Helminthology Flashcards

1
Q

A four-year-old mixed breed dog housed in a small, dirt-floored pen presents with a history of weight loss, diarrhea, and tenesmus. The faeces is soft and contains bright red blood. What parasite is most likely to cause the symptoms described?

• Dipylidium caninum
• Toxocara canis
• Trichuris vulpis
• Ancylostoma caninum

A

Ancylostoma caninum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi can infect
• Sheep
• Cattle
• Horse
• Deer

A

Horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the shortest prepatent time of Strongylus vulgaris?

• 360 days
• 270 days
• 180 days
• 90 day

A

180 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Galactogen infection with roundworms is related to this type of PE-2

• Ascaridioid
• Toxocaroid
• Ascaroid
• Toxocaridiod

A

Toxocaridiod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How a pig can be infected with the thorny-headed worm?
• Ingestion of an infected intermediate host containing acanthor
• Ingestion of L3 in larvated eggs from the environment
• Ingestion of free L3 from the environment
• Ingestion of an infected intermediate host containing cystacanth

A

Ingestion of an infected intermediate host containing cystacanth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which species cannot cause the infection of a 9 month old horse if you can find strongyle type eggs in the faeces?

• Small strongyles
• s. edentatus
• s. vulgaris
• s. equinus

A

Small strongyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

bunostomum spp. belong to…

• ascarididae
• bunostomidae
• ancylostomatidae
• strongylidae

A

ancylostomatidae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how can you diagnose heartworm infection in a dog?
• Cultivation of microfilariae
• Detection of microfilariae with Knott method
• Detection of antigens and Knott method
• Detection of antibodies and Knott method

A

Detection of microfilaria with Knott method (serology : detection of antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is acanthor?
• L1
• L2
• L3
• Egg

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A mixed breed dog that is housed outdoors on soil presents with lesions on its sternum and ventral abdomen. The areas are erythematous. The parasite responsible for these lesions in most likely:
• Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
• Ancylostoma caninum
• Bunostomum phlebotomum
• Ancylostoma tubaeforme

A

Ancylostoma caninum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The larvae of this worm species can cause the rupture of aorta
• Dirofilaria immitis
• Habronema muscae
• Trichinella britovi
• Spirocerca lupi

A

Spirocerca lupi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Melarsomine is used to kill
• Dirofilaria repens adults
• Dirofilaria immitis adults and microfilariae
• Dirofilaria immitis adults
• Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae

A

Dirofilaria immitis adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the hosr species of Strongyloides westeri?
• Cat
• Pig
• Horse
• Dog

A

Horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which species develops without intermediate host?

• Eucoleus aerophilus
• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Capillaria plica
• Parafilaria bovis

A

Eucoleus aerophilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Definitive hosts of Thelazia callipaeda are …

• Birds
• Dogs
• Ruminants
• Horses

A

Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Typhlitis verrucose verminosa can occur in…
• Anoplocephalosis
• Heterakiosis
• Strongylidosis
• Ascaridiosi

A

Heterakiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many months after the infection with roundworms can found eggs in the faeces of foals?

• 6 months
• 2 months
• 3-4 months
• 1 month

A

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The infective stage of Onchocerca species develops in
• Blackflies or biting midges
• Blackflies
• Mosquitoes
• Sandflies

A

Blackflies or biting midges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is true for stringylus edentatus?
• The 4th moult happens in the subserosa of the parietal peritoneum causing haemorrhagic
• It is not pathogenic
• This species has the shortest life cycle • Migration through the liver and pancreas are part of the life cycle

A

The 4th moult happens in the subserosa of the parietal peritoneum causing haemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chronic hepatitis interstitialis parasitaria multiplex can occur in
• Horse • Poultry • Pig • Dog

A

Pig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which is the large-mouthed bowel worm?
• Oesophagostomum dentatum
• Chabertia ovina
• Trichuris trichiura
• Bunostomum phlebotomum

A

Chambertin ovina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dictyocaulus arenfieldi appears as…. In fresh faeces
• Egg with zygote
• Morulated egg
• Larva
• Larvated egg

A

Larvated egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Predilection sites of Trichinella larvae in pigs
• Tongue
• Muscles of legs
• Muscles of arms
• Pectoral muscles

A

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The endectocides are effective against …
• Monezia spp.
• Trypanosomes
• Hookworms
• Rumen flukes

A

Hookworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does the threadworm live in the host?
• In the colon
• In the stomach
• In the small intestine
• In the caecum

A

In the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Metastrongylus salmi lay….

• Egg with zygote
• Morulated egg
• Eggs with larva
• 1st stage larvae

A

1st stage larvae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

This active ingredient is used for treating of milking animals
• Abamectin
• Doramectin
• Moxidectin
• Eprinomectin

A

Eprinomectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adult strongylus vulgaris worm has…
• 4 tooth-like projections in the mouth
• A buccal capsule
• 32 gut cells of the intestine
• A long tail

A

A buccal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

This species does not have extraintestinal migration
• Ascaris suum
• Ascaridia galli
• Strongylus vulgaris
• Amidostomum anseris

A

Ascaridia galli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Heterakis dispar can occur in…
• Chicken
• Duck
• Pheasant
• Pigeon

A

Duck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

summer sore” can occur in
• Cattle
• Reindeer
• Horse
• Sheep

A

Horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The infective stage of habronema megastoma is L1
• True • False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cattle can be infected with protostrongylus rufescens
• True • False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The cats cannot be infected with Eucoleus aerophilus
• True • False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The chicken can be infected with Ascaridia galli with eating earthworms
• True • False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Flies are the intermediate hosts of Habronema spp.
• True • False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The L1 of Muellerius sp. is found in the cows manure
• True • False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Thelazia callipaeda can infect … (more than one answer may be right!)
• Human • Dog • Rabbit • Cat

A

All

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

F. hepatica antibodies can be detected from…. (more than one answer may be right!)

• Serum
• Milk
• Blood
• Faeces

A

Milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How the dogs can be infected with Ancylostoma caninum ? (more than one answer may be right!)

• Percutan
• Intrauterine
• Per os
• Galactogenic

A

All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Unembrionated eggs can be detected from faeces. (more than one answer may be right!)

• Diphyllobothrium latum
• E. granulosus
• Spirometra spp.
• Monezia spp

A

Diphyllobothrium latum & Spirometra spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where you can find cysticercus ovis? (more than one answer may be right!)
• Brain
• Skeletal muscle
• Kidney
• Heart

A

Skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Strongyloides wester can cause infection …. (more than one answer may be right!)
• Percutan
• Prenatal
• Galactogen
• Per os

A

Galactogen & Per os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Echinococcus granulosis belongs to …. (more than one answer may be right!)

• Cyclophyllidae
• Pseudophyllidae
• Cestoda
• Taeniidae

A

Cyclophyllidae, Cestoda & Taeniidae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which species can occur in cats? (more than one answer may be right!)
• Diphyliobothridium latum
• Echinococcus multilocularis (rarely cats)
• Dipylidium caninum
• Taenia taeniaeformis

A

All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which species can cause galactogenic infection for the hosts? (more than one answer may be right!)
• Strongyloides westeri
• Ancylostoma tubaeforme
• Filaroides milksi
• Toxocara vitulorum

A

S. Westerni, Ancylostoma tubaeformen & Toxocara vitulorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

It can occur in vertebrate intermediate host (more than one answer may be right!)
• Strobilocercus
• Plerocercoid
• Procercoid
• Cysticercus

A

All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which species can infect humans? (more than one answer may be right!)
• Dicrocoelium dendriticum
• Eucoleus aerophilus
• Fasciola hepatica (least susceptible)
• Ancylostoma caninum

A

Dicrocoelium dendriticum & Fasciola hepatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The infected paratenic hosts can infect the host with this species (more than one answer may be right!)
• Ascaridia galli
• Filaroides milksi
• Alaria alata
• Angiostrongylus vasorum

A

Alaria alata & Angiostrongylus vasorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which species develop(s) in earthworms? Which species can infect humans? (more than one answer may be right!)
• Metastrongylus apri
• Syngamus trachea
• Heterakis gallinarum
• Capillaria plica

A

Metastrongylus apri, Heterakis gallinarum, Capillaria plica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How the cats can be infected with T. cati? (more than one answer may be right!)

• Per os with eggs containing L3
• Intrauterine
• With infected paratenic host
• With milk

A

All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Prepatent period of Fasciola hepatica
• 6-8 months
• 8-10 weeks
• 3-5 weeks
• 5-6 months

A

8-10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which is the odd one out?
• Procercoid
• Plerocercoid
• Cysticercoid
• Cercaria

A

Cercaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The adults of this tapeworm species can occur in human
• Taenia hydatigena
• Echinococcus granulosus
• Echinococcus multilocularis
• Dipylidium caninum

A

Dipylidium caninum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This larval stage follows the miracidium
• Redia
• Cercaria
• Sporocyst
• Metacercaria

A

Sporocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The dog is the …. Of Echinococcus multilocularis
• Final and intermedia host
• Paratenic host
• Intermediate host
• Final host

A

Final host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This larval stage follows the redia stage
• Metacercaria
• Cercaria
• Mesocercaria
• Sporocyst

A

Cercaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The infective stage of Alaria alata is
• Metacercaria
• Mesocercaria
• Metacercaria
• Cercaria

A

Metacercaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The larval form of this species many worms can develop in the intestine of dogs

• Taemia solium
• Echinococcus granulosus
• Taenia crassiceps
• Taenia hydatigena

A

Echinococcus granulosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The eggs always contain oncospheres (more than one answer may be right)

• Moniezia
• Taenia
• Anoplocephala
• Alaria

A

Moniezia, Tænia, Anoplocephala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The cat’s stomach worm can infect ….
• Felids and mustelids
• Felids and canids
• Felids, canids, pig
• Felids

A

Felids, canids, pig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the intermediate hosts of Spirocerca lupi?

• Dung beetle
• Flea
• Mosquito
• Earthworm

A

Dung beetle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi can infect

• Horse
• Sheep
• Cattle
• Dee

A

Horse (& donkey)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Parthenogenetic females can occur in

• Strongyloides
• Toxocara
• Oesophagostomum
• Ancylostoma

A

Strongyloides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which species can infect geese?

• Trichostrongylus axei
• Ollulanus tricuspis
• Amidostomum anseris
• Hyostrongylus rubidus

A

Amidostomum anseris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where can you find Cooperia worms during the necropsy?

• In rumen
• In colon
• In small intestine
• In abomasum

A

In small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the effective drug against Dirofilaria immitis adults?

• Praziquantel
• Melarsomine
• Permethrin
• Selamectin

A

Melarsomine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which species can cause coagulopathies?

• Filaroides milksi
• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Oslerus osleri
• Crenosoma vulpis

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the scientific name of the cat lungworm?

• Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
• Oslerus rostratus
• Oslerus osleri
• Troglostrongylus brevior

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How long is the prepatent period of T. canis if a dog became infected with eating infected paratenic host?

• 16 days
• 28 days
• 21 days
• 19 day

A

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Ollulanus tricuspis can be found in …
• Lung
• Stomach
• Colon
• Duodenum

A

Stomach of cats or other félids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How can you detect small strongyle infection of horses?

• FEC with floatation
• Based on the morphology of L3
• Based on the morphology of L1
• With serology method

A

FEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is the third moult of strongylus vulgaris?

• In the abdominal cavity
• In the lumen of large intestine • In the wall of large intestine
• In the lumen of arteria

A

In the wall of large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How many forms of habronematidosis were mentioned?

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

This species can infect pigs

• Oesophagostomum radiatum • Oesophagostomum columbianum
• Oesophagostomum venulosum
• Oesophagostomum quadrispinulatum

A

Oesophagostomum quadrispinulatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The infective stage of whipworms are ….

• Eggs containing L1
• Eggs
• Eggs containing L3
• L3

A

Eggs containing L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Summer bleeding is caused by …

• Parafilaria
• Setaria
• Habronema
• Draschia

A

Parafilaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Felids are not susceptible to …

• Oslerus rostratus
• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Dictyocaulus cati
• Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The adult thorny-headed worms can be found in

• Caecum
• Small intestine
• Colon
• Bile ducts

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What can be detected in the faecal samples of puppies infected with Strongyloides?
• Egg containing zygote
• Egg in morula stage
• L1
• Egg containing larva

A

Egg in morula stage or L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Syngamus worms are most infective for chicken

• Younger than 2-3 weeks
• Older than 1 year
• Older than 2-3 months
• Younger than 2-3 months

A

Younger than 2-3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which are called whipworms?

• Trichinella spp.
• Trichuris spp.
• Ascaris spp.
• Capillaria spp.

A

Trichuris spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following statement concerning the prepatent period for large strongyles is true?
• The period is highly variable because they may undergo arrested development in the wall of the intestine
• Strongylus equinus has the shortest period
• The period ranges from 6 to 11 months
• Strongyles become patent 40 to 60 days after infectio

A

The period ranges from 6 to 11 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

During the necropsy you can find Chabertia ovina in …

• Lung
• Colon
• Ileum
• Duodenum

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

This infection can be detected by floatation of eggs

• Crenosoma
• Protostrongylus
• Angiostrongylus
• Capillaria

A

Capillaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Predilection sites of Trichinella larvae in pigs

• Tongue
• Muscles of legs
• Muscles of arms
• Pectoral muscle

A

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Where can you find Oesophagostomum worms during the necropsy?

• In the large intestine
• In the small intestine
• In the stomach
• In the rectum

A

In the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

It occurs in the gizzard of ducks

• Syngamus trachea
• Amidostomum anseris
• Cyathostoma trachea
• Cyathostomum anseris

A

Amidostomum anseris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis microfilariae cannot cause eye infection

• True • False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Trichuris vulpis can be found in the duodenum

• True
• False

A

False (mucosa of caecum and colon)

91
Q

The infective stage of Habronema megastoma is L1

• True
• False

A

False (L3)

92
Q

The cats cannot be infected with Eucoleus aerophilus

• True
• False

A

False

93
Q

Habronematosis can cause lung infections

• True
• False

A

True

94
Q

The infective stage of the whipworms is L3

• True
• False

A

False (L1)

95
Q

How the hookworms can infect dogs? (more than one answer may be right)

• With paratenic hosts
• Per os L3
• Galactogenic
• Percutan

A

All of them

96
Q

Many tapeworms develop from this metacestode (more than one answer may be right)

• Cysticercus
• Echinococcus
• Strobilocercus
• Coenurus

A

Cysticercus, Echinococcus & coenurus

97
Q

Which species can infect dogs by eating earthworms? (more than one answer may be right)

• Toxocara canis
• Spirocerca lupi
• Toxacaris leonina
• Capillaria plica

A

Capillaria

98
Q

which species can develop with intermediate host? (more than one answer may be right)

• Oslerus osleri
• Crenosoma vulpis
• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Filaroides milksi

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum

99
Q

During the necropsy of horses where you can find tapeworms? (more than one answer may be right)

• Small intestine
• Caecum
• Stomach
• Liver

A

Small, large intestines + iléocaecale junction

100
Q

Which species can infect cattle? (more than one answer may be right)

• T. gulosa
• Thelazia callipaeda
• Thelazia lacrimalis
• Thelazia rhodesi

A

T. Gulosa & T. Rhodesi

101
Q

which species occur in the stomach? (more than one answer may be right)

• Ollulanus tricuspis
• Amidostomum anseris
• Habronema muscae
• Trichostrongylus axei

A

Trichostrongylus axei, Habronema muscae

102
Q

in serodiagnosis of heartworm infection which species can cause false positive reaction? (more than one answer may be right)

• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Crenosoma lupis
• Toxocara canis
• Spirocerca lupi

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum, spirocerca lip (+ A. Odendhali)

103
Q

Its life cycle is indirect (more than one answer may be right)

• Parafilaria bovis
• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Protostrongylus rufescens
• Setaria equin

A

Protostrongylus rufescens, Setaria equina

104
Q

which species can be infected with heartworm (more than one answer may be right)

• otter
• fox
• human
• lion

A

Fox, lion, dogs, human

105
Q

the adults of this parasite occur in the large intestine (more than one answer may be right)

• oesophagostomum
• Trichuris
• Oxyuris
• Toxocara

A

Oesophagostomum & Oxyuris

106
Q

which species do not have metacercariae? (more than one answer may be right)
`
• faciola hepatica
• alaria alata
• schistosoma bovis
• Dicrocoelium dendriticum

A

schistosoma bovis

107
Q

what is effective against juvenile Fasciola hepatica?

• Fenbendazole
• Levamizole
• Albendazole
• Triclabendazole

A

Triclabendazole

108
Q

which species needs two intermediate hosts for its life cycle?

• Diphyllobothrium latum
• Monezia expansa
• Echinococcus granulosus
• Dicrocoelium (lanceolatum)

A

Diphyllobothrium latum & dicrocoelium

109
Q

There is sexual dimorphism among
• Small liver flukes
• Common liver flukes
• Blood flukes
• Rumen flukes

A

Blood flukes

110
Q

What is the resistance of cattle against Fasciola hepatica?

• Early
• Low
• Delayed
• Bi

A

Delayed (like human also)

111
Q

what is the infective stage of Monezia spp.

• Eggs containing L1
• L2
• L3
• 6-hooked oncospher

A

L2

112
Q

Sterile hydatid cysts develop mainly in

• Cattle
• Sheep
• Horse
• Cat

A

Cattle

113
Q

The eggs of rumen flukes contain
• Blastomeres
• Zygote
• Miracidium
• Morula stage of larva

A

Miracidium

114
Q

Which tapeworm species can cause autoinfection in human?

• Taenia saginata
• Diphyliobothrium latum
• Taenia solium
• Echinococcus granulosa

A

Taenia solium, sagitana

115
Q

A dog that eats wild rabbits is most likely to become infected with

• Dipylidium caninum
• Taenia saginata
• Echinococcus granulosa
• Taenia pisiformis

A

Taenia pisiformis

116
Q

How can you diagnose acute paramphistomatidosis?

• Necropsy
• With serological method
• FEC with flotation
• FEC with sedimentation

A

FEC with flotation

117
Q

Which tapeworm can occur in the intestine of deer?

• Taenia krabbei
• None of them
• Taenia cervi
• Taenia ovis

A

None of them

118
Q

Which species can infect cattle? (more than one answer may be right)

• Onchocerca gutturosa
• Thelazia gulosa
• Protostrongylus rufescens
• setaria equin

A

O. Gutturosa, T. Gulosa,

119
Q

eggs of E. granulosus are indistinguishable from this/these species (more than one answer may be right)

• Taenia multiceps
• Taenia ovis
• Echinococcus multilocularis
• Taenia multiceps

A

All of them

120
Q

The PE-2 of this species is toxocaroid type (more than one answer may be right)

• Parascaris equorum
• Ascaris suum
• Toxocara vitulorum
• Toxocara canis

A

Toxocara canis

121
Q

Its infectious larva is not capsulated (more than one answer may be right)

• Tichinella britovi
• Tichinella spiralis
• Tichinella pseudospiralis
• Tichinella papuae

A

T. Spiralis & papuae

122
Q

Which species develop(s) in snails/slugs? (more than one answer may be right)

• Capillaria plica
• Crenosoma vulpis
• Metastrongylus apri
• Angiostrongylus vasorum

A

Crenosoma vulpis & Angiostrongylus vasorum

123
Q

The life cycle of this/these species is/are indirect? (more than one answer may be right)

• T. gulosa
• Thelazia rhodesi
• Thelazia callipaeda
• Thelazia lacrimalis

A

All of them

124
Q

What is the role of human in the life cycle of Taenia solium? (more than one answer may be right)

• Final host
• Paratenic host
• Intermediate host
• Second intermediate host

A

Final host

125
Q

There are neither eggs nor larvae in the fresh faecal samples of the hosts infected with this/these species (more than one answer
may be right)

• Habronema muscae
• Capillaria hepatica
• Onchocerca cervi
• Dictyocaulus filari

A

Dictyocaulus filari, Onchocerca cervi

126
Q

Meat/fish-borne infection of human is ….. (more than one answer may be right)

• Diphylobothriosis
• Pork measle
• Bovine onchocercosis
• Fasciolosis

A

Diphylobothriosis & Pork measle

127
Q

which species can occur in the small intestine of sheep? (more than one answer may be right)

• nematodirus battus
• ostertagia ostertahi
• Teladorsagia circumcincta
• Cooperia curticei

A

Cooperia curticei

128
Q

Which host(s) has/have delayed resistance to Fasciola hepatica? (more than one answer may be right)
• Sheep
• Human
• Cattle
• Rabbit

A

Human & cattle

129
Q

which species can infect dogs? (more than one answer may be right)

Fasciola hepatica
Alaria alata
Uncinaria stenocephala
Trichinella spiralis

A

Uncinaria stenocephala, alaria alata

130
Q

The life cycle of crenosoma vulpis is direct

True
False

A

True

131
Q

The life cycle of Thelazia spp. is direct

True
False

A

False

132
Q

The lifecycle of Setaria equina takes almost a year

True
False

A

True

133
Q

Thelazia callipaeda can be found in the lung

True
False

A

False (eye worm)

134
Q

L3 is the infective stage of Trichinella

True
False

A

False (L1)

135
Q

This species can infect small ruminants

  • Oesophagostomum columbianum
  • Oesophagostomum radiatum
  • Oesophagostomum dentatum
  • Oesophagostomum quadrispinulatum
A

O. Columbiatum

136
Q

In recent years, several commercially-available equine dewormers have been modified to include praziquantel. What was responsible for this change?
- Recognition of widespread anthelmintic resistance in equine nematodes to the avermectin dewormers
- New data demonstrating the clinical association between tapeworms and colic
- New data describing tapeworms as a parasite of horses
- New data demonstrating the clinical association between trematodes and colic

A
137
Q

This species can cause high mortality and low morbidity in cattle in winter
Ostertagia ostertagi
Teladorsagia circumcincta
Haemonchus contortus
Cooperia curticei

A

Ostertagia ostertagi

138
Q

How many weeks after Ascaris suum infection can be found eggs in the faecal sample?

8-9
4-5
2
10-12

A

4-5 or 8-9

139
Q

Which is the smallest worm?

Strongylus vulgaris
Haemonchus contortus
Strongylus suis
Oesophagostomum dentatum

A

O. Dentanum ?

140
Q

How the cats can be infected with the stomach worm?

Ingesting of vomit containing
L3 Ingesting
L2 Intrauterine
Percutaneou

A

Ingesting vomit containing L3

141
Q

Where can you find the adults of Setaria equina?

In eyes
In subcutaneous tissues
In abdominal cavity
In lung

A

In abdominal cavity

142
Q

Their intermediate hosts are the earthworms

Metastrongylus
Dictyocaulus
Capillaria
Crenosoma

A

Capillaria, metastrongylus,

143
Q

Which domestic animal does not have any specific tapeworm species?

Swine
Cattle
Sheep
Horse

A

Swine

144
Q

Fasciola hepatica coproantigen can be detected from faeces from:

The 4th week post infection
The 3rd wee p.i.
No coproantigen
The 1st week p.i.

A

The 4th week post infection

145
Q

What are the intermediate hosts of Taenia saginata?

Cattle
Swine
Many ruminant species
Sheep

A

Cattle

146
Q

Its life cycle is MI-SPO1-SPO2-CE-MC.

Paramphistomum sp
Alaria alata
Schistosoma japonicum
Dicrocoelium

A

Schistosoma & dicrocoelium

147
Q

What is the infective stage of Monezia spp.?

L3
6-hooked oncosphere
Eggs containing L1
L2

A

L2

148
Q

Strobilocercus fasciolaris is the infective stage of …..

Taenia tenuicollis
Taenia hydatigena
Taenia taeniaeformis
Daviainea proglottina

A

Taenia Taeniaeformis

149
Q

Which is the odd one out?

Plerocercoid
Cercaria
Cysticercoid
Procercoid

A

Cercaria

150
Q

What is the most important intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica (common liver fluke) in Europe?

Galba truncatula
Radix labiate
Succinella oblonga
Lymnea peregra

A

Galba Truncatula

151
Q

This species does not have extraintestinal migration.

Amidostomum anseris
Strongylus vulgaris
Ascaris suum
Ascaridia galli

A

Ascaridia galli

152
Q

The migrating larvae of this species can cause severe inflammation in the wall of the cranial mesenteric artery of horses.

Strongylus edentates
Strongylus minor
Strongylus equinus
Strongylus vulgaris

A

S. Vulgaris

153
Q

The intermediate hosts of aelurostrongylus abstrusus are

Mosquitoes
Earthworms
Beetle
Snails & Slugs

A

Snails & slugs

154
Q

What is the intermediate hosts of spirocerca lupi?

Earthworm
Flea
Dung beetle
Mosquito

A

Dung beetle

155
Q

How the animal can be infected with Uncinaria L3

Prenatal
Percutan
Per os
Galactogen

A

Per os

156
Q

This species can infect large ruminants

Oesophagostomum dentatum
Oesophagostomum radiatum
Oesophagostomum quadrispinulatum
Oesophagostomum columbianum

A

O. Radiatum

157
Q

Paratenic host might be involved in the life cycle of ……

Metastrongylus
Dictyocaulus
Crenososma
Capillaria

A

Capillaria

158
Q

What is the effective drug against Dirofilaria immitis adults?

• Praziquantel
• Permethrin
• Melarsomine
• Selamectin

A

Melarsomine

159
Q

This active ingredient is licensed for dogs

• Selamectin
• Eprinomectin
• Albamectin
• Ivermectin

A

Selamectin

160
Q

Which is the large mouthed bowel worm?

• Oesophagostomum dentatum
• Chabertia ovina
• Bunostomum phlebotomum
• Trichuris trichiura

A

Chabertia ovina

161
Q

Which species can cause damage in the bifurcation of bronchi in dogs?

• Crenosoma vulpis
• Oslerus osleri
• Angiostrongylus vasorum
• Filaroides milksi

A

Oslerus osleri

162
Q

For how long Trichinella larva can be infected in pigs?

• 5 years
• 3 years
• 11 years
• 1 year

A

11 years

163
Q

What is the infective stage of Ascaris suum?

• L2 in the eggs
• Zygote containing egg
• L3 in the egg
• L1 in the egg

A

L3 in the egg

164
Q

The larvae of this worm species can cause the rupture of aorta

• Dirofilaria immitis
• Spirocerca lupi
• Trichinella britovi
• Habronema muscae

A

Spirocerca lupi

165
Q

They have the largest buccal capsule

Ancylostoma spp.
Bunostomum spp.
Strongylus spp.
Oesophagostomum spp

A

Ancylostoma

166
Q

Heterakis isolonche can occur in ..

• Pheasant
• Pigeon
• Chicken
• Duc

A

Pheasant

167
Q

Brood nodules are caused by ….. parasites

• Oesophagostomum sp
• Dictyocaulus sp
• Neostrongylus sp
• Metastrongylfvus sp

A

Neostrongylus sp

168
Q

This stage of the cat flea has negative photo and positive geotaxis

• Adult
• Adult and larva
• Larva
• Pupa

A

Larva

169
Q

Diagnostic method of Heart worm :
-Antigen detection by Knott method
-Antibody detection by Knott method
-Microfilaria detection by Knott method
-Microfilaria detection by some other method

A

-Microfilaria detection by Knott method

170
Q

Draschia megastoma occurs in which species?

  • horses, donkeys (zebras)
  • dogs, cats
  • human
  • cattle & small ru
A

horses, donkeys (zebras)

171
Q

routes of infection for Strongyloides suis :

○ lactogenic
○ per oral
○ per cutan
○ colostral
○ autoinfection

A

Lactogenic, per os, per cutan

172
Q

routes of infection for Strongyloides papillosus (ru) :

○ lactogenic
○ per oral
○ per cutan
○ colostral
○ autoinfection

A

Per cutan (skin of legs)

173
Q

routes of infection for Strongyloides westeri :

○ lactogenic
○ per oral
○ per cutan
○ colostral
○ autoinfection

A

Colostral, lactogenic

174
Q

routes of infection for Strongyloides stercorales var canis :

○ lactogenic
○ per oral
○ per cutan
○ colostral
○ autoinfection

A

Per cutan, autoinfection

175
Q

Which Strongylus species cannot occur in 7 month old horse?

A

eqinus
edentatus

176
Q

What does Metastrongylus egg contain?

  • L1
  • L2
  • L3
  • zygote
A

L1

177
Q

Which form(s) of Echinococcus occurs in human (multiple answers)

-Coenrus
-Larva
-Larva
-Adult -Egg

A

Larva

178
Q

What is ivermectin not effective against (multiple answers)

-Protozoa
-Tapeworms
-Flukes
-All

A

All

179
Q

Which species can not be infected with Diphyllobothrium (single choice)

A. Cat
B. Sheep
C. Human
D. Dog

A

Sheep

180
Q

Which taenia larva predilection site is in the liver?

● Cysticercus tenuicollis
● Cysticercus ovis
● Cysticercus pisiformis
● Cysticercus cervi

A

C. Pisiformis & C. Tenuicollis

181
Q

Which have dog as a definitive host?

● Echinococcus multilocularis
● Taenia multiceps
● Taenia multiceps
● Taenia solium

A

Echinococcus multilocularis & Taenia multiceps

182
Q

How does the stomach worm of the cat infect a cat?
● Per os
● Prenatal
● Transmammary
● Ingestion of vomit

A

Ingestion of vomit

183
Q

Which is not related to the others?

  • Cercaria,
  • Procercoid,
  • plerocercoid,
  • cysticercoid
A

Cercaria

184
Q

Human can be infected by eating infected meat including?

-D. latum,
-pork measles,
-onchocercosis

A

D.latum

185
Q

The following statement is correct
- Hepatophilic tapeworm larva develops to L2,
- hepatophilic tapeworm larva develops to L3,
- Echinococcus spp. are hepatophilic,
- Taenia saginata is hepatophilic

A
  • Hepatophilic tapeworm larva develops to L2
186
Q

Which is NOT hepatophilic of?

T. Psiformis,
T.longicollis,
E.granulosus,
E.alveolata

A

T.longicollis, & E.granulosus

187
Q

Find the right partners:
A. hunting dog
B. butchers dog
C.shepherd dog
D. dog around pigs

  1. T.pisiformis
    2.T.hydatigena
    3.E.granulosis
    4.T.multiceps
A

A1, B2, C4, D3

188
Q

They belong to the phylum of flatworms?

Trematodes
cestodes
Nematodes
Thelaziosis

A

Trematoda & cestodes

189
Q

Meat borne infection of human is/are..

a. diphylobotriosis
b. fasciolosis
c. pork measles
d. Bo onchocercosis

A

a & c

190
Q

Dosage of INJECTABLE ivermectin in treating pigs..

a. 1.0mg/kg
b. 0.5mg/kg
c. 0.2mg/kg
d. 0.3mg/kg

A

0,3

191
Q

Which spieces dont hae whipworm?

Horse
Dog
Cat
Cattle

A

Horse

192
Q

How to treat a cow with hair loss and itching on tail?

A

Ivermectin

193
Q

Which has a low resistance against Fasciola hepatica :

Cattle
Sheep
Goat
Man

A

Sheep & goat

194
Q

Which has a high resistance against Fasciola hepatica :

Cattle
Horse
Pig
Dog
Cat

A

Horse, pig, dog & cat

195
Q

What direction is besnoitia moving across the world?
- South west to east
- South east to west
- North to south
- South to north

A
  • South west to east
196
Q

Which sp has only blood sucking louse species ?

  • cat
  • dog
  • pig
  • chicken
A

Pig

197
Q

The red mites cause the biggest problem around ?

  • broilers and egg-laying
  • breeders
  • egg-laying hens
  • broilers
A

Egg laying hens

198
Q

The scientifique name of the spinose ear tick

A) Ornithodoros moubata
B) arguas reflexus
C) otobius megnini
D) ornithodoros erraticus

A

Otobius megnini

199
Q

The larva of this sp are predacious

  • hydrotea aenescens
  • Haematobia irritans
  • Musca autumnalis
  • hydrotea irritans
A

H. Aenescens

200
Q

Hypo or anosmia (loss of smell) is caused by
- neotrombicula autumnalis
- otobius megnini
- pneumonyssoides caninum
- linguatula serrata

A

pneumonyssoides caninum

201
Q

The female louse flies lay

L1
Eggs
Larvated eggs
L3

A

L3

202
Q

The vector of the blue tongue virus belong to

  • culex
  • simulium
  • phlebotomus
  • culicoides
A

culicoides

203
Q

Dermanyssus gallinae are nocturnal

True
False

A

True

204
Q

The english name of calliphorid flies is :

  • Flesh flies
  • Blowflies
  • Forrest flies
  • Stable flies
A

Blowflies

205
Q

The english name of sarcophgidae flies is :

  • Flesh flies
  • Blowflies
  • Forrest flies
  • Stable flies
A

Flesh flies

206
Q

The english name of Hippoboscidae flies is :

  • Flesh flies
  • Blowflies
  • Forrest flies
  • Stable flies
A

Forrest flies

207
Q

The english name of stomyxus calcitrans flies is :

  • Flesh flies
  • Blowflies
  • Forrest flies
  • Stable flies
A

Stable flies

208
Q

The english name of tabanids flies is :

  • Horse flies
  • Blowflies
  • Forrest flies
  • Stable flies
A

Horse flies

209
Q

The mange mites belong to :

  • prostigmata
  • astigmata
  • mesostigmata
  • metastigmata
A

Astigmata

210
Q

The demodex sp belong to :

  • prostigmata
  • astigmata
  • mesostigmata
  • metastigmata
A

Prostigmata

211
Q

The red mites belong to :

  • prostigmata
  • astigmata
  • mesostigmata
  • metastigmata
A

mesostigmata

212
Q

The hard ticks belong to :

  • prostigmata
  • astigmata
  • mesostigmata
  • metastigmata
A

Metastigmata

213
Q

What are the transport hosts of trichomonas foetus towards cats ?

  • beetle
  • stugs
  • cockroaches
  • earthworms
A

Stugs

214
Q

Size of taenia type eggs ?

  • 5-10 mm
  • 30-40 mm
  • 100 mm
  • 200-300 mm
A

30-40 mm

215
Q

What is the intermediate host of Alaria alata ?

  • bird
  • earthworm
  • snail
  • human
A

Snail (helisoma sp)

216
Q

How many protoscolices are in a cysticercus pisiformis ?

  • many thousand
  • 10-100
  • 1
  • several hundreds
A

1

217
Q

What does the egg of moniezia benedeni contain ?

  • blastomeres
  • six-hooked oncosphere
  • zygote
  • five-hooked oncospheres
A

Six-hooked oncospheres

218
Q

Tæniae ovis adult can occur in

  • dog
  • meat animal
  • cattle
  • sheep
A

Dog

219
Q

This species lays eggs on bloodsucking insect

  • w. Magnifica
  • cochliomya homnivora
  • oestrus ovis
  • dermatobia hominis
A

dermatobia hominis

220
Q

West Nike virus is commonly transmitted to horse and people by ?

A) mosquito
B) biting midges
C) horse flies
D) fleas

A

Mosquitos

221
Q

Where did dourine occur in the past decade within Europe ?

  • hungary
  • all 3 countries
  • france
  • italy
A

Italy

222
Q

What sp can cause nasal myasis in horse ?

  • Rhinoestrus purpureus
  • przhevalskiana Silenus
  • gasterophilus nasalis
  • chrysomya bezziana
A

Rhinoestrus purpureus

223
Q

What is characteristic of renal avian cryptosporidiosis ?

  • blocage of urinary bladder
  • glomerulonephtritis
  • swollen kidney
  • indentation on kidney
A

swollen kidney

224
Q

Taenia ovis larvae are found in ?

  • cattle
  • dog
  • Sheep
  • human
A

Sheep