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Parasitology Final Exam 2022 > Protozoa > Flashcards

Protozoa Flashcards

1
Q

Vectors of trypanosoma cruzi ?

  • bedbugs
  • soft ticks
  • kissing bugs
  • hard tick
A

Kissing bugs (Triatomae sp)

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2
Q

What is characteristic of «dollar spots» ?

  • Displacement
  • Predilection site : genitalia
  • 10-15cm diameter
  • They always appear in dourine
A

Displacement

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3
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death following the 4th phase of dourine?

  • Collapse of circulation
  • Decubitus
  • Facial paralysis
  • Pneumonia
A

Pneumonia

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4
Q

Which Giardia genotype(s) is (are) zoonotic? (more than one answer maybe correct!

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
A

A et B

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5
Q

In which of the following is Toxoplasma gondii highly foetopathogenic?

• Cattle
• Sheep
• Horse
• Pig

A

Sheep

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6
Q

Which species will frequently cause haemorrhages?

• T. brucei brucei
• T. vivax
• T. congolense
• None of these

A

T.vivax

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7
Q

What is the approx.. size of giardia cyst

• 10-20 micrometers
• Nearly 100 micrometers
• 30-40 micrometers
• 20-30 micrometers

A

10-20 micrometers

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8
Q

Which Eimeria sp. is highly pathogenic in chicken?

• E. maxima
• E. intestinalis
• E. necatrix
• E. mitis

A

E.necatrix

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9
Q

Of which Eimeria sp./spp. can the praepatent period be 4 days or shorter? (more than one answer may be right!)

• E. praecox
• E. maxima
• E. acervuline
• E. mitis

A

E. Praecox, E. Acervuline, E. Mitis

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10
Q

Which of the following pair of Eimeria species has complementary location in the small intestine?
• E. intestinalis & E. magna
• E. duodenalis & E. media
• E. magna & E. magna
• E. exigua & E. intestinalis

A

• E. intestinalis & E. magna

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11
Q

What is the characteristic lesion on the hepatic form of pigeon trichomonosis?

• Pea size necroses
• Fibrinous perihepatitis
• Abscess
• Pinpoint necroses

A

• Pea size necroses

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12
Q

Which species will cause mucosal thickening distally in the small intestine?

• Eimeria ovinoidalis
• Eimeria crandallis
• Eimeria parva
• Eimeria bakuensis

A

Eimeria ovinoidalis

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13
Q

Which Cryptosporidium sp./spp. occur(s) frequently in post-weaned or older calves? (more than one answer maybe correct!)

• C. baileyi
• C. bovis
• C. andersoni
• C. parvum

A

C. bovis And C. andersoni

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14
Q

In which age group are bulls more susceptible to Tritrichomonas foetus?

• 1-2 years of age
• Below 3 years
• Above 3 years
• 2-4 years of age

A

Above 3 years

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15
Q

How does Histomonas meleagridis spread to the liver?

• Haematogenously
• From the cloaca
• From the skin
• From the navel

A

Haematogenously

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16
Q

Which Eimeria sp. is highly pathogenic in chicken?

• E. acervuline
• E. mitis
• E. tenella
• E. flavescens

A

E. tenella

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17
Q

Which protozoon is frequently carried by nutria or coypu?

• Giardia
• Trichomonas
• Toxoplasma
• Babesia

A

Toxoplasma

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18
Q

How does Trichomonas gallinae reach the liver?

• Spreading from heart apex
• Spreading from the navel
• Spreading from oesophagus
• Haematogenously

A

Spreading from the navel

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19
Q

Which grographical region has serious problems with cattle tritrichomonosis?

• None of these
• Certain US states
• Europe
• Hungary

A

Certain US states

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20
Q

Which dog breed is predisposed to subclinical babesiosis (carrier state)?

• Spaniel
• Irish setter
• German shepherd
• Dalmatiner

A

German shepherd

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21
Q

In which “aberrant” host species is Sarcocystis neurona highly pathogenic?

• Cattle
• Sheep
• Pig
• Horse

A

Horse

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22
Q

Please select the moderately pathogenic Eimeria sp./spp. for which the location is indicated properly?

• E. irresidua – duodenum
• E. intestinalis – ileum
• E. piriformis – colon
• E. magna – ileum

A

E. piriformis – colon

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23
Q

Which of the following pair of Eimeria species has complementary location on the small intestine?

• E. brunetti & E. mitis
• E. maxima & E. necatrix
• E. acervulina & E. mitis
• E. acervulina & E. precox

A

E. acervulina & E. mitis

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24
Q

There is no sporocyst in its sporulated oocyst (more than one answer maybe correct)

• Cryptosporidium
• Plasmodium
• Hepatozoon
• Isospora

A

Cryptosporidium and Plasmodium

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25
Q

What is the most pathogenic stage of Eimeria Tenella ?

• Second schizont
• Gamont
• First schizont
• Oocyst

A

Second schizont

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26
Q

Which are the predisposing factors of pigeon Trichomonosis? (more than one answer may be correct)

• A-vitamin deficiency
• Giardiasis
• Ammonia from litter
• Iron deficiency

A

A-vitamin deficiency and Ammonia from litter

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27
Q

What plays a central role in the pathogenesis of biliary coccidiosis?

• Cirrhosis
• Biliary hyperplasia
• Anaemia
• Hepatomegaly

A

Biliary hyperplasia

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28
Q

Which statement is true for Klossiellosis?

