Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Parasitology II > Protozoa > Flashcards

Protozoa Flashcards

1
Q

Trypanosoma spp. having undulating membrane:

A

T. brucei brucei, T. congolense

T. vivax – Inconspicuous undulating membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stages of Tryponosoma spp. having undulating membrane:

A

Trypomastigote

Epimastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which trypanosome stage is intracellular?

A

Amastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which has flagellum, but no undulating membrane?

A

Promastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which does not have flagellum?

A

 Amastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which phenotype of trypanosomes has the kinetoplast anteriorly next to the nucleus, and is also provided with short undulating membrane?

A

Epimastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cells do Trypanosomes invade?

A

WBCs, macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trypanosoma found in old world and new world.

A

Trypanosoma vivax (South America only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For how long does Trypanosoma have…?

A

Many years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Salivaria vs. Stercocaira; which occur in South America?

A

Both. These are the Trypanosomes group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the size range of trypanosomes?

A

8-39um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name of the cutaneous inflammation after an infection / infiltration with Trypanosoma:

A

Chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nagana caused by:

A

Trypanosoma vivax, T. congolense, T. brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Spp. not effected by Nagana:

A

 Wild animals (reservoir role) and certain breeds of cattle (N’Dama, zebu are resistant. Ru. Eq. Sus. Ca. effected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?

A

T.brucei brucei (15-39 um)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Largest Trypanosoma from the following:

A

Trypanosoma brucie brucie (15-39 um)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which Trypomastigote has a large undulating membrane?

A

Tryponosoma brucei brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which region of Africa does the acute, more rapid form of sleeping sickness (T. rhodensiense) occur?

A

Eastern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trypanosoma evansi causes:

A

Mal de caderas / Surra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The causative agent of Surra (mal de caderas):

A

Has broad host spectrum – Horse, dog, camel, elephant, humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma evansi infection?

A

Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Surra caused by which parasite?

A

Trypanosoma evansi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Surra is found where in the world?

A

North Africa, Asia, Central and South America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The vector of T. brucei evansi plays a role as:

A

Mechanical vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mal de Caderas symptoms:

A

Oedema of limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which animal has asymptomatic T. brucei evansi infection:

A

Cattle, water pig (since these are reservoirs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi causes:

A

Chagas’ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs?

A

In mesenchymal cells
Amastigote (mesenchymal cells) – Infected cells rupture, disintegrating amasitgotes elicit an inflammatory response - Epimastigote – Trpomastigote (infect new cells and tissues, muscle, nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How can dogs be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Eating bugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs where?

A

Mesenchymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruszi?

A

 Promastigote

See amastigote, epimastigote, and (in the blood stream) trypomastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is not caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

 Megalomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which has the biggest kinetoplast or soma from the 4 Trypanosoma?

A

T. Cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can the kissing bugs inoculate Trypanosoma cruzi in a host?

A

With their faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Trypanosoma brucei equiperdum causes:

A

Dourine (exanthema coitale paralyticum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which trypanosoma species causes asymptomatic infection in dogs?

A

T. equiperdum (does not effect dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which species does the causative agent of Dourine belong to?

A

T. brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In scientific terms, what is a dollar spot?

A

Uritricia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which ocular problem does Dourine not cause?

A

 Nystagmus (strabism), lachrymation, mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dourine caused by:

A

Trypanosome brucei subsp. Equiperdum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dourine has been found where in the EU in the last 10 years?

A

Italy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the main sign seen towards the end of Dourine?

A

Paralysis, mainly in hindlimbs Genitals → Skin → Nerves

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Geographic locations and symptoms of following Trypanosoma diseases:

A

Nagana: Central Africa, south of the Sahara region - Haemorrhages on mucosal surfaces, inflammatory-necrotic changes, death due to congestive heart failure
Sleeping Sickness: Africa - Leptomeningitis followed by cerebritis
Surra / Mal de caderas: EU, North Africa, Asia, Central and South America - Oedema, neurological (Horse) and ocular (Dog) signs, etc.
Chagas’ disease: South and Central America - “mega signs” like cardiomegaly, mega-oesophagus, megacolon
Dourine: Third world countries, Italy - “dollar spots” Genitals – Skin – Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following is detected by Giemsa staining of blood smear? MCQ

A

Theileria

Trypanosoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of biological vector does Salivaria-type Trypanosoma have?

A

Biological vector - Glossina spp. (Tsetse flies)

Mechanical vector – Stomoxys and Tabanus spp. (blood-sucking flies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which phenotype/form is possible for the pathogenesis of Leishmania?

A

Amastigote

Amastigote host; intra-cellular in macrophages. Promastigote sand-fly; vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Leishmania develops from:

A

Amastigote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Incubation period of Leishmania?

A

Several years

After an incubation period of 3 months to 7 years, chronic outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Leishmaniosis vector is:

A

Sandfly (Phleobotomus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The sandflies can be the vector of the pathogens of which disease?

A

Leishmaniosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How can host be infected by Leishmania?

A

Female sand-fly. Vector disease. Via biting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Leishmania transmission can be:

A

All

Vector borne. Trans-placental. Sand-fly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is/are characteristic of pathogenesis of leishmaniosis? (MCQ)

A

MPS killing amastigotes Hyper-globulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Visceral form of Leishmania?

A

Distended intestines, melena, conjunctiva problems, hyperaemic spleen, PU, PD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Symptoms of Leishmania?

A

Cutaneous form – Hair loss, hyper-keratosis, desquamation, seborrhoea, small papules, ulcers, crusts, excessive long clawa (onychogryphosis)
Visceral form – Lymph nodes spleen and liver enlarge, fever, anaemia, emaciation, muscle atrophy, ataxia, somnolence, lethargy, anorexia, vomit, diarrhoea, cachexia, PU, PD, ocular signs, rhinitis, coughing, epistaxis, melena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cause of death in Leishmania?

A

Renal insufficiency/failure (kidney insufficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which country lacks autochthonous cases (indigenous, native) of Leishmaniosis?

A

 Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the approximate size of Giardia:

A

Trophozoite – 11-17 um

Cyst - 10-20um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do humans get giardia?

A

Swimming, contaminated drinking water, washing food with water, surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How do chickens get Giardiasis?

A

Infection per os. Infected water. Water-borne infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How Giardia infects?

A

Via contaminated water (swimming, drinking water, washing food), food, surfaces, caprophagy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where can we find Giardia extra-intestinally?

A

Bile and pancreatic ducts; liver and pancreas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Giardia cyst location?

A

Environment (infectious form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Giardia trophozoite location?

A

Host (vegetative form). In intestine, bile duct, pancreatic duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which Giardia duodenalis occurs in dog?

A

Genotypes A-D (ABCD) (A-G genotypes exist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Difference between Trichomonas and Tritrichomonas?

A

Trichomonas 4 flagella Birds Tritrichomonas 3 flagella Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If the following are present, more susceptible to Trichomonas: MCQ

A

Vitamin A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How do pigeons acquire Trichomonas?

A 
Young pigeons (squabs) – Via feeding of regurgitated feed content 
Pigeons – Via kissing or from contaminated drinking water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

General feature of Trichomonas in pigeons?

A

Penguin-like posture (birds stand upright with head high and neck straight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the characteristic lesion in the hepatic form of pigeon Trichomonosis?

A

Pea-size necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is/are the worst consequences in Trichomonosis in Cows?

A 
Early abortion (1st trimester, before 4th month) – Early abortion in 6-16th week via absorption or elimination
Pyometra – Greyish-white, odourless fluid swarming with Trichomonas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Age when bulls are susceptible to Trichomonas spp.:

A

Above 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How does Trichomonas gallinae reach the liver in birds?

A

From navel

Hepatic form – Through navel of squabs into the liver – Greyish-yellow, pea-sized necrotic foci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Geographical region with Tritrichomonas problems?

A

Certain states of America (e.g. Florida, Nevada, California, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How does Tritrichomonas foetus live in the genital tract?

A

Epi-cellularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which can be found in earthworms?

A

Histomonas meleagridis – Heterakis earthworm as a transport host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Predisposing factor of Histomonosis:

A

Turkeys kept together with chickens (asymptomatic carriers, frequently Heterakis infected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Liver of Histomonas infection pathologically seen as:

A

Dry cut surface
Characteristic, greyish-yellow, circular, deep/sunken, necrotic foci 1-2cm or more in diameter. The border of the lesions shows sharp demarcation, and the dry-cut surface shows concentric structures due to expanding necrosis of the hepatocytes on the periphery. Pathognomic lesions!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Characteristics of Histomonosis disease in birds?

A

Cyanosis of the head (blueish colour)

Also, weakness, dropping of wings, drowsiness, yellow diarrhoea, death within days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which clinical sign is not characteristic of turkey Histomonosis?

A

 Head cyanosis (no cyanosis of head not wattles in turkey)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Entamoeba histolytica morphology:

A 
4 nuclei, 8-20 um
Trophozoite Amoeboid form, in mucosa and tissues, ring-like nucleus, endosomes (karysome), RBCs in cytoplasm, no mitochondria (mitosome instead, pseudopodia for movement). 10-20um
Cyst Round (cf to Giardia which is oval!), 4 nuclei, blunt chromatidal bars. 8-10um
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following is/are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica trophoziotes? MCQ

A

Eccentric endosome

Phagocytised RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What causes anosmia (loss of smell)?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Entamoeba attacks:

A

RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where does the skin abscess of Entamoeba come from?

A

Abscess in liver

Peritonits, pleuritis (if abscesses rupture). Skin: Erythema, alopecia, hyper-keratosis (desquamation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Acanthamoebosis

A

Free-living, soil inhabitant, opportunistic amoebae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Chronic granulomatosus encephalitis is caused by:

A

Acanthamoeba castellani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is chronic granulomatous amoebic encephalitis (GAE) in humans caused by?

A

Acanthamoeba castellani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How can a dog become infected with Acanthamoeba castellani?

A

Dog - From water, contact with still water, through skin lesion. Opportunism if dog with Distemper.
Horse – Via inhalation, through skin lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Naegleria morphology:

A

10-12 um, rounded Trophozoite Biflagellar form Cyst
< 20 um, with a single amoebostome
Swim large distances in water
10-12 um, uni-nucleated, round, ostiolum (tiny opening for excystation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is shape and size of Naegleria cyst?

A

Uni-nucleated, osteolum, rounded, 10-12 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the form Naegleria fowleri does not have?

A

 Provided with one flagellum

N. fowleri has biflagellar form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) in humans caused by?

A

Naegleria fowleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What disease does Naegleria fowleri cause?

A

Primary amoeboid meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is true for infection with Amoeba? (?)

A

Large nucleus. Large cyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Specific for opportunist amoebas? (?)

A

Big nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Detection of Klossiella:

A

Sporocysts – Urine:Sodium hydrogencarbonate. Centrifuge. Examine sediment.
Sporoblasts – Basophil staining, bilaminar membrane projections on the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What belongs to Alveolata (meaning ‘with cavities’, group of protists)

A

Apicomplexa, Ciliophora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Where does the merozoite develop?

A

Inside schizont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Eimeria (Coccidiosis) imp.

A

Many questions on Eimeria spp. Refer to lab questions as well 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which statement is not true for the development of Eimeria species?

A

 Schizogony occurs in gametogony. (It occurs in Schizogony)
True: Schizogony is initiated epithelially or sub-epithelially. Sporulated oocysts are more resistant than unsporulated ones. Occurrence of meronts with few merozoites is not characteristic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Pre-disposing factors to Eimeria:

A

Young age, intensive (crowded, accelerated keeping), insufficient nutrition (lack of vitamins, protein in the feed), litter (deep), neglected hygienic measures, inter-current infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which Eimeria species occurs extra-intestinally?

A

E. ninakohyakimovae in Goats’ lymph nodes and gall bladder

E. danoilovi in Ducks. Lesions in cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Difference between Isospora and Eimeria spp.?

A

Only Eimeria has cap, micropyle, and residual bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Location of Eimeria spp.

A 
E. tenella - caecum - haemorrhage
E. necatrix - SI - haemorrhage
E. brunetti - rectum - haemorrhage
E. maxima - mid-SI - moderate patho
E. acervulina - duodenum 
E. mitis - the whole intestinal length -subclinical coccidosis
E. mivalti  -subclinical coccidosis
E. praecox - SI  -subclinical coccidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Different Eimeria spp. asking for most pathogenic stage:

A

E. tenella - 2nd Schizont
E. brunetti, E. necratix - 2nd Schizogony
E. brunetti - 2nd Schizogony, 3rd Gametogony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrhagic lesions in small intestine of chicken?

A

Three (E. necratrix, E. maxima, E. brunetti)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrhagic or fibrinous lesions in the caeca?

A

Two (E. tenella, E. brunetti)

110
Q

Which Eimeria in the small intestine does not cause haemorrhages?

A

 Not E. acervulina nor E. mitis

111
Q

What Eimeria causes haemorrhagic or fibrinous lesions in the caeca?

A

E. Brunetti

112
Q

Which Eimeria spp. in chicken is:

A

Highly pathogenic: E. tenella, E. necratrix
Moderately pathogenic: E. maxima
Less pathogenic: E. acervulina, E.mitis

113
Q

Which Eimeria causes ladder-like white bands?

A

E. acervulina

114
Q

Eimeria acervulina location:

A

Duodenum (heavier infection extending to the jejunum)

115
Q

Which Eimeria spp. is complimentary to E. acervulina? (?)

A

E. mitis maybe, since both cause sub-clinical signs in chicken (less pathogenic)

116
Q

Location of Eimeria tenella: MCQ

A

Caecum

Epithelial cells – Lymphocytes – Macrophages – Crypt epithelium

117
Q

Which is the most pathogenic? E. tenella or E. acervulina?

A

E. tenella

118
Q

Which is/are the most pathogenic stage(s) of E. tenella?

A

2nd schizont

119
Q

Location of Eimeria maxima: MCQ

A

Jejunum

Occasionally in the duodenum, ileum

120
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?

A

E. brunetti

121
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. have 6-7 day pre-patent period?

A

E. tenella
E. necatrix
(5 days pre-patent period in E. brunetti, E. maxima)

122
Q

Which is most probably not found in chicken?

A

 E. duodenalis, E. flavescens

123
Q

No neurological symptoms?

A

 Eimeria of turkey

Chicken, Turkey, Pigeon, Duck. Duck → Causes cerebellar lesions.

124
Q

Which Eimeria species does not occur behind the small intestine?

A

 E. meleagridis

125
Q

Which turkey coccidium is at most forward?

A

E. meleagrimitis (jejunum, duodenum, ileum)

126
Q

The most pathogenic turkey coccidium?

A

E. adenoiedes
E. gallopavonis
E. meleagrimitis
(Not pathogenic – E. meleagridis)

127
Q

Which one is not found in turkey?

A

 E. duodenalis (found in Pheasant)

128
Q

What is the characteristic colour of necrotic debris during E. adenoeides coccidiosis? (?)

A

white

129
Q

Which one causes catarrhal haemorrhagic inflammation in Pheasant?

A

E. colchici

130
Q

Where does Eimeria labbeana and E. columbarum develop?

A

Pigeon, middle of small intestine

131
Q

Eimeria labbeana. In which spp. and organ?

A

Pigeon – Small intestine

132
Q

Goose kidney coccidium?

A

E. truncata

133
Q

Eimeria kotlani is in which species?

A

Goose - Intestinal coccidiosis (also E. nocens, E. anseris)

134
Q

Which coccidia has 4 sporocysts with 4 sporozoites in each?

A

Wenyonella philiplevinei (coccidiosis of duck)

135
Q

How many Eimeria spp. does not cause haemorrhages in the small intestine?

A

 One – E. anatis no haemorrhages

Haemorrhages in Ducks (3) – Tyzzeria perniciosia, E. danailovi, Wenyonella philiplevinei

136
Q

Coccidiosis of Horse

A

E. leuckarti – Small intestine

137
Q

What characteristic lesion of Horse coccidiosis in small intestine?

A

Catarrhal-inflammatory changes

138
Q

Cause of Horse coccidiosis?

A

E. leuckarti

139
Q

What type of oocyst is E. leuckarti?

A

80 um, piriform, (thick, dark brown wall and large micropyle)

140
Q

Coccidiosis of Cattle

A 
E. zuernii
E. bovis
E. ellipsoidalis 
E. alabamensis 
E. auburnensis
141
Q

Which Eimeria spp. is highly pathogenic in cattle?

A

E. zuernii

E. bovis

142
Q

Which Eimeria spp. is found in cattle?

A

E. bovis and E. zuernii are the most pathogenic in cattle

143
Q

Which Eimeria sp. may have a high pathogenicity similar to E. zuernii? (?)

A

E. alabamensis
According to notes, the following have similar pathogenicity in cattle:
E. zuernii – E. bovis (most)
Sinead Darmanin
E. alabamensis – E. aubernensis E. ellipsoidalis (least)

144
Q

Coccidiosis of Small Ruminants

A 
Sheep:
E. ovinoidalis (most pathogenic)
E. bakuensis 
E. crandallis 
E. parva
E. ahsata
Goat:
E. ninakohlyakimovae (most pathogenic)
E. arloingi 
E. christenseni 
E. caprina
145
Q

Sheep Eimeria spp. and what it causes in the intestine:

A

E. ovinoidalis, E. crandallis, E. parva Diffuse hyper-plasia and thickening of the wall of the caecum (occasionally of the colon), with necrosis, roughness, and small haemorrhages on the mucosal surface.
E. baukuensis, (E. arloingi - Goat) Greyish-white, flat/protuberant hyper-plastic nodules. Occasionally 4-7 mm polyp-like growths (enlarged villi) in the posterior small intestine: Nest of gamonts, many oocysts.

146
Q

Which Eimeria species occurs in Goat?

A

E. ninakohlyakimovae (occurs extra-intestinally)

147
Q

Coccidiosis of Rabbit – Liver Coccidiosis

A

E. stiedai

148
Q

Which of the highly pathogenic Eimeria species is in right location?

A

E. flavescens in caecum

149
Q

Which of the following is correct?

A

E. irresidua – Jejunum

150
Q

Rabbit coccidiosis:

A 
Small intestine x3: 
E. intestinalis 
E. magna 
E. irresidua
Large intestine x2 
E. flavescens
E. piriformis
151
Q

Coccidiosis of the Pig

A

E. deblicki E. polita E. scabra E. spinosa (non-pathogenic) Isospora suis (pathogenic)

152
Q

What is not characteristic during Pig coccidiosis?

A

 Haemorrhagic enteritis

153
Q

Where are the lesions caused by Isospora suis mostly situated?

A

Jejunum

154
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 2 sporocysts?

A

Isospora
Sporulated Isospora oocysts contain 2 sporocysts, and 4 sporozoites in each, with a wall without micropyle, containing neither oocyst residual body nor Stieda body

155
Q

Coccidiosis of Carnivores

A 
Dog:
Isospora canis 
I. ohioensis 
I. burrowsi 
Cat: 
Isospora felis
I. rivolta
156
Q

Difference between Isospora and Eimeria?

A

Only Eimeria has cap, micropyle, and residual bodies.

157
Q

Difference between Neospora and Isospora?

A

Isospora do not have microcpyle in wall. Isospora oocysts do not have residual or stieda body.

158
Q

If Eimeria oocysts are recognised in Dog faeces, then: (?)

A

Belong to dogs as hosts, no pathological significance Pseudoparasites

159
Q

If Dog passes Eimeria in faeces (are detectable):

A

Not diagnostic

Since in carnivores:- Healthy animal may also shed oocysts.

160
Q

Dog coccidiosis:

A

Host specific, homoxenous parasites (with paratenic host only!)

161
Q

Which species does not have Eimeria spp.?

A

 Carnivores (have Isospora spp.)

162
Q

Locations of Cryptosporidium spp.:

A

C. parvum - Small intestine (ileum) - Ruminants, rodents, humans
C. muris - Abomasum /
Stomach (primates) - Rodents, rabbits, ruminants, carnivores, humans
C. andersoni - Abomasum / Stomach - Ruminants, humans

163
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 4 free sporozoites?

A

Cryptosporidium

164
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts without sporocysts?

A

Cryptosporidium

165
Q

Size of Cryptosporidiosis oocyst?

A

5-6 (-8 inc. mammalian) Mammalian 5-8 um

166
Q

What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidium baileyi oocysts?

A

6-7um, oval

167
Q

Crpyosporidium infection:

A

Per os infection. Mainly with water (water-borne). Aerogen via coughing, dust, or spray.

168
Q

Which form of Cryptosporidiosis has the most severe outcome in mammals?

A

C. parvum (due to apoptosis)

169
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum more likely in:

A

Immunocompromised animals (opportunism) Giardia (concurrent infection)

170
Q

Cryptosporidium andersoni in:

A

Gastric glands of bovine abomasum. Older calves.

171
Q

Which Cryptosporidium sp./spp. occur(s) frequently in post-weaned or older calves? (MCQ)

A

C. bovis
C. ryanae
C. andersoni

172
Q

Which is not characteristic of Avian cryptosporidiosis?

A

 Hepatic

Characteristic: Respiratory, intestinal, renal

173
Q

Cryptosporidium baileyi not in: (location and host)

A

True: In chicken (location depends on route of infection)

174
Q

In which location will Cryptosporidium baileyi not establish?

A

 Stomach

175
Q

Which form of Cryptosporidiosis has the most severe outcome in Broilers?

A

Respiratory form

176
Q

In which host does Toxoplasmosis play a large role in abortion?

A

Sheep (In mid-gestation)

Also small ruminants, humans. Sometimes pigs.

177
Q

Hammondia hammondii is similar to:

A

Toxoplasma gondii

178
Q

Which are the routes of infection of Toxoplasma?

A

Oral – Via meat containing cysts / sporulated oocysts Galactogenic
Trans-placental
Parenteral

179
Q

What kind of meat do humans get Toxoplasma from?

A

Venison, lamb, and pork mainly. Undercooked meat like deer, pork and lamb.

180
Q

How do humans get Toxoplasma?

A

Soil work, unwashed vegetables, oocyst in water, contact with cats.

181
Q

Difference between Neospora and Isospora?

A

Isospora do not have microcpyle in wall. Isospora oocysts do not have residual or stieda body.

182
Q

What are potential consequences of Neosporosis in dogs? MCQ

A

(Neospora is a form of paralysis in dogs, and abortion in cattle) Poly-radiculo-neuritis (ascending form of hind-limb paralysis) Dysphagia
Dermatitis (generalized form is a disseminated form with pol- or pyogranumatous-ulcerative dermatitis)

183
Q

Neospora caninum of dogs causes: (final and intermediate host)

A

Poly-radiculo-neurits

184
Q

When does Neospora caninum cause abortion?

A

Cows – Abortion between 3rd-7th month of gestation (early foetal death may entail resorption, later
causes mummification, autolysis)
Due to tachyzoites (parasitaemia) of the mother. Neospora is a cause of paralysis in dog and abortion in cattle.

185
Q

What is the characteristic gestation period of Neosporosis related abortion in cows? (intermediate host)

A

4-6 months

186
Q

Neospora hughesi causes:

A

Equine protozoal myelmoencephalitis (EPM)

187
Q

Who does Hammondiosis affect?

A

Final Host: Dog, fox, coyote (H. heydorni and H. triffittae in canids) , cat (H. hammondi) (Carnivores)
Intermediate Host: Ruminants, guinea pigs, mice, deer dogs (Prey species)

188
Q

Clinical signs of Hammondia spp.:

A

H. hammondi - Only in intermediate host. Depression, anorexia, myocarditis, death in mouse, rat. Final host no symptoms.
H. heydorni - No clinical signs.

189
Q

To whom are Hammondia spp. closely related genetically?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

190
Q

Hammondiosis causes symptoms in what?

A

Cat, Dog

Usually sub-clinical in cats. H. heydorni can cause diarrhoea in immuno-compromised dogs.

191
Q

Which species shed Hammondi cysts?

A

Cats only, via faeces.

192
Q

Which species is related to pathological signs in Hammondia?

A

Mouse – Depression, anorexia, myositis, myocarditis, death.

193
Q

Besnoitia species are:

A

Obligatory hetero-xenous (the majority obligatory)

194
Q

Size of besnoitia cyst?

A

3- 800 um, visible to the naked eye

195
Q

What is the direction of spreading bovine Besnoitiosis in Europe?

A

South-west to east

196
Q

Besnoitia vector:

A

Tabanus, Stomoxys (blood-sucking insects transmit mechanically the cystozoites = hetero-xenous)

197
Q

Where does the Besnoitia cyst occur?

A

Sclera. Pathognomic. Cysts occur in the sclera (pathognomic), respiratory muscles, genital mucosa.
Endothelium (cystozoites, surrounded by connective tissue reaction). Sclera-derma stage: Dermis, sub-cutaneous tissue (also in the cornea, sclera, conjunctiva, mucosa of respiratory and genital organs, serosal surfaces).

198
Q

Which statement is not true for Besnoitia besnoiti?

A

 It ́s most important intermediate host is the cat. (Intermediate host is cattle, wild ruminants). True: It can be transmitted by vectors. The cyst is visible to the naked eye. Develops in the endothel.

199
Q

Which domestic animals have zoonotic Sarcocystis sp./spp.?

A

Pig, cattle

Pig – S. suihominis Cattle – S. hominis

200
Q

Ruminants Sarcocystiosis pathogenesis:

A

Dalmeny disease – General haemorrhages diathesis (petechial and diffuse haemorrhages everywhere)

201
Q

Haemogregarines characteristics:

A

Micro- and macro-gamonts develop next to each other

202
Q

In Klossiella there is:

A

Free sporocyst to discharge via urine. Sporocyst with 10-15 sporozoites in it.

203
Q

Which animal is pathogenically affected by Klosseliosis?

A

Horse (K. equi) and Mouse (K. muris)

204
Q

Hepatozoon host:

A

Dog, fox, jackal, (cat)

205
Q

True for hepatozoon:

A

Oocyst develops in ticks

Biological vectors – Hard ticks mainly Rhipicephalus sanguineus, R. turanicus, Amblyomma maculatum

206
Q

Hepatozoon americanum develops in which tissue?

A

In muscles (myocardium!)

207
Q

Specific for Hepatozoon americanum:

A

Schizonts with mutli-lamellar wall (onion-like)

208
Q

What is the last developmental stage in Hepatozoon canis of dog?

A

Gamont (appear in the blood 5 weeks PI)

209
Q

Location of Hepatozoon canis:

A

Neutrophils, granulocytes, WBCs

210
Q

What is characteristic of Hepatozoon canis oocysts?

A

Very large, visible to the naked eye (0.3 – 1 mm)

211
Q

Which infective form in tick of Hepatozoon canis?

A

Oocyst

212
Q

How can canine Hepatozoonosis be diagnosed?

A

Finding gamonts in the blood (Elliptic gamonts in WBCs; mainly neutrophil granulocytes)

213
Q

Haemosporinids

A

Hetero-xenous parasites. Fertilized zygote is motile. No sporocyst, conoid.

214
Q

Plasmodiosis (Malaria)

Which malaria is crescent shaped?

A

Malaria falciparum – Its gametocytes have a crescent or banana shape.

215
Q

Which stage is missing in Plasmodium?

A

 No syzygium nor sporocyst

216
Q

Plasmodium doesn’t have this?

A

 Sporocyst

217
Q

What cells are infected with Plasmodium?

A

MPS, RBC, lymphocytes, and liver.

218
Q

In Plasmodium species, where does the primer exo-erythrocytic schizogony take place?

A

Mammals – Liver parenchyma cells

Birds – MPS of skin, then of various organs

219
Q

Followed by endo-erythrocytic merogony in:

A

RBCs, within PV, continuing repeatedly and synchronising.

220
Q

Which Plasmodium causes the appearance of Schüffner dots in red blood cells?

A

P. ovale and P. vivax

221
Q

Which Plasmodium species is not pathogenic to humans?

A

 P. simium

Humans – P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale

222
Q

What is the most important biological vector of Plasmodium gallinaceum (chicken)?

A

Culex/Aedes mosquitoes – For birds

Anopheles mosquitoes – For mammals

223
Q

Which isn’t a characteristic of Haemoproteosis?

A

 Lung emphysema

Characteristic: Lung oedema, haemorrhages on the heart, megalo-schizonts in heart

224
Q

Where does Haemoproetus develop?

A

Development in the vector for 1-2 weeks

225
Q

Vectors of Haemoproteus spp.?

A 
Biological vectors
Forest flies (Hippoboscidae spp.) 
Biting midges (Culicoides spp.)
226
Q

Where does the first schizogony of Haemoproteus spp. take place?

A

In endothelial cells

227
Q

Haemoproteus can be detected:

A

Pigmented gamonts in RBCs (sausage-like, next to…then encircling the nucleus)

228
Q

Which is correct for Haemoproteus?

A

Sausage-shaped gamont inside RBCs

Sausage-like in RBCs next to the nucleus (since Haemoproteus spp. are bird protozoa, and their RBCs have a nucleus)

229
Q

Which Leucocytozoon species occurs in chicken?

A

L. caulleryi

230
Q

Which are the vectors of Leucocytozoon species?

A

Biological vectors:
Blackflies (Simulidae)
Biting midges (Culicoides spp.)

231
Q

Leucocytozoon first schizogony takes place where?

A

In liver parenchymal cells (spleen and other organs, depending on spp.)

232
Q

Which is absent from the lifecycle of Leucocytozoon species?

A

 Sporokinete

233
Q

Which is the location of Leucocyotzoon sp. don’t usually cause any haemorrhage, necrosis?

A

 Mucous membranes

Cause haemorrhages, necrosis in: Lungs, liver, spleen, kidneys, gall bladder, ovary, oviduct, and muscles.

234
Q

Piroplasmosis

A

Piroplasmosis characteristics:
Heteoxenous parasites
No oocyst, conoid (together with Haemosporinids called ‘Aconidasida’)

235
Q

Breed predisposition to Babesia in Dogs:

A

Spaniel
Also Doberman, Pekingese, Yorkshire terrier, Irish setter. More resistant – Beagle, Fox terrier
Sub-clinical – German shepherds

236
Q

Transmission of Babesia:

A

Via ticks

237
Q

Which ticks are vector of large Babesia spp?

A

Eq: Dermancentor marginatus
Bo: Boophilus spp. + Haemaphysalis punctuata
Ca: Dermacentor reticularis

238
Q

Babesia canis transmitted by Ixodes ricinus and Dermacentor reticulatus?

A

False – D. reticularis only

239
Q

Which genus/ genera include(s) tick sp./spp. that is/are vectors of large babesiosis? MCQ

A

Haemaphysalis

Dermacentor

240
Q

What transmits horse Babesia?

A

B. caballi’s vector is Dermacentor marginatus

241
Q

Mode of Babesia transmission:

A

Trans-ovarial (Female) Trans-stadial Intra-stadial (Male)

242
Q

Which is the vector of the zoonotic European Babesiosis?

A

Ixodes ricinus

Zoonotic babesia = B. divergans = Ixodes ricinus (Babesia vector)

243
Q

Can humans get Babesia from dogs?

A

False

244
Q

Babesia incubation period:

A

4-21 days

245
Q

What is the incubation period of canine Babesiosis?

A

5-20 days

246
Q

Form of Theileria that occurs in RBCs?

A

Piroplasm

n.b. Both Theileria and Babesia have piroplasms (merozoite form in the shape of Maltese cross)

247
Q

What is not characteristic of equine Theileriosis? (Theileria equi, formerly Babesia equi)

A

 Do not see neurological signs.

See haemoglobinuria, haemorrhages, melena, pre-natal infection.

248
Q

Which Theileria spp. is pathogenic?

A

Theileria equi (Horse) Theleria annulata (Cattle)

249
Q

Which is not in South America?

A

Theliera parva (in East Africa) and Babesia microti (in North America, Europe)

250
Q

Which Theileria sp. spp. is/are pathogenic?

A 
T. equi 
T. parva 
T. lawrencei 
T. annulata 
T. hirei
251
Q

First schizogony of Cytauxzoon felis occurs in:

A

MPS cells (RES, mostly macrophages)

252
Q

Vectors of Cytauxzoonosis?

A

Dermacentor variabilis Amblyomma americanum

253
Q

Which genus does the vector of Cytauxzoon felis belong to?

A

Amblyomma

254
Q

What is primarily responsible for the pathogenic effect of Cytauxzoon felis?

A

Occlusion of blood vessels by schizonts

255
Q

Balantidium coli:

A

Vegetative form 50-150 um (ovoid, vestibulum, cytostome) Cyst 40-60 um (spherical, thick-walled)
(related spp. Buxtonella sulcate; cattle)

256
Q

What is Blastocytosis similar to?

A

Genetic diversity in Blastocystosis hominis similar to Cryptosporidium genus.

257
Q

How does Blastocysta infect?

A

Opportunistic parasite in humans, in case of diet change that influences the gut flora. Non-invasive. Infection – Faecal-oral route, or waterborne.

258
Q

What is the smallest in Blastocysta?

A

Cyst (3-6 um)

Vacuolar form 2-200 um

259
Q

Into which larger taxonomical category do Blastocystis spp. belong to?

A

Stramenophila protist

260
Q

Which is in Alveolate group?

A

Meaning ‘with cavities’. Group of protists. Ciliates, Apicomplexa, etc.

261
Q

Alveolata is related to:

A

Apicomplexan parasites

262
Q

Microspora

A

Homo-xenous, obligatory intra-cellular parasites (no mitochondria)
In the spore: One polar body, spiral duct and sproplasm
Genera: Encephalitzoon, Enterocytozoon (hu), Nosema (bee)

263
Q

What is the approximate size of Encephalitozoon cuniculi spores?

A

2um (1.5-2 um)

264
Q

In what can Encephalitozoon spores be found? MCQ

A

Urine
Renal tubular cells
Kidney
Brain

265
Q

Staining Encephalitozoon cuniculi:

A

Ziehl Nielsen

India ink

266
Q

It is more a fox symptom than a dog in case of Encephalitozoonosis:

A

thickened arterial wall, smaller diameter

267
Q

Which clinical sign is not characteristic of Encephalitozoonosis?

A

 Posterior paralysis

Effects kidney and brain. See neurological, ocular, and renal signs.

268
Q

What is characteristic effect of the pathology of Encephalitozoonosis?

A

Chronic interstitial nephritis

269
Q

How can infection with Encephalitozoon cuniculi be aquired?

A

Prenatally

Horizontal via urine, prey animals, water OR Vetrical trans-placental

270
Q

Representatives of which orders are primarily affected by Encephalitozoon cuniculi?

A

Lagomorpha, Carnivora

Parasitology II (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions