteristics of Histomonosis disease in birds
Cyanosis of the head (blueish colour) | Also, weakness, dropping of wings, drowsiness, yellow diarrhoea, death within days
137
Which clinical sign is not characteristic of turkey Histomonosis?
Head cyanosis (no cyanosis of head not wattles in turkey)
138
Entamoeba histolytica morphology:
``` 4 nuclei, 8-20 um Trophozoite Amoeboid form, in mucosa and tissues, ring-like nucleus, endosomes (karysome), RBCs in cytoplasm, no mitochondria (mitosome instead, pseudopodia for movement). 10-20um Cyst Round (cf to Giardia which is oval!), 4 nuclei, blunt chromatidal bars. 8-10um ```
139
Which of the following is/are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica trophoziotes? MCQ
Eccentric endosome | Phagocytised RBCs
140
What causes anosmia (loss of smell)?
Entamoeba histolytica
141
Entamoeba attacks:
RBCs
142
Where does the skin abscess of Entamoeba come from?
Abscess in liver | Peritonits, pleuritis (if abscesses rupture). Skin: Erythema, alopecia, hyper-keratosis (desquamation)
143
Chronic granulomatosus encephalitis is caused by:
Acanthamoeba castellani
144
What is chronic granulomatous amoebic encephalitis (GAE) in humans caused by?
Acanthamoeba castellani
145
How can a dog become infected with Acanthamoeba castellani?
Dog - From water, contact with still water, through skin lesion. Opportunism if dog with Distemper. Horse – Via inhalation, through skin lesion.
146
Naegleria morphology:
10-12 um, rounded Trophozoite < 20 um, with a single amoebostome Biflagellar form Swim large distances in water Cyst 10-12 um, uni-nucleated, round, ostiolum (tiny opening for excystation)
147
What is shape and size of Naegleria cyst?
Uni-nucleated, osteolum, rounded, 10-12 um
148
What is the form Naegleria fowleri does not have?
Provided with one flagellum | N. fowleri has biflagellar form
149
What is the acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) in humans caused by?
Naegleria fowleri
150
What disease does Naegleria fowleri cause?
Primary amoeboid meningoencephalitis
151
What is true for infection with Amoeba? (?)
Large nucleus. Large cyst.
152
Specific for opportunist amoebas? (?)
Big nucleus