• Oocysts form, but are not shed
• There is no oocyst
• Oocysts are of the Isospora-type
• Oocysts pass with the urine

A

Oocysts form, but are not shed

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29
Q

What is not caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

• Meningoencephalitis
• Megalomania
• Myocarditis
• Oedema

A

Meningoencephalitis

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30
Q

Which plasmodium species is not human pathogenic?

• P. vivax
• P. simium
• P. knowlesi
• P. ovale

A

P. simium

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31
Q

Mostly where does the first schizogony of Leucocytozoon species take place?

• In liver parenchyma cells
• In endothelial cells
• In renal tubular epithelial cells
• In muscle

A

In liver parenchyma cells

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32
Q

What is the size range of Trypanosomes?

• 60-100 µm
• 30-50 µm
• 10-20 µm
• 10-40 µm

A

10-40 µm

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33
Q

How can infection with Encephalitozoon cuniculi typically be acquired?

• With coprophagy
• By vectors
• With eating transport hosts
• Prenatally

A

Prenatally

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34
Q

Where does exoerythrocytaer schizogony of Plasmodium species take place in mammals?

• Liver
• White blood cells
• Lymph node
• Skin

A

Liver

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35
Q

Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma brucei evansi infection?

• Cattle
• Horse
• Camel
• Dog

A

Cattle

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36
Q

What may predispose a dog to entamoebosis?

• Living together with cats which pass cysts in their faeces
• Eating raw pork
• Drinking from trophozoite-containing water
• Entamoebosis of the owner

A

Entamoebosis of the owner

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37
Q

The Hepatozoon canis gamont: what is the shape and what cell type is it in?
• Elliptic, neutrophilic grc.
• Oval, monocyte
• Onion-like, splenocyte
• Round, neutrophilic grc

A

Elliptic, neutrophilic grc.

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38
Q

Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen that is taxonomically a protozoon but not a member of phylum Apicomplexa?

• Cryptosporidium parvum • Toxoplasma gondii

• Acanthamoeba castellani • Encephalitozoon cuniculi

A

Acanthamoeba castellani

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39
Q

Which Eimeria sp. May have high pathogenicity similar to that of Eimeria zuernii?

• E. alabemensis
• E. ellipsoidalis
• E. subspherical
• E. auburnensis

A

E. alabemensis

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40
Q

What plays a central role in the background of waving parasitaemia in the case of nagana?

• Superinfection
• Exflaggellation
• VSG expression
• Immunosuppressio

A

VSG expression

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41
Q

How many Eimeria spp. May cause either haemorrhagic or fibrinous lesions in the caeca of chickens?

• Two
• One
• Four
• Three

A

One

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42
Q

How many Eimeria spp. Cause haemorrhagic lesions in the small intestine of the chicken?

• Five
• Four
• Two
• Three

A

Five

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43
Q

Which Eimeria sp. Has low pathogenicity in chickens?

• E. acervulina
• E. tenella
• E. duodenalis
• E. flavescents

A

E. Acervulina

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44
Q

How can we get infected with giardia from natural water in Central Europe (minimal infectious dose in 10 cysts)?
• There is no way, because beavers are rare
• Rarely by drinking natural water
• During swimming
• by washing food in natural water

A

Swimming

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45
Q

Which does not have cyst?

• Trichomonas gallinae
• Giardia duodenalis
• Acanthomoeba castellani
• Entamoeba histolytica

A

Trichomonas gallinae

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46
Q

Please select the highly pathogenic Eimeria sp. For which the location is indicated properly:

• E. irresidua – jejunum
• E. flavescens – caecum
• E. intestinalis – caecum
• E. magna – duodenum

A

E. flavescens – caecum

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47
Q

What is the characteristic lesion of Eimeria bakuensis infection, and in which part of the gut?

• Haemorrhages in duodenum
• Colon ulcers
• Foci in ileum
• Pseudomembrane in jejunum

A

Foci in ileum

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48
Q

Of which Eimeria sp. Is it characteristic to cause haemorrhages in a ladder-like pattern?

• E. tenella
• E. necatrix
• E. maxima
• E. brunetti

A

E. brunetti

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49
Q

What is the characteristic gestation period for neosporosis-related abortions in cows?

• 2-4 months
• 4-6 months
• 8-9 months
• 6-8 months

A

4-6 months

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50
Q

What is the main clinical type of cryptosporidiosis in the birds?

• Digestive
• Renal
• Respiratory
• Ocular

A

Respiratory

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51
Q

Which are the ways of attenuation in the case of Paracox, Livacox?
• Making subunits
• Selection for early maturation
• Gamma irradiation
• Adaptation to CAM

A

Selection for early maturation and Adaptation to CAM

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52
Q

Which Eimeria species occurs typically in breeding and replacement flocks, but less in broilers?

• E. acervulina
• E. mitis
• E. maxima
• E. brunetti

A

E. Maxima

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53
Q

Which Trypanosoma sp. Does the causative agent of dourine belong to?

• T. brucei
• T. equiperdum
• T. equinum
• T. evansi

A

• T. equiperdum

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54
Q

Which protozoon is frequently carried by beavers?

• Giardia
• Sarcocystis
• trichomonas
• Babesia

A

Giardia

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55
Q

What are the routes of infection with Leishmania spp.?

• All of these
• With biting
• Venereal, transplacental
• Vector borne

A

All of these

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56
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. Cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?

• E. tenella
• E. brunetti
• E. maxima
• E. necatrix

A

E. brunetti

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57
Q

Which species will cause mucosal thickening in the colon?

• Eimeria bakuensis
• Eimeria arloingi
• Eimeria ellipsoidalis
• Entamoeba histolytica

A

• Eimeria ellipsoidalis

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58
Q

What is characteristic of the pathology of turkey Histomonosis?

• Generalized form
• Dry liver necrosis
• Bloody caecal contents
• Moist liver necrosis

A

Dry liver necrosis

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59
Q

Which is the staining method to distinguish Encephalitozoon cuniculi from protozoan parasites belonging to other groups?

• Ziehl-neelsen
• Kinyoun
• Gram
• PAS

A

PAS

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60
Q

Which Eimeria species does not occur behind the small intestine?

• E. meleagridis
• E. meleagrimitis
• E. gallopavonis
• E. adenoeides

A

E. meleagrimitis

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61
Q

Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi?
• Amastigote
• Promastigote
• Epimastigote
• Trypomastigot

A

Promastigote

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62
Q

Which of the following lives intracellularly?

• Promastigote
• Amastigote
• Trypomastigote
• Epimastigote

A

Amastigote

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63
Q

Infection with which Eimeria species results in sunken eyes, vertigo?
• E. truncata
• E. anatis
• E. anseris
• E. danailovi

A

E. truncata

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64
Q

What should be demonstrated in blood smears in order to diagnose haemoproteosis?

• Spindle shape Gamont next to the nucleus of white blood cells • Spindle shape Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
• Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
• Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of white blood cells

A

Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells

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65
Q

What is the host of Eimeria kotlani?

• Pheasant
• Duck
• Goose
• Turkey

A

Goose

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66
Q

Which is the main zoonotic Babesia sp. (sensu stricto) in Europe?

• B. ovis
• B. bovis
• B. divergens
• B. microti

A

B. divergens

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67
Q

What is the main location of Eimeria maxima?

• Ileum
• Rectum
• Duodenum
• Jejunum

A

Jejunum

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68
Q

Which domestic animal is susceptible for the highest number of Cryptosporidium species?

• Sheep
• Cattle
• Pig
• Dog

A

Cattle

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69
Q

Which can shed oocysts of Eimeria coecicola?

• Rabbit
• Mouse
• Cat
• Dog

A

Rabbit

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70
Q

Which of the following species develops also extraintestinally?

• Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae
• Eimeria ovinoidalis
• Eimeria parva
• Eimeria crandallis

A

Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae

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71
Q

How can a dog become infected with Neospora caninum? (more than one answer may be correct!)

• From raw pork
• With oocysts
• Galactogenically
• Transplacentally

A

With oocysts & Transplacentally

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72
Q

Please select the Cryptosporidium sp./spp. For which the location is indicated properly:

• C. muris – small intestine
• C. parvum – stomach
• C. adnersoni – colon
• C. bovis – small intestine

A

C. bovis – small intestine

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73
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. Have 6 days of prepatent period (More than one may be right!)
• E. maxima
• E. brunetti
• E. necatrix
• E. tenella

A

E. necatrix & E. tenella

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74
Q

What is the incubation period of dourine?
• 1-2months
• 3-4 weeks
• 14-16 days
• Can be several years

A

Can be several years

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75
Q

Where do besnoitia cysts occur in cattle? (More than one may be right!)
• Respiratory mucosae
• Epidermis
• Sclera
• Genital mucosae

A
  • Respiratory mucosae
  • Epidermis
  • Sclera
  • Genital mucosae
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76
Q

Which Eimeria sp. Is highly pathogenic in cattle?
• E. necatrix
• E. ellipsoidalis
• E. zuernii
• E. bakuensis

A

E. zuernii

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77
Q

Which Sarcocystis sp. Has carnivores as intermediate hosts?
• S. rileyi
• S. procifelis
S. cruzi
• S. neurona

A

S. neurona

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78
Q

What is the main location of Eimeria tenella?
• Duodenum
• Caecum
• Rectum
• Jejunum

A

Caecum

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79
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death in the case of nagana?

• Heart failure
• Pneumonia
• Rupture of spleen
• Renal failure

A

Heart failure

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80
Q

What is the incubation period of canine babesiosis?
• 1 day (also peracute)
• 4-21 days
• 1-2 weeks
• 14-16 days

A

4-21 days

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81
Q

Which tick genus includes the main vector of the large babesia of the dog in Europe?

• Hyalomma
• Ixodes
• Haemaphysalis
• Dermacentor

A

Dermacentor

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82
Q

Which tick can be the carrier for small babesia in dogs?

• Rhipicephalus
• Dermacentor
• ixodes

A

Rhipicephalus

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83
Q

Breed disposition to Babesia: (more than one may be right)

• Dalmatian
• Spaniel
• German Shepherd
• Irish setter

A

Spaniel & Irish setter

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84
Q

Which Giardia genotype occurs frequently in cattle?

• C
• D
• E
• F

A

E

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85
Q

What is the end stage of Hepatozoon canis in ticks?

• Oocysts
• Syzygium
• Sporokinetes
• Free sporozoites

A

Oocysts

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86
Q

In what can Encephalitozoon spores be found? (more than one answer maybe correct)

• Faeces
• Urine
• Sweating
• Respiratory secretion

A

Urine, faeces, respiratory secretion

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87
Q

Which one is not a characteristic sign of surra?

• Anorexia
• Anaemia and haemorrhage
• Paralysis of hind quarters
• Diarrhoea

A

Paralysis of hind quarters

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88
Q

Which characteristic of Klossiella species is exceptional among haemogregarines?
• Development is not restricted to cells of the haemolymphatic system
• They are homoxenous
• There may be 40-60 sporocysts in the oocysts
• Klossiella species are not haemogregarines

A

They are homoxenous

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89
Q

What is the form Naegleria fowleri does not have?

• Provided with two flagella
• Amoebic
• Cyst
• Provided with one flagellum

A

Provided with one flagellum

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90
Q

In which animal does klossiellosis usually have pathogenic significance?

• Mouse
• Donkey
• Rat
• Horse

A

Horse

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91
Q

Which domestic animals do not have Eimeria species?

• Ducks
• Carnivores
• Horses
• Pigs

A

Carnivores

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92
Q

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhages?
• Eimeria anatis
• Tyzzeria perniciosa
• Eimeria danailovi
• Wenyonella philiplevinei

A

Eimeria anatis

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93
Q

Which clinical sign is not characteristic of encephalitozoonosis?

• Spasms
• Ataxy
• Posterior paralysis
• Torticollis

A

Spasms

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94
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death during leishmaniasis?

• Septicemia
• Asphyxia
• Heart failure
• Renal failure

A

Renal failure

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95
Q

What can typically result from the infection with cryptosporidium parvum?

• Crypt hypoplasia
• Fibrinous pseudomembranes
• Apoptosis
• Necrosis

A

Apoptosis

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96
Q

Which has flagellum, but no undulating membrane?

  • Promastigote
  • Amastigote
  • Epimastigote
A

Promastigote

97
Q

Which does not have flagellum?

  • Epimastigote
  • Amastigote
  • promastigote
A

Amastigote

98
Q

Which phenotype of trypanosomes has the kinetoplast anteriorly next to the nucleus, and is also provided with short undulating membrane?

  • Amastigote
  • Epimastigote
  • Promastigote
A
  • Epimastigote
99
Q

What is the size range of trypanosomes?

  • 10-30um
  • 25-40um
  • 8-39um
A

8-39um

100
Q

The causative agent of Surra? (Multiple answers may be possible)

  • T. Brucei evansi
  • T. Vivax
  • T. Equiperdum
  • Has broad host spectrum
A

T. Brucei evansi & Has broad host spectrum

101
Q

Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma evansi infection?

  • eq
  • dog
  • cattle
  • goat
A

Cattle

102
Q

The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs?

  • in RBC
  • in WBC
  • in muscles cells
  • in brain cells
A

muscles cells

103
Q

How can dogs be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?

– by eating infected organs/viscera
- by eating faeces
- by mating
- rubbing into wound

A

eating infected organs/viscera, faeces, rubbing into wound

104
Q

Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi?

  • pro
  • épi
  • tri
  • ama
A

Promastigote

105
Q

Geographic locations and symptoms of Nagana :

  • south and Central America «mega signs»
  • Africa «leptomeningitis»
  • Central Africa & Sahara «haemorrhage & heart failure »
A

Central Africa and Sahara
«Haemorrhage of mucosal surface and heart failure»

106
Q

Geographic locations and symptoms of Surra (mal de caderas) :

  • south and Central America «mega signs»
  • Africa «leptomeningitis»
  • EU, North Africa, Asia «oedema, anorexia»
  • Central African & Sahara «haemorrhage & heart failure »
A

EU, North of Africa, Asia
“Oedema, anorexia, emication”

107
Q

Geographic locations and symptoms of sleeping sickness :

  • south and Central America «mega signs»
  • Africa «leptomeningitis»
  • EU, North Africa, Asia «oedema, anorexia»
  • Central African & Sahara «haemorrhage & heart failure »
A

Africa «leptomeningitis»

108
Q

Geographic locations and symptoms of Chagas’ disease:

  • south and Central America «mega signs»
  • Africa «leptomeningitis»
  • EU, North Africa, Asia «oedema, anorexia»
  • Central African & Sahara «haemorrhage & heart failure »
A
  • south and Central America «mega signs»
109
Q

Geographic locations and symptoms of Dourine :

  • Third world countries “dollar spots” urticaria
  • Africa «leptomeningitis»
  • EU, North Africa, Asia «oedema, anorexia»
  • Central African & Sahara «haemorrhage & heart failure »
A

Third world countries “dollar spots” urticaria

110
Q

Which of the following is detected by Giemsa staining of blood smear? (More answers can be correct)

  • theileria
  • microfilaria
  • trypanosoma
A

theileria & trypanosoma

111
Q

Which trypanosoma species causes asymptomatic infection in dogs?

  • T. cruzi
  • T.evansi
  • T.equinum
  • none of them
A

T.equinum

112
Q

What type of biological vector does Salivaria-type Trypanosoma have?

a) Glossina (Tsetse fly)
b) Tabanidae (blood sucking fly)
c) Triatomae (kissing bug)

A

Glossina (TseTse fly)

113
Q

Which trypanosome stage is intracellular?

  • promastigote
  • epimastigote
  • amastigote
  • trophozoite
A

Amastigote

114
Q

What isn’t caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

a. Megalomania
b. myocarditis
c. Meningoencephalitis
d. oedema

A

C

115
Q

Which has the biggest kinetoplast or soma from 4 Trypanosoma?

  • T. Evansi
  • T. Cruzi
  • T. Equiperdum
  • T. Brucei
A

T. Cruzi

116
Q

How can the kissing bugs inoculate Trypanosoma cruzi in a host?

  • via urine
  • via biting
  • via faeces
  • via saliva
A

Faeces

117
Q

Which animal has asymptomatic T. brucei evansi infection?

  • eq
  • dog
  • cattle
  • water pig
A

Cattle & water pig

118
Q

Which has the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?

a. T. vivax
b. T.brucei brucei
c. T.congolense
d. T.brucei evansi

A

B

119
Q

Which species does the causative agent of dourine belong to?

a. T.brucei
b. T.equiperdum
c. T.evansi
d. T.equinum

A

B

120
Q

In scientific terms, what is a dollar spot?
a. hyperpigmentation
b. hypotrichiosis
c. urtricaria
d.hyperperspiration

A

C

121
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?

a. Heart failure
b. renal failure
c. pneumonia
d. spleen rupture

A

A

122
Q

Which is causative agent of surra?

a. “T.equinum”
b. T. brucei evansi
c. T. brucei equiperdum
d. T. brucei gambiense

A

B

123
Q

The vector of T. Brucei evansi plays a role as?

  • mechanical vector
  • biological vector
  • no vector needed
A

mechanical

124
Q

Surra has no clinical signs in what species?

a) Dog
b) Cattle
c) Horse
d) Pig

A

Pig

125
Q

Vectors of Trypanosoma ?

  • mechanical
  • biological
  • both
  • none
A

Both

126
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi amastigot form is in these cells?

  • mesenchymal
  • RBC
  • lymph nodes
  • WBC
A

mesenchymal & lymph nodes

127
Q

Which ocular problem does dourine not cause?

  • Nystagmus (strabism)
  • lachrymation
  • mydriasis
  • all of them
A

All of them

128
Q

What is not a clinical sign of Chagas disease (caused by trypanosoma cruzi)?

a) Myocarditis
b) Oedema
c) Several mega signs
d) Meningoencephalitis

A

D

129
Q

Mal de caderas symptoms?

  • tetraplegia
  • oedema of limbs
  • tenesmus
  • All of them
A

All of them

130
Q

Symptoms of leishmania?

  • Cutaneous
  • visceral forms
  • both
  • none of them
A

Both

131
Q

Cause of death in leishmania?

  • heart failure
  • Renal insufficiency
  • pneumonia
  • spleen rupture
A

Renal insufficiency

132
Q

Which country lacks autochthonous cases of leishmaniosis?

a. Austria
b. France
c. Germany
d. Greece

A

Germany

133
Q

What is/are characteristic of pathogenesis of leishmaniosis? a. Amastigotes don’t harm RBC therefore no anemia
b. Hypoglobulinemia
c. MPS killing amastigotes
d. hyperglobulinemia

A

MPS killing amastigotes & hyperglobulinemia

134
Q

Leishmanias vector is?

  • Tsetse fly (glossinidae)
  • Sandfly (phleobotomus)
  • Kissing bugs (Triatomae)
  • Mosquitos (Culicinae)
A

Sandfly (phleobotomus)

135
Q

The sandflies can be the vector of the pathogens of which disease?

  • Chagas’ disease
  • Dourine
  • Leishmaniosis
  • Surra
A

Leishmaniosis

136
Q

Incubation time for Leishmania ?

  • 2 weeks
  • 3-4 months
  • several years
  • 12-16 days
A

several years

137
Q

Which of these trypanosome species is the smallest?

● T. Vivax
● T. Congolense
● T. Brucei
● T. cruzi

A

T. Congolense

138
Q

Which Trypanosoma causes Surra ?

  • T. Cruzi
  • T. Brucei brucei
  • T. Evansi
  • T. Equiperdum
A

T. Evansi

139
Q

Trypanosoma species that horses are susceptible ?

  • T. vivax
  • T. congolense
  • T. b. brucei
  • T. brucei evansi
  • T. Equiperdum
  • all of them
A

All of them

140
Q

Which trypanosome species causes haemorrhages?

● T. Vivax
● T. Congolense
● T. Brucei
● None of them

A

T. Vivax

141
Q

● Which eimeria species have the same location of pathogenicity ?

  • E. Adénoïdes
  • E. Dispersa
  • E. Meleagrimitis
  • E. Gallopavonis
A

E. Adénoïdes & E. Gallopavonis (caecum, distal ileum, rectum)

142
Q

Which are the most pathogenic eimeria of chickens ?

  • E. tenella
  • E. necatrix
  • E. brunetti
  • E. maxima
A

E. tenella, E. necatrix, E. brunetti

143
Q

How many Eimeria species cause lesions without haemorrhages ?

● 1
● 2
● 3
● 4

A

1 (E. anatis)

144
Q

Which Eimeria species causes ladder pattern lesions?

  • E. Truncata
  • E. Brunetti
  • E. Necatrix
  • E. Maxima
A

E. Brunetti

145
Q

Which Eimeria species causes salt and pepper lesions?

  • E. Truncata
  • E. Brunetti
  • E. Necatrix
  • E. Maxima
A

E. Necatrix

146
Q

How can histomonas meleagridis be spread in chickens (one answer only)?

  • Cloacal drinking (turkey only)
  • Drinking water
  • Heterakis larvae
  • Earthworms
A

Earthworms

147
Q

Which Emeria species occurs typically in breeding and replacement flocks, but less in broilers?

● E. acervulina
● E. imitis
● E. maxima
● E. brunetti

A

E. Maxima

148
Q

Which trypanosome affects pig?

● T. vivax
● T. brucei brucei
● T. brucei evansi
● None of them

A

None of them

149
Q

Which trypanosome infects the pig?

  • T. simiae
  • T. godfreyi
  • T. vivax
  • T. brucei brucei
A

T. Simiae & godfreyi

150
Q

Some blood-sucking flies are ….. of Trypansoma brucei evensi:

a. biological vectors
b. mechanical vectors
c. intermediate hosts
d. final hosts

A

Mechanical vectors

151
Q

The most characteristic clinical sign of mal de caderas is:

a. paralysis of hind quarters
b. tetraplegia
c. limb oedema
d. tenesmus

A

Limb oedema

152
Q

What is the approx. size of Giardia cyst?
a. 20-30 micrometers
b. 30-40 micrometers
c. 10-20 micrometers
d. nearly 100 micrometers

A

10-20 um

153
Q

What is the main location of lesions caused by Eimeria necatrix ?

a. jejunum
b. rectum
c. ileum
d. duodenum

A

Jéjunum & Ileum

154
Q

How can we get infected with Giardia from natural water in Central Europe (minimal
inf. dose is 10 cysts)
a. by washing food in natural water
b. during swimming
c. there is no way, because beavers are rare
d. rarely by drinking natural water

A

a, b, d

155
Q

Of which Eimeria sp. is it characteristic to cause haemorrhages in a ladder-like
pattern?

a. E. necatrix
b. E. maxima
c. E. tenella
d. E. brunetti

A

E. Brunetti

156
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?

a. E. tenella
b. E. brunetti
c. E. maxima
d. E. Necatrix

A

E. Brunetti

157
Q

What is the biological vector of Tripanosoma cruzi?

a. Triatoma spp.
b. Sromoxys calcitrans
c. Glossina spp.
d. Tabanus spp.

A

Triatomae spp (kissing bugs)

158
Q

What is the biological vector of Tripanosoma vivax?

a. Ttriatoma spp.
b. Sromoxys calcitrans
c. Glossina spp.
d. Tabanus spp.

A

Glossina spp

159
Q

What is the most pathogenic stage of Eimeria acervuliana?

a. second schizont
b. first schizont
c. oocyst
d. gamont

A

Oocysts

160
Q

Eimeria Brunetti and Necatrix most pathogenic stage ?

  • egg
  • 1st schizogony
  • 2nd schizogony
  • oocysts
A

2nd schizogony

161
Q

How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrhagic lesions in small intestine of chicken?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
A

3 (E. necratrix, E. maxima, E. brunetti)

162
Q

Which Eimeria in the small intestine does not cause haemorrhages?

  • E. Acervulina
  • E. Necatrix
  • E. Maxima
  • E. Mitis
A

E. Acervulina & Mitis

163
Q

Which Eimeria causes ladder-like white bands?

  • E. Maxima
  • E. Acervulina
  • E. Tenella
  • E. Mitis
A

E. Acervulina

164
Q

Which is most probably not found in chicken?

  • E. Necatrix
  • E. Duodenalis
  • E. Maxima
  • E. Flavescens
A

E. Duodenalis & E. Flavescens

165
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. have 6-7 day prepatent period?

a.E. tenella
b. E. necatrix
c. E. brunetti
d. E. maxima

A

E. Tenella & E. Necatrix

166
Q

How does piegeons aqquire trichomonas?

  • Cyst in water
  • from each other (returgation feeding)
  • both
  • none of them
A

Both

167
Q

General trichomonas in pidgeons?

  • penguin like posture
  • brain oedema
  • pneumonia
  • paralysis
A

penguin like posture

168
Q

Geographical region with tritrichomonas problems?

  • Europe
  • Certain states of america
  • Asia
  • Africa
A

Certain states of america

169
Q

How does T. foetus live in the genital tract?

a. Intracellularly
b. epicellularly
c. causing paracellular defect d.Intercellularly

A

epicellularly

170
Q

What is/are the worst consequences in trichomonosis in cows?

a. Croupous vestibulitis
b. abortion (1st trim)
c. abortion (last trim)
d. pyometra

A

B & d

171
Q

How does T. gallinae reach the liver?

a.haematogenously
b. from navel
c. from oesophagus
d. from heart apex

A

From navel

172
Q

Which clinical sign isn’t characteristic of turkey histomonosis?

a. Head cyanosis
b. yellow diarrhoea
c. drowsiness
d. lowering wings

A

Head cyanosis

173
Q

Where does the skin abcess of entamoeba come from?

  • abcess in spleen
  • abcess in liver
  • abcess in intestines
A

Abcess in the liver

174
Q

Which of the following is/are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica trophoziotes?

a. Size max.100um
b. eccentric endosome
c. blunt chromatidal bars
d. phagocytosed RBCs

A

B & d

175
Q

Chronic granulomatosus encephalitis is caused by?

A
  • Acanthamoeba castellani
176
Q

What causes anosmia (loss of smell)?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

177
Q

Entamoeba attacks:

-WBCs
- RBCs
- muscles tissues

A

RBCs

178
Q

How can a dog become infected with Acanthamoeba castellani?

A
  • From water (Contact with still water and through skin lesions).
  • Horse: By inhalation
179
Q

Where is acanthocephalosis found ?

  • Large intestines
  • Small intestines
  • Ceacum
  • Liver
A

Small intestines

180
Q

What is the form Naegleria fowleri does NOT have?

  • 1 flagellum
  • 2 flagellum
A

1 because it’s a Biflagellar form

181
Q

What is the acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by?

A
  • Naegleria fowleri
182
Q

What is true for infection with Amoeba?
a) Large cyst
b) Large nucleus
c) both
d) none of them

A

Large cyst

183
Q

What is shape and size of Naegleria cyst?

  • Nucleated, oval, 15-20
  • Uninucleated, osteolum, round, 10-12
  • Uninucleated, triangle shape, 12-14
A

Uninucleated, osteolum, round, 10-12

184
Q

What belongs to alveolata?

A

-Apicomplexa, Ciliophora

185
Q

Which statement is NOT true for the development of Eimeria species ?

  • Schizogony is initiated epithelially or subepithelially
  • Sporulated oocysts are more resistant than unsporulated ones
  • Schizogony occurs in gametogony
  • Occurence of meronts with few merozoites is not characteristic
A
  • Schizogony is initiated epithelially or subepithelially (Schizogony is initiated epithelially ONLY!)
186
Q

What eimeria causes haemorrhagic or fibrinous leisons in the caeca?

  • E. Tenella
  • E. Maxima
  • E. Brunetti
  • E. Necatrix
A

E. Brunetti

187
Q

Not causing neurological symptoms ?

  • Eimeria of chicken
  • Eimeria of turkey
  • Eimeria of cattle
A

Eimeria of turkeys

188
Q

Which turkey coccidium is at most forward ?

  • E. meleagridis
  • E. Duodenalis
  • E. Adenoid
  • E. Gallopavonis
A

E. Meleagridis

189
Q

The most pathogenic turkey coccidium?

  • E. meleagridis
  • E. Duodenalis
  • E. Adenoid
  • E. Gallopavonis
A

E. Meleagritis

190
Q

Which one is not found in turkey?

a) E.duodenalis
b) E. gallopavonis
c) E.adenoid
d) E.meleagridis

A

E. Duodenalis

191
Q

Which Coccidia does NOT cause CNS signs in birds?

  • chicken
  • pigeon
  • turkey
  • duck
A

Chicken, pigeon, turkey

(In ducks: causes cerebellar lesions)

192
Q

Goose kidney coccidium?

  • E. Gallopavonis
  • E.truncata
  • E. Meleagritis
A

E. Truncata

193
Q

Which Eimeria species have prepatent period of 5 days?

  • Eimeria maxima
  • Eimeria brunetti
  • Eimeria Evansi
  • Eimeria Tenella
A

E. Brunetti

194
Q

If Eimeria oocysts are recognised in dog faeces, then;

a. faeces is surely fresh
b. belong to dogs as hosts, no patho significance
c. pseudoparasites
d. false diagnosis

A

B & C

195
Q

Dog coccidiosis? -

  • is host specific
  • homoxenous parasite
  • both
  • none of them
A

Both

196
Q

Whichspecies does not have Eimeria?

a) Carnivores
b) Cattle
c) Swine
d) Horse

A

Carnivores

197
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause haemorrhages?

  • E. Brunetti
  • E.Truncata
  • E. Tenella
  • E. Necatrix
A

E. Truncata

198
Q

Which eimeria spieces occurs in goat?

  • E. Anatis
  • E. Danailovi
  • E. ninakohlyakimvae
  • E. Aubernensis
A

E. ninakohlyakimvae

199
Q

What is the characteristic colour of necrotic debris during adenoeides coccidiosis?

  • black
  • red
  • white
  • yellow
A

White

200
Q

What is not characteristic during pig coccidiosis?

  • Haemorrhagic enteritis
  • Yellow diarrhea
  • Lesions in SI mucosa
  • epithelium destruction
A

Haemorrhagic enteritis

201
Q

Where are the lesions caused by Isospora suis mostly situated?

  • Jejunum
  • ileum
  • caecum
  • duodenum
A

Jejunum

202
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 2 sporocysts?

A

– Isospora

203
Q

Which Eimeria sp. may have a high pathogenicity similar to E. zuernii?

a. E. alabamensis
b. E. aubernensis
c. E. ellipsoidalis
d. E. subspherica

A

E. alabamensis

204
Q

Please select the moderately pathogenic Eimeria sp./spp. for which location is correct

a. E. intestinalis- caecum
b. E. magna- duodenum
c. E. irresidua- jejunum
d. E. piriformis- caecum

A

C

205
Q

Which of the highly pathogenic eimeria specie is in right location?

  • E. Piriformis in duodenum
  • E. Flavecens in ceacum
  • E. Intestinalis in rectum
  • E. Coecicola in ileum
A

E. Flavecens in ceacum

206
Q

Which coccidia has 4 sporocysts with 4 sporozoites in each?

A

– Weyonella (coccidiosis of duck)

207
Q

Which one causes catarrhal hemorrhagic inflammation in pheasant?

A
  • E.colchici
208
Q

Where does Eimeria labbeana develop?

  • Chicken, caecum
  • Pheasant, ileum
  • Rabbit, jejunum
  • Pigeon, small Intestine
A

Pigeon, SI

209
Q

What characteristic lesion of horse coccidiosis in s. intestines?

a. lesions on outside of intestine b. croupous-diphtheritic inflammation
c. haemorrhagic inflammation
d. catarrhal inflammation

A

D

210
Q

What type of oocyst in E. leukarti?

  • Oval, 50um, thin wall
  • Triangular, 25um, normal wall
  • Piriform, 80um, thickwall
A

Piriform, 80um, thickwall

211
Q

Where does the merozoite develop?

  • Inside schizont
  • Inside cysts
  • Inside Gamont
  • Inside eggs
A

Inside schizont

212
Q

How many cells can be infected by a merozoite of Eimeria?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
A

1

213
Q

What does the sporulated oocyst of coccidiosis contain?

  • 2 sporocysts and 2 sporozoites
  • 4 sporocysts and 8 sporozoites
  • 2 sporocysts and 4 sporozoites
  • 4 sporocysts and 2 sporozoites
A

4 sporocysts and 2 sporozoites

214
Q

How many gamonts can develop from one schizont?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • Many
A

Many

215
Q

How many epithelial cells can become infected by 1 Eimeria oocyst at the beginning of infection?

  • 2 cells
  • 4 cells
  • 6 cells
  • 8 cells
A

8 cells (4 sporocysts with 2 sporozoites in each)

216
Q

How many cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera oocyst?

  • 2
  • 4
  • 6
  • 8
A

8

217
Q

How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one schizont of Eimera?

  • 1
  • None
  • Many
A

Many

218
Q

How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera sporocyst?

  • 2
  • 4
  • 6
  • 8
A

8

219
Q

How can we recognize chicken coccidia by species in the most simple way?

  • Based on necroscopy findings
  • Based on clinical signs
  • Based on species
A

Based on necroscopy findings

220
Q

In order to identify the species of a sporulated oocyte, what of the following is needed?

  • Size of oocyte
  • Shape of oocyte
  • Colour with staining
  • Capsule thickness
A

Size of oocyte

221
Q

What does the unsporulated oocyst contain?

A: Sporocyst
B: Zygote
C: Embryo
D: Sporont

A

Zygote

222
Q

What does the sporulated oocysts contain?

A: Macrogamont
B: Zygote
C: Embryo
D: Sporocysts

A

Sporocysts

223
Q

Where does the sporozoite develop?

A: In the schizont
B: In the oocyst
C: In the merozoite
D: In the intestine

A

In the oocyst

224
Q

Where does the sporogony of Eimera maxima, acervulina, brunetti take place?

A: In outer environment
B: In the lumen of intestine
C: In the epithel of jejunum
D: In the schizonts

A

In outer environment

225
Q

Which animal species can be infected by Eimera acervulina?

A: Chickens
B: Chickens and pheasants
C: Gallinaceous birds
D: Domestic birds

A

Chickens

226
Q

Where do the Eimera acervulina gamonts develop?

A: Duodenum and jejunum
B: Colon
C: Caecum
D: Ileum

A

Duodenum and jejunum

227
Q

What can we observe on the surface of mucosa in case of E. necatrix infection?

A: Unclotted blood
B: Necrosis
C: Pink Exudate
D: White foci

A

Unclogged blood

228
Q

Where do the Eimera brunetti schizonts develop?

A: Jejunum
B: Lower part of intestine
C: Gizzard
D: Duodenum

A

Lower part of intestines

229
Q

Where do the Eimera tenalla schizonts develop?

  • jejunum
  • Ileum
  • Caecum
  • duodenum
A

Caecum

230
Q

Which symptom does not appear in case of renal coccidiosis?

  • bloody feces
  • weakness
  • torticolis
  • paralysis
A

Bloody feces

231
Q

Which Eimeria species causes sunken eyes and vertigo?

  • E. Brunetti
  • E. Necatrix
  • E. Tenella
  • E. Truncata
A

E. Truncata

232
Q

Which Eimeria species causes salt and pepper lesions?

  • E. Brunetti
  • E. Necatrix
  • E. Tenella
  • E. Truncata
A

E. necatrix

233
Q

Some blood-sucking files are ……. Of Trypanosoma Brucei Evansi :

• biological vectors
• Mechanical vectors
• Intermediate hosts
• Final hosts

A

Mechanical

234
Q

Which statement is true.

A

E. maxima has a 30x20 μm oocyst that is characteristic

235
Q

how many eimeria affects the horse?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
A
  • 1 (E. leuckarti)
236
Q

During gametogony when the merozoites develop into the female gametocytes they are called?

A

Macrogametocytes

237
Q

Where is the E. truncata primarily located?

  • heart
  • Liver
  • Renal tubules
  • bladder
A

Renal tubules

238
Q

Which Eimeria spp. is highly pathogenic in cattle?

E. zuernii
E. bovis
E. Evansi
E. Parva

A

E. Zuernii & Bovis

239
Q

To whom are Hammondia spp. closely related genetically?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

Parasitology Final Exam 2022 (8 decks)

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