Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm Exam 4 > Protein Synthesis Inhibitors > Flashcards

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 main groups of protein synthesis inhibitors?

A
  1. 30s

2. 50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 types of 30s protein synthesis inhibitors?

A
  1. Tetracyclines

2. Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Macrolides?

A

50s protein synthesis inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F: The bacterial ribosome is smaller than mammalian ribosome.

A

True
Bacterial: 70s
Mammalian: 80s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T or F: Mitochondrial ribosomes closely resemble the bacterial ribosome.

A

True

This is important because HIGH doses may cause toxic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the structure of Tetracyclines?

A

4 fused rings with a system of conjugated double bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is the structure of tetracyclines important?

A

If you change the ring substitutions, you change the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the 4 Tetracycline drugs.

A
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Demecycline
  3. Doxycycline
  4. Minocycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the short acting Tetracyclines? And how is it administered?

A

Tetracycline!

PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Minocycline? Short acting? Long? Intermediate? How is it given?

A

Long acting

PO/IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the long acting tetracyclines? And how are they given?

A

These are the 2nd gen:

  1. Minocycline
  2. Doxycycline

PO/IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the intermediate acting tetracycline? How is it administered?

A

Demecycline

PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Tetracycline–cidal or static?

A

static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MOA of Tetracycline?

A

Drug binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit and blocks access of the tRNA to the mRNA-ribosomal complex–ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T or F: Tetracyclines are extended spectrum.

A

False: they are broad spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the 7 species of bacteria that Tetracyclines are used for?

A
  1. Gram (-)= cholera
  2. Rickettsia = Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Chlamydia
  5. Amoeba
  6. Spirochetes = lyme disease
  7. Bacillis Anthracis
  8. Acne: Proprionibacterium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which tetracyclines have enhanced antibacterial activity? Why are they better?

A

2nd generation: (long acting)
1. Minocycline
2. Doxycycline
They penetrate the bacterial cells better.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the “R” factor referring to?

A

The Resistance factor of tetracyclines.

  1. decreased influx of drug
  2. acquisition of an energy dependent efflux pathway
  3. binding site alterations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In which class of Tetracyclines is cross-resistance less of an issue?

A

2nd generation

  1. Minocycline
  2. Doxycycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What impairs the absorption of Tetracyclines?

A
  1. Dairy products (Ca)
  2. Antacids (Mg, Al)
  3. Fe salts
  4. Bismuth Subsalicyclate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If a patient needs to take Bismuth Subsalicyclate, which Tetracycline would you prefer to administer because altered absorption will be less of an issue?

A

2nd Gen TCNs:

Doxycycline and Minoxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What kind of absorption do the tetracyclines have?

A

incomplete but adequate oral absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Once administered to the patient, where do the tetracyclines distribute in the body?

A 
Into most tissues, but concentrate into: 
Liver,
Kidney, 
Spleen, and 
Skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are tetracyclines water or lipid soluble?

A

Lipid soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where else do tetracyclines tend to bind/distribute in the body?

A

Tend to bind to:
Tissue undergoing calcification, such as–
teeth and bones,
and they cross the placenta to get to jr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

All tetracyclines have inadequate penetration into the CNS EXCEPT for–?

A

Minoxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where are most tetracyclines excreted?

A

TCNs excreted in the bile –> from here they go to the intestine –> from which they are partially reabsorbed to the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If a patient is taking TCNs, where in the body would you expect to see the highest concentration of TCNs?

A

In the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which medical condition should TCNs be avoided with? What TCN is the exception to this?

A
  1. Avoid TCNs in Renal failure

2. Doxycycline: does not accumulate in the kidneys of renal failure pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a patient is being treated for H. Pylori, and you decide to place them on triple therapy using TCN and Bismuth–How should you do this?

A

Bismuth 4x /d +
TCN 4x/d +
Metronidazole 3x/d +
PPI po x 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the alternate triple therapy method for peptic ulcer disease (H. Pylori) NOT using TCNs?

A

PPI +
Amoxicillin (PCN) +
Clarithromycin (Aminoglycoside) 2x/d po
All of this: x 10 d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which bacillary infections are treated with TCNs?

