Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oncology > Prostate Cancer > Flashcards

Prostate Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What is the median age of prostate cancer diagnosis?

A

72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in men?

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prostate cancer is the ______ leading cause of death in men

A

2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is true about number of cases vs. number of deaths of prostate cancer?

A

number of cases outweighs number of deaths; high survival rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the cause of prostate cancer?

A

Hormonal (increased testosterone increases risk of prostate cancer)
Genetic (family hx, gene mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are risk factors for prostate cancer?

A

Older age
Race (AA > white> asaian)
First degree relative
BPH
Increased testosterone exposure (supplementation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a possible risk factor for prostate cancer?

A

high fat diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What factors are not associated with prostate cancer?

A

Smoking
Alcohol
Occupation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can be used to prevent prostate cancer?

A

No strong data for preventative measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What was found in studies that used Finasteride to prevent prostate cancer?

A
  1. reduced prevalence by 24%
  2. those who did get prostate cancer had a more aggressive form when taking Finasteride
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can prostate cancer be screened?

A

Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
Transrectal ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the pros of a Digital Rectal Exam?

A

Specificity >85%, low cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the cons of Digital Rectal Exam?

A

poor compliance, relatively insensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What Prostate Specific Antigen value indicates increased risk of prostate cancer or BPH?

A

> 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When would a transrectal ultrasonography be indicated?

A

when DRE or PSA come back abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What PSA value would indicate progression of prostate cancer or BPH?

A

PSA doubling time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When would annual screening be appropriate?

A

men > 50 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would screening not be appropriate anymore?

A

life expectancy < 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When would screening start at 45 years old?

A

African American
Family History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What stage of PC is asymptomatic?

A

early stage localized disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When would someone start to experience alterations in urination and impotence?

A

locally invasive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What symptoms would indicate advanced metastatic disease?

A

Lower extremity edema
Hematuria/ blood in semen
Bone pain (back/leg) or fractures
Anemia
Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the most common metastatic sites of PC?

A

Bone (80%)
Lung
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the “T” stand for when staging?

A

size of tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the “N” stand for when staging?

A

invades lymph nodes in the pelvis

26
Q

What does the “M” stand for when staging?

A

metastasis

27
Q

What is the Gleason score based on?

A

biopsy of both sides of the prostate

28
Q

How is the Gleason score calculated?

A

(1-5) on one side + (1-5) on the other side

29
Q

What does a Gleason grade of 1 indicate?

A

that side of the cancerous prostate closely resembles the normal prostate

29
Q

What does a Gleason grade of 5 indicate?

A

that side of the cancerous prostate does NOT resemble normal prostate

30
Q

What type of PC is curable?

A

localized disease (T1 and T2)

31
Q

What type of PC is palliative?

A

advanced disease/ metastasis

32
Q

What are treatment options for stage 1 or 2?

A

Active surveillance
Radical prostatectomy (RP)
Radiation therapy (RT)

33
Q

When is active surveillance a good option?

A

< 10 years life expectancy
Low grade disease
Cancer is benign and indolent

34
Q

What is monitored during active surveillance?

A

PSA, DRE, and symptoms

35
Q

Although radical prostatectomy is highly curative, what are the complications associated?

A

Early mortality
Bladder contracture
Incontinence
Impotence

36
Q

What are the complications with radiation?

A

Impotence
Rectal/ bladder symptoms

37
Q

What are treatment options for locally advanced disease (stage 3)?

A

Radiation +/- ADT
ADT

38
Q

What are 1st line pharmacotherapies for PC?

A

Androgen ablation (orchiectomy; LHRH agonists)
Combined Androgen Blockade (LHRH agonist + anti androgen)

39
Q

What is the MOA of LHRH agonists?

A
  1. surge of LHRH increases LH and ACTH production
  2. negative feedback loop eventually shuts down LH and ACTH production
40
Q

What is given for 7 days to suppress LH/ACTH flare?

A

antiandrogen

41
Q

What are the adverse events of androgen ablation?

A

Hot flashes
Erectile impotence
Decreased libido
Metabolic complications
Cardiovascular Disease
Osteoporosis

42
Q

What is the MOA of antiandrogens?

A

inhibits androgen uptake/ binding of androgens in target tissues

43
Q

What is considered hormone refractory?

A

serum testosterone < 50 ng/dL and disease progression

44
Q

What anti-androgen combination treatment is indicated for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC)?

A

Abiraterone + Prednisone

45
Q

What is the MOA of Abiraterone?

A
  1. Selectively and irreversibly inhibits CYP17, enzyme is required for androgen biosynthesis expressed in testicular, adrenal, and prostate tumor tissues
  2. inhibits the formation of testosterone precursors DHEA and androstenedione
46
Q

What are adverse events with Abiraterone?

A

Fluid retention
Edema
Hypokalemia
LFT elevation

47
Q

What is the MOA if androgen receptor inhibitor?

A

acts on multiple steps of the androgen receptor signaling pathway within the tumor cell
1. inhibits androgen from binding to receptor
2. inhibits androgen receptor from entering the cell nucleus
3. inhibits androgen receptor binding to DNA

48
Q

What is a pro of using androgen receptor inhibitors?

A

DO NOT need concurrent prednisone

49
Q

What are side effects of androgen recptor inhibitors?

A

Muscle aches
Fatigue
HTN
Possible incidence of seizures

50
Q

What drug class would you not use for history of seizures?

A

Androgen receptor inhibitors

51
Q

What chemotherapy is used for PC?

A

Docetaxel

52
Q

What is the MOA of Docetaxel?

A

inhibits depolymerization of tubulin, stabilizing microtubules in cells, and inhibiting mitosis

53
Q

What are adverse reactions with Docetaxel?

A

Neuropathy
Alopecia
Myelosuppression
Hypersensitivity reactions

54
Q

What are treatments of metastatic disease (stage 4)?

A

1st line: ADT
2nd line: secondary hormonal therapy
3rd line: chemotherapy

55
Q

What drugs prevent skeletal-related problems?

A

Zoledronic Acid
Denosumab

56
Q

What is the MOA of Zolendronic Acid?

A

inhibits osteoclast function

57
Q

What is the MOA of Denosumab?

A

RANK ligand inhibitor; inhibits both the production and function of osteoclast

58
Q

What are adverse events with Zolendronic Acid?

A

Renal insufficiency
Hypocalcemia
Osteonecrosis of the jaw

59
Q

What are adverse events with Denosumab?

A

Hypocalcemia
Osteonecrosis of the jaw

60
Q

When is an agent for preventing skeletal-related complications given?

A

All patients who receive ADT or who have metastatic disease

Oncology (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions