Property Relations (3/3 MT) Flashcards
ACP, Co-Ownership, CPG
Property relations shall be governed in the ff; order
- marriage settlments executed BEFORE the marriage
- provisions of this Code (FC)
- Local Customs
kinds of property regimes in marriage
- ACP
- CPG
- CSP
- any other regime mixed up of cmobingation of those above.
- special or limited co-ownership
how to prejudice/bind 3rd parties w/ the MS?
the MS must be registered in the LCR [and] RoP where the MContract is recorded
Franz marries Jessa and obtains a personal loan without consent from Jessa and used the money for gambling and did not benefit the family.
[a]
loan obligation fell due. can Creditor go after the property regime of the marriage between franz and jessa?
[b]
what if the personal loan benefited the family?
No, it can only be satisfied by the personal/separate property of Franz
[b]
then it is chargeable to the common fund.
Franz and Jessa got married, and they signed a MS stipulating that Franz’s condo unit will remain his exclusive property
During the marriage, Franz took out a PERSONAL PERSONAL loan and it fell due and his condo unit was not enough to satisfy the debt
Can the creditors validly go after the common funds of franz & jessa?
Yes, while the registration of the MS prejudices 3rd parties, the C may validly go after the common fund for advances subject to reimbursement in case the debtor-spouse insufficient property to satisfy the his personal obligation
Art 80
If there is no contrary stipulation in the MS,
property relations of spouses shall be governed by Phil law [regardless of the place of celebration of the marriage] & their residence except:
- where both spouses are aliens (nationality theory)
- A couple from Japan marries in the Philippines but lives in Japan. Their property relations would be governed by Japanese law.
- w/ respect to extrinsic validity of contracts NOT situated in PHil [and] executed in country where property located (
- contract executed abroad relating to property outside phil
- If a Filipino couple enters into a contract regarding property in the U.S., the U.S. law will govern the formal requirements of that contract (like signing, notarization, etc.).
- w/ respect to extrinsic validity of contracts entered into in the Phil [but] affecting property situated in foreign country whose laws require different formalities for its extrinsic validyt.
- (contract executed in Phil for property outside)
- Example: If a Filipino couple signs a contract in the Philippines involving property in Japan, but Japanese law requires different formalities (e.g., notarization, specific witnesses), those requirements must be followed.
MS has been registed in the RoP & LCR but marriage did not take place. what is the effect?
GR: non celebration renders all stipulations in the MS void
XPN: provisions independent of celebration of marriage, even if no marriage, is still valid.
ex.
whereas (1) - donation by reason of marriage VOID
whereas (2) - support for common children VALID
What is the Rule on Donation by Reason of Marriage
- made by 3rd party in favor of either or both spouses
- SEPARATE deed of donation & governed by rules on ordinary donation
- NOT governed by the more than 1/5 limitation [but] subject to rule on reservation for sustenance and legitime
- VALID even in absence of MS
- REVOCABLE by donor in case marriage does not materialize/happen iow still valid
- Made between future spouses
- made in a valid MS
- MS must stipulate a property regime other than ACP
- property donated must NOT BE MORE THAN 1/5 of the donor’s present property
- if no marriage, then donation revoked by operation of law
who can be a donor in a donation by reason of marriage?
- 3rd party donating to either spouse or both of the would-be-spouses
- the other spouse can donate to the other spouse
is there donation between spouses not made in a MS?
Yes, provided that the MS stipulates a property regime other than the ACP, a donation by reason of marriage in a separate deed of donation between spouses is possible with the effect that
- donation is not governed by the 1/5 limit of present property,
- if marriage does not materialize it is simply revocable still valid
Instances where donation by reason of marriage may be REVOKED (Art. 86)
CCLAIR
- if marriage is NOT celebrated [or] judicially declared void ab initio [except] donations made in MS, which shall be governed by Art. 81
- contemplates ONLY donation in a SEPARATE DEED OF DONATION (if donation incorporated in the MS & no marriage, then is void ab initio not revoable)
- when marriage takes place without consent of the parent/guardian as required by law (Art 45(1) 18-20 w/o PC)
- when marriage is annulled (presupposes voidABLE) & donee in bad faith
- Art 43(3) is the more consistent application, that is, revoked by operation of law
- upon legal separation, the donee being guilty spouse
- exc when ground is adultery/concubinage, then void donation
- If donation is with a resolutory condition & condition is complied with
- Donee committed an act of ingratitude as specified by provisions of CC on donations in general
- if 2nd marriage is VOID (based on Art. 40 in rel’n to 52, 53), donation shall be revoked by operation of law when donee acted in BAD FAITH
- void marriage under Art. 44 (both in bad faith)] AND one previously obtained declaration of presumptive death, donation is VOID by operation of law
instances where donation by reason of marriage is revocable > 1
franz engaged to be married to jessa on june 2024 and donates in a separate deed of dination, a house later it was found that franz is already married to another and the marriage w/ jessa was judicially declared void.
until how long can franz revoke his donation to jessa? what is the prescriptive period?
- prescriptive period is 5 years from time right of action accrues (date of marriage was supposed to be solemnized)
so franz has 5 years from june 2024 to revoke his house donation and will be barred by july 2029
instances where donation by reason of marriage is revocable > 2
if donee (recipient) does not want to return the property donated, what is the remedy of the donor and its respective prescriptive period?
ex. franz in bad faith knowing that his 1st wife is still alive obtains declaration of presumptive death and contracts 2nd marriage with Jessa. Jessa donated a car to franz but later foudns out that his 1st wife is alive.
what is jessa’s remedy insofar as revoking donation is concerned
action to RECOVER [&] right of action accrues (begins) from finality of court order of DANM subject to the ff; prescriptive period
[personal property]
- 8 years from finality
[real property]
- 30 years from finalty
difference between donation on void marriages in
Art. 40 & 44 (void)
Art. 35, 36, 37, 38, 52, 53, etc (void)
art 45 (voidABLE)
40 & 44
- donation is revoked by operation of law
- bad faith is relevant
other grounds void grounds
- donation is revocable at the instance of the donor
- bad faith irrelevant
voidable grounds
- revocable & does not require annulment before revocation can be had
A & C are in an illicit rel’t of concubinage and adultery. can they still validly donate to one another?
no, DBM donations made between spouses living together in an illicit or immoral relationship (adultery/concubinage are VOID) at the time of donation is VOID
Marriages void under 52 where spoues previously obtained a DANM (Art. 40) but faulted to comply with the requirement under 51 & 52, is the donation by reason of marriage void as it is art. 40 based or revocable?
It is revocable with 5 years from finality of decision of nullity as prescriptive period
only on marriages void under 40 & 44 and donations by reason of the same are given, those donations are void, any other void marriages donation is revocable
can a bf & gf living together as husband or wife without a valid marriage donate to each other validly?
what if their marriage is declared void, can they now doneate?
No, every donation or grant of gratuitous title between spouses during the marriage shall be void except moderate gifts. this prohibition also apply to persons living together as husband and wife without a valid marriage. (art. 87)
even if marraige declared void (perez v. senerpida) the donation is void
which provision should prevail?
art. 43 (3)
“donations by reason of marriage shall remain valid, except that if the donee contracted the marriage in bad faith, such donation is revoked by operation of law”
art 86 (3)
“DBM may be revoked by donor in the ff cases:
3. marriage is annulled & donee acted in bad faith.”
Art. 43 which declares the donation revoked by operation of law is more consistent with the purpose of an annulment which is to penalize the guilty party (Dean Sta. Maria)
GR: L.S. the guilty spouse the donation is revocable with 5 years prescriptive period from decree of L.S.
XPN
if the ground was adultery/concubinage, donation is void
Rule on Ordinary Donation Between Spouses During Marriage
GR: OD (ordinary donation) is VOID regardless of property regime & regardless of the extent (if more of if less than 1/5) in proportion to the value of the present property
XPN: moderate gifts DURING family rejoicing
What is the rule on donations by either spouse of a common property to a 3rd party?
Art. 98
GEN: donation of common property requires consent of other spouse
XPN: no consent required for the donation of common property for;
- moderate donations
- for charity
- occasions for family rejoicing or family distress
Formalities required for DBM
[personal propety]
5k below - oral
5k above - written
[real]
public instrument
Rule on Contract of Sale between Spouses during marriage
so while donations between them are void, how about sale?
GR: husband & wife cannot sell property to each other
in donation, even if it is exclusive property, it is VOID to prevent undue influence
XPN;
- separation of property is agreed upon in the MS
- there is judicial separation of property
When does ACP govern?
- if stipulated in the MS
- no MS except where CSP is mandatory
- when agreed property regime is void (like when stipiulate that neither ACP/local custom shall govern) except when CSP is mandatory
when does ACP commence
at the precise moment marriage is celebrated & any contrary stipulation is VOID
what compromises ACP or how does it govern property?
unless otherwise provided in the FC [or] stipulated as exclusive in the MS,
ALL properties owned by the spouses before, during, and after marriage is common
what properties are excluded from the ACP?
i. properties stipulated in MS to be exclusive (CONTRACTUAL Exclusion)
ii. those enumerated in ARt. 92 (STATUTORY exclusion)
- property acquired DURING marriage by gratuitous title [&] its fruits & income (unless) stipulated by donor, testator, grantor that they will form part of acp
- property for personal & exclusive use (except) jewelry
- property acquierd BEFORE mrg. by either spouse who has a legitimate descendant by a former marraige [&] fruits & income if any
Franz & Jessa married & Franz’s father died leaving estate. Is the estate part of their ACP?
GR: No, the estate will not be part of the ACP and will be exclusive to Franz
XPN: if the testator provides that the inheritance be for the ACP
TN: distinguish property acquired by gratuitous title BEFORE & AFTER marriage
[situatino 1]
1. franz marries
2. inherits vast land
[situation 2]
1. inherits vast land
2. franz marries
in the 1st, the land inherited is exclusive as
in the 2nd situation, the land inherited is common because of ACP unless otherwise provided by the will
Suppose Jessa inherited pieces of jewelry from her mother for her exclusive & personal use. What will become of the pieces of jewelry in the APC with franz?
par. 1 provides that property acquired by gratuitous title is exclusive however par. 2 provides that jewelry is common.
prevailing view is that jewelry inherited is considered common considering its value & based on the interest of the spouses & family
Art 92 (3)
> A & B marry w/ 2 legitimate kids. B dies A marries C.
[a]
what is the status of the house of A & B in rel’n to the 2nd wedding of A w/ C?
[b]
what if the descendants were illegitimate
[c]
what is the property regime of the 2nd marriage if A fails to liquidate properties of the first
GR: 92(3) the house is exclusive and separate property of A.
[b]
however, should the descendant be illegitimate, then it will form part of the ACP of A & C
[c]
1. 1st marriage dissolved by DEATH (not court order)
2. surviving spouse contract 2nd marriage w/o liquidating properties in the 1st marriage, the 2nd marriage property regime shall be mandatorily governed by CSP (complete separation of property regime)
knowledge check:
in contracting a 2nd marriage, when is it valid and when is it void when the surviving spouse fails to liquidate the properties
valid - cause of dissolution is DEATH but mandates the property regime of the 2nd as CSP
void - cause of dissolution is COURT ORDER & no compliance
Teodulo Sison did not liquidate the conjugal property of the terminated marriage within one (1) year after the DEATH of his wife in 1989. In 1992, he contracted a second marriage to Perla Sison. In 1994, he sold a conjugal property of his previous marriage without the consent of his second wife.
is the disposition valid?
Yes, as the property regime governing between Sison & his 2nd spouse is CSP
On the issue of the validity of the sale of Teodulo’s share without the consent of his second wife Perla, the Supreme Court ruled that the sale was valid because Perla’s consent was not necessary. Since the subsequent marriage of Teodulo and Perla was governed by mandatory regime of complete separation of property, Teodulo’s undivided interest in the conjugal property in the previous marriage is
his exclusive property.
What is the nature of property acquired using separate/exclusive property in ACP?
forms part of ACP in spite of the fact that it was acquired using separate/exclusive property (sta. Maria) because;
- art. 92 is silent unlike CPG
- property acquired during marriage is presumed to belong to the community, [unless] otherwise provided
- only exceptions provided are contractual & statutory exclusions & no other
in ACP, spouse sell exclusive property, what becomes of the proceeds of the sale?
Franz inherits land during marriage w/ Jessa (exclusive) but then sells his land & earns 5 million. What becomes of the 5 million? Common or Exclusive?
There are (2) two views
- If the exclusive piece of land is converted to another like exchanged for a car, it will now become common because statutory exclusions are exclusive so that if the exclusive property is converted into another property not part of Art. 92, then it becomes common.
IOW, proceeds of the sale of land is not acquired by inheritance but derived from contract of sale, which is NOT an exemption to the ACP’s scope.
- conversion will not make it fall under ACP as this would circumvent the purpose of art. 92 which is to exclude properties from being part of the ACP
Charges upon & obligation of the APC (Art. 94)
- support of spouses, their common children, & legitimate children of either spouse
- ALL debts & obligation contracted DURING the marriage by the designated administrator spouse for the benefit of the community or by both spousoes or by one spouse w/ consent of the other
- debts & obligations contracted without consent only to the extent the family was benefited
- all [tlce] taxes, liens, charges & expenses including minor & major repair upon the community property
- all [tlce] for the mere preservation made DURING marriage upon separate property of either spouse used by the family
- expenses to enable spouse to complete professional or self-imporvement activity
- antenuptial debts of either to the extent that it benefitted the family
- value of what is donated or promised by both spouses in favor of their common | legitimate children for exclusive purpose of completing a professional course
-
antenuptial debts of either spouse other tahn those in par. 7
- support of ILlegitimate children
- liabilities incurred by either spouse by reason of crime/ quasi-delict
in case of INSUFFICIENCY/ABSENCE of the exclusive property of the debtor-spouse, the payment made from the ACP will be advances to be deducted specifically upon liquidation of the community of the debtor spouse
10. expenses of litigation between spouses [unless] suit is groundless
Franz previously married with a legitimate child. enters validly into a 2nd marriage. Is the support of Franz’s child of the 1st marriage chargeable to the funds of the 2nd marriage?
Yes, Art. 94 (1)
Franz & Jessa both entered into a contract to sell but it showed no benefit to the family. is the payment chargeable to the ACP?
Yes, 94 (2). Even if no benefit was given to the family, what makes it chargeable is the fact that it was simply made by the spouses
same scenario > immoral profession >
RULE ON OBJECTION? Whose property should the obligation be charged with?
what if objection was made AFTER/BEFORE the benefit to the family from the immoral profession?
If the benefit accrued to the family BEFORE OBJECTION, the resulting objection is chargeable to the ACP/CPG
If the benefit came AFTER OBJECTION, the resulting obligation is chargeable to the exclusive property
Jessa engaged in prostitution secretly without her husband Franz knowing. She entered into an obligation incurred by an immoral profession
Can a creditor run after her? can it be charged in the ACP?
The operative fact in this case is if the immoral profession benefitted the family. If it did benefit the family, the resulting obligation is charageable to the ACP.
what makes ACP liable is the fact that there is benefit to the family.
Wife holds supervisory role in Rustans. She pocketed money all for herself and was sued
There was no objection from the husband
there was no actual benefit to the family
Can the obligation by the wife as an employee be charged to the common fund?
In the case of Zapanta v. Rustans, while the rule must be there is actual benefit to hold the common funds liable but there is the presumption inured to the benefit of the family. so the SC ruled where a spouse engaged in an illegal transaction, under Art. 73, if the benefit came AFTER OBJECTION, then it is chargeable to the separate property but in this case since there was no objection, it is chargeable to the common fund.
Wife charged with violation of BP 22 for issuing 11 bouncing checks. Criminal cases were dismissed & only the civil aspect was resolved
no consent on husband
no benefit to the family
is the wife’s property regime liable for the loans obtained?
In the case of Teresita v. Ty the SC ruled that the obligation is characterized as a debt or obligation
since the debt was contracted w/o consent [&] no proof that such debt redounded to the benefit of the family, the civil aspect cannot be satisfied against the conjugal properties
What is the rule on ISOLATED TRANSACTIONS
Ayala v. Ching
- husband had an isolated transaction
- benefit went to the corp
Ruling:
- Isolated transactions which are entered by a spouse NOT their usual occupation, business, or activity thus chargeable exclusively
- Benefit must be actual & direct to the family
if it had been usual, it would be charged to the common fund
What is the rule rule if the properties of the ACP are not sufficient to settle the ACP debts?
Spouses are solidarily liable for the unpaid balance with their separate proeprty (Art. 94 last par.)
1M ACP properties and 2M is the ACP debt. how will the balance of 1m be settled?
spouses will be solidarily liable such that the creditor may go after either spouse for the amount of 1M. the paying spouse has the right to demand reimbursement
Art 94 - ACP liable for the mentioned grounds > Art 94 (9)
DEBTS chargeable against the EXCLUSIVE PROPERTY of the debtor-spouse
Art 94 (9)
- Antenuptial debts that do not redound to the benefit of the family
- support of illegitimate children
- liabilities incurred by either spouse arising from crime or quasi-delict
- losses in games of chance (gains however are common property )
What is the rule if
Debtor-spouse has insufficient property to pay his exclusive debt under Art. 94 (9) ?
⚠️ — QUALIFY
advances reimbursement mechanism (ARM) shall apply where advances shall be made by the common property to be deducted from the SHARE of the debtor-spouse upon liquidation of the community
dissolution takes place when marriage is dissolvedby death/decree of separation
ex. 10mil but debtor-spouse has 5mil. his 5 mil will be used to settle but the balance of the remaining 5 mil will be shouldered by the common funds,
when does liquidation occur?
- judicial separation of property
- legal separation
- dissolved by death