A
  1. Brucellosis
  2. Tularemia
  3. Cholera
  4. Traveler’s Diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which Chlamydial infections are treated with TCNs?

A
  1. Psittacosis
  2. Trachoma
  3. Lymphogranuloma venereum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the causative agent of lyme disease and how do you treat it?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

TCNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the common causative agent for acne and how would you treat it?

A

Propionibacterium acne

TCNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which Mycobacterium do you treat with TCNs?

A

Ureaplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which Rickettsial diseases do you treat with TCNs?

A

Spotted fevers
Typhus
Ehrlichiosis
Q fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a common adverse effect of TCNs? How do you control it? What could this effect ultimately cause if you are not careful as a practitioner?

A

GI upset
Take with food; NOT dairy products
The pt could end up with a superinfection of Staph or C. dif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A patient is experiencing tooth pigmentation and enamel hypoplasia; what is the most likely causative agent?

A

TCNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

General question: What is the period of greatest danger to teeth (when the patient is pregnant)?
Why does this matter?

A

About mid-pregnancy (4-6 mo)

If the patient has an infection, avoid giving TCNs during this this time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If a pregnant patient is prescribed TCN, what is a toxic effect that could occur in the fetus?

A

Fetal hepatoxicity (esp if mother is experiencing pyelonephritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In which TCNs is the patient more likely to develop photoxicity?

A
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Demecocycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What other antibiotics besides TCNs have phytotoxicity as an adverse effect?

A
  1. Sulfonamides

2. Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which TCN has vestibular disturbances?

A

Minoxycyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which antibiotic has an adverse effect of pseudo tumor cerebri? (benign intracranial HTN with blurred vision)

A

General adv effect of ALL TCNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are 2 types of superinfections a patient can get from TCN administration?

A
  1. Vaginal candidiasis

2. Staphylococci, C. dif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which drug should you not prescribe to patient 8 years of age or younger?

A

TCNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T or F: Pregnant and lactating women are safe to take TCNs?

A

NO; they are contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What two drugs should you instruct your patient to avoid when you prescribe them TCNs? Why?

A
  1. Divalent
  2. Trivalent
    The cations from the drugs can chelate the tetracyclines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why should a patient avoid taking TCNs while taking birth control?

A

Simultaneous use of oral contraceptives with TCNs can decrease conjugated estrogen levels and thus, decreasing efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus has occurred with which TCN?

A

Demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the MOA of Demeclocycline?

A

Inhibits ADH-induced water reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Demeclocycline’s one indication? (that we discussed)

A

Used in the treatment of SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name the 6 Aminoglycosides.

A
  1. Neomycin
  2. Streptomycin
  3. Gentamicin
  4. Tobramycin
  5. Amikacin
  6. Netilmycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How are the Aminoglycosides administered?

A

IM/IV once a day dosing

EXCEPT Neomycin–Topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T or F: All Aminoglycosides can be taken orally, Neomycin is especially safe.

A

False: NONE of the Aminoglycosides are PO

Neomycin has the highest toxic level and is restricted to topical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the Aminoglycosides used for?

A

Aerobic Gram (-) bacilli but have been replaced by:

  1. 3rd gen Cephs
  2. Fluoroquinolones
  3. Imipenem/Cilastatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T or F: All Aminoglycosides share similar spectrum of activity, efficacy, toxicity, and pharmacology.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Do Aminoglycosides have good oral absorption?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Do Aminoglycosides have good CNS penetration?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Do Aminoglycosides have good excretion via the kidneys or bile?

A

Kidneys and yes, it is rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Are Aminoglycosides cidal or static?

A

cidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the method of action of Aminoglycosides?

A

irreversibly to the 30s ribosomal subunit to inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Would you want to use an Aminoglycoside with a PCN?

A

Yes; they work synergistically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Aminoglycoside antibacterial spectrum?

A

Aerobic gram (-) bugs only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is Streptomycin specifically used for?

A

TB, plague, and tularemia

+ PCN or Vancomycin = strep viridans endocarditis

67
Q

How would you treat strep viridans endocarditis?

A

Streptomycin + PCN or Vancomycin

68
Q

What are some ways aerobic gram (-) bacteria become resistant to Aminoglycosides?

A
  1. decrease the uptake of the drug via an anaerobic environment
  2. altered binding site o 30S ribosome
  3. Plasmid mediated enzymes such as:
    Acetyl-
    Nucleotidyl-
    Phospho-
    -transferases
69
Q

Which Aminoglycosides are less susceptible to resistance?

A

Amikacin and Netilmicin

70
Q

Which 2 Aminoglycosides have the same metabolism so bacteria might also have similar resistance mechanisms against these 2 agents?

A

Gentamicin

Tobramycin

71
Q

In a patient currently taking an Aminoglycoside, where in the body would you find the highest concentration?

A

Renal cortex

Endolymph and perilymph of the inner ear

72
Q

Do Aminoglycosides cross the placenta?

A

Yes

73
Q

Why must you monitor the peak/trough plasma levels of Aminoglycosides?

A

Because of the ototoxicity that is often irreversible

74
Q

Besides ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, what are other adverse effects of the Aminoglycosides?

A

Acute neuromuscular blockade and apnea

75
Q

Why does the neuromuscular paralysis occur with Aminoglycosides?

A

Probably results from a decrease of Ach release
AND a
decrease in postsynaptic sensitivity to the transmitter

76
Q

A patient currently taking an aminoglycoside is experiencing neuromuscular paralysis. What should you administer to alleviate this?

A

Calcium glutinate

Neostigmine

77
Q

What are the uses of Gentamicin, Tobramycin?

A 
Serious gram (-) infections such as: 
Klebsiella 
Enterobacter 
Serratia 
Pseudomonas--add ticarcillin or another anti-psuedomonal ceph
78
Q

Which Aminoglycoside works well with resistant bacteria in hospitals?

A

Amikacin

79
Q

What other drugs should you avoid when prescribing Aminoglycosides?

A
  1. Nephrotoxic agents
  2. Neuromuscular blocking agents
  3. Ethacrinyic acid (potentiates the ototoxicity)
80
Q

If you are prescribing an Aminoglycoside and an Anti-pseudomonal PCN together, HOW should you do it?

A

Do not mix them together in the same injection–you will inactivate the Aminoglycoside

81
Q

What is the first alternative agent to a patient if there is a B-Lactam allergy?

A

Erythromycin

82
Q

What are the 4 types of Erythromycin and how are they administered?

A
  1. Erythromycin PO
  2. Erythromycin ethyl succinate PO
  3. Pediazole (erythromycin ethyl succinate + sulfsoxazole) PO
83
Q

What is Pediazole?

A

Oral

erythromycin ethyl succinate + sulfisoxazole

84
Q

What are the 4 Macrolides?

A
  1. Erythromycin
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Azithromycin
  4. Telithromycin
  5. Lincomycin
  6. Clindamycin
  7. Chloramphenicol
85
Q

How is Telithromycin given?

A

PO

86
Q

How is Azithromycin given?

A

PO/IV

87
Q

How is Clarithromycin

A

PO

88
Q

What is the MOA of the Macrolides?

A

Bind IRREVERSIBLY to the 50s ribosome

inhibiting the translocation steps of protein synthesis

89
Q

Are Macrolides static or cidal?

A

Generally Macrolides are static but at high doses, they are cidal

90
Q

For which Macrolides is the binding site very similar?

A

Lincomycin
Clindamycin
Chloramphenicol

91
Q

What is Erythromycin used for?

A

Similar to PCN G
Gram (+) cocci and bacilli
Mycoplasma, Legionella, and Chlamydia

92
Q

What is Erythromycin NOT active against?

A

Most aerobic gram (-) bacilli

93
Q

What is Clarithromycin used for?

A 
increased activity against intracellular pathogens 
active against:  
Chlamydia 
Legionella 
Ureaplasma 
H. Influenza
94
Q

What is Azithromycin used for?

A

More active against respiratory infections:
H. Influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis

95
Q

This expensive drug is the preferred therapy for Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis?

