Project Management 3351 - Final Flashcards
1
Q
What do we need to estimate each activity in a WBS in term of?
A
duration and effort
2
Q
what is the duration represented by?
A
calendar time
3
Q
what is effort represented by?
A
number of working hours
4
Q
how many working hours is one month of effort?
A
168
5
Q
what is the delphi technique to project estimation?
A
using multiple anonymous experts, each making estimates and taking average or analyzing outcome
6
Q
what are the three types of estimates in the 3 point technique?
A
optimistic, pessimistic, most likely
7
Q
what is the formula for the three point estimation techniqeu?
A
E = (O + 4M + P)/6
8
Q
what is time boxing?
A
allocating a “box” of time for a specific activity, task or deliverable
9
Q
what can happen if time boxing is used too often?
A
project team members can become burned out or frustrated
10
Q
who determines the overall project schedule in top down estimating?
A
top and middle managers
11
Q
what are lower level managers expected to do in top down estimating?
A
breakdown schedule/budget estimates into specific activities (WBS)
12
Q
top down estimating tries to determine what the project _______ cost and how long it _______ take, as decreed by a top level manager who ______ those parameters are appropriate.
A
should, should, think
13
Q
what may top down estimating lead do ?
A
a death march project
14
Q
which estimating technique may be a response to the business environment?
A
top down estimating
15
Q
what is the most common form of project estimation?
A
bottom up estimating
16
Q
what is bottom up estimating
A
project is broken up into much smaller modules and the person hours/weeks/months are determined for each module, schedules and budgets are the aggregate of detailed activities and costs
17
Q
what is analogous estimating?
A
everything is based on similar tasks done in the past
18
Q
what is the common principle in analogous estimating?
A
find the time it would take you to do a similar task, double it and add 10-20%
19
Q
what estimation approach utilizes a third party who is very knowledgeable on the type of project you are going to engage in?
A
expert advice
20
Q
what are the problems associated with the lines of codes estimation approach?
A
do comments count? declaring variables? efficient vs bloat code, differences between languages, can’t really estimate before project completion
21
Q
what are the 5 primary elements of a function point analysis?
A
inputs, outputs, inquiries, logical files, interfaces
22
Q
what are external inputs?
A
data originating from users or other systems that cross the boundary to the application
23
Q
what are external inquiries?
A
input and output components resulting in data retrieval
24
Q
what are value adjustment factors?
A
system characteristics that influence the function point analysis
25
how many DI's are there?
14
26
what is cocomo an acronym for
constructive cost model
27
who introduced cocomo
barry boehm
28
what estimates is cocomo based on and what is it used to estimate?
based on LOC estimates, and it estimates cost, effort, and schedule
29
name the three project types in cocomo?
organic, embedded, semi-detached
30
a project where the work is expected to go smoothly with few problems is what type of project?
organic
31
what is a semi-detached project?
in between organic and embedded
32
challenging projects that may be new ground for an organization or project team is what type of project?
embedded
33
what is a person-month?
the effort by one person in on month
34
how many hours is a person-month defined as in cocomo?
152 hours
35
what is KDSI?
thousands of delivered source instructions (lines of code)
36
how is effort calculated in cocomo?
converting FP to LOC and plugging into equation for appropriate project type
37
how is duration calculated in cocomo?
2.5 X effor^(of some value that depends on project type)
38
how do you get people required in cocomo?
effort/duration
39
what does cocomo 2 incorporate?
sub models
40
when an application is composed from existing parts what sub model can be used with cocomo?
application composition model
41
what is the early design model used for?
when requirement are available but design has not yet started
42
when reusable components are being integrated what submodel do you use?
reuse model
43
what is the post architecture model?
its a model for when the system architecture is already designed
44
T/F: The most common error in guesstimating is to be pessimistic
and to overestimate the time and resources necessary to
complete a project
F
45
T/F:The Delphi technique is a quick and economical way to
| estimate the duration and costs of project activities
F
46
T/F: Time boxing involves allocating a time segment for a task
rather than attempting to estimate how long that task should
take
T
47
T/F: Basing an estimate of activity durations on experience gained
from working on similar projects is called analogous estimation.
T
48
T/F: Counting lines of code (LOC) is a good way to encourage
| efficient programming.
F
49
T/F: Because function points are independent of technology, they
provide a way to compare projects that may use different
platforms or languages.
T
50
An estimation technique characterized by schedule and cost
| estimates of how long something should take or should cost is
top down estimating
51
An estimation technique characterized by the estimation, in
person-timeframe (i.e. person-hours, person-weeks) terms, or
small modules is
bottom up
52
An estimation technique characterized by picking numbers out
| of the air is
guesstimating
53
An estimation technique characterized by the allocation of a
timeframe for a specified activity. e.g. a team has two weeks
to complete a task and at the end of two weeks work on that
task ceases is
time boxing
54
An estimation technique characterized by the recruitment of
multiple experts who provide rounds of estimates until a
consensus estimate emerges is
delphi technique
55
An Entity-Relationship Diagram (ERD) would be considered an
ILF
56
screen that allows the user to input information using a
| keyboard and a mouse would be called an
EI
57
A data set of Customer names and addresses that is
| maintained by another application system would be called an
EIF
58
management report and its accompanying graphs would be
| considered an
EO
59
something that includes a combination of inputs and outputs
for retrieving data from either the internal files or from files
external to the application would be called an
EQ
60
what is included in cost management according to PMBOK?
resource planning, cost estimating, cost budgeting, cost control
61
what is a gantt chart?
a bar chart that shows a project schedule, shows start and end dates and terminal elements and summary elements of a project
62
explicit relationships amoung tasks are not shown in what type of gantt chart?
traditional
63
what is the critical path?
the longest duration path in the network diagram, that determines the shortest possible time to complete the project
64
what are in the four corners of a an activity on node node?
earliest start, earliest finish, latest start and latest finish
65
what is a sub-critical path?
a non critical path through the network, total duration are shorter than the critical path
66
an activity that should be involved wih at least one critical path is what?
a zero slack activity?
67
the amount of a task completion that can be delayed without affecting the project completion date is called?
slack
68
the difference between the LF and EF or the LS and ES is what?
slack
69
what are the dependency constraints?
technical, management, interproject, date constraints
70
the task of shrinking the projected completion date is known as what?
schedule compression
71
what do you look for when shrinking a schedule?
tasks that can be done simultaneously instead of sequentially, tasks that can begin when only a part of a previous task is done (instead of all of it), tasks that can be partitioned and assigned to more than one person
72
what are the 4 fundamental relationships in AON?
finish to finish, start to start, start to finish an finish to start
73
what is lead time?
starting a the next task before the previous task is complete?
74
what is lag time?
adding a buffer of time before the next task begins
75
what are the four quadrants in AOA?
event number, latest date, slack, earliest date
76
what is PERT?
program evaluation a review technique
77
what three estimates is PERT based off of?
same as 3 point technique: optimistic, pessimistic and most likely
78
what are the 4 quadrants in PERT?
event number, target date, standard deviation, expected date
79
how are z scores calculated in PERT?
z = (T-te)/s, where s is the activity standard deviation which is (pessimistic - optimistic)/6
80
what type of cost is people cost?
a direct cost
81
how is labor cost calculated when you know effort?
effort x labor rate
82
what type of cost is material cost?
a direct cost
83
what type of cost is leasing new facilities for people to work in on a project?
an indirect cost
84
what is a reserve?
money that is put aside in case of unforseen expenses
85
what is a sunk cost?
software engineering dual degree
86
what does the project plan become once the schedule and project plan are accepted?
the baseline plan
87
T/F: The project budget is determined by the project schedule, the
cost of the resources assigned to each of the tasks, and by any
other direct or indirect costs and reserves.
T
88
T/F: he PMBOK® area called project cost management includes
| cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
T
89
T/F: Gantt charts are useful for planning but should not be used for
tracking and monitoring the progress of a project.
F
90
T/F; Project network diagrams provide valuable information about
the logical sequence and dependencies among the various
activities and tasks so that a completion date or deadline can
be determined.
T
91
T/F: predecessor activities are activities that can be worked on at
the same time as another activity.
F
92
T/F: at must be completed
| before another activity can be started.
T
93
T/F: parallel activity is a task that can be worked on at the same
time as another activity
T
94
T/F: parallel activities can shorten the project schedule, but can
have an impact on project resources if a resource is assigned
to two tasks at the same time.
T
95
T/F: identifying the critical path is important because any change in
the duration of the activities or tasks on the critical path will
affect the project’s schedule.
T
96
T/F: a critical path has zero slack?
T
97
T/F: PERT was developed in the 1950s to create a visual
representation of scheduled activities, their logical sequence,
and interrelationships using a statistical probability distribution.
T
98
T/F: Installing a server before loading the operating system is an
example of a finish-to-start relationship.
T
99
T/F: Start-to-Start and Finish-to-Finish relationships allow activities
to be worked on in parallel.
T
100
T/F; A start-to-finish activity is the most common relationship
between two activities.
F
101
T/F: The direct costs of using a resource is the only type of cost that
should be considered when developing the project budget.
F
102
T/F: Sunk costs include such things as rent, utilities, insurance, and
other administrative costs.
F
103
T/F: reserve can provide a cushion when unexpected situations
arise
T
104
The term most closely associated with activity bars across a
| horizontal time axis is
gantt charts
105
the term most closely associated with the identification of
| predecessors, successors, and parallel activities is:
project network diagrams
106
The technique used to find the sequence of tasks with zero
| slack (or float) is most closely associated with:
cirtical path analysis
107
he technique used to help manage the Polaris submarine
project and which bases activity estimates on probabilistic
estimates of three scenarios is most closely associated with:
PERT
108
An activity being analyzed under PERT was judged to most likely
have a duration of 40 days. When considering the time it would
take to complete the activity if every relevant factor went well, it
was estimated to take 20 days and even under the worst case
imaginable, the task would be take 50 days. The estimates PERT
duration of that activity is:
38.33 days
109
Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the situation
which occurs when a relationship between two tasks that can
or must start at the same time is called:
start to start
110
Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the most
common relationship between two activities which implies a
logical sequence is called:
finish to start
111
Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the situation
which occurs when two activities can start at different times,
have different durations, but are planned to be competed at
the same time is called:
finish to finish
112
Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the situation
which occurs when task A cannot end until task B starts is
called:
start to finish
113
he decision to build an application system based on what was
left after a previous attempt ended in failure primarily because
of the large investment the company made in the failed
project was most likely made by a manager who did not fully
understand:
sunk cost
114
crisis management is _________ risk management is _________
reactive, proactive
115
what is the common mistake associated with success orientation?
unwillingness to admit risks exist
116
what is a risk as defined by PMBOK?
an uncertain event or condition that has negative or oportunistic properties
117
risk management maximizes what and minimizes what?
maximizes: probability of positive (opportunistic events)
minimizes: probability of adverse events
118
what is the risk management plan responsible for determining?
methodology, roles and responsibilities, budgeting, scheduling, risk analysis scoring,
119
who should be included in risk identification
most if not all project stakeholders
120
what are the it project risk management process steps?
planning, identification, assessment, strategies, monitoring and control, response, evaluation
121
events that are going to occcur but you don't know when are called what?
known risks
122
an uncertain event is called what?
known-unknown risk
123
an event that we have no idea will happen and we aren't thinking about or anticipating are called?
unknown known risk
124
project managers are directly responsible for what type of risk?
internal
125
what risk type arises from the environment outside of the project?
external
126
what is the most common approach to risk identification?
brainstorming
127
what is the nominal group technique?
anonymous round robin elicitation of ideas and evaluation of those ideas until they are ranked and prioritized
128
what is the delphi technique?
experts are brought in to identify potential risks and discuss their impact
129
what are the advantages of using a checklist?
its a simple a direct approach to identifying risks
130
what are the disadvantages of using a checklist?
risk identification may be limited to the risk categories on the checklist
131
what are the element of a swot analysis??
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats
132
what type of diagram is a cause and effect diagram?
fishbone
133
what is the purpose of risk analysis?
to determine the probability and impact of each risk
134
what does risk assessment focus on?
prioritizing risks so a strategy can be formulated
135
risk timelines can be created and controlled through what?
the risk register
136
quantitative risk analysis is reserved for what types of risks?
high impact risks
137
expected value helps to determine what in terms of risk?
severit
138
if the cost of avoiding the risk is less then the expected value what should you do?
spend the money and avoid it
139
if the cost of corrective action is greater than the expected value what should you do?
nothing, not worth it
140
what analysis technique would you want to use when deciding between two decisions?
decision tree
141
what are the 4 risk response strategies?
avoidance, transfer, mitigation, acceptance
142
what risk response strategy attempts to completely eliminate the possibility of the risk?
avoidance
143
what is risk transfer?
transferring risk to a third party
144
what are some examples of risk transfer?
insurance, fixed priced contracts, warrantees
145
what risk response strategy attempts to reduce probability and/or impact of a risk?
mitigation
146
under what circumstances should risk acceptance be used as a risk response strategy?
when no other action is feasible or if the risk is of small probability and impact
147
what do most risk acceptance strategies rely on?
contingency allowance
148
what tools are used for risk monitoring?
risk register and risk timeline
149
what process documents recognized risks, the planned response and the outcomes?
risk evaluation
150
T/F: Failure to follow a formal risk management plan will often
cause organizations to be reactive and find themselves in a
state of permanent crisis
T
151
T/F: The best time to plan for risk is during the project execution
phase when risk can be assessed most accurately
F
152
T/F: Effective project risk management requires that each risk
have an owner
T
153
T/F: In general, because of the similarities in IT projects, one can
manage all projects and risks in the same manner.
F
154
T/F: Project risk management focuses only on the downside that
results from unexpected problems or threats
F
155
T/F: The PMBOK definition of project risk suggests that a
systematic process is needed to effectively manage the risk
of a project.
T
156
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) that
defines the process of risk management includes all of the
following processes except:
a) Risk Management Planning
b) Risk Identification
c) Qualitative Risk Analysis
d) IT Project Risk Impact Analysis
e) Risk Response Planning
d
157
Gaining consensus from a group of experts would be most
| closely associated with:
Delphi technique
158
Initial generation of ideas without evaluation would be most
| closely associated with:
Brainstorming
159
A structured technique for identifying risks which requires
participants to rank and prioritize ideas in round-robin
fashion is most closely associated with:
Nominal group technique
160
T/F: The goal of a sound risk management is to completely avoid
all risk.
F
161
T/F: Triggers or flags in the form of metrics should be identified
to draw attention to a particular risk when it occurs.
T
162
T/F: Unknown-unknown risks are residual risks that we cannot
| even imagine happening.
T
163
T/F: Since risk arises from uncertainty, there can be no such
category as known risks.
F
164
T/F: Nominal Group Technique is a free form, unstructured
| process similar to Brainstorming.
F
165
T/F: The fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is a form of cause and
| effect analysis diagramming.
T
166
T/F: Since IT projects are developed in an environment that
changes so rapidly and so extensively, there is little value in
using past projects to guide our risk assessment of new
ones.
F
167
T/F: Qualitative risk analysis has as one of its strengths the
ability to include subjective analysis based on experience
and judgment.
T
168
T/F: The concept of expected value rests on the notion of a
| probability-weighted summation of component parts.
T
169
Receiving a much larger than usual gas utility bill because
of an early spring cold spell is an example of what type of
risk?
known-uknown risk
170
Which of the following distributions has mean which is
equal to (a + 4b +c) / 6 where a, b, and c are denote
optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates
respectively?
PERT distribution
171
Which of the following distributions has mean which is
equal to (a +b +c) / 3 where a, b, and c are denote
optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates
respectively?
Triangular distribution
172
Which processes assesses the likelihood of
risk occurrences and their consequences using numeric
probability assignments?
quantitative risk analysis
173
What tool or technique shows the
impacts of one decision over another as well as the
probability and cost of each risk along a logical path?
desicion tree
174
Information-gathering techniques used in the Risk
Identification process include all of the following except:
a) Brainstorming
b) Delphi technique
c) Interviewing
d) PERT technique
D
175
Complete this sentence: a risk is a(n) __________
| occurrence that can affect the project for good or bad.
uncertain
176
when should risk identification happen?
as early as possible in the planning process
177
You are the project manager of the KLJH Project. This
project will last two years and has 30 stakeholders. How
often should risk identification take place?
throughout the project** not at each phase
178
which risk analysis provides the project manager with a risk ranking?
qualitative
179
How can a project manager determine whether it is better
| to build or buy a software?
decision tree analysis
180
what is the purpose of earned value?
provide quantitative means of assessing software project progress
181
T/F: Proactive risk management is sometimes described as fire
fighting
F
182
what the most important skill a project manager has?
communication
183
what questions does communications planning attempt to answer relating to information?
how is it stored, who gets it and when, access, who updates it, medium
184
what communication management process focuses on getting the right information to the right people in the right format?
information distriution
185
what should be included in performance reporting?
status reports, progress reports, forecast reports
186
what communication management process focuses on verifying and documenting project progress?
administrative closure
187
what does the project communication plan center on?
who needs what information and when
188
who identifies stakeholders and their communication needs?
projet manager
189
what are good headers for a project communication plan?
stakeholder, info requirement, type of report/metric, timing/availability, medium/format
190
what key areas should project metrics be focused on? (6 of them)
scope, schedule, budget, resources, quality, risk
191
a good project metric must be... (5 things)
understandable, quantifiable, cost effective, proven, high impact
192
the physical work completed to date and the authorized budget for that work is known as what?
earned value
193
what is earned value based on?
budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP) or "planned value"
194
what is BAC?
budgeted at completion, the total cumulative planned value
195
what is AC?
actual cost = the total amount of money the project has required to date
196
how is variance calculated at the end of the project?
subtracting the actual costs from the budget at completions
197
what is variance throughout the project?
difference between actual and what was planned or expected
198
how do you calculate cost variance?
CV = EV - AC
199
if cost variance is negative what does it mean?
over budget
200
if cost variance is positive what does it mean?
under budget
201
what is CPI?
cost performance index - % of work completed per dollar spent
202
if CPI > 1 what does it mean?
under budget
203
if CPI < 1 what does it mean?
over budget
204
what is SV?
schedule variance - difference between current progress and planned progress
205
how do you calculate SV?
SV = EV - PV
206
what is SPI
schedule performance index
207
how is SPI calculated
SPI = EV / PV
208
how is CPI calculated
CPI = EV / AC
209
what do you get if you multiply the planned value of an activity by its percent completion?
earned value
210
what are the 5 rules for EVM formulas?
1. Always start with EV
2. Variance means subtract
3. Index means divide
4. Negative is bad in variance
5. less that 1 is bad in index
211
what is ETC?
estimate to complete - provides estimate for completing the schdules work that remains
212
what is the formula for ETC with typical variances?
ETC = (BAC - Cum EV to date)/ Cum CPI
213
what is the formula for ETC with atypical variances?
ETC = IBAC - Cum EV to date)
214
what are typical variances?
variances we believe will continue for the remainder of our project
215
what are atypical variances?
variances we believe will not continue for the remainder of the project
216
what is EAC?
estimate at completion - most likely total or final value based on project performance and any considered risks
217
what is the EAC formula for typical variances?
EAC = Cum AC + ((BAC - Cum EV) / Cum CPI)
218
what is the EAC formula for atypical variances?
EAC = Cum AC + (BAC - Cum EV)
219
if we expect things to continue to get worse what do we need to calculate and how is it calculated?
funds required = original budget / (CPI*SPI)
220
what are the 4 reporting categories?
reviews, status reporting, progress reporting, and forecast reporting
221
informal meeting with stakeholders is an example of what reporting category?
review
222
what reporting category compares the actual progress to baseline plan?
status reporting
223
what is progress reporting about?
seeing what activities or tasks the team has accomplished
224
predicting the project future status is what type of reporting?
forecasting
225
what is a quick assessment tool for senior management?
visualization
226
what is a balls on the wall chart
circles that represent start or finish of activities that can be modified, green if on target, red if target is missed
227
TF: Because of their capacity for capturing and distributing data
and information, IT based solutions to communications plans
always represent the best solution.
F
228
TF: Communication with project sponsors of unexpected negative
occurrences usually will not cause a loss of credibility.
T
229
TF: The project communications plan may be informal depending
on the needs of the project stakeholders and the size of the
project.
T
230
TF: If a stakeholder has been judged to adversarial and having a
vested interest in the failure of your project, it would probably
be wise to keep him/her out of the communication loop
F
231
TF: Since project metrics are defined as a qualitative measurement
of some attribute of the project, their measurement should
reflect the subjective qualitative judgments of project leader or
team members.
F
232
TF: Only those attributes that have a high impact on the project
are worth measuring.
T
233
TF; Generally, the more metrics one adopts, the greater the project
control.
F
234
TF: The project team should design its own measurement system.
T
235
TF: The planned value (PV) tells us how much of our project will be
completed in each time increment.
F
236
TF: Earned value is often referred to as the budgeted cost at
completion (BAC).
F
237
TF: Earned value provides a performance measurement that tells
us how much of the budget we really should have spent for the
work completed so far.
T
238
TF: If your EV is greater than your AC, you have a positive Cost
Variance.
T
239
TF: As a project manager, you would be pleased see a Cost
| Performance Index CPI less than one (1) for your project.
F
240
TF: The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) for our project is
greater than one (1) and so we would anticipate that all other
things being equal, our project will finish ahead of schedule.
T
241
TF: The schedule variance (SV) shows the difference between the
current progress of the project and its original or planned value
T
242
TF: A cost variance (CV) can be positive or negative, but never
zero.
F
243
TF: Given the advances that have been made in
telecommunications and IT technology in general, there is little
value or necessity today for Face-to-Face (F2F) meetings.
F
244
TF: nternet and Web-Based technologies have a significant role to
play in communication and collaboration efforts of project
teams
T
245
Earned value tells us
how much of the budget we should have spent on the work completed so far
246
If you hired a consulting firm to develop a system which is
estimated to take four months to complete with the tasks
evenly divided over the four months and you agree to pay for
the project with equal monthly installments, those payments
would be called
planned value
247
```
If we know the Actual Cost of a WBS component, what other
value do we need to know in order to calculate the cost
performance index (CPI)?
```
earned value
248
cost variance = earned value - ?
actual cost
249
```
Which of the following would one utilize if interested in
estimating the final project cost for a project that is over
budget in the early stages
a) Cost performance index (CPI)
b) Scheduled performance index (SPI)
c) Cost Variance (CV)
d) Estimate at Completion (EAC)
e) Estimate To Complete (ETC)
```
D
250
Barring a change in project scope and given a Cost
Performance Index (CPI) that is less than 1, the most
reasonable inference to draw is that) The project will likely finish earlier than planned.
b) The project will likely finish later than planned.
c) The project will likely cost more than planned.
d) The project will likely cost less than planned.
e) The project will likely be on time and on budget
C
251
Barring a change in project scope and given a Schedule
Performance Index (SPI) that is greater than 1, the most
reasonable inference to draw is that:
a) The project will likely finish earlier than planned.
b) The project will likely finish later than planned.
c) The project will likely cost more than planned.
d) The project will likely cost less than planned.
e) The project will likely be on time and on budget
A
252
```
Which of the following is not likely a characteristic of a good
project metric?
a) Understandable
b) Quantifiable
c) Cost Effective
d) Subjective
e) High Impact
```
D
253
what is quality in terms of PMBOK?
the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements
254
what stages is quality required within project management?
all stages
255
what is PQM?
project quality management
256
what does PQM focus on?
planning, assurance, control
257
PQM focuses on the product and ?
processes
258
if the results from quality control are not satisfactory then what should be performed?
root cause analysis
259
what QC tool will help you distinguish between normal and unusual variation in a process?
a control chart
260
what rule is a Pareto diagram related to ?
the rule of 80/20 - 20% of problems are related to 80% of the total cost of a projects problems
261
what do we use when we need to analyze 2 characteristics of aprocess and see if there is any inderdependency between them?
a scatter diagram
262
what do we use to identify the steps and events in the processes?
a flow chart
263
the total cost of qualiy is the sum of what 4 components?
prevention, inspection, internal failure, external failure
264
what is the least expensive cost of quality?
prevention
265
whose responsibility is quality?
everyones
266
quality metrics focus on: (3 things)
product, process, project
267
verification focuses on what?
process-related activities
268
what are the 3 types of reviews that go on during verification
technical reviews, business reviews, management reviews
269
what do managment revies focus on?
budget, schedule, scope and quality objectives
270
what does validation focus on?
product-oriented activities
271
when does validation occur?
towards the end of the project
272
what is black box testing?
testing program against specified requirements or functionality
273
what is white box testing?
examines paths of logic or the structure inside a program
274
what is grey box testing?
focuses on internal structure of program (functional and structural)
275
what does unit tesitng focus on?
module, program or object level to determine whether specific FUNCTIONS work poperly
276
what is integration testing?
tests whether logically related units work together properly
277
what is system testing?
tests system as a whole in an operating environment
278
what is acceptance testing?
certifies that system satisfies END USER requirements
279
what is ISO?
international organization for standardization
280
what ISO principle focuses on customer satisfaction and continuous organization performance improvement?
9000
281
ISO 14000 is concerned with what?
environmental management
282
what range of ISO principles apply to all engineering disciplines and to software development?
ISO 9001:2000
283
what quality initiative was initiated by the British computer society in 1991?
TickIT
284
what is TickIT?
a guide for a software comapny through ISO certification
285
what measurement basis does Six Sigma use?
defects per opportunity (DPO)
286
what can a defect be thought of as in six sigma?
anything that results in customer dissatisfaction
287
the key six sigma steps are DMAIC, what does this stand for?
define, measure, analyze, improve, control
288
what is CMMI
capability matrity model integration
289
what does CMMI included?
a set of recommended practices and key process areas for software development
290
how many levels does CMMI have?
5
291
what are the levels of CMMI?
initial, repeatable, defined, managed, optimizing
292
a software organization with processes that are ad hoc and often reactive to crisis is what level in CMMI?
1 - intital
293
a software organization with processes that are documented and standardized is what level in CMMI?
3 - defined
294
a software organization with processes that are in place is what level in CMMI?
2 - repeatable
295
a software organization with quantitative metrics is what level in CMMI?
4 - managed
296
a software organization with optimizing at the highest level of software process maturity is what level in CMMI?
5 - optimizing
297
TF: The PMBOK definition of project quality management focuses
on conformance to specifications.
F
298
TF: Project quality control is an expense that should be minimized
and incurred primarily in the testing phase of a project.
F
299
TF: Taken together, the concepts of quality management,
verification and validation, change control and knowledge
management support the overall project quality management
plan.
T
300
TF: Control charts are used to highlight statistically significant
variation in processes.
T
301
TF: The Pareto Diagram is based on the notion that 20 percent of
the problems are based on 80 percent of the causes.
F
302
TF: The Pareto Diagram is based on the notion that 80 percent of
the problems are based on 20 percent of the causes.
T
303
TF: SO certification is a multinational effort to certify products,
services, or systems that meet specified quality management
principles.
T
304
TF: The key steps in the Six Sigma framework are the D-M-A-I-C
cycle which stands for Define, Measure, Adapt, Innovate, and
Control.
F
305
TF: The highest level of Software Process Maturity is demonstrated
by processes that are standard and consistent.
F
306
TF: Defect arrival rates, Defects by phase, and Fix Response time
are all process metrics.
T
307
TF: Verification activities focus on asking the question of whether
we followed the right procedures and processes.
T
308
TF: Validation is a process-oriented activity that focuses on the
deployment of specific development procedures.
F
309
TF: Documenting lessons learned is an important part of
| continuous quality improvement.
T
310
________ will determine your final grade in this class:
Badawy metrics model (OMM) lol its his own made up model lol
311
DMAIC is part of ?
six sigma
312
The Capability Maturity Model level characterized by an
immature software organization using ad-hoc process is
_______ ?
level 1 intial
313
The Capability Maturity Model level which is the first to
| introduce key process areas is _________ ?
level 2 repeatable
314
The Capability Maturity Model level which is the first to
| introduce technology change management _________ ?
level 5 optimizing
315
The Capability Maturity Model level which is characterized by
the addition of Software Quality management and
Quantitative Process Management is _________ ?
level 4 managed
316
defect arrival rate is an example of a ____________ metric?
process
317
Customer found defects is an example of a __________ metric?
product
318
usability is an example of a __________ metric?
project standard
319
gray box testing is what type of testing?
unit testing
320
Testing whether a set of logically related units work together
properly would be done in _________ ?
integration testing
321
what are the three general tactical implementation plnas?
direct cutover, parallel, phased
322
when is direct cutover appropriate?
quick delivery is critical, old system is crap and needs to be replaced now, system is non critical
323
what are some risks associated with direct cutover
no safety net, can result in major delays, pissed off users and lost revenues
324
who does the parallel implementation plan place the most pressure on?
the users
325
when is parallel implementation appropriate?
when problems or failures of the system an have a major impact on the organization
326
what implementation strategy introduces different parts of the organization to the system incrementally?
phased
327
TF: cut-over costs more and takes longer tan the phased approach
F
328
normal project termination is what?
completion according to plan
329
if the project is completed before all the functionality is achieved it is called?
premature
330
a project that never ends is called ?
perpetual
331
a project terminated due to resource constraints, misjudged value, needs changes or starvation is called?
changed priority
332
what is the most important requirement for closure under normal circumstances?
project sponsor acceptance
333
what should the project manager and team develop for administrative closure
final report and presentation
334
who would the project manager and team be trying to get administrative closure form?
project sponsor and key stakeholders
335
what does a project final report include?
project summary, planned vs actual, outstanding issues, project documentation list
336
what are the 6 steps after formal sign off for admin closure?
1. verify all open items are complete
2. archiving
3. release project resources
4. evaluation and review planning
5. close off project accounts
6. PARTY
337
what is a postmortem review?
a meeting between project manager and project team after the project is complete that goes over each of the project aspects from MOV to performance
338
it is preferable for a project auditor be performed by?
an outside auditor
339
TF: Project implementation focuses on installing or delivering the
project’s major deliverable in the information system that was
built or purchased.
T
340
TF: For a project to be closed successfully, the product of the
project must be formally accepted by the project sponsor or
customer.
T
341
TF: Immediately after the implementation, the project’s MOV
| should be calculated.
F
342
TF; The direct cutover is the generally the least favored
| implementation approach.
T
343
TF: The parallel implementation approach is generally considered
to be the riskiest implementation approach
F
344
TF; phased approach is generally the least expensive of the
| three implementation approaches.
F
345
TF: premature project closure is a characteristic of a failed project
F
346
TF: Failure to clearly define and agree on the project’s MOV may
lead to a runaway or perpetual project.
T
347
TF: Project termination by starvation may result from changed
priorities
T
348
TF: Most of the project documentation is completed during the
development phase.
F
349
TF: Delivery, installation, and implementation of the information
system indicate the sponsor’s acceptance of the project.
F
350
TF: The final project report may be circulated to key stakeholders
prior to the final meeting and presentation.
T
351
TF: Once the project is accepted by the sponsor or customer, a
number of administrative closure processes remain
T
352
TF: Most team members are less critical of their own performance
than the project manager.
F
353
TF: Individual performance reviews should provide a consensus on
improving performance.
T
354
TF: Conducting the postmortem review is the responsibility of the
project sponsor
F
355
TF: The project audit is the generally conducted by the project
manager and project team.
F
356
TF: The project MOV is usually readily determined at the close of
the project.
F
357
TF: Before conducting the final project evaluation, one must be
sure that the information system delivered has not been
changed by the users or support staff.
T
358
TF: The final judge of project success is the evaluation of the
project’s MOV.
T
359
Which implementation approach usually entails the greatest
| level of risk?
direct cutover
360
Which implementation approach involves no risk?
they all involve some level of risk
361
Which implementation approach is usually the most expensive
| and least risky?
parallel
362
Which approach allows for implementation of modules in
| different departments or locations?
Phased
363
Which termination circumstance is one in which the project is
completed as planned?
normal
364
Which termination circumstance is one in which the project is
ended because the costs of completing it are greater than the
potential benefits of completing it.
failed
365
Another name for a runaway project is
perpetual
366
As a result of competitor's actions, a project was pushed to
completion without all of the envisioned features. This project
termination is termed __________ ?
premature
367
the most important requirement for project closure under
normal circumstances is:
a) completing the project on time.
b) completing the project on or under budget.
c) redeploying team members successfully to other projects.
d) following the project methodology.
e) obtaining the project sponsor's acceptance of the project.
E
368
The final project report should include
a) Project Summary
b) Comparison of Planned vs. Actual
c) Outstanding Issues
d) Project Documentation List
e) All of the above
E
369
```
Discussing team members' next assignment is generally a part
of
a) Individual Performance Review
b) Postmortem Review
c) Project Audit
d) MOV Evaluation
e) None of the above
```
A
370
what four areas define a project?
temporary, defined purpose, start and end dates, human and other reosources
371
what is the ITPM tripe constraint?
scope schedule budget
372
what are the ITPM roles?
project stakeholders, project manager, project sponsor, technical experts, subject mtter experts
373
what is a project portfolio?
collection of diverse project managed collectively
374
what is a program
collection of project within a portfolio whose activities are coordinated
375
TF: Assumptions are what we use to estimate scope, schedule and
budget and to assess the risks of the project.
T
376
according to the chaos study how any IT projects were cancelled before completion and how many were completed but over budget, over schedule, and did not meet original specs?
31% and 53%
377
a project that is cancelled before completition is called a what?
impaired project
378
a project that is completed but over budget, over schedule, and includes fewer features than originally planned is called what
challenged
379
TF: Using project management principles as part of a methodology
for systems development places a greater emphasis on team
selection for project success.
F
380
```
The number one contributing factor to project success as
reported by the CHAOS study is:
a) innovative, cutting edge technology.
b) clear vision & objectives.
c) competent staff.
d) user involvement.
e) proper planning.
```
D
381
```
All of following are factors for impaired projects reported by the
CHAOS study except:
a) incomplete requirements.
b) lack of user involvement.
c) lack of resources.
d) changing requirement specifications.
e) lack of subject matter experts (SME).
```
E
382
what is a kick off meeting?
a meeting that happens after the project charter and project plan are approved
383
what is it that defines what is part of the project teams work and what is not
scope
384
what are the two areas of scope managment?
project oriented and product oriented
385
what are tools to communicate the project-oriented deliverables?
deliverable definition table (DDT) deliverable structure chart (DSC)
386
what are tools to communicate the product-oriented deliverables?
Context data flow diagram (DFD) use case diagram (UCD)
387
what is scope grope?
scope is poorly defined
388
what is scope leap?
huge sudden changes in scope
389
what is scope creep?
adding features without addressing the effects on time, costs and resources
390
TF: MBOK® defines scope as the product or services to be
provided by the project and includes all of the project
deliverables.
T
391
TF: ccording to the PMBOK area of scope management, one of
the processes is scope planning which means ensuring that
authority and resources are committed to developing a scope
management plan.
F
392
TF: Scope definition defines the project boundary
F
393
TF: The scope statement includes both what is and is not part of
the project work to be completed by the project team.
T
394
TF: Project scope is a statement detailing the features and
| functions that must support the IT solution
F
395
TF: Project scope is a statement detailing the deliverables and
activities that support the IT methodology.
T
396
TF: ctors are people or external systems that are elements of a
data flow diagram (DFD).
F
397
```
Which PMBOK® defined process within the knowledge area of
project scope management confirms the project's scope is
complete and accurate?:
a) Project scope initiation
b) Scope planning
c) Scope definition
d) Scope verification
e) Scope change control
```
D
398
Which PMBOK® defined process within the knowledge area of
project scope management gives the project manager the
authority to define the scope of the project?
a) Project scope initiation
b) Scope planning
c) Scope definition
d) Scope verification
e) Scope change control
A
399
```
ich PMBOK® defined process within the knowledge area of
project scope management is responsible for setting the scope
boundaries?
a) Project scope initiation
b) Scope planning
c) Scope definition
d) Scope verification
e) Scope change control
```
B
400
Which PMBOK® defined process within the knowledge area of
project scope management protects the scope boundary from
expanding as a result of increasing featurism?
a) Project scope initiation
b) Scope planning
c) Scope definition
d) Scope verification
e) Scope change control
E
401
Which PMBOK® defined process within the knowledge area of
project scope management identifies project deliverables?
a) Project scope initiation
b) Scope planning
c) Scope definition
d) Scope verification
e) Scope change control
C
402
a tanglible verifiable work product is a?
deliverable
403
a significatn event or acheivement is a ?
milestone
404
what is the consequence of too little detail in WBS?
important activities and tasks are omitted
405
what is the consequence of too much detail in WBS?
can result in micromanagement
406
what are the 6 criteira for proper level of detail in WBS?
measurable, bounded, deliverable, time/cost easily estimated, accpetable duration, work assignments are independent
407
TF: a WBS should be developed by the project manager
F
408
the smaller componennts that are defined dring WBS are called?
work packages
409
what are the common stages of the project life cycle?
define goal, plan, execute plan, close, evaluate
410
what deliverable is achieved after the define project goal stage?
a business case
411
a project charter clarifies the project goal in terms of what?
scope, schedule, budget, quality objectives
412
what is it called when you start the next phase of a project before approval is obtained for the current phase?
fast tracking
413
what are the stages of the software development life cycle
requirement elicitation, analysis, system design, object design, implementation, testing, delivery, maintenance
414
what are the five types of PMBOK process groups?
intiating, planning, executing, controlling, closing
415
what are 7 prince 2 processe groups
start, initiate, direct, control, manage delivery, manage boundaries, close project
416
what are the 7 prince 2 themes
business case, organization, risk, quality, planning, change, progress
417
what are the 4 phases of a learnign cycle
understand and frame the problem, plan ,act , reflect and learn
418
what are the 3 metrics for assessing team learning?
speed, depth, breadth
419
An Information Technology Project Methodology (ITPM).
a) is an alternative metric for deciding between competing
projects.
b) is a six-phase program described by PMBOK and is offered as
a generally accepted industry practice.
c) is specified by parameters of the business case.
d) is a set of deliverables derived from the various PLC phases.
e) is a strategic-level plan for managing and controlling IT
projects.
E
420
what is the process for developing the mov? (6 steps)
1. identify desired area of impact
2. identify desired value of IT project
3. develop an appropriate metric
4. set a time frame for achieving the MOV
5. verify and get agreement from project stakeholders
6. summarize the MOV in a clear concise statement or table
421
TF: The MOV should be adjusted at each phase of a project to align
with the realities of project execution.
F
422
All of the following are steps in developing the project MOV
except:
a) Identify the available organizational resources.
b) Identify the desired value of the IT project.
c) Develop an appropriate metric.
d) Set a time frame for achieving MOV.
e) Verify and get agreement from project stakeholders.
A
423
TF: PRINCE2 was originally developed for government projects in
the United States.
F
424
step 1 to developing the business case is to ?
select the core team
425
what is TCO
total cost of ownership
426
what are the 3 broad categories of costs that are included in TCO
direct, ongoing, indirect
427
Which of the following statements about the business case is
NOT true:
a) A business case provides an analysis of feasibility.
b) A business case provides senior management with sufficient
information to fund a project.
c) A business case provides details of possible impacts, costs
and benefits.
d) A business case provides a project budget.
e) A business case may be a large formal document.
D
428
Which of the following was NOT given as a reason for recruiting
a core team to develop the business case?
a) enhanced credibility
b) alignment with organizational goals
c) access to real costs
d) early identification of project team
e) shared sense of ownership
D
429
TF: Feasibility focuses on what can go wrong and what must go
right.
F
430
TF: Feasibility focuses on whether a particular alternative is doable
and worth doing
T
431
TF: Scoring models are useful because they allow for the inclusion
of qualitative factors.
F
432
the project charter is a contract between
project sponosr and preoject team
433
TF: The project charter and project plan make up the project’s
strategic plan
F
434
The project charter:
a) and the project plan should be developed together.
b) and the project plan are the same document.
c) and the project plan are developed in the scope
document.
d) is summarized in the project plan.
e) is developed by the project sponsor
A
435
The project's charter and project plan represents:
a) a review of the business case.
b) a strategic plan.
c) a tactical plan.
d) a budgeting technique.
e) none of the above
C
436
```
Things that must go right in order for the project plan to be
completed are called:
a) phases.
b) constraints.
c) assumptions.
d) metrics.
e) essentials
```
C
437
TF: The project scope must be defined before the project MOV can
be developed
F
