Prosthetic Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Name the purpose of the axilla loop in a figure 8 harness.

A

Acts as an anchor.

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2
Q

What type of harness would you use on a patient with a mid-length transradial amputation using a conventional prosthesis?

  • Figure 9
  • Figure 8
  • Figure 8 with shoulder saddle
  • Figure 10
A

Figure 9

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3
Q

Name the indications for using a strap, cuff, or belt for suspension of a transtibial prosthesis

A

volume fluctuations expected

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4
Q

Name the advantages for using a strap, cuff, or belt for suspension of a transtibial prosthesis

A

Amputee adjustable

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5
Q

Name the disadvantages for using a strap, cuff, or belt for suspension of a transtibial prosthesis

A

Increased pistoning, decreased comfort, decreased range of motion

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6
Q

Name the disadvantages for using a joint and corset for suspension of a transtibial prosthesis

A

Increased pistoning, heavy and bulky, hard to don

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7
Q

Name the advantages for using a joint and corset for suspension of a transtibial prosthesis

A

Maximal ML stability

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8
Q

Name the indications for using a joint and corset for suspension of a transtibial prosthesis

A

Severe knee instability and/or short residual limbs

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9
Q

Name the advantages for using a total surface bearing style prosthesis

A
  • Equal loading of all surfaces of the limb
  • Increased durability of liners (less thinning of liners)
  • Easier mods/casting technique
  • Increased stability of internal tissues
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10
Q

Name the disadvantages for using a total surface bearing style prosthesis

A
  • Volume changes may result in a change of loading
  • Must be used with gel liners
  • Cannot use load specific mods
  • Some loss of rotational control
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11
Q

Modifications for a Total Surface Bearing (TSB) style prosthesis

A
  • 5-10% reduction on 6mm liner
  • Relief for fibular head and distal anterior tibia if limb is boney
  • Global reduction over entirety of limb
  • No PTB bar
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12
Q

Name the advantages for using a patellar tendon bearing style prosthesis

A
  • Perspiration will not corrode socket
  • Less bulky at knee than with insert
  • Contours in socket don’t compress or pack down
  • Reliefs or modifications are exactly located
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13
Q

Name the disadvantages for using a Patellar tendon bearing style prosthesis

A
  • Requires casting and modification skill
  • Difficult to fit bony or sensitive limbs
  • Not easily modified
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14
Q

Name the modifications and purpose of the anterior wall of a PTB socket

A
  • Proximal Trimline is distal 1/2 of the patella
  • Patellar tendon bar
  • Can load areas such as the pre-tibial area for increased rotational control and offloading of the anterior tibia
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15
Q

Name the modifications and purpose of the posterior wall of a PTB socket

A
  • Must be no lower than MTP height

- Keeps residuum against the PTB bar.

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16
Q

Name the modifications and purpose of the medial and lateral walls of a PTB socket

A
  • Proximal trim is 65 mm proximal to the MTP
  • Medial: must load medial flare area
  • Lateral: Relief for fib head, supports fib shaft, counterpressure to medial wall.
  • Controls rotation, contains soft tissue, provides ML stability
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17
Q
Build ups for PTB sockets
Tibial crest: 
Lateral Tibial Flare:
Fibular Head:
Distal Fibula:
Distal End of Tibia:
A
Build ups for PTB sockets
Tibial crest: 2mm
Lateral Tibial Flare: 2mm
Fibular Head: 3mm
Distal Fibula: 2mm
Distal End of Tibia: 4+mm
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18
Q

Recommended users for liners

A
  • Peripheral vascular disease
  • Thin, sensitive, scarred, boney skin
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Bilateral
  • Active patients
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19
Q

Advantages of p-lite or silicone liners

A
  • Soft, protective interface
  • Appropriate for most limbs
  • Distraction of liner may assist circulation
  • Easily modified
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20
Q

Disadvantages of p-lite or silicone liners

A
  • Deterioration of materials
  • Unsanitary if not cleaned regularly
  • Increased Knee bulk
  • May compress/change fit
  • Increased weight
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21
Q

Advantages to distal end pads

A
  • May aid in venous and lymphatic return
  • Provide increased comfort
  • Protect distal end volume
  • Facilitate future mods
  • Usually standard in all prostheses
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22
Q

PTB-SCSP Indications

A
  • Very short limbs
  • Ligament laxity
  • Patients needing ML stability
  • Patients who hyperextend
  • Previous wearers
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23
Q

PTB-SCSP Advantages

A
  • Increased weight bearing surface
  • Provides rigid hyperextension stop
  • Increased ML stability
  • Improved cosmesis
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24
Q

PTB-SCSP Disadvantages

A
  • Mods over patella and condyles must be precise
  • Uncomfortable while kneeling
  • Difficult to achieve suspension on obese or muscular thighs
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25
Q

Suspension Sleeve Advantages

A
  • Good suspension
  • Hides trimlines
  • Minimizes pistoning
  • Good auxiliary suspension
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26
Q

Suspension Sleeve disadvantages

A
  • Provides no knee stability
  • Difficult to don w/o strong finger function
  • Perspiration
  • Wears out easily/holes
  • May restrict ROM
  • Contraindicated for vascular patients
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27
Q

Elevated vacuum indications

A
  • Sensitive, scarred or bony limbs
  • Patients experiencing internal migration and movement
  • High activity patient
  • Improve circulation
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28
Q

Elevated vacuum advantages

A
  • Stabilization of limb volume
  • Liner material that flows over high pressure areas
  • Greater coupling and proprioception of prosthesis
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29
Q

Elevated vacuum disadvantages

A
  • Increased componentry and length for vacuum

- Requires patient compliance and monitoring

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30
Q

An inset foot will cause what moment at the knee and where will the forces be felt within the prosthesis?

A
  • An increased varus moment at the knee

- Forces will be coupled at the medial proximal and distal lateral.

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31
Q

An outset foot will cause what moment at the knee and where will the forces be felt within the prosthesis?

A
  • An increased valgus moment at the knee

- Forces will be coupled at the lateral proximal and distal medial.

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32
Q

A posteriorly positioned foot/anteriorly shifted socket will cause what moment at the knee and where will the forces be felt within the prosthesis?

A
  • An increased flexion moment at the knee

- Forces will be coupled at the posterior proximal and distal anterior.

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33
Q

A anteriorly positioned foot/posteriorly shifted socket will cause what moment at the knee and where will the forces be felt within the prosthesis?

A
  • An increased extension moment at the knee

- Forces will be coupled at the anterior proximal and distal posterior.

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34
Q
Standard bench alignment includes:
\_\_\_ degrees of flexion
\_\_\_ degrees of adduction
Foot inset to \_\_\_
and Foot posterior \_\_\_
A

5-7 degrees of flexion
5 degrees of adduction
Foot inset to 1/2 inch
and Foot posterior 1-1.5 inches

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35
Q

What are the benefits of a varus moment

A
  • Energy efficient gait
  • Minimize center of gravity
  • Narrow base of support
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36
Q

Why is it advantageous to pre-flex a transtibial socket?

A
  • Prevent knee hyperextension
  • Load anterior panel
  • Match natural gait knee flexion during loading response
  • Creates smooth rollover
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37
Q

List four malalignments that may cause distal anterior pain in a TT patient

A
  • Foot is too posterior
  • Foot too dorsiflexed (socket too flexed)
  • Heel too firm
  • Socket relief inadequate
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38
Q

List four malalignments that may cause knee hyperextension during midstance in a TT patient

A
  • Foot is too anterior
  • Foot too plantar-flexed
  • Socket too extended
  • Heel too soft
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39
Q

List three malalignments that may cause lateral trunk bending in a TT patient

A
  • Foot too outset
  • Prosthesis too long or short
  • Pain in residual limb
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40
Q

List two malalignments that may cause a lateral thrust or lateral gaping in a TT patient

A
  • Foot is too inset

- Socket ML it too large

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41
Q

List two malalignments that may cause a medial leaning pylon in a TT patient

A
  • Foot is too outset

- Socket is adducted

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42
Q

List two malalignments that may cause a lateral leaning pylon in a TT patient

A
  • Foot is too inset

- Socket is abducted

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43
Q

List three malalignments that may cause a drop-off sensation in a TT patient

A
  • Foot too posterior
  • Foot too dorsiflexed
  • Keel too short
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44
Q

List four malalignments that may cause a rapid knee flexion in a TT patient

A
  • Foot too posterior
  • Foot too dorsiflexed
  • Heel too firm
  • Weak quads
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45
Q

List four malalignments that may cause an early heel rise in a TT patient

A
  • Foot too anterior
  • Insufficient socket flexion
  • Heel too soft
  • Foot too plantar-flexed
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46
Q

Where does the weight bearing take place in a quad socket?

A

Ischial-gluteal weight bearing

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47
Q

What shape is a quad socket?

A

Rectangular

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48
Q

Does a quad socket have a narrow AP or narrow ML?

A

Narrow AP,

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49
Q

What reliefs are built into a quad socket?

A

Rectus Femoris and adductor relief.

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50
Q

What is a disadvantage of a quad socket?

A

Lack of medial proximal stabilization.

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51
Q

List three Indications for a quad socket

A
  • Previous user
  • Prosthetist preference
  • Funding considerations
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52
Q

What are three functions of the medial wall of a AK socket?

A
  • Provide even pressure, with relief of hamstring and adductor longus tendons, along adductors muscles to increase control in adduction
  • Contain all medial tissues to prevent adductor roll
  • Medial wall represents the line of progression
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53
Q

Three causes of crotch pressure or burning include:

A
  • AP is too large, ischium is slipping off and ramus is absorbing the pressure.
  • The socket is too small causing adductor roll
  • To small of an ML pushes led medially and crowds ischium.
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54
Q

What are two indications for using a locking liner?

A
  • To accommodate small volume fluctuations

- Patient preference for “secure” suspension

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55
Q

Secure suspension is a characteristic advantage of what suspension type?

A

Locking liner suspension

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56
Q

What is a disadvantage to using a locking liner for suspension?

A

Rotation may occur.

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57
Q

A lanyard style suspension adds what benefit to above knee suspension?

A

Rotational control along with ease of donning.

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58
Q

True or false: A lanyard style suspension would not be appropriate for highly active users?

A

True

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59
Q

True or false: Above knee anatomical suspension is appropriate for patients with knee disarticulation and/or malformations?

A

True

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60
Q

Advantages of anatomical suspension include:

A
  • Rotational control

- Distal end bearing is possible

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61
Q

A patient with a transfemoral amputation presents with a high amount of volume fluctuations throughout the day as well as rotation in his above knee prosthesis. What type of suspension would be best to address these issues?

A

Silesian belt for rotational control.

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62
Q

What disadvantages could an AK patient expect to experience with strap/belt suspension in an AK prosthesis?

A
  • Increased pistoning
  • Decreased comfort
  • Decreased range of motion.
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63
Q

A patient with a transfemoral amputation presents with severe hip instability as well as a short residuum. What type of suspension would be best to address these issues?

A

Hip joint and belt

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64
Q

What AK suspension method offers the best ML stability?

A

Hip joint and pelvic band

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65
Q

What are three disadvantages to hip joint and belt suspension in an above knee prosthesis?

A
  • Heavy and bulky
  • Hard to don
  • Increased pistoning
66
Q

List two advantages to an ischial containment socket.

A
  • Enhanced biomechanical stability

- Increased comfort

67
Q

List the disadvantages to an ischial containment socket.

A

More difficult to design

Expensive

68
Q

Four indications for a ischial containment socket.

A
  • Prosthetist preference
  • Patient preference
  • More active or young individuals
  • Good funding.
69
Q

True or False: The quad socket provides superior femoral adduction control than that of an ischial containment socket?

A

False. An IC socket restores normal femoral adduction angle.

70
Q

Mods for an IC socket require that the posterior lateral corner (or wallet hollow) be at what angle to the line of progression?

A

30-45 degrees

71
Q

What is the purpose of the posterior lateral corner (wallet hollow)?

A

Stabilize the femur at heel strike: prevent external rotation from heel strike to midstance.

72
Q

The deepest point of the scarpus triangle should be how many millimeters from the medial wall?

A

25mm

73
Q

AP measurement for an IC socket are measured from where to where?

A

Medial adductor longus to ischium.

74
Q

The posterior medial corner of an IC socket is set at what line angle compared to the line of progression?

A

15-25 degrees. Should capture the angle of the pubic ramus. Females tend do have a higher angle.

75
Q

What anatomical landmarks represent the TKA and what is the TKA used to determin?

A
  • Trochanter, knee, ankle
  • Determines knee stability
  • Used for guidance during bench alignment
76
Q

A TKA that is posterior to the knee may cause what in the knee?

A
  • Knee flexion moment

- Instability at knee

77
Q

A TKA that is anterior to the knee may cause what in the knee?

A
  • A knee extension moment

- Inherent knee stability

78
Q

AK bench alignment: TKA should be positioned where?

A

Through or anterior to the prosthetic knee center

79
Q

AK bench alignment: Socket should be in what alignment in the sagittal plane?

A

5 degrees of flexion. If a hip contracture is present, must accommodate for the contracture + 5 degrees.

80
Q

AK bench alignment: In the transverse plane, where should the knee be located?

A

Externally rotated by 5 degrees.

81
Q

AK bench alignment: In the transverse plane, where should the foot be located?

A

Externally rotated by 7 degrees.

82
Q

What effect does pre-flexing the socket have on the lumbar spine?

A

Preflexion prevents increased lumbar lordosis and facilitates normal step length.

83
Q

What effect does pre-flexing on the hip extensors?

A

Preflexion puts the hip extensors on stretch which increases control of the prosthesis during ambulation.

84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In bench alignment the foot is aligned with the ischium, this creates a valgus moment about the ischium.

A

False. It creates a varus moment about the ischium increasing inherent stability within the socket due to the ischium making contact with the ischial seat.

85
Q

A foot that is aligned under the ischium has what effect on the abductors of the hip?

A

Puts tension on the abductors increasing stabilization to the pelvis.

The lateral wall of the socket provides a counterforce and restores a natural femoral adduction angle.

86
Q

What are four causes of knee instability at initial contact for an AKA.

A
  • TKA is posterior to the knee
  • Heel is too firm
  • Insufficient socket flexion
  • Weak hip extensors
87
Q

What are four causes of a shortened step length on the prosthetic side at initial contact for an AKA.

A
  • Knee instability due to TKA
  • Knee friction is too low
  • Femur pain
  • Mistrust of prosthesis
88
Q

What causes foot slap for an AKA?

A
  • Plantar flexion bumper is absent or too soft
89
Q

What are five causes for external rotation at initial contact in an AKA?

A
  • Heel too firm
  • Excessive toe out
  • Subischial triangle angle is too tight.
  • Poor muscle control
  • Socket tension too loose
90
Q

What are some causes of an abducted gait in an AKA? (7 listed)

A
  • Medial brim pain
  • Socket is abducted
  • Femur pain
  • Prosthesis is too large
  • Poor suspension
  • Habit
  • Prosthesis too long
91
Q

What are some causes that may lead to a lateral trunk bend during ambulation in an AKA? (8 listed)

A
  • Prosthesis is too short
  • ML is too big
  • Abductor weakness (trendelenburg)
  • Insufficient socket adduction
  • Short residual limb
  • Foot is too outset
  • Abductor contracture
  • Lack of counterforce
92
Q

You notice your transfemoral patient is ambulating with hyperlordosis. What are some causes the may lead to excessive lordosis?

A
  • Insufficient socket flexion
  • Short residual limb
  • Ischial pain
  • Hip/core weakness
93
Q

A medial whip is caused by what malalignment?

A

Knee is too externally rotated.

94
Q

A lateral whip is caused by what malalignment?

A

Knee is too internally rotated.

95
Q

Causes of a “whip” in an above knee amputee.

A
  • Poor muscular control
  • Knee either too internally or externally rotated.
  • Improperly donned
96
Q

Pistoning in a prosthesis is caused by…

A
  • Poor suspension
  • A socket that is too large
  • Improper sock ply
97
Q

Delayed heel rise in an above knee amputee may be caused by what two knee characteristics?

A
  • Knee is too stable (too posterior to the TKA)

- Knee friction is too high

98
Q

Excessive heel rise in an above knee amputee may be caused by what two knee characteristics?

A
  • Knee friction is too low

- Extension aid is too low.

99
Q

What are some causes that my lead to a circumduction during swing phase in an AKA? (9 listed)

A
  • Medial brim pain
  • Socket is abducted
  • Friction is too high
  • Insufficient knee bend (extension aid may be too high)
  • Prosthesis is too large
  • Poor suspension
  • Habit
  • Prosthesis too long
  • Hip flexor weakness
100
Q

5 reasons you may observe vaulting.

A
  • Prosthesis is too long
  • Friction is too high
  • Extension aid is too high
  • Habit
  • Poor suspension
101
Q

Terminal impact can occur due to… (3 listed)

A
  • Insufficient knee friction
  • Too strong of an extension aid
  • Habit
102
Q

A long prosthetic step may be caused by what malalignment?

A

Insufficient socket flexion

103
Q

A trendelenburg gait in an AKA can have several causes. List 6 of them.

A
  • Abductor weakness on the stance side
  • A ML that is too large
  • Poor ischial containment
  • Insufficient socket adduction
  • Hip pathology
  • Short residual limb
104
Q

List four advantages of a Symes amputation as compared to a more proximal amputation.

A
  • Potential for full weight bearing.
  • Prosthesis is self-suspending
  • Minimal disturbance to growth in children
  • Natural gait pattern
105
Q

List four disadvantages

A
  • Can be difficult healing
  • Limited in build height
  • Bulbous end can limit cosmesis
106
Q

List three socket designs for a Symes.

A
  • Push in with soft insert
  • Bivalved with posterior door
  • Medial door
107
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of medial door style Symes prosthesis.

A

Advantage: Ease of donning, lighter, reduced forces around window during end bearing.
Disadvantages: Hole in outer shell, may limit structural integrity.

108
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of Bivalve, posterior door style Symes prosthesis.

A

Advantage: Ease of donning
Disadvantages: Structurally weak, forces around opening are increased when end bearing is allowed.

109
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of push in style Symes prosthesis.

A

Advantage: Easy to don, no hole in outer shell of socket.
Disadvantages: Heavier, hard to adjust.

110
Q

True or False: Tibial bowing is common with a Symes amputation. Oftentimes the foot must be positioned at the lateral part of the distal end to accommodate the deformity.

A

True. A lateral set foot will allow the patient to achieve foot flat during midstance and allow a slight varus moment at the knee.

111
Q

What modification can be made to a transhumeral prosthesis to reduce pressure on the thoracic wall?

A

Medial side flattening

112
Q

A transhumeral prosthesis for a short residual limb should have what proximal trimlines?

A
  • Posterior trimline should extend 25 mm medial to the lateral border of the scapula.
  • Anterior trimline should encompass the delto-pectoral groove
  • Lateral trimline extends up to the acromion and AC joint.
113
Q

True or False: An elbow disarticulation prosthesis should not “purchase” on the epicondyles as it will cause nerve impingement.

A

False: Allowing purchase of the epicondyles can aid in humeral rotation.

114
Q

In a hip disarticulation prosthesis, the hip joint lies (BLANK) to the trochanter

  • Anterior and superior
  • Posterior and superior
  • Anterior only
  • Posterior only
A

Anterior and superior

115
Q

Name the purpose of the anterior support strap on a figure 8 harness.

A

Axillary suspensor, elbow lock control.

116
Q

Name the purpose of the control attachment strap on a figure 8 harness.

A

Terminal device (TD) operation.

117
Q

Name the proper location of the cross point ring on a figure 8 harness.

A

Inferior to C7 and towards sound side.

118
Q

Name the purpose of the lateral support strap on a figure 8 harness.

A

Main suspensor, prevents socket rotation.

119
Q

Name the purpose of the cross back strap on a figure 8 harness.

A

Keeps control attachment strap low to increase excursion.

120
Q

A muenster type socket is for what type of residuum?

A

A short transradial

121
Q

The best socket type of a medium transradial patient would be a

A

Northwestern style

122
Q

A floating brim style of transradial prosthesis is for what limb length and allows what unique motions

A

Long transradial or wrist disarticulation and it allows for pronation/supination.

123
Q

What muscles are the primary movers for elbow flexion in a body powered forequarter prosthesis?

A

Latissimus dorsi contraction and scapular abduction on the contralateral side.

124
Q

What muscles are the primary movers for terminal device control in a body powered forequarter prosthesis?

A

Latissimus dorsi contraction and scapular abduction on the contralateral side.

125
Q

What mechanism is used to control elbow lock in a body powered forequarter prosthesis?

A

Nudge control

126
Q

What muscles are the primary movers for terminal device and elbow flexion control in a body powered shoulder disarticulation prosthesis?

A

Biscapular abduction and lats

127
Q

What muscles are the primary movers for terminal device control in a body powered transhumeral prosthesis?

A

Biscapular abduction and glenohumeral flexion

128
Q

What mechanism is used to control elbow lock in a body powered shoulder disarticulation prosthesis?

A

Scapular elevation on amputated side

129
Q

What mechanism is used to control elbow lock in a body powered shoulder transhumeral prosthesis?

A

Shoulder depression and abduction and extension.

130
Q

What muscles are the primary movers for terminal device control in a body powered transradial prosthesis?

A

Biscapular abduction and glenohumeral flexion.

131
Q

True or False: One benefit of a chest strap on a transradial harness is it can reduce axilla pressure.

A

True. However, while indicated for heavy users, overall a chest strap can reduce comfort and cosmesis as well as decrease excursion.

132
Q

What are some benefits to using a dual ring in harnessing for an upper extremity prosthesis?

A
  • Prevent proximal migration
  • Increase excursion (keeps CAS low)
  • Kyphosis
  • Good for use with short residual limbs.
133
Q

An individual presenting with kyphosis and difficulty gaining enough excursion in their transradial prosthesis would benefit from what harnessing alternative?

A

Dual ring

134
Q

A crossback strap enables what?

A

Increased excursion by keeping the CAS low.

135
Q

True or False: A ring crosspoint has better excursion than that of a sewn crosspoint.

A

False. The sewn crosspoint when done correctly allows the harnessing system to be more responsive to body movements. Thus increasing excursion.

136
Q

What is is the minimum cable efficiency?

A

70%

137
Q

How do you calculate minimum cable efficiency?

A

(Force @ hanger) x (efficiency) = force needed to open TD

138
Q

In TD nomenclature, what does the A stand for?

A

Aluminum

139
Q

In TD nomenclature, what does SS stand for?

A

Stainless steal

140
Q

In TD nomenclature, what does the P stand for?

A

Plastisol

141
Q

In TD nomenclature, what does the X stand for?

A

Neoprene lining

142
Q

In TD nomenclature, what does LO stand for?

A

Large opening

143
Q

List two benefits of a TD with canted fingers.

A
  • Better sight lines

- Easier to pick up small objects

144
Q

List a benefit of a TD with lyre fingers.

A
  • Straight approach with larger opening allows for cylindrical objects
145
Q

A CAPP terminal device is usually indicated for which population?

A

Children

146
Q

Benefits of the CAPP terminal device (4 listed)

A
  • Wide grip
  • Safe
  • Lightweight
  • Spring loaded
147
Q

What motions at the shoulder are used to lock the elbow on a transhumeral prosthesis??

A

Depression, extension, abduction

148
Q

Which transradial socket is known for its self-suspension via AP compression and no ML suspension?

A

Muenster style TR socket

149
Q

Two disadvantages of the muenster style socket are…

A
  • User will not be able to achieve greater than 70 degrees of flexion.
  • Restricts supination/pronation
  • Pull sock needed
150
Q

Which transradial socket design incorporates a muscle belly suspension and a dynamic impression method?

A

Ottobock (european) design

151
Q

Which transradial socket design is best for very short transradial amputations?

A

Muenster

152
Q

What is the minimum pinch force required in a TD to perform ADLs?

A

3 lbs

153
Q

What number indicates a Hosmer TD sized for adults?

A

5

154
Q

A size 8 Hosmer TD is most commonly used for what population?

A

Women.

155
Q

A patient presents with a very short transradial amputation. What would be the best terminal device to accomodate the decreased force the patient will be able to generate?

A

5xA (adult size, nitrile coating, aluminum)

156
Q

What is the difference between the Hosmer 6 and the Hosmer 7 TD?

A

Both are work hooks, but the Hosmer 6 has a back lock so that it will not open until actuated.

157
Q

True or False: A bilateral upper extremity amputee should be fit with the same TD on both sides to ensure consistency and ease of learning to utilize the prostheses.

A

False. Most commonly the patient should be fit with different hooks to increase their work envelope. For instance, one canted, one lyre shape to be able to pick up a wider variety of objects.

158
Q

Which TD is a voluntary closing TD with automatic lock and a manual unlock?

A

APRL

159
Q

A bilateral UEA patient would benefit most from which style wrists?

A

At least one flexion wrist component to ensure flexion to midline.

160
Q

True or False: A very short TRA would benefit from a wrist flexion unit in order to ensure TD to midline.

A

False. A wrist flexion unit is very heavy and will be incredibly difficult for a VSTRA to control due to the short lever arm. This terminal device is best for strong, mid to long transradials.

161
Q

Indication for polycentric hinges on a transradial prosthesis

A

Increases flexion when there is cubital bunching.