A

Azithromycin
1gm po single dose
Z-pack #6, 250 mg tabs

96
Q

Which bacteria is Azithromycin less active against?

A

Staph and strep

97
Q

What is the most common form of resistance bacteria have against Macrolides?

A

modification of their ribosome

98
Q

What is a form of resistance specific to erythromycin?

A

Plasmid -associated erythromycin esterase

99
Q

Which two Macrolides have cross resistance with each other?

A

Clarithromycin and Azithromycin

100
Q

Which 2 Macrolides are stable to stomach acid and are absorbed well?

A

Clarithromycin and Azithromycin

101
Q

Which Macrolide is destroyed by gastric acid and what is done to remedy this?

A

Erythromycin
it is enteric coated in tablet form
or there are esterified forms

102
Q

Why should you be careful when administering erythromycin IV?

A

Pt can develop thrombophlebitis

103
Q

Do Macrolides cross into the CSF?

A

No

104
Q

Where in the body do Macrolides concentrate?

A
  1. Prostatic fluid

2. accumulates in the liver macrophages

105
Q

Where specifically does Azithromycin concentrate in the body?

A

Neutrophils, macrophages, and fibroblasts

106
Q

Which Macrolide is extensively metabolized and interferes with CYT P450?

A

Erythromycin

107
Q

The oxidation of this Macrolide interferes with metabolism of theophylline and carbamazepine; what drug is it?

A

Clarithromycin

108
Q

Which Macrolide does not undergo metabolism?

A

Azithromycin

109
Q

How are Erythromycin and Azithromycin excreted?

A

In an active form in the bile

110
Q

How is Clarithromycin excreted?

A

It is eliminated by the kidney as well as the liver

111
Q

Which Macrolide should you adjust doses in a patient with compromised renal function?

A

Clarithromycin

112
Q

Which Macrolide gives the patient a Metallic taste?

A

Clarithromycin

113
Q

This adv effect causes poor compliance with the Macrolides–what effect?

A

Epigastric distress

114
Q

This Macrolide adv effect is more prominent in the estate form of erythromycin, but can be seen with all Macrolides. What effect?

A

Cholestatic jaundice

115
Q

How would you treat a patient with Cholestatic jaundice?

A

All sign will clear within a few days of stopping therapy

116
Q

Which Macrolide causes the “kiss of death” = prolonging QT interval?

A

Azithromycin

117
Q

Besides Azithromycin, what other drugs cause QT prolongation?

A

Fluoroquinolone’s

118
Q

Erythromycin and Clarithromycin inhibit the hepatic metabolism of what drugs?

A
  1. Theophylline
  2. Warfarin
  3. Terfenadine
  4. Astemizole
  5. Carbamezapine
  6. Cyclosporine
119
Q

Macrolide increase the reabsorption of what drug?

A

Digoxin

120
Q

What is the DOC for legionnaires disease?

A

Any Macrolide

121
Q

What is the DOC for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Any of the Macrolides

122
Q

T or F: You can give a Macrolide to treat Ureaplasma.

A

True

123
Q

What is an alternative treatment for Chlamydia inf?

A

Any Macrolide

124
Q

How would you treat Mycobacterium avid complex in AIDS?

A

With any Macrolide

125
Q

T or F: A Macrolide cannot be used as an alternative if the patient is allergic to PCN in order to treat:
Syphillis, pneumococci, etc.
Eliminate Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

False; Macrolides can be used

126
Q

What is Fidaxomicin?

A

An oral macrolide antibiotic

127
Q

What is Fidaxomicin used to treat?

A

C. dif associated diarrhea in patients older than 18 years old

128
Q

How is Fidaxomicin absorbed?

A

Not very well systemically

129
Q

How is Fidaxomicin classified?

A

As a Narrow spectrum antibiotic:
it has little or no activity against organisms the than clostridia, so it is nice because it preserves your natural gut flora

130
Q

Is Fidoxamin CIDAL or STATIC?

A

CIDAL

131
Q

Why is vancomycin still preferred over Fidaxamicin to treat C. dif?

A

Because Fidaxomicin is very expensive

132
Q

How is Chloramphenicol administered?

A

PO/IV

133
Q

How is Clindamycin administered?

A

PO/IV

134
Q

When would you use Chloramphenicol?

A

Its use is restricted to life threatening infections where nothing else works
do periodic blood tests

135
Q

What is Chloramphenicol active against?

A

A wide range of Gram (+) and Gram (-)
Rickettsia
Chlamydia

136
Q

What is one of the most active antimicrobials against anaerobes?

A

Chloramphenicol

137
Q

Is Chloramphenicol Cidal or Static?

A

Depends on the bug

138
Q

What is the MOA of Chloramphenicol?

A

Acts primarily by binding the 50s ribosomal subunit and prevents peptide bond formation

139
Q

Which drug also inhibits mitochondrial protein synthesis in mammalians?

A

Chloramphenicol

140
Q

Does Chloramphenicol get into the brain?

A

Yes

141
Q

What is Chloramphenicol converted to in the liver of newborns and preemies?

A

Glucuronide

They have decreased levels of glucuronyl transferase

142
Q

Which agent will cause Grey baby syndrome?
Deceased metabolism and excretion of drug
baby has poor feeding,
depressed breathing,
cardiovascular collapse,
cyanosis, and death

A

Chloramphenicol

143
Q

What are some adverse effects of Chloramphenicol?

A
  1. Bone marrow suppression (aplastic anemia)
  2. Grey baby syndrome
  3. GI disturbances
  4. Superinfections (overgrowth of Candida)
  5. Inhibits some hepatic mixed function oxidases and thus metabolism of some drugs
144
Q

Which adverse effect of Chloramphenicol is reversible?

A

Aplastic anemia (bone marrow suppression)

145
Q

Which drugs should you avoid taking with Chloramphenicol?

A
  1. Warfarin
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Tolbutamide Orinase
146
Q

Is Clindamycin STATIC or CIDAL?

A

STATIC

147
Q

What is the MOA of Clindamycin?

A

binds to the 50s subunit

148
Q

What is Clindamycin used to treat?

A

Primarily ANAEROBIC inf,
esp. Bacteriodes fragilis (abdominal inf caused by trauma)

It is also active against non-enterococcal gram (-) cocci
very toxic–only use if this will work better than other agents

149
Q

How is Clindamycin absorbed?

A

Absorbed well orally

150
Q

Does Clindamycin get into the CSF?

A

No

151
Q

What are some common adverse effects of Clindamycin?

A

Skin rashes
Diarrhea
Potentially fatal PMC (pseudomembranous colitis)–caused by a toxin secreted by clindamycin resistant strains of C. dif

152
Q

What is potentially fatal PMC?
What causes it?
How do you treat it?

A

(pseudomembranous colitis)–caused by a toxin secreted by clindamycin resistant strains of C. dif

Treat with Metronidazole or Vancomycin

153
Q

What is the MOA of Quinupristin/Dalforpristin?

A

Binds to 50S

154
Q

Is Quinupristin/Dalforpristin CIDAL or STATIC?

A

CIDAL

155
Q

What do you treat with Quinupristin/Dalforpristin?

A

Resistant Gram (+) bugs, like MRSA, VRE (bacteriostatic)

156
Q

How do you administer Quinupristin/Dalforpristin?

A

IV/IM

157
Q

What are some adverse effects of Quinupristin/Dalforpristin?

A
  1. Venous irritation (give through central line vs a venous line)
  2. Arthralgia/Myalgia
  3. Hyperbilirubinemia
  4. Inhibits CYT 3A4
158
Q

What is the MOA of Linezolid?

A

Binds to 50s

159
Q

What is Linezolid used to treat?

A

Resistant Gram (+) bacteria
reserved for:
MRSA, VRSA, VRE, PCN-resis, -strept

160
Q

What is Linezolid NOT used for?

A

MRSA Bacteremia

161
Q

Is Linezolid CIDAL or STATIC?

A

Both

162
Q

How do you administer Linezolid?

A

orally

163
Q

What are some adverse effects of Linezolid?

A
  1. Reversible thrombocytopenia

2. Inhibit MAO?

Pharm Exam 4